QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 1
Competency : Plan and conduct a passage and determine position (session 1)

1. What is the ZT if your longitude 121°45 E ?

a. +10 GMT
b. +8 GMT
c. +11 GMT
d. +12 GMT

2. Calculate the following latitude conversion 11250 N ?

a. 02°25 30 N
b. 03°30 00 N
c. 02°30 00 N
d. 03°07 30 N

3. The layer of gas that surrounds the planet, and is held in place by the gravity of the planetary body is

a. Atmosfhere
b. Ionosfhere
c. Stratosfhere
d. Troposfhere

4. Which is not a layer of the atmosphere?

a. Ionosfhere
b. Stratosfhere
c. Trophopause
d. Troposfhere

5. The following types of low clouds, except

a. Stratus
b. Stratocumulus
c. Nimbostratus
d. Altocumulus

6. A cloud with the characteristics of being thin, hairy, and composed entirely of ice crystals is

a. Cirrus Clouds
b. Straturs Cloud
c. Cumulus Cloud
d. Cumulonimbus Cloud

7. The temperature of the hottest month with the temperature of the coldest month in a year has a difference value
is called
 a. Annual temperature amplitude
b. Daily temperature amplitude
c. The temperature anomaly of a city
d. Average temperature of a parallel

8. Which of the following layers of the atmosphere is closest to the earth?

a. Mesosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Ionosphere

9. Clouds that are shaped like cauliflower and occur due to the convection process are

a. Cirrus Clouds
b. Straturs Cloud
c. Cumulus Cloud
d. Stratocumulus Cloud

10. Low cloud clusters have a height of less than…

a. 6 Km
b. 5 Km
c. 2 km
d. 8 Km

11. Electronic devices on board that can be used to pick up the bearing of an object are

a. GPS
b. NAVTEX
c. RADAR ARPA
d. AIS

12. We get the deviation value of the Magnetic Compass at

a. Deviation list (Map room)

b. Wrong point
c. Variation
d. Magnet Compass

13. In the following conversion what is the value of 2 Cables = ......

a. 185.2 m
b. 1852 m
c. 27.5 m
d. 370.4 m

14. Variation values ??can be seen on the map in section

a. Chart title
b. Number of Chart
c. Compass rose
d. Legends of Chart

15. The tool used to find GMT time on board is

 a. BAROMETER
b. CHRONOMETER
c. CLINOMETER
d. ANEMOMETER

16. The function of AIS on board is

a. Detect and provide information from other ships

b. Taking the bearing of an object
c. Measure the distance of a target more accurately
d. Determining the position of the ship

17. The button on the GPS that functions to cancel the currently displayed route is

a. Disply
b. Go to
c. Enter
d. Menu

18. The function of the Range Selector on RADAR is

a. Describes places detected by radar

b. shows the rotation of the antenna in the on position
c. appears a straight line display to the north that can be moved in any direction
d. Object bearings

19. The function of the Echo Sounder on board is

a. To detect the ship's position

b. Detects into the water from the keel to the seabed
c. To detect nearby objects
d. To Detect other ships

20. Why should Ground Stabilised True Motion display mode be avoided when using the Arpa for anti-collision
purposes

a. The collision regulations are based on ship courses through the water
b. True motion does not provide the collision risk of other ships
c. The Relative Motion display and relative vectors is the only display to use for anti-
collision purposes
d. The true vector can never give an indication of collision risk with another ship

21. In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?

a. Chart No. 1
b. Catalog of Charts
c. Guidance for Practical Navigator
d. Coast Guard Light List

22. The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting stations as

a. gains are made over the signal path

b. a result of variation in propagation conditions
c. the frequency of the pulses increases
d. the stations shift pulses

23. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship position?
 a. Doubling angle on the bow
b. One bearing and distance of one object
c. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees
d. A three point bearing

