ISC2 CC Questions
Uploaded by
卐Waffennoob ϟϟISC2 CC Questions
Uploaded by
卐Waffennoob ϟϟ**Q1:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud security group (CSG) in a public cloud environment?
Option 1: To provide physical security for cloud data centers
Option 2: To manage access control for cloud resources
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource allocation
Option 4: To enforce regulatory compliance in the cloud
Correct Answer: To manage access control for cloud resources
---
**Q2:** What is the main advantage of using a symmetric encryption algorithm over an asymmetric
encryption algorithm?
Option 1: Symmetric encryption algorithms are faster and more efficient
Option 2: Asymmetric encryption algorithms provide better security
Option 3: Symmetric encryption algorithms require fewer resources
Option 4: Asymmetric encryption algorithms are easier to implement
Correct Answer: Symmetric encryption algorithms are faster and more efficient
---
**Q3:** What is the primary purpose of using digital signatures in cryptographic protocols?
Option 1: To encrypt data for secure transmission
Option 2: To verify the integrity and authenticity of data
Option 3: To generate random cryptographic keys
Option 4: To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information
Correct Answer: To verify the integrity and authenticity of data
---
**Q4:** What security feature is commonly used with HTTPS?
Option 1: IPsec
Option 2: SSH
Option 3: SSL/TLS
Option 4: VPN
Correct Answer: SSL/TLS
---
**Q5:** Which of the following is a characteristic of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
Option 1: Fully managed applications
Option 2: Pay-as-you-go pricing model
Option 3: Predetermined software configurations
Option 4: Limited scalability options
Correct Answer: Limited scalability options
---
**Q6:** What is the primary purpose of implementing a disaster recovery plan in a cloud environment?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster
---
**Q7:** Which device is used to connect WAN to LAN?
Option 1: Firewalls
Option 2: Router
Option 3: Hub
Option 4: Switch
Correct Answer: Router
---
**Q8:** Which cloud service model provides developers with a platform to build, deploy, and manage
applications without managing underlying infrastructure?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
---
**Q9:** An attacker intercepts traffic between a user and a server in order to eavesdrop on sensitive
information being transmitted. This is an example of what type of attack?
Option 1: On-path Attack
Option 2: Spoofing
Option 3: Phishing
Option 4: Side-channel
Correct Answer: On-path Attack
---
**Q10:** Which network security measure is used to authenticate and authorize users and devices
connecting to a network?
Option 1: Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Option 2: Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Option 3: Network Access Control (NAC)
Option 4: Packet Filtering
Correct Answer: Network Access Control (NAC)
---
**Q11:** Which port is used by the FTP protocol?
Option 1: 21
Option 2: 22
Option 3: 23
Option 4: 80
Correct Answer: 21
---
**Q12:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from
external networks?
Option 1: Username and password
Option 2: Biometric authentication
Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization)
Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
Correct Answer: Username and password
---
**Q13:** Which port is commonly used for SSH?
Option 1: 22
Option 2: 23
Option 3: 80
Option 4: 443
Correct Answer: 22
---
**Q14:** What is the primary purpose of data encryption in transit in cloud environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
---
**Q15:** A user receives an email that appears to be from their bank, requesting their login credentials.
This is an example of what type of attack?
Option 1: Spoofing
Option 2: Phishing
Option 3: DOS/DDOS
Option 4: Virus
Correct Answer: Phishing
---
**Q16:** Which port is used by the SSH protocol for secure file transfers?
Option 1: SFTP
Option 2: SCP
Option 3: FTPS
Option 4: TFTP
Correct Answer: SFTP
---
**Q17:** What is the purpose of conducting regular tests and exercises of a Business Continuity Plan
(BCP)?
Option 1: To minimize resource utilization during normal operations
Option 2: To validate the effectiveness of the plan and identify areas for improvement
Option 3: To increase profitability of the organization
Option 4: To prevent all types of disasters from occurring
Correct Answer: To validate the effectiveness of the plan and identify areas for improvement
---
**Q18:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q19:** What is the purpose of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?
Option 1: To prevent all types of disasters from occurring
Option 2: To ensure the organization can continue critical business operations during and after a disaster
Option 3: To optimize resource utilization during normal operations
Option 4: To increase profitability
Correct Answer: To ensure the organization can continue critical business operations during and after a
disaster
---
**Q20:** Which type of attack involves flooding a network or server with traffic, rendering it unavailable to
legitimate users?
Option 1: DOS/DDOS
Option 2: Spoofing
Option 3: Phishing
Option 4: Virus
Correct Answer: DOS/DDOS
---
**Q21:** Which cloud deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization?
Option 1: Public cloud
Option 2: Private cloud
Option 3: Hybrid cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Private cloud
---
**Q22:** What is the primary goal of cloud access security brokers (CASBs)?
Option 1: To provide identity and access management services
Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource allocation
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q23:** What is the primary purpose of data encryption in transit in cloud environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
---
**Q24:** Which encryption protocol is commonly used to secure data transmitted over wireless
networks?
