MADRAS SCHOOL OF ECONOMICS M.Sc.
DEGREE (DATA SCIENCE) ENTRANCE TEST –
MSEET-2024
Entrance Test Pattern
Number of parts Two Parts
Part-A (compulsory)
Part-B (Mathematics and Statistics stream) Compulsory
Total number of questions 100; Part-A: 60; Part-B: 40
Test duration 120 minutes (2 hours)
Coverage of topics and Number of Questions
Part-A Basic Mathematics & Statistics – 30 questions
Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning – 15 questions
Language & Reading Comprehension – 15 questions
Total – 60 questions
Part-B Advanced Mathematics – 20 questions
(Mathematics/Statistics Advanced Statistics – 20 questions
stream) Total – 40 questions
Note:
(i) The Part-B questions will be at UG level courses in Mathematics/Statistics (for
Mathematics/Statistics stream) program.
(ii) Indicative syllabus for both Part-A and Part – B questions is provided below.
(iii) All questions MCQ type with four options.
(iv) One mark for each correct answer.
(v) The examination will be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(vi) All tests will be in English
Sample questions are given below. Kindly note that these questions are for illustrative purposes only
and not exhaustive. In the actual examination, you will find questions of a higher level on some or all
of the types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
PART-A (Basic Mathematics & Statistics)
1. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was
Rs.480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs. 60. What should
be the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20%?
a.Rs. 126
b. Rs. 115.50
c. Rs. 105
d. None of the above
2. Students in a college have to choose at least two subjects from chemistry, mathematics and physics. The
number of students choosing all three subjects is 18, choosing mathematics as one of their subjects is 23
and choosing physics as one of their subjects is 25. The smallest possible number of students who could
choose chemistry as one of their subjects is
a. 22
b. 19
c. 20
d. 21
3. In May, John bought the same amount of rice and the same amount of wheat as he had bought in April,
but spent 150 more due to price increase of rice and wheat by 20% and 12%, respectively. If John had
spent 450 on rice in April, then how much did he spend on wheat in May?
a. 590
b. 580
c. 560
d. 570
4. The wheels of bicycles A and B have radii 30 cm and 40 cm, respectively. While traveling a certain
distance, each wheel of A required 5000 more revolutions than each wheel of B. If bicycle B traveled this
distance in 45 minutes, then its speed, in km per hour, was
a. 18π
b. 16π
c. 12π
d. 14π
5. If 10% of ‘a’ is b% of 200, a/b=?
a. 20
b. 1/20
c. 10
d. 1/10
6. Let 𝑎, 𝑏, and 𝑐 be distinct integers. 𝑎 and 𝑏 are both odd and 𝑐 is even. Which of the following
expression is always false?
a. (𝑎 + 𝑐)3 𝑎 is odd
b. (𝑎 + 𝑐)𝑎3 is odd
c. (𝑎 + 𝑐)𝑐 is even
d. (𝑎 + 𝑏)𝑎 is odd
7. The equation of the circle with centre at (0, 0) and radius 3 units is
a. x2 +y2 = 3
b. x2 +y2 = 9
c. x2 +y2 = 31/2
d. x2 +y2 =3(31/2)
8. For matrices A, B, and C which of the following is not generally true
a. A(B+C) = AB+AC
b. AB ≠ BA
c. A(BC) = (AB)C
d. A(A+B)+B(A+B) = AA+2AB+BB
9. The rank of the following matrix is:
5 3 0
(1 2 −4)
−2 −4 8
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
10. For what value of x, the following matrix is singular?
5−𝑥 x+1
[ ]