24. The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are on the central meridian of
your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at

a. 11-51-20 ZT
b. 12-00-00 ZT
c. 12-04-20 ZT
d. 12-08-40 ZT

25. The line that divides the northern and southern hemispheres is

a. Bow
b. Equator
c. Imaginary
d. Loxodrome

26. During the month of October the Sun's declination is

a. north and increasing

b. north and decreasing
c. south and increasing
d. south and decreasing

27. A navigator must rely on the position of the beacon to navigate when ?

a. Only when the weather is calm

b. Only during the day
c. Only when in the port
d. Only if the tool remains unavailable

28. The distance between two successive crests or troughs of a wave is the meaning of

a. Wave base
b. Wave period
c. Wave height
d. Wavelength

29. PSV. Surf Perdana covered the distance for 3 consecutive days was 320, 315 and 320 nautical miles. Find the
daily average running speed if each day is 24 hours long

a. 319.2 nautical miles

b. 319.3 nautical miles
c. 318.1 nautical miles
d. 318.3 nautical miles

30. PSV. Surf Perdana departs from Balikpapan to Batam with a total distance of 2500 nm. planned to arrive 10 days
later. What is the average hourly speed to arrive on time?

a. 10.41 nautical miles / Hours

b. 11.41 nautical miles / Hours
c. 12.21 nautical miles / Hours
d. 12.12 nautical miles / Hours
31. A relative bearing is always measured from

a. The vessels head

b. Magnetic north
c. The vessels beam
d. All answers are correct

32. The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed for, when steering a course in a
dangerous navigational area. What is the probable cause of the error?

a. An uncorrected course and speed error

b. Variation
c. Compass Deviation
d. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass

33. Calculate the following longitude conversion 117° 30.5 W = .....

a. 117o30 80 W
b. 117o30 30 W
c. 117o30 40 W
d. 117o30 80 W

34. What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any possible compass error?

a. Latitude and Speed

b. Deviation and Variation
c. Maximum helm angle and rolling period
d. All of the data in the suggested answers

35. A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's course and speed is a(n)

a. dead reckoning position

b. estimated position
c. fix
d. None of the above

36. The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the

a. index mirror
b. horizon glass
c. micrometer drum
d. telescope

37. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of the displayed position is
reduced?

a. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen

b. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen
c. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
d. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any indication of lack of
accuracy

38. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?

a. The temperature at which condensation in the air forms into water droplets
b. The temperature of the water vapour in a cloud
c. The "Dew Point" is the point at the centre of an Anticyclone
d. All of the suggested answers
39. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass. How should an error of
5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass bearings?

a. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings

b. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
c. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
d. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is required

40. Winds that blow around curved isobars without experiencing friction and the earth's surface is ?

a. Monsoons
b. trade wind
c. Fixed wind
d. Gradient wind

41. Which of the answers best summarises the information which should be provided for the bridge Officers of the
Watch within an effective Voyage plan

a. All of the suggested answers

b. Courses to steer; distance off dangers; parallel index lines; expected currents;
prevailing winds; distance between alteration points
c. Contingency arrangements in case of problems
d. Expected prevailing wind and weather

o o
42. The climatic conditions formed in the area between latitudes 23.5 N and 23.5 S are ?

a. Equatorial
b. Tropical
c. Polarized
d. Arctic

43. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high pressure) in the Northern Hemisphere?

a. Clockwise around the high pressure

b. Anticlockwise around the high pressure
c. Straight towards the centre of the anticyclone
d. Directly away from the centre of the anticyclone towards the nearest Low pressure

44. Winds that blow around curved isobars without experiencing friction and the earths surface is ?

a. Monsoons
b. trade wind
c. Fixed wind
d. Gradient wind

45. What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?

a. The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world
wide
b. The GPS system is based on hyperbola navigation
c. The GPS system has a built-in group of six radio-beacons called a Decca chain
d. The GPS system gives information about weather and waveconditions in the area
 QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 3
Competency : Contribute to the safety of personnel and ship

1. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances correspond to
present regulations?

a. Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the

regulations shall be provided
b. At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life-saving
equipment
c. Maintenance and repair of all life saving equipments shall be carried out by the
certified ship staff only
d. Maintenance and repair of all the life-saving equipments will be carried out ashore in
work shop only

2. Which Security Levels requires the highest security alert?

a. Security Level 3
b. Security Level 1
c. Security Level 2
d. Security Level 4

3. Which of these actions should crew take if a suspicious object that may be a bomb is located during a search?

a. Confirm with their search partner that the object found is suspicious
b. Throw the object overboard
c. Cover the suspicious object with a box or blanket
d. Place the object in a desk drawer or file cabinet

4. What are the proportional steps for embarkation stairs to use?

a. length = 480 mm, breadth = 115 mm, depth = 25 mm

b. length = 380 mm, breadth = 145 mm, depth = 20 mm
c. length = 280 mm, breadth = 85 mm, depth = 10 mm
d. length = 580 mm, breadth = 165 mm, depth = 30 mm

5. The Master will review the Safety Management System and report to the Company when ?

a. Prior to change of command

b. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews
c. Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board
d. Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year

6. A device that can detect drug packages in a large shipping ship shop is ?

a. Pallet scanner
b. Vapour detector
c. Security container
d. Access control system
 7. which indicates that a suspicious package ?

a. The parcel is addressed to no one in particular, arrives unexpectedly and seems

heavy for its size
b. The parcel smells like chocolate
c. The parcel came from Joe in the safety department and arrived quicker than expected
d. The parcel is wrapped in clean, brown paper and is addressed to a crewmember from
his wife

8. The best way to identify an IED is to?

a. Recognize its components

b. Measure the size of the object
c. Shake the object
d. Weight the object

9. crew, visitors and contractors have equal potential for ?

a. Only contractors and visitors have the opportunity to smuggle drugs

b. They all have opportunity to smuggle drugs
c. They’re all onboard the ship for the duration of its voyage
d. They’re all trained in ship emergency procedures

10. Emergency Steering Gear must be tested every ? and how is this information recorded in OLB?

a. Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
b. Monthly with signature of person carrying out test
c. Fortnightly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness
d. Monthly, with signature of Chief Engineer and witness

11. The criteria for determining Choices and the level of detail to aid introduction to new or newly commissioned crew
members are ?

a. The age of the seaman and the number of years worked sea
b. The rank of the newly assigned crewmember
c. The intelligence quotient of the newly assigned crewmember
d. The individual experience with the new assignment and job responsibilities

12. What detector testing and inspection requirements must be observed on all UMS operated ships as well as on
most other ships, engine room equipped with fire detectors?

a. All the mentioned alternatives

b. Check the detector with heat and/or smoke (in accordance with instructions in its
manual)
c. Check that the actual detector is giving appropriate signals to the central control unit
and that all electric connections are in good order
d. When testing detectors by suitable equipment (smoke and heat) check that the
sensors self controlling system, e.g. a flashing control light etc. is functioning

13. Weapons that are widely and publicly available in the community are?

a. Gun
b. Incendiary device
c. Liquid explosive
d. Vehicle borne device

14. The requirements listed regarding life-saving equipment in accordance with current regulations are ?
 a. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire
retardant material
b. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be fitted with the manufacturers name and
Logo
c. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be of such a colour that they are in contrast
to the surrounding colour
d. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall have marking in red colour

15. What are the safe actions when handling drugs?

a. Wear skin protection and a facemask

b. Briefly inhale powders, fumes or vapours to verify the substance is a drug
c. Shut off the ventilation in the room where the drugs are being stored to ensure any
vapours or fumes do not spread to other parts of the ship
d. Test out the potency of the drug

16. Which of the following principles is important to follow when searching for explosives?

a. Do not touch any suspicious packages

b. Try to reach behind bulkheads to find a bomb
c. Know exactly what a bomb looks like
d. Throw any suspicious items overboard