Option 1: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
Option 2: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
Option 3: TLS (Transport Layer Security)
Option 4: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Correct Answer: WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
---
**Q25:** How does IPSec protect against replay attacks?
Option 1: By encrypting all network traffic
Option 2: By using digital signatures
Option 3: By using sequence numbers
Option 4: By limiting access to the network
Correct Answer: By using sequence numbers
---
**Q26:** Which cloud deployment model provides a combination of private and public cloud resources?
Option 1: Public cloud
Option 2: Private cloud
Option 3: Hybrid cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Hybrid cloud
---
**Q27:** Which port is used by the Telnet protocol?
Option 1: 23
Option 2: 21
Option 3: 22
Option 4: 80
Correct Answer: 23
---
**Q28:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from
external networks?
Option 1: Username and password
Option 2: Biometric authentication
Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization)
Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
Correct Answer: OAuth (Open Authorization)
---
**Q29:** What is the primary purpose of using role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance
Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
---
**Q30:** What is the primary purpose of network segmentation in cloud environments?
Option 1: To increase network bandwidth
Option 2: To reduce latency for cloud applications
Option 3: To isolate sensitive workloads and data from potential threats
Option 4: To automate network provisioning processes
Correct Answer: To isolate sensitive workloads and data from potential threats
---
**Q31:** Which of the following is an example of a registered port?
Option 1: Microsoft SQL Server
Option 2: RADIUS authentication
Option 3: HTTP
Option 4: SMB
Correct Answer: Microsoft SQL Server
---
**Q32:** What is the purpose of implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) in a network?
Option 1: To optimize network performance
Option 2: To securely connect remote users and devices to a private network over the internet
Option 3: To prevent physical access to network devices
Option 4: To monitor network traffic for compliance purposes
Correct Answer: To securely connect remote users and devices to a private network over the internet
---
**Q33:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS)
---
**Q34:** An organization is experiencing issues with their VPN connection, causing frequent disconnects.
Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Physical Layer
Correct Answer: Transport Layer
---
**Q35:** Which cryptographic algorithm is vulnerable to collision attacks and should not be used for
generating digital signatures?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 3: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Option 4: SHA-256 (Secure Hash Algorithm 256-bit)
Correct Answer: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
---
**Q36:** What is the primary purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation service in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To monitor and analyze network traffic patterns
Option 3: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services
---
**Q37:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS)
---
**Q38:** Which of the following would be considered an endpoint?
Option 1: Software task
Option 2: Router
Option 3: Firewall
Option 4: Laptop
Correct Answer: Laptop
---
**Q39:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit between cloud services
and users’ devices?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
---
**Q40:** What is an IPv4 address?
Option 1: A 128-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network.
Option 2: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network.
Option 3: An address used for internal network use only.
Option 4: An address used for documentation purposes only.
Correct Answer: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network.
---
**Q41:** A user receives an email that appears to be from their bank, requesting their login credentials.
This is an example of what type of attack?
Option 1: Spoofing
Option 2: Phishing
Option 3: DOS/DDOS
Option 4: Virus
Correct Answer: Phishing
---
**Q42:** Which cryptographic attack targets the process of intercepting and altering communication
between two parties?
Option 1: Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack
Option 2: Brute-force attack
Option 3: Dictionary attack
Option 4: Rainbow table attack
Correct Answer: Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack
---
**Q43:** Which type of malware encrypts a user’s files and demands payment in exchange for the
decryption key? a. Ransomware
Option 1: Ransomware
Option 2: Worm
Option 3: Trojan
Option 4: Virus
Correct Answer: Ransomware
---
**Q44:** What security control is used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users’
devices?
Option 1: Data encryption at rest
Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS)
Option 3: Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Correct Answer: Transport Layer Security (TLS)
---
**Q45:** Which component of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) identifies critical business functions and
the resources required to support them?
Option 1: Plan development and testing
Option 2: Risk assessment
Option 3: Business impact analysis (BIA)
Option 4: Plan implementation
Correct Answer: Business impact analysis (BIA)
---
**Q46:** What is the primary purpose of data encryption in transit in cloud environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
---
**Q47:** What is the primary objective of a disaster recovery plan in cloud computing?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster
---
**Q48:** What is the primary purpose of using a digital certificate in public key infrastructure (PKI)?
Option 1: To encrypt data for secure transmission
Option 2: To authenticate the identity of users and devices
Option 3: To generate random cryptographic keys
Option 4: To prevent buffer overflow attacks
Correct Answer: To authenticate the identity of users and devices
---
**Q49:** A hacker gains access to a company’s network and begins to intercept network traffic in order to
steal login credentials. Which OSI layer is being attacked?