2 4
a. 0
b. 5
c. 3
d. 1
1 −3 −4
11. Let 𝐴 = [2 1 0 ]. Which of the following is true?
3 −2 5
a. det(A) = 3
b. det(A) = 63
c. det(A) = 7
d. det(A) is undefined
12. The rank of a matrix is
a. the maximum number of linearly independent rows or columns
b. the minimum number of linearly dependent rows or columns
c. the maximum number of linearly dependent rows or columns
d. the minimum number of linearly independent rows or columns
13. The value of x which satisfies logax = 3loga2 + loga20 – loga1.6 is
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. None of the above
14. The function 𝑓(𝑥) = 1/(𝑥 − 3)2 is
a. Continuous at x = 3
b. Continuous but not differentiable at x = 3
c. Not continuous but differentiable at x = 3
d. Not differentiable at x = 3
15. At 𝑥 = 4, the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 4 − 6𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 13 is
a. decreasing
b. increasing
c. stationary
d. none of the above
𝑥 2 −9
16. If 𝑓(𝑥) = is continuous at 𝑥 = −3, then 𝑓(−3) =
𝑥+3
a. -3
b. 3
c. -6
d. 0
17. The minimum of 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 2 – 𝑙𝑛 𝑥 – 2 for x > 0 occurs at:
a. 𝑥 = 1/2
b. 𝑥 = 2
c. 𝑥 = 𝑒
d. There is no minimum point
18. The total number of elements in the set X = {𝑥: 𝑥 3 > 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 < 0} is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
19. The function 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 3 + 3𝑥 2 − 12𝑥 + 4 has
a. local maximum at x = -2 and local minimum at x = 1
b. global maximum at x = -2 and global minimum at x = 1
c. local maximum at x = 1 and local minimum at x = -2
d. global maximum at x = 1 and global minimum at x = -2
20. Y = ax (and a > 0) is:
a. an exponential function
b. a straight line
c. a logarithmic function
d. a quadratic function
21. If the mean and median of a frequency distribution be 20 and 17, the mode of the distribution will be
equal to:
a. 11
b. 1
c. 10
d. None of the above
22. Two dice are thrown. The probability that at least one of the dice shows the number 5 is
a. 25/36
b. 5/6
c. 11/36
d. 7/36
23. If the record of amounts spent by you on various evenings gives a coefficient of variation of 50% and
a Standard Deviation of Rs.4, what was your average expenditure?
a. Rs. 8
b. Rs. 80
c. Rs. 1.8
d. None of the above
24. Normal distribution is a symmetric distribution. It has:
a. Positive skewness and it is Platykurtic.
b. Negative skewness and it is Mesokurtic.
c. Zero skewness and it is Leptokurtic.
d. Zero skewness and it is Mesokurtic.
25. Let A and B be two events such that P(A) = 1⁄5, while P(A or B) = 1⁄2. Let P(B) = ‘p’. For what values
of ‘p’ are A and B independent?
a. 1/10 and 3/10
b. 3/10 and 4/5
c. 3/8 only
d. 3/10 only
26. In how many different ways can a student club at a large university with 500 members choose its
president and vice president?
a. 500𝐶2
b. 500 X 500
c. 500 X 499
d. None of the above
27. Statistical inference is:
a. The process of drawing conclusions about a sample based on population data
b. The process of drawing conclusions about a statistic based on a parameter
c. The process of drawing conclusions about a population based on a parameter
d. The process of drawing conclusions about a population based on sample data
28. A distribution is positively skewed if:
a. Median>Mode
b. Mean>Median>Mode
c. Mode>Median
d. Mode>Median>Mean
29. The mean and standard deviation are 54 and 18 respectively. The coefficient of variation is :
a. 0.3333
b. 0.2222
c. 0.6666
d. 0.4444
30. The Poisson distribution is:
a. continuous
b. decreasing
c. straight line
d. discrete
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below (31-33)
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination out of 300 and interview
out of 100 in a selection examination
Written Examination INTERVIEW MARKS
Marks
Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above
260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4
210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2
31. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written
examination and interview?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as
options
32. If approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should
be the percentage of the qualifying marks?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36
(4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options
33. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
34. In the final examination, Bishnu scored 52% and Asha scored 64%. The marks obtained by Bishnu is
23 less, and that by Asha is 34 more than the marks obtained by Ramesh. The marks obtained by Geeta,
who scored 84%, is
A. 399
B. 439
C. 357
D. 417
35. Humans and robots can both perform a job but at different efficiencies. Fifteen humans and five robots
working together take thirty days to finish the job, whereas five humans and fifteen robots working
together take sixty days to finish it. How many days will fifteen humans working together (without any
robot) take to finish it?