17. What equipment can be used to detect explosives?

a. Particulate detector
b. CCTV
c. Water cannon
d. Metal detector

18. The Ship Security Plan is an international rule that aims to ?

a. Protect your ship from risks posed by security threats or incidents

b. Outline specific measures for your ship to move from security level 1 to 2 and from 2
to 3
c. Outline the organizational structure for the ship
d. Detail the duties of shipboard personnel assigned security responsibilities

19. the general emergency alarm system should be tested every ?

a. Every week
b. Every 2 weeks
c. Every 3 weeks
d. Every month

20. objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established maintenance requirements inclusive

a. of a computerised planned maintenance system

b. of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines
c. of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines and
verification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel
d. of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and engine departments up to
date

21. What is an indication that someone may be a drug smuggler?

a. The individual is disinterested in the ship’s cargo

b. The individual spends his or her free time hanging out with others
c. The individual makes small local purchases
d. The individual wears bulky or out of season clothing
22. Precautions to be taken During testing and/or maintenance work on the CO2 system affecting the exhaust system
and precautions to ensure that gas is not released into the engine compartment due to faults must be ensured
are

a. The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work

b. Arrange a watchman in the CO2 central
c. No special precautions necessary
d. Check the main valve for a potential leakage

23. fallen lifeboat cables must be rewinded and updated regularly checked every ?

a. Turned every 30 months and needs only to be renewed if the wire is in poor condition
b. Turned every 2 years and renewed every 4 years
c. Turned at intervals of not more than 30 months and renewed every 5 years
d. Renewed every three years

24. Which of the following types of information is considered sensitive?

a. Voyage itinerary and departure and arrival times

b. Ship schematics and HR policies
c. Way points and training records
d. Planned maintenance schedule and emergency response procedures

25. Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct non-conformities
whenever possible. In this respect, what are “Non-Conformities"

a. Damage
b. Any one these
c. Deficiencies
d. Defects, malfunctioning

26. the stated requirements regarding the service and maintenance of life-saving equipment in accordance with
current regulations are ?

a. Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in accordance with the

regulations shall be provided
b. At least one member of the crew shall hold a repairman certificate for life-saving
equipment
c. Maintenance and repair of all life saving equipments shall be carried out by the
certified ship staff only
d. Maintenance and repair of all the life-saving equipments will be carried out ashore in
work shop only

27. The Company should have procedures established for corrective action. Corrective actions involves solutions
which

a. punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other action afterwards
b. investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s) involved
c. may reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity
d. guaranty that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity

28. The distance of the embarkation stairs used in accordance with the provisions is ?

a. Equally spaced and not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 200 mm
d. equally spaced, not less than 200 mm or more than 280 mm
29. which are the following restricted areas except ?

a. Messroom
b. The Bridge
c. The Engine control room
d. The Cargo control room

30. The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the

a. Ship Management Manual

b. Safety Management Manual
c. Ship Maintenance Manual
d. Shipboard Instruction Manual

31. Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public supervision of maritime
service?

a. Yes, if engaged by the owner

b. Yes, in any circumstances
c. Yes, if no collective wages agreement applies to the employment relationship
d. Not in any circumstances

32. How many Radar Transponders (SART) are required to be carried onboard a ship for use in survival crafts?

a. One on each side of the ship

b. 2, one of which being capable of floating free if the ship sinks
c. One in each lifeboat
d. Two on each side of the ship

33. What is the minimum number of channels required for the portable two-way VHF's for survival craft?

a. Channels 16 & 12
b. Channel 16 only
c. Channels 6, 13 & 16
d. Channels 6, 12 & 16

34. The mandatory color of a hand flare is

a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. White

35. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Radio signal emitting parachute flare

b. Line throwing appliance
c. Lifeboat hand flare
d. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals

36. For how long and at what speed is a fully loaded lifeboat designed to operate in calm weather ?

a. 6 knots for 24 hours

b. 4 knots for 48 hours
c. 10 knots for 24 hours
d. 3 knots for 24 hours
37. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each lifeboat?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 12
d. 6