Option 1: Physical layer
Option 2: Data link layer
Option 3: Network layer
Option 4: Application layer
Correct Answer: Data link layer
---
**Q50:** Which security control is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of cloud service providers?
Option 1: Service level agreements (SLAs)
Option 2: Cloud security certifications
Option 3: Encryption protocols
Option 4: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Correct Answer: Cloud security certifications
---
**Q51:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit in cloud environments?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Option 3: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
---
**Q52:** Which of the following is a characteristic of a public cloud deployment model?
Option 1: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization
Option 2: Limited scalability options
Option 3: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations
Option 4: Full control over hardware and software configurations
Correct Answer: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations
---
**Q53:** At which layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack does a firewall operate?
Option 1: Layer 1
Option 2: Layer 2
Option 3: Layer 3
Option 4: Layer 4
Correct Answer: Layer 4
---
**Q54:** What is the primary purpose of using a salt when hashing passwords?
Option 1: To add flavor to the password
Option 2: To increase the entropy of the hashed passwords
Option 3: To make the passwords easier to crack
Option 4: To decrease the security of the hashing algorithm
Correct Answer: To increase the entropy of the hashed passwords
---
**Q55:** Which security control is used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in cloud
databases?
Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS)
Option 3: Distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation
Option 4: Security information and event management (SIEM)
Correct Answer: Role-based access control (RBAC)
---
**Q56:** What protocol is associated with port 53?
Option 1: DNS
Option 2: SMTP
Option 3: HTTP
Option 4: HTTPS
Correct Answer: DNS
---
**Q57:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a ping flood attack?
Option 1: Layer 3
Option 2: Layer 4
Option 3: Layer 5
Option 4: Layer 6
Correct Answer: Layer 3
---
**Q58:** What is the potential impact of an IPSec replay attack?
Option 1: Unauthorized access to network resources
Option 2: Disruption of network communication
Option 3: Modification of network traffic
Option 4: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above
---
**Q59:** Which security control is used to protect data in transit between cloud services and users’
devices?
Option 1: Data encryption at rest
Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS)
Option 3: Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Correct Answer: Transport Layer Security (TLS)
---
**Q60:** What is the primary goal of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 3: To automate software deployment processes
Option 4: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Correct Answer: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
---
**Q61:** Which cloud deployment model provides cloud resources exclusively for a specific
organization?
Option 1: Hybrid cloud
Option 2: Public cloud
Option 3: Private cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Private cloud
---
**Q62:** What is the primary purpose of implementing network segmentation?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to network resources
Option 2: To increase the speed of data transmission across the network
Option 3: To divide a network into smaller subnetworks for improved security and performance
Option 4: To monitor network traffic for compliance purposes
Correct Answer: To divide a network into smaller subnetworks for improved security and performance
---
**Q63:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data at rest in cloud storage?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
---
**Q64:** A user clicks on an attachment in an email that they believe is from a friend, which then installs
malicious software on their computer. This is an example of what type of malware?
Option 1: Worm
Option 2: Virus
Option 3: Trojan
Option 4: Ransomware
Correct Answer: Trojan
---
**Q65:** A company has been experiencing network connectivity issues that have been traced to a
problem with the cabling. Which OSI layer is affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Physical Layer
Correct Answer: Physical Layer
---
**Q66:** What is the primary goal of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions in cloud environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization
---
**Q67:** A hacker uses a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack to flood a company’s network with
traffic, rendering it unable to function properly. Which OSI layer is being attacked?
Option 1: Physical layer
Option 2: Data link layer
Option 3: Network layer
Option 4: Transport layer
Correct Answer: Network layer
---
**Q68:** What is the well-known port for SMTP?
Option 1: 25
Option 2: 80
Option 3: 443
Option 4: 22
Correct Answer: 25
---
**Q69:** What are registered ports used for?
Option 1: Proprietary applications from vendors and developers
Option 2: Common protocols at the core of TCP/IP model
Option 3: Used for Web servers
Option 4: Used for inhouse or opensource applications
Correct Answer: Proprietary applications from vendors and developers
---
**Q70:** Which cloud service model provides developers with a platform to build, deploy, and manage
applications without managing underlying infrastructure?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
---
**Q71:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a port scanning attack?
Option 1: Layer 1
Option 2: Layer 2
Option 3: Layer 3
Option 4: Layer 4
Correct Answer: Layer 4
---
**Q72:** A user reports that they are unable to access a specific website. Which OSI layer is most likely
affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: Application Layer
---
**Q73:** What is the primary objective of implementing a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution?
Option 1: To manage cloud service provider relationships
Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 3: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 4: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q74:** Which cloud deployment model provides cloud resources exclusively for a specific
organization?
Option 1: Public cloud
Option 2: Private cloud
Option 3: Hybrid cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Private cloud
---
**Q75:** What is the purpose of a cloud security posture management (CSPM) tool?
Option 1: To monitor and enforce compliance with security policies in cloud environments
Option 2: To optimize cloud resource allocation
Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To monitor and enforce compliance with security policies in cloud environments
---
**Q76:** What security control is used to protect data at rest in cloud storage?
Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Option 2: Data encryption
Option 3: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 4: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Correct Answer: Data encryption
---
**Q77:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q78:** What is the primary goal of a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?