A. 40
B. 32
C. 36
D. 45
36. If among 200 students, 105 like pizza and 134 like burger, then the number of students who like only
burger can possibly be
A. 26
B. 23
C. 96
D. 93
37. A trader sells 10 litres of a mixture of paints A and B, where the amount of B in the mixture does not
exceed that of A. The cost of paint A per litre is Rs. 8 more than that of paint B. If the trader sells the entire
mixture for Rs. 264 and makes a profit of 10%, then the highest possible cost of paint B, in Rs. per litre, is
A. 20
B. 16
C. 22
D. 26
38. A and B are two railway stations 90 km apart. A train leaves A at 9:00 am, heading towards B at a speed
of 40 km/hr. Another train leaves B at 10:30 am, heading towards A at a speed of 20 km/hr. The trains
meet each other at
A. 11:20 am
B. 11:00 am
C. 10:45 am
D. 11:45 am
39. Two alcohol solutions, A and B, are mixed in the proportion 1:3 by volume. The volume of the mixture
is then doubled by adding solution A such that the resulting mixture has 72% alcohol. If solution A has
60% alcohol, then the percentage of alcohol in solution B is
A. 94%
B. 92%
C. 90%
D. 89%
40. In a car race, car A beats car B by 45 km, car B beats car C by 50 km, and car A beats car C by 90 km.
The distance (in km) over which the race has been conducted is
A. 550
B. 475
C. 500
D. 450
41. The product of two positive numbers is 616. If the ratio of the difference of their cubes to the cube of
their difference is 157: 3, then the sum of the two numbers is
A. 50
B. 85
C. 95
D. 58
42. In an examination, Rama's score was one-twelfth of the sum of the scores of Mohan and Anjali. After a
review, the score of each of them increased by 6. The revised scores of Anjali, Mohan, and Rama were in
the ratio 11:10:3. Then Anjali's score exceeded Rama's score by
A. 26
B. 32
C. 24
D. 35
43. The salaries of Ramesh, Ganesh and Rajesh were in the ratio 6:5:7 in 2010, and in the ratio 3:4:3 in
2015. If Ramesh's salary increased by 25% during 2010-2015, then the percentage increase in Rajesh's
salary during this period is closest to
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
44. Raju and Lalitha originally had marbles in the ratio 4 : 9. Then Lalitha gave some of her marbles to
Raju. As a result, the ratio of the number of marbles with Raju to that with Lalitha became 5 : 6. What
fraction of her original number of marbles was given by Lalitha to Raju?
A. 1/4
B. 1/5
C. 6/19
D. 7/33
45. In an apartment complex, the number of people aged 51 years and above is 30 and there are at most
39 people whose ages are below 51 years. The average age of all the people in the apartment complex is
38 years. What is the largest possible average age, in years, of the people whose ages are below 51 years?
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28
Read the following passage carefully and answer the given question (46-47)
Badal and Rajmal lived side by side and had their shops in a busy market place. Although his
goods sold quickly Rajmal made just enough to sustain himself and his family as he often allowed
the needy to buy goods and pay for them later. One day Rajmal decided to go on a pilgrimage with
his family. However, he did not want to take the little money he had accumulated with him.
“There may be thieves along the way. I shall also need some money to get my business running
again when I return. I think I should leave my savings with Badal. He is a rich man so I can trust
him.” Rajmal went to Badal and requested him to keep his savings safely. Badal assured him
that he would guard the savings with his life till Rajmal’s return.
Six months later when Rajmal returned he went to Badal with some sweets and began to talk
about the trip. Badal said, “I have no time to listen to your story now, I am too busy.” “All right I
will come another day but give me the savings I entrusted to you.” “You gave me no money”,
Badal shouted “if you want me to pay for the sweets you bought, I will, but you did not leave
any money with me.” A small crowd gathered around. They knew Rajmal to be an honest person
and he was well liked. On the other hand, he had just returned from his trip and may be being
embarrassed to borrow money, he was trying to get money through this means. Unable to decide
whom to believe, both men were taken before the king. He listened to everyone, one by one and
then closed his eyes and pondered deeply. “Who else was with you when you handed over
your savings ?”, he asked Rajmal. “No one Sir”, Rajmal replied. “But you must produce a witness”
the king insisted. “There was no one there except a few parrots”, Rajmal said in despair. “Then
bring a parrot to me. One of my courtiers can understand their language. We shall learn the
truth.” Rajmal left to bring back a parrot. The crowd began to mutter. “How can anyone
understand the language of a parrot ?” But the king began to speak to Badal, “Rajmal is taking a
long time to return”, “Oh, he will take at least two hours each way although I am sure he has
run away”, was Badal’s reply. The king said nothing. Five hours later Rajmal arrived in tears
having been unable to capture a single parrot. The king however ordered his guards to imprison
Badal, “How could you have known how long it would take him to return if you did not know
the spot where Rajmal had entrusted the money to you? You will return your friend’s money at
once !” Rajmal bowed and praised the king for his wisdom.