38. How much food per person is supplied in a lifeboat?

a. None - only barley sugar sweets supplied

b. Not less than 5000 kJ
c. Not less than 20000 kJ
d. Not less than 10000 kJ

39. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Lower lifeboat to water

b. Lower liferaft to water
c. Lower rescue boat to water
d. Release gripes

40. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be
included according to present regulations?

a. Manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fires

b. Preparation of immersion suits for passengers
c. Special duties assigned with respect to the use of pyrotechnics
d. Operation of the vessel's propulsion system

41. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm signal be sounded?

a. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster
stations
b. 3 times
c. 3 minutes
d. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order "abandon ship" is given

42. How is the painter released from the lifeboat, once the boat is waterborne and ready to leave?

a. Remove the toggle which will release the painter

b. Cut it with the axe provided
c. Cut it with the knife contained in the equipment locker
d. The painter will automatically part by the weak link when the boat goes astern to
clear the ship

43. Which item among those below is included in the normal equipment of every lifeboat?

a. One set of fishing tackle

b. One immersion suit for each person
c. Sea-charts and navigating equipment
d. A VHF transceiver

44. On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering whenever practicable)
must take place
 a. every 4 months
b. every 2 months
c. every 3 months
d. every months

45. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Lifeboat
b. Rescue boat
c. Liferaft
d. Davit-launched liferaft
 QUESTION LIST

Level : ANT III

Function : Function 3
Competency : Operate life-saving appliances

1. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft equipped with a desalting apparatus?

a. 1 litre
b. 5 litre
c. 2 litre
d. 3 litre

2. What is immersion suit:

a. Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a height of not less than 4.5 m
into the water
b. Totally waterproof whatever may be the condition of immersion
c. Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a height of not less than 8,5 m
into the water
d. Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a height of not less than 18 m
into the water

3. Which is the best way to board a liferaft which is floating close to the ship, when conditions permit?

a. Jump into the raft itself

b. Wearing a lifejacket, jump into the water close to the raft and then swim to it
c. Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board
d. Jump into the water close to the raft, without a lifejacket, as this will make it easier to
swim and board the liferaft

4. One of the following requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to present SOLAS regulations are ?

a. not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignition
lights.
b. at least two lifebuoys on each side of the ship shall be fitted with a buoyant lifeline
c. all lifebuoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement
d. at least one lifebuoy shall be placed in the vicinity of the bow

5. A Immersion suit must not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally enveloped in a fire for a period
of:

a. 2 sec
b. 5 sec
c. 7 sec
d. 10 sec

6. Container for an inflatable liferafts shall be made from :

a. watertight, as far as possible,except for drain holes in the container bottom

b. non-watertight if fitted with drain holes in the container bottom
c. Completely watertight
d. non-watertight
 7. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 2
d. Nil

8. What part on the float free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to provide a connection between the ship
and the liferaft?

a. the weak link

b. the painter
c. the hydrostatic release unit
d. the lashing strap

9. The meaning of this symbol ?

a. Immersion suit
b. Lifejacket
c. Lifebuoy
d. Child`s lifejacket

10. Under a strain, the weak link of a float-free arrangement for liferafts must break are:

a. 0,7 kN ± 0,4 kN
b. 2,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
c. 4,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
d. 9,7 kN ± 0,4 kN

11. What the meaning of this symbol:

a. Lifebuoy with light

b. Lifebuoy with line
c. Life buoy with hand flare
d. Lifebuoy with light and smoke

12. Which of air and water is the fluid that transfers the greatest amount of heat during the same time, given that the
fluid is not flowing along the immersed body?

a. Water
b. Air
c. Both are transferring equally
d. Air if the temperature of the fluid is 10°C; water if temperature of the fluid is < 10°C