Option 1: To prevent all types of disasters from occurring
Option 2: To ensure the continuity of critical business operations
Option 3: To optimize resource utilization during normal operations
Option 4: To increase profitability
Correct Answer: To ensure the continuity of critical business operations
---
**Q79:** Which cloud deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization?
Option 1: Public cloud
Option 2: Private cloud
Option 3: Hybrid cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Private cloud
---
**Q80:** What protocol is associated with port 80?
Option 1: HTTP
Option 2: FTP
Option 3: SSH
Option 4: Telnet
Correct Answer: HTTP
---
**Q81:** What is the purpose of a virtual private cloud (VPC)?
Option 1: To provide dedicated physical servers to customers
Option 2: To isolate network traffic within a public cloud environment
Option 3: To optimize virtual machine performance
Option 4: To enforce strict access controls on cloud resources
Correct Answer: To isolate network traffic within a public cloud environment
---
**Q82:** What is the primary purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation service in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To monitor and analyze network traffic patterns
Option 3: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services
---
**Q83:** Which security control is used to detect and respond to security incidents in cloud
environments?
Option 1: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 2: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 3: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Option 4: Data encryption at rest
Correct Answer: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
---
**Q84:** What is the primary goal of implementing a disaster recovery plan in a cloud environment?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To ensure continuous availability of critical services during a disaster
---
**Q85:** A user reports that they are unable to access a specific website. Which OSI layer is most likely
affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: Application Layer
---
**Q86:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack?
Option 1: Layer 2
Option 2: Layer 3
Option 3: Layer 4
Option 4: Layer 7
Correct Answer: Layer 3
---
**Q87:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q88:** Which cloud service model provides access to virtualized computing resources over the
internet?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 3: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
---
**Q89:** What is the primary goal of implementing role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance
Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
---
**Q90:** What is the primary purpose of using encryption at rest in cloud storage?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access
Correct Answer: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access
---
**Q91:** Which phase of the Business Continuity Planning (BCP) process involves identifying potential
risks and threats to an organization’s operations?
Option 1: Risk assessment
Option 2: Business impact analysis
Option 3: Plan development and testing
Option 4: Plan implementation
Correct Answer: Risk assessment
---
**Q92:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from
external networks?
Option 1: Username and password
Option 2: Biometric authentication
Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization)
Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
Correct Answer: OAuth (Open Authorization)
---
**Q93:** What is the primary purpose of using network segmentation in a cloud environment?
Option 1: To optimize network bandwidth
Option 2: To increase network latency
Option 3: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes
Option 4: To automate network provisioning processes
Correct Answer: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes
---
**Q94:** Which cloud service model provides developers with a platform to build, deploy, and manage
applications without managing underlying infrastructure?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
---
**Q95:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud security group (CSG) in a public cloud environment?
Option 1: To provide physical security for cloud data centers
Option 2: To manage access control for cloud resources
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource allocation
Option 4: To enforce regulatory compliance in the cloud
Correct Answer: To manage access control for cloud resources
---
**Q96:** Which type of malware encrypts a user’s files and demands payment in exchange for the
decryption key?
Option 1: Ransomware
Option 2: Worm
Option 3: Trojan
Option 4: Virus
Correct Answer: Ransomware
---
**Q97:** What is the main advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 3: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q98:** What is the primary purpose of using a nonce in cryptographic protocols?
Option 1: To add randomness to the encryption process
Option 2: To increase the security of the cryptographic keys
Option 3: To prevent replay attacks
Option 4: To authenticate the parties involved in the communication
Correct Answer: To prevent replay attacks
---
**Q99:** A hacker uses a DNS spoofing attack to redirect a user to a fake website that looks like a
legitimate one. Once the user enters their login credentials, the hacker steals the information. Which OSI
layer is being attacked?
Option 1: Physical layer
Option 2: Data link layer
Option 3: Network layer
Option 4: Application layer
Correct Answer: Application layer
---
**Q100:** An attacker intercepts traffic between a user and a server in order to eavesdrop on sensitive
information being transmitted. This is an example of what type of attack?
Option 1: On-path Attack
Option 2: Spoofing
Option 3: Phishing
Option 4: Side-channel
Correct Answer: On-path Attack
---
**Q101:** Which security control is used to monitor and analyze user activities and access patterns in
cloud environments?