46. Why was Rajmal not wealthy ?
(1) He could not sell many of his goods since they were of inferior quality.
(2) The price of his goods was too high for the poor to afford.
(3) He spent all his money buying his family expensive gifts.
(4) He allowed poor customers to pay him when they could afford to.
(5) He spent most of his money on going for pilgrimages.
47. Which of the following can be said about Badal ?
(1) He was a true friend to Rajmal.
(2) He was greedy but poor.
(3) He had a poor memory and forgot that Rajmal had left his savings with him.
(4) He did not like sweets.
(5) He was a shopkeeper.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
underlined to enable you locate them while answering some of the questions (48-51)
Power and possession have been central pursuits of modern civilization for a long time. They
blocked out or distorted other features of the Western Renaissance (revival) which promised
so much for humanity. What people have been and are still being taught to prize are money,
success, control over the lives of others, acquisition of more and more objects. Modern social,
political and economic systems, whether capitalists, fascist or communist, reject in their
working the basic principle that the free and creative unfoldment of every man, woman and
child is the true measure of the worth of any society. Such unfoldment requires understanding
and imagination, integrity and compassion, co-opertion among people, and harmony between
the human species and the rest of nature. Acquisitiveness and the pusuit of power have made the
modern man an aggressor against everything that is non-human, an exploiter and oppressor of
those who are poor, meek and unorganized, a pathological type which hates and distrusts the
world and suffer from both acute loneliness and false pride.
The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive and conscientious men and
women who not only perceive the dimensions of the crisis of our age but who also realise that
only through conscious and co- operative human effort may this crisis be met and probably even
overcome.
48. According to the passage, why has modern man turned out to be an enemy of
everyrthing that is non- human ?
(1) He has been dominated by drives of acquistiveness and power.
(2) He hates and distrusts other human beings
(3) He consciously practises spirit of cooperation
(4) Non-jumand have refused cooperation to human beings.
(5) None of these
49. Which of the following is one of the requirements to bring out the best in man ?
(1) Money (2) Success (3) Understanding (4) Power (5) Acquistiveness
50. The real attainment of any society can be adjudged by which of the following ?
(1) The degree of freedom for pursuing more and more power.
(2) The encouragement for acquisitive tendencies.
(3) Strict adherance to authoritarian structure
(4) Total vicitimisation of conscientious persons
(5) None of these
51. The modern value systems encourage the importance of which of the following ?
(1) Spiritual development of all individuals. (2) Recognition of freedom and
equality
(3) Craving for power and possession (4) Spirit of inquiry and
knowlege
(5) Basic respect for all individuals
52. She never visits any zoo because she is strong opponent of the idea of ----- (complete
the sentence)
A. setting the animals free into forest
B. feeding the animals while others are watching
C. going out of the house on a holiday
D. holding the animals in captivity for our joy
53. I felt somewhat more relaxed ---- (complete the sentence)
A. but tense as compared to earlier
B. and tense as compared to earlier
C. as there was already no tension at all
D. and tension-free as compared to earlier
54. Choose the correct word order
A. Why she did leave so early?
B. Why did she leave so early?
C. Why did so early she leave?
D. Why so early did she leave?
55. If you call to him and explain your problem, he will help. (Substitute the underlined
part)
A. call at him
B. call upon him
C. call in him
D. No improvement
56. Despite his best efforts to conceal his anger …… (complete the sentence)
A. he failed to give us an impression of his agony
B. he succeeded in camouflaging his emotions
C. he could succeed in doing it easily
D. people came to know that he was annoyed
57. You need to come unless you want to (Correct the sentence)
A. You don't need to come unless you want to
B. You come only when you want to
C. You come unless you don't want to
D. You needn't come until you don't want to
58. We were still standing in the queue when the film was beginning (Correct the
sentence)
A. film began
B. film had begun
C. beginning of the film was over
D. film begins
59. He very successfully ……….. all the allegations levelled against him (Complete the
sentence with correct choice)
A. extricated
B. retaliated
C. rebutted
D. Protected
60. Manpower is the ……….. means of converting other resources to mankind’s use and
benefit (Complete the sentence with correct choice)
A. insuperable
B. inimitable
C. indivisible
D. indispensable
Part-B (Mathematics & Statistics Stream)
1. At some point in the set 𝑆 = {(𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ) ∈ 𝑅+ : 𝑥1 > 2𝑥2 )} the slope of the function 𝑓 =
𝑚𝑖𝑛{𝑥1 , 2𝑥2 } is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 0
d.