13. A water for person is provided in a liferaft not equipped with a desalting apparatus?

a. 5 litres
b. 2.5 litres
c. 1,5 litres
d. 15 litres

14. In which way shall a survivor be hauled out of the sea?

a. Sleep
b. None of the mentioned
c. Vertical
d. In 45 degree angle
15. The listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts corresponds to present regulations? Every liferaft shall be so
constructed that:

a. be prevented from pressure exceeding twice the working pressure, either by relief
valves or by limited gas supply
b. it's canopy has viewing ports in all directions
c. have at least two entrances
d. in the event of capsizing it will automatically attain a position providing an above
water escape

16. An immersion suit is constructed such that it can be unpacked and donned within:

a. 2 min
b. 1 min
c. 3 min
d. 5 min

17. The davit-launched liferaft on board a ship is so arranged to be boarded by its full complement of persons in less
than:

a. 3 min
b. 2 min
c. 1 min
d. 4 min

18. According SOLAS B PACK , how much food per person is supplied on a liferaft?

a. Not less than 20000 kJ

b. Not less than 5000 kJ
c. Not less than 10000 kJ
d. None - only barley sugar sweets supplied

19. Lifejacket has sufficient buoyancy and stability to lift the mouth of an unconscious person at a minimum of:

a. 120 mm above the water (in calm water)

b. 40 mm above the water (in calm water)
c. 160 mm above the water (in calm water)
d. 180 mm above the water (in calm water)

20. Main buoyancy chamber of an inflatable liferaft must be divided into:

a. 2 compartments separated by a non-return valve

b. 3 compartments
c. 2 compartments
d. 3 compartments separated by a non-return valve

21. in order to assist a survivor, What shall a rescue person use if he has to jump into the water ?

a. Survival suit
b. Lifejacket
c. Lifeline
d. Survival suit and lifeline

22. Which item among those below is included in the normal equipment of every Liferaft :

a. 2 sponges
b. 3 sponges
c. 4 sponges
d. 5 sponges
23. In most cases, which of the following actions should you generally take, when you have abandoned ship in a
liferaft.,?

a. Organise a lookout system. Join up with other survival craft if possible. Stream the sea
anchor
b. Organise a lookout system
c. Start paddling in the direction of the nearest land
d. Join up with any other survival craft and stream the sea anchor

24. What is the minimum length of the buoyant lifeline that is fitted to a lifebuoy which is stowed at a distance of 10
metres above the waterline (light condition)?

a. 10 metres
b. 20 metres
c. 25 metres
d. 30 metres

25. What is the greatest interest of the "help" position ?

a. It lessens the survivor's heat escape

b. It lessens the survivor's fatigue
c. It lessens the survivor's stress
d. It prevents the survivor's blood from collecting in the lower part of his body

26. Which equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather?

a. The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to help insulation,
inaddition to the thermal protective aids (10% of complement, minimum 2)
b. The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to give additional
insulation from the cold water
c. At least 10% of the rafts complement with a minimum of 2 thermal protective aids are
provided
d. Thermal protective aids for each person

27. The wearer of a lifejacket can jump into the water without injury and without damaging the jacket from a height of
at least:

a. 1,50 m
b. 2,50 m
c. 3,50 m
d. 4,50 m

28. How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft?

a. Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should be pulled. This sets the hook
which will automatically release once the raft is waterborne
b. Unscrew the shackle pin
c. Wait until the raft is waterborne, then pull the lanyard
d. Cut the weak link on the wire with the axe provided

29. Where is the best stowing position for A 6-men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable
and practicable.:

a. Aft of the forecastle

b. Aft of the Bridge
c. Aft of the vessel
d. Aft of the tunnel

30. The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 15 persons is at least:
 a. 7.5 kN
b. 5 kN
c. 2.5 kN
d. 10 kN

31. Which are the Survival Craft (Common used equipment) according to SOLAS?

a. Life Boats, Life Rafts, Rescue Boats;

b. Life Rafts, Life buoys, Life Boats;
c. Life Boats, Life Rafts, Working boats;
d. Life Boats, Life Rafts, Life Jackets.