Option 1: Security information and event management (SIEM)
Option 2: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 3: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Correct Answer: Security information and event management (SIEM)
---
**Q102:** What is the primary purpose of using role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance
Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
---
**Q103:** What is the range of dynamic or private ports?
Option 1: 49152-65535
Option 2: 0-1023
Option 3: 1024-49151
Option 4: none of the above
Correct Answer: 49152-65535
---
**Q104:** Which security control is designed to detect and prevent buffer overflow attacks?
Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 2: Firewalls
Option 3: Antivirus software
Option 4: Input validation mechanisms
Correct Answer: Input validation mechanisms
---
**Q105:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a MAC flooding attack?
Option 1: Layer 2
Option 2: Layer 3
Option 3: Layer 4
Option 4: Layer 7
Correct Answer: Layer 2
---
**Q106:** What is the primary purpose of implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 2: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 3: To automate software deployment processes
Option 4: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Correct Answer: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
---
**Q107:** What is the main purpose of an Incident Response Plan (IRP)?
Option 1: To improve employee productivity
Option 2: To prevent all security incidents from occurring
Option 3: To allocate resources for routine maintenance tasks
Option 4: To provide guidelines and procedures for responding to and mitigating security incidents
Correct Answer: To provide guidelines and procedures for responding to and mitigating security incidents
---
**Q108:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud security group (CSG) in a public cloud environment?
Option 1: To provide physical security for cloud data centers
Option 2: To manage access control for cloud resources
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource allocation
Option 4: To enforce regulatory compliance in the cloud
Correct Answer: To manage access control for cloud resources
---
**Q109:** What is the primary goal of implementing role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 2: To enforce regulatory compliance
Option 3: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
---
**Q110:** Which type of attack involves flooding a network or server with traffic, rendering it unavailable
to legitimate users?
Option 1: DOS/DDOS
Option 2: Spoofing
Option 3: Phishing
Option 4: Virus
Correct Answer: DOS/DDOS
---
**Q111:** What is the purpose of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation service in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To monitor and analyze network traffic patterns
Option 3: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services
Option 4: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Correct Answer: To detect and block malicious traffic targeting cloud services
---
**Q112:** A user clicks on an attachment in an email that they believe is from a friend, which then installs
malicious software on their computer. This is an example of what type of malware?
Option 1: Worm
Option 2: Virus
Option 3: Trojan
Option 4: Ransomware
Correct Answer: Trojan
---
**Q113:** Which cloud deployment model provides a combination of private and public cloud resources?
Option 1: Public cloud
Option 2: Private cloud
Option 3: Hybrid cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Hybrid cloud
---
**Q114:** Which of the following is a characteristic of a public cloud deployment model?
Option 1: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization
Option 2: Limited scalability options
Option 3: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations
Option 4: Full control over hardware and software configurations
Correct Answer: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations
---
**Q115:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through
stolen or compromised credentials?
Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 3: Data encryption at rest
Option 4: Network segmentation
Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
---
**Q116:** A hacker uses a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack to flood a company’s network with
traffic, rendering it unable to function properly. Which OSI layer is being attacked?
Option 1: Physical layer
Option 2: Data link layer
Option 3: Network layer
Option 4: Transport layer
Correct Answer: Network layer
---
**Q117:** What is the primary objective of implementing a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution?
Option 1: To manage cloud service provider relationships
Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 3: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 4: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q118:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a SYN flood attack?
Option 1: Layer 4
Option 2: Layer 5
Option 3: Layer 6
Option 4: Layer 7
Correct Answer: Layer 4
---
**Q119:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through
stolen or compromised credentials?
Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 3: Data encryption at rest
Option 4: Network segmentation
Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
---
**Q120:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit between cloud services
and users’ devices?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
---
**Q121:** An organization is experiencing issues with their VPN connection, causing frequent
disconnects. Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Physical Layer
Correct Answer: Transport Layer
---
**Q122:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet?
Option 1: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 2: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS)
---
**Q123:** Which authentication mechanism is commonly used to access cloud resources securely from
external networks?
Option 1: Username and password
Option 2: Biometric authentication
Option 3: OAuth (Open Authorization)
Option 4: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)
Correct Answer: OAuth (Open Authorization)
---
**Q124:** A company has been experiencing network connectivity issues that have been traced to a
problem with the cabling. Which OSI layer is affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Physical Layer
Correct Answer: Physical Layer
---
**Q125:** What is an IPv4 address?
Option 1: A 128-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network.
Option 2: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network.
Option 3: An address used for internal network use only.
Option 4: An address used for documentation purposes only.
Correct Answer: A 32-bit address used to uniquely identify devices on a network.
---
**Q126:** Which security control is used to detect and respond to security incidents in cloud
environments?
Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 3: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Option 4: Data encryption at rest
Correct Answer: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
---
**Q127:** Which security control is used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in cloud
databases?
Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS)
Option 3: Distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation
Option 4: Security information and event management (SIEM)
Correct Answer: Role-based access control (RBAC)
---
**Q128:** What is the primary purpose of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution?
Option 1: To manage cloud service provider relationships
Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 3: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
Option 4: To encrypt data stored in cloud databases
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data traffic between on-premises and cloud environments
---
**Q129:** Which cloud deployment model provides dedicated infrastructure for a single organization?
Option 1: Public cloud
Option 2: Private cloud
Option 3: Hybrid cloud
Option 4: Community cloud
Correct Answer: Private cloud
---
**Q130:** What is the range of well-known ports?
Option 1: 0-1023
Option 2: 1024-49151
Option 3: 1024-49151
Option 4: none of the above
Correct Answer: 0-1023
---
**Q131:** What is the primary purpose of implementing a firewall in a network?
Option 1: To optimize network performance
Option 2: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
Option 3: To encrypt data transmitted over the network
Option 4: To prevent physical access to network devices
Correct Answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic
---
**Q132:** Which of the following is a characteristic of a private cloud deployment model?
Option 1: Shared infrastructure for multiple organizations
Option 2: Limited scalability options
Option 3: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization
Option 4: Full control over hardware and software configurations
Correct Answer: Dedicated infrastructure for a single organization
---
**Q133:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data at rest in cloud storage?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
---
**Q134:** What is an IP address?
Option 1: A physical address used to connect multiple devices in a network
Option 2: An address that represents the network interface within the network
Option 3: An address that denotes the vendor or manufacturer of the physical network interface
Option 4: A logical address associated with a unique network interface within the network
Correct Answer: A logical address associated with a unique network interface within the network
---
**Q135:** What is the difference between a hub and a switch?
Option 1: A hub is smarter than a switch.
Option 2: A switch is less likely to be seen in home networks.
Option 3: A switch can create separate broadcast domains when used to create VLANs.
Option 4: A switch retransmits traffic to all devices, while a switch routes traffic to a specific device.
Correct Answer: A switch retransmits traffic to all devices, while a switch routes traffic to a specific
device.
---
**Q136:** Which device is used to control traffic flow on networks?
Option 1: switch
Option 2: Firewalls
Option 3: hub
Option 4: router
Correct Answer: switch
---
**Q137:** Which protocol is used for secure email?
Option 1: SMTPS
Option 2: IMAPS
Option 3: POP3S
Option 4: All of the above
Correct Answer: All of the above
---
**Q138:** Which phase of the Incident Response Plan (IRP) process involves containing the impact of a
security incident and mitigating further damage?
Option 1: Preparation and planning
Option 2: Detection and analysis
Option 3: Response and mitigation
Option 4: Recovery and post-incident activities
Correct Answer: Response and mitigation
---
**Q139:** What layer of the OSI model is the target of a buffer overflow attack?
Option 1: Layer 5
Option 2: Layer 6
Option 3: Layer 7
Option 4: Layer 8
Correct Answer: Layer 7
---
**Q140:** What does the "shared responsibility model" in cloud computing refer to?
Option 1: Responsibility for data encryption
Option 2: Division of security responsibilities between the cloud provider and the customer
Option 3: Ownership of physical infrastructure
Option 4: Compliance with industry regulations
Correct Answer: Division of security responsibilities between the cloud provider and the customer
---
**Q141:** What is the primary purpose of using network segmentation in a cloud environment?
Option 1: To optimize network bandwidth
Option 2: To increase network latency
Option 3: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes
Option 4: To automate network provisioning processes
Correct Answer: To isolate workloads and data for security purposes
---
**Q142:** How does subnetting help to improve network performance?
Option 1: By reducing network congestion
Option 2: By increasing network bandwidth
Option 3: By improving network security
Option 4: By simplifying network management
Correct Answer: By reducing network congestion
---
**Q143:** Which cloud service model provides ready-to-use software applications over the internet?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS)
---
**Q144:** Which port is commonly used for HTTPS?
Option 1: 80
Option 2: 443
Option 3: 446
Option 4: 22
Correct Answer: 443
---
**Q145:** Which security control is used to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data in cloud
databases?
Option 1: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Option 2: Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS)
Option 3: Distributed denial of service (DDoS) mitigation
Option 4: Security information and event management (SIEM)
Correct Answer: Role-based access control (RBAC)
---
**Q146:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through
stolen or compromised credentials?
Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 3: Data encryption at rest
Option 4: Network segmentation
Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
---
**Q147:** What is the primary purpose of implementing network encryption in a cloud environment?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To protect data from unauthorized disclosure during transmission over networks
---
**Q148:** What is the primary purpose of using role-based access control (RBAC) in a cloud
environment?
Option 1: To monitor user activities and access patterns
Option 2: To prevent distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
Option 3: To enforce regulatory compliance
Option 4: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: To restrict access to cloud resources based on users’ roles and responsibilities
---
**Q149:** A hacker uses a man-in-the-middle attack to intercept network traffic between two nodes and
injects malicious code into the data stream. Which TCP layer is being attacked?
Option 1: Physical layer
Option 2: Transport layer
Option 3: Network layer
Option 4: Application layer
Correct Answer: Transport layer
---
**Q150:** Which of the following is an example of a security control used to protect data at rest in cloud
storage? )
Option 1: Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Option 2: Data encryption
Option 3: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 4: Multi-factor authentication (MFA
Correct Answer: Data encryption
---
**Q151:** What is an IPSec replay attack?
Option 1: An attack where an attacker attempts to inject packets into an existing session
Option 2: An attack where an attacker modifies packets in transit
Option 3: An attack where an attacker eavesdrops on network traffic
Option 4: An attack where an attacker overloads a network with traffic
Correct Answer: An attack where an attacker attempts to inject packets into an existing session
---
**Q152:** What is the primary goal of implementing intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) in
a network?