2. Consider a function 𝑓: ℜ → ℜ, where ℜ denotes the set of real numbers. If for any
𝑥 and 𝑦, 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦 ⇒ 𝑓(𝑥) ≥ 𝑓(𝑦), then 𝑓 is
a. Continuous
b. Convex
c. Concave
d. Quasi-convex
3. Which of the functions 𝑓: ℜ → ℜ given below are quasi-convex?
a. 𝑓(𝑥) = cos 𝑥
b. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2
c. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑒 −𝑥
d. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 −1, 𝑥 ≠ 0 and 𝑓(𝑥) = 0 if 𝑥 = 0
4. For a 𝑛 × 𝑛 singular matrix, interchanging the positions of a pair of adjacent columns
a. Does not change the value of the determinant
b. Changes the sign of the determinant of the matrix
c. Increases the value of the determinant
d. Decreases the value of the determinant
5. Defined over all positive real values of 𝑥, the graph of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = (𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 −
1)/𝑥 has
a. The line defined by 2𝑥 + 2 and the vertical axis as its asymptotes
b. The line defined by 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 2 and the vertical axis as its asymptotes
c. The line defined by 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 1 and the vertical axis as its asymptotes
d. One asymptote: the line defined by 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 2
6. The system of equations given by
𝑥1 + 2𝑥2 + 𝑥3 = 0
𝑥1 − 𝑥2 − 2𝑥3 = 0
𝑥1 + 4𝑥2 = 0
has
a. No solution
b. infinitely many solutions
c. unique and non-trivial solution
d. trivial solution
7. Which of the following is an injective mapping?
a. 𝑓(𝑥) = tan 𝑥, where 𝑥 ∈ ℜ and 𝑥 ≥ 0
b. 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥|, where 𝑥 ∈ ℜ
c. 𝑓(𝑥) = 1/𝑥, where 𝑥 ∈ ℜ and 𝑥 ≥ 0
d. 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥|, where 𝑥 ∈ ℜ and 𝑥 ≥ 0
8. Consider the following expression
𝑥 + 𝑥 + ⋯ + 𝑥 ≡ 𝑥. 𝑥 = 𝑥 2
⏟ (1)
𝑥 times
Differentiating both sides of (1) w.r.t. 𝑥 we get in the LHS
1 + 1 + ⋯ + 1 = 1. 𝑥 = 𝑥
⏟ (2)
𝑥 times
and in the RHS we get,
𝑑(𝑥 2 )
= 2𝑥 (3)
𝑑𝑥
Thus,
𝑥 = 2𝑥
Which of the following is true?
a. The LHS in (1) can’t be differentiated w.r.t 𝑥
b. Expressions (2) ≠ (3) when x is known
c. Expressions (2) = (3) when 𝑥 is unknown
d. None of the above
9. For the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 18, which of the following is true?
a. the x-axis is tangent to 𝑓(𝑥) at x=2
b. 𝑓(𝑥) does not cross the x-axis
c. 𝑓(𝑥) is convex for 𝑥 ∈ [−3,2]
d. 𝑓(𝑥) is concave for 𝑥 ∈ (−∞, 113]
10. For the functions 𝑓: ℜ → ℜ and 𝑔: ℜ → ℜ, the value of 𝑥 for which the function 𝑓(𝑥) =
−3𝑥 2 + 18𝑥 attains a maximum is also the point at which the function 𝑔(𝑥) =
𝑥 2 (9 − 𝑥) + 50
a. Attains its minimum
b. Has an inflection point
c. Crosses the x-axis
d. Attains its maximum
11. Consider an 𝑛 × 𝑛 matrix 𝐴 with real entries. If matrix 𝐵 is derived by adding the first
column of 𝐴 to the last column of 𝐴, then
a. det 𝐴 < det 𝐵
b. det 𝐴 > det 𝐵
c. det 𝐴 = det 𝐵
d. the sign of det 𝐴 is the opposite of the sign of det 𝐵
𝑥
12. Given ℤ+ is the set of positive integers, if set X = {𝑥 ∈ ℤ+ : 𝑥 ≤ 20 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 ∈ ℤ+ } and
𝑥
Y={𝑥 ∈ ℤ+ : 10 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 24 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 ∈ ℤ+ }
Then 𝑋 ∩ 𝑌 is:
𝑥
a. {𝑥 ∈ ℤ+ : 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 24 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 ∈ ℤ+ }
𝑥