32. The Liferafts shall survive without damage if thrown in the water from a height of:

a. Up to 4.5 meters;
b. Above 18 meters;
c. Above 35 meters;
d. Up to 18 meters.

33. The launching appliances of the Life Boat must be capable of operating at List and Trim of:

a. List 30° and trim 15°;

b. Not operating above List 5° and trim 5°;
c. List 20° and trim 10°;
d. List 50° and trim 30°.

34. The Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) must release the Liferaft:

a. At 18 metres under water

b. Immediately after contact with water
c. From 4 m to 8 m depth
d. From 1.5 to 3.5 meters. under the water level

35. What is the amount of the pyrotechnical equipment in the Life Boat?

a. 2 ps. Hand flares, 5 ps. Parachute rockets, 4 ps. Buoyant smoke signals;
b. 4 ps. Hand flares, 2 ps. Parachute rockets, 6 ps. Buoyant smoke signals
c. 8 ps. Hand flares, 4 ps. Parachute rockets, 2 ps. Buoyant smoke signals
d. 6 ps. Hand flares, 4 ps. Parachute rockets, 2 ps. Buoyant smoke signals

36. Every line-throwing appliance shall? be capable of throwing a line:

a. At a distance of at least 230 m in havy weather;

b. At a distance of at least 230 m in calm weather;
c. At a distance of at least 130 m;
d. At a distance of at least 300 m;

37. What shall the capacity of passenger ship lifeboats be?

a. The boats of each board should take 110% of all persons on board the ship.
b. The boats of each board should take 100% of all persons on boards the ship.
c. The boats of each board should take 50% of all persons on boards the ship.
d. The boats of each board should take 125% of all persons on board the ship.

38. Life-jacket, when properly dressed, enables safe jumping into the water
 a. from a height of up to 4, 5m.
b. from a height of up to 4 m.
c. from a height of 2 m.
d. from 0 m, it is not safe to jumping with a lifejacket.

39. As per SOLAS III/13 after sounding the emergency signal a lifeboat prepared by 2 men should be ready to launch
in

a. no more than 3 minutes.

b. no more than 5 minutes.
c. no more than 8 minutes.
d. no more than 10 minutes.

40. The Muster list should determine

a. the General emergency signal and the actions of the crew and passengers.
b. How to abandon ship.
c. the distribution of passengers and crew in lifeboats.
d. How to disclose the order to abandon ship.

41. What amount of water will you hand out to each person as Commander of a life boat with which you left the ship?

a. no water during the first 48h, then by 1/4 liter per day (more in the tropics).
b. 1/2 liter immediately, then the 1/4 of the day (in the tropics).
c. During the first 24 hours no water, then 1/2 liter per day (more in the tropics).
d. no water during the first 24h, then by 1/4 liter per day (more in the tropics).

42. Which is the best way to board a life raft when the conditions allow ?

a. To put on a lifejacket and jump into the water near the raft then swim toward it.
b. To use storm ladder in order to descend to the raft and then board it.
c. To jump on a rescue raft.
d. To jump into the water without a lifejacket to swim more easily to the raft and rode on
it.

43. The ship is equipped with davit-launched life rafts. At what intervals should drills on their usage be carried out
including inflating and lowering of the life rafts when practicable?

a. Every month.
b. every 4 months.
c. Every 3 months.
d. Each year.

44. Which of the following PPE (personal protective equipment) are mandatory during bunkering operation

a. Jumpsuit, helmet mask against dust.

b. Shoes with protective toe-cap, helmet, safety glasses.
c. Overalls, gloves, shoes with protective toe-cap.
d. Gloves, life jacket, jumpsuit.

45. Chapter III of SOLAS requires ships longer than 100 meters to have an additional life raft on the forecastle. Should
this life raft be equipped with a hydrostatic release unit?

a. Yes, as the other life rafts.

b. No, this life raft is for intentional throwing overboard only.
c. It does not matter.
d. Yes or no depending on the length of the ship.