Option 1: To monitor network traffic for compliance purposes
Option 2: To optimize network performance
Option 3: To detect and respond to malicious activities and security threats
Option 4: To prevent physical access to network devices
Correct Answer: To detect and respond to malicious activities and security threats
---
**Q153:** A company has noticed that their network performance has been slow lately. After
investigating, they discover that their router is not configured properly, leading to network congestion.
Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: Network Layer
---
**Q154:** Which cloud service model provides access to virtualized computing resources over the
internet?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
---
**Q155:** What is the primary goal of implementing data loss prevention (DLP) solutions in cloud
environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization
---
**Q156:** What is the main advantage of using a rainbow table attack compared to a brute-force attack?
Option 1: Rainbow table attacks are faster and more efficient
Option 2: Brute-force attacks are less computationally intensive
Option 3: Rainbow table attacks are less likely to succeed
Option 4: Brute-force attacks require less memory resources
Correct Answer: Rainbow table attacks are faster and more efficient
---
**Q157:** A company has noticed that their network performance has been slow lately. After
investigating, they discover that their router is not configured properly, leading to network congestion.
Which OSI layer is most likely affected by this issue?
Option 1: Application Layer
Option 2: Transport Layer
Option 3: Network Layer
Option 4: Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: Network Layer
---
**Q158:** A hacker sends a specially crafted email with a malicious attachment to an employee of a
company. Once the employee downloads and opens the attachment, malware is installed on the
computer. Which TCP layer is being attacked?
Option 1: Application layer
Option 2: Transport layer
Option 3: Network layer
Option 4: Physical layer
Correct Answer: Application layer
---
**Q159:** What is the primary purpose of using encryption at rest in cloud storage?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 3: To automate software deployment processes
Option 4: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access
Correct Answer: To protect data stored in cloud storage from unauthorized access
---
**Q160:** Which security control is used to monitor and analyze user activities and access patterns in
cloud environments?
Option 1: Security information and event management (SIEM)
Option 2: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 3: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 4: Role-based access control (RBAC)
Correct Answer: Security information and event management (SIEM)
---
**Q161:** What is the primary goal of data loss prevention (DLP) solutions in cloud environments?
Option 1: To prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources
Option 2: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization
Option 3: To optimize cloud resource utilization
Option 4: To automate software deployment processes
Correct Answer: To monitor and control data movement within and outside the organization
---
**Q162:** What security measure can help prevent unauthorized access to cloud resources through
stolen or compromised credentials?
Option 1: Intrusion detection systems (IDS)
Option 2: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
Option 3: Data encryption at rest
Option 4: Network segmentation
Correct Answer: Multi-factor authentication (MFA)
---
**Q163:** Which cloud service model provides the highest level of abstraction and requires the least
management effort by customers?
Option 1: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
Option 2: Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Option 3: Software as a Service (SaaS)
Option 4: Function as a Service (FaaS)
Correct Answer: Software as a Service (SaaS)
---
**Q164:** What is the main advantage of using a one-time pad (OTP) encryption scheme?
Option 1: OTP encryption provides perfect secrecy
Option 2: OTP encryption is computationally efficient
Option 3: OTP encryption requires smaller key sizes
Option 4: OTP encryption is resistant to brute-force attacks
Correct Answer: OTP encryption provides perfect secrecy
---
**Q165:** What is a key benefit of using containerization in cloud environments?
Option 1: Improved hardware utilization
Option 2: Enhanced network security
Option 3: Simplified application deployment
Option 4: Reduced data transfer costs
Correct Answer: Simplified application deployment
---
**Q166:** Which encryption algorithm is commonly used to protect data in transit between cloud services
and users’ devices?
Option 1: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
Option 2: RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman)
Option 3: DES (Data Encryption Standard)
Option 4: MD5 (Message Digest Algorithm 5)
Correct Answer: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)
---
**Q167:** What is the main problem with assigning static privileges to administrative users on a
database?
Option 1: Security is dependent upon the login process
Option 2: Administrative users may forget their privileges
Option 3: Static privileges are more expensive to implement
Option 4: Static privileges may not provide enough access
Correct Answer: Security is dependent upon the login process
---
# [(ISC)2 Flashcards for CC (Certified in Cybersecurity)](https://learn.isc2.org/d2l/home/9541)
## [Chapter 1 - Security Principles](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-1)
1. Security commensurate with the risk and the magnitude of harm resulting from the loss, misuse or
unauthorized access to or modification of information.
> Adequate Security
2. Controls implemented through policy and procedures. Examples include access control processes and
requiring multiple personnel to conduct a specific operation. Administrative controls in modern
environments are often enforced in conjunction with physical and/or technical controls, such as an
access-granting policy for new users that requires login and approval by the hiring manager.