b. {𝑥 ∈ ℤ+ : 20 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 24 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 ∈ ℤ+ }
𝑥
c. {𝑥 ∈ ℤ+ : 10 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 20 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 ∈ ℤ+ }
𝑥
d. {𝑥 ∈ ℤ+ : 𝑥 ≤ 24 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 ∈ ℤ+ }
13. The value of the following integral
𝑛
∫ (∑ 𝑎𝑖 𝑥 𝑖 ) 𝑑𝑥
𝑖=0
is:
𝑥 𝑖+1
a. ∑𝑛𝑖=0 𝑎𝑖 [ 𝑖+1 ] + c
𝑥 𝑖+1
b. ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝑎𝑖 [ 𝑖+1 ] + c
𝑥𝑖
c. ∑𝑛𝑖=0 𝑎𝑖 [𝑖+1] + c
𝑥 𝑖+1
d. ∑𝑛𝑖=0(𝑎𝑖 + 1) [ 𝑖+1 ] + c
14. The value of the following integral is
3𝑥 2 + 2
∫ 𝑑𝑥
4𝑥 3 + 8𝑥
1
a. − (4𝑥 3 +8𝑥)2 + 𝑐
𝑥
b. (4𝑥 3 +8𝑥)3
+𝑐
1
c. − 4 𝑙𝑛|4𝑥 3 + 8𝑥| + 𝑐
1
d. ln|4𝑥 3 + 8𝑥| + 𝑐
4
15. A matrix Q with the property that QQ = QQ = I (where, Q is the transpose of Q) is
known as
a. a symmetric matrix
b. an idempotent matrix
c. an orthogonal matrix
d. a singular matrix
16. The population of a town increases at a rate proportional to its population. Its initial
population is 1000. The correct initial value problem for the population, 𝑃(𝑡), as a
function of time, t, is
𝑑𝑃
a. = 𝑘𝑃, 𝑃(0) = 1000
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑃
b. = 𝑘𝑃2 , 𝑃(0) = 100
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑃
c. = 𝑃, 𝑃(0) = 1000
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑃
d. = 𝑘𝑃(1 − 𝑃), 𝑃(0) = 100
𝑑𝑡
17. The value of 𝑙𝑖𝑚 (√𝑥 2 + 1 − √𝑥 2 − 1) is
𝑥→∞
a. -1
b. 1
c. 0
d. None of the above
18. Unboundedness is usually a sign that the linear programming problem
a. has finite multiple solutions
b. is degenerate
c. contains too many redundant constraints
d. has been formulated improperly
19. A student has Rs. K in debt at the end of his studies. He wants to pay off the debt by
making n yearly payments of Rs. a each, the first payment after one year. The rate of
interest is r. Then a is:
𝑟𝑘
a. 𝑎 = 1−(1+𝑟)−𝑛
1−(1+𝑟)−𝑛
b. 𝑎 = 𝑟𝑘
𝑟𝑘
c. 𝑎 = 1−(1+𝑟)𝑛
𝑟𝑘
d. 𝑎 = 𝑛
20. What is the order and degree of the following differential equation?
7 5
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑3𝑦
( 2 ) + ( 3 ) = 75𝑦
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
a. second-order, third-degree
b. seventh order, fifth-degree
c. third-order, fifth degree
d. third-order, seventh degree
21. Let f(x) = 𝑘𝑒 −3𝑥 , 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑥 > 0
= 0, otherwise
For the density function given above, find k.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 1/3
d. 1
22. Life expectancy (in days) of electronic component has density function p(x)= 1/x2 ,
for x ≥ 1, and p(x) = 0 for x < 1. Find the probability that, the component lasts
between 0 and 1 day.
a. 0
b. 0.1
c. 0.9
d. None of the above
23. The amount of saturated fat in a breakfast serving is normally distributed with mean
25 gm and standard deviation 4 gm. Find the probability that saturated fat intake on
any day is below 27 gm. [Given Φ(0.5) = 0.6915, Φ(1) = 0.8413]
a. 0.8413
b. 0.6915
c. 0.9332
d. 0.5398
24. Let X be a discrete random variable with the following probability mass function. Find
the Probability P(0.25 < X < 0.75)
PX ( x) 0.1 for x 0.2
0.2 for x 0.4
0.2 for x 0.5
0.3 for x 0.8
0.2 for x 1
0 Otherwise
a. 0.9
b. 0.4
c. 0.7
d. 0.2
25. Let X be a continuous random variable with probability density function as follows.
Find P[X < 1/2]
2
f X ( x) x 2 0 x 1
3
0 Otherwise
a. 3/8
b. 10/24
c. 6/8
d. ¾
26. When Ravi plays chess against his favourite computer program, he wins with
probability 0.60, loses with probability 0.10, and 30% of the games results a draw.
Assume independence. Find the probability that Ravi’s first win happens when he
plays his third game.
a. 0.096
b. 0.174
c. 0.053
d. 0.281
27. Independent random samples of 10 observations each are drawn from two normal
populations. The parameters of these populations are: μ1 = 280, σ1 = 25 and μ2 = 270
and σ2 = 30. The difference between the two sample means has a distribution which
is equal to:
a. N(10, 1525)
b. N(20, 1525)
c. N(10, 180)
d. N(10, 185)
28. What is the probability of getting at least one six in a single throw of three unbiased
dice?
a. 1/6
b. 125/216
c. 80/216
d. 91/216
29. You have decided you want a plant for your room. At the gardening store, there are 4
different kinds of plants (tulip, fern, cactus, and ficus) and 4 different kinds of pots to
hold the plants (clay pot, plastic pot, metal pot, and wood pot). If you randomly pick
the plant and the pot, what is the probability that you will end up with a tulip in a
plastic pot?
a. ¼
b. 1/16
c. ½
d. 1/8
30. If, S={x: 0≤x≤10}; A={x: 0≤x<5}; B={x: 3≤x≤7}, characterize the event: 𝐴𝑐 ∩ 𝐵 𝑐
a. 7≤x≤10
b. 8<x<10
c. 7<x≤10
d. 0≤x<7
31. A coin is tossed 4 times and the resulting sequence of H/T is recorded.
A: exactly 2 heads appear
B: heads and tails alternate
C: first two tosses are heads
Which events, if any, are mutually exclusive?
a. A and C
b. A and B
c. B and C
d. All 3 are mutually exclusive
32. The probability that any one person attending a parade on a very hot day will suffer
heat exhaustion is 0.005. To calculate the probability that 18 of 3,000 persons
attending the parade will suffer heat exhaustion, we can use:
a. Bernoulli Distribution
b. Binomial Distribution
c. Poisson Distribution
d. Uniform Distribution
33. In a process that manufactures aluminium cans, the probability that a can has a flaw
on its side is 0.02, the probability that a can has a flaw on its top is 0.03, the probability
that a can has a flaw on the sides and the top is 0.01. What is the probability that a
randomly chosen can has a flaw?
a. 0.04
b. 0.06
c. 0.05
d. None of the above
34. Suppose events A and B are such that P(A ∩ B)=0.1 and P(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵)𝐶 =0.3. If P(A)=0.2,
what does P[(A∩B)| (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵)𝐶 ] equal?
a. ½
b. 2/3
c. 0
d. None of the above
35. If X is the number of points rolled with a balanced die, the expected value of 𝑋 2 is
a. 91/6
b. 94/6
c. 91/3
d. Cannot be calculated
36. The CHI-SQUARE distribution is a special case of:
a. Normal distribution
b. Exponential Distribution
c. Gamma Distribution
d. Uniform Distribution
37. For which distribution the following statement is true: P[(Xt+T)|(XT]= P(Xt)
a. Poisson
b. Exponential
c. Gamma
d. Beta
38. The normal distribution has its points of inflection at:
a.
b.
c. 2
d. 2
39. Monthly sales of sugar in a shop (Y), measured in tonnes, have a pdf given by
f y a 8 y y 2 0 y 8
Which expression gives the probability that in a particular month the shop will sell
more than two tonnes of sugar?
a. P2 Y 8 F 2 F 8
b. PY 2 a 8 y y 2 dy
2
P2 Y 8 a 8 y y 2
8
c.
x 2
d. P2 Y 8 a 8 y y 2 dy
8
2
40. What is the probability density function of the random variable whose cdf is 𝐹(𝑥) =
1
−∞<𝑥 <∞
1+𝑒 −𝑥
1
a. (1+𝑒 −𝑥 )2
𝑒 −𝑥
b. (1+𝑒 −𝑥 )2
𝑒𝑥
c.
1+𝑒 𝑥
d. Does not exist