> Administrative Controls
3. The ability of computers and robots to simulate human intelligence and behavior.
> Artificial Intelligence
4. Anything of value that is owned by an organization. Assets include both tangible items such as
information systems and physical property and intangible assets such as intellectual property.
> Asset
5. Access control process validating that the identity being claimed by a user or entity is known to the
system, by comparing one (single factor or SFA) or more (multi-factor authentication or MFA) factors of
identification.
> Authentication
6. The right or a permission that is granted to a system entity to access a system resource.
> Authorization
7. Ensuring timely and reliable access to and use of information by authorized users.
> Availability
8. A documented, lowest level of security configuration allowed by a standard or organization.
> Baseline
9. Biological characteristics of an individual, such as a fingerprint, hand geometry, voice, or iris patterns.
> Biometric
10. Malicious code that acts like a remotely controlled "robot" for an attacker, with other Trojan and worm
capabilities.
> Bot
11. Information that has been determined to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and is
marked to indicate its classified status and classification level when in documentary form.
> Classified or Sensitive Information
12. The characteristic of data or information when it is not made available or disclosed to unauthorized
persons or processes.
> Confidentiality
13. A measure of the degree to which an organization depends on the information or information system
for the success of a mission or of a business function.
> Criticality
14. The property that data has not been altered in an unauthorized manner. Data integrity covers data in
storage, during processing and while in transit.
> Data integrity
15. The process and act of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext. Sometimes it is also
referred to as enciphering. The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably in literature and have
similar meanings.
> Encryption
16. In 2016, the European Union passed comprehensive legislation that addresses personal privacy,
deeming it an individual human right.
> General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
17. The process of how an organization is managed; usually includes all aspects of how decisions are
made for that organization, such as policies, roles, and procedures the organization uses to make those
decisions.
> Governance
18. This U.S. federal law is the most important healthcare information regulation in the United States. It
directs the adoption of national standards for electronic healthcare transactions while protecting the
privacy of individual’s health information. Other provisions address fraud reduction, protections for
individuals with health insurance and a wide range of other healthcare-related activities.
> Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
19. The magnitude of harm that could be caused by a threat’s exercise of a vulnerability.
> Impact
20. The potential adverse impacts to an organization’s operations (including its mission, functions and
image and reputation), assets, individuals, other organizations, and even the nation, which results from
the possibility of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction of
information and/or information systems.
> Information Security Risk
21. The property of information whereby it is recorded, used and maintained in a way that ensures its
completeness, accuracy, internal consistency and usefulness for a stated purpose.
> Integrity
22. The ISO develops voluntary international standards in collaboration with its partners in international
standardization, the International Electro-technical Commission (IEC) and the International
Telecommunication Union (ITU), particularly in the field of information and communication technologies.
> International Organization of Standards (ISO)
23. The internet standards organization, made up of network designers, operators, vendors and
researchers, that defines protocol standards (e.g., IP, TCP, DNS) through a process of collaboration and
consensus.
> Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
24. The probability that a potential vulnerability may be exercised within the construct of the associated
threat environment.
> Likelihood
25. A weighted factor based on a subjective analysis of the probability that a given threat is capable of
exploiting a given vulnerability or set of vulnerabilities.
> Likelihood of Occurrence
26. Using two or more distinct instances of the three factors of authentication (something you know,
something you have, something you are) for identity verification.
> Multi-Factor Authentication
27. The NIST is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce and addresses the measurement infrastructure
within science and technology efforts within the U.S. federal government. NIST sets standards in a
number of areas, including information security within the Computer Security Resource Center of the
Computer Security Divisions.
> National Institutes of Standards and Technology (NIST)
28. The inability to deny taking an action such as creating information, approving information and sending
or receiving a message.
> Non-repudiation
29. The National Institute of Standards and Technology, known as NIST, in its Special Publication
800-122 defines PII as "any information about an individual maintained by an agency, including (1) any
information that can be used to distinguish or trace an individual’s identity, such as name, Social Security
number, date and place of birth, mother’s maiden name, or biometric records; and (2) any other
information that is linked or linkable to an individual, such as medical, educational, financial and
employment information."
> Personally Identifiable Information (PII)
30. Controls implemented through a tangible mechanism. Examples include walls, fences, guards, locks,
etc. In modern organizations, many physical control systems are linked to technical/logical systems, such
as badge readers connected to door locks.
> Physical Controls
31. The right of an individual to control the distribution of information about themselves.
> Privacy
32. The chances, or likelihood, that a given threat is capable of exploiting a given vulnerability or a set of
vulnerabilities.
> Probability
33. Information regarding health status, the provision of healthcare or payment for healthcare as defined
in HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act).
> Protected Health Information (PHI)
34. A method for risk analysis that is based on the assignment of a descriptor such as low, medium or
high.
> Qualitative Risk Analysis
35. A method for risk analysis where numerical values are assigned to both impact and likelihood based
on statistical probabilities and monetarized valuation of loss or gain.
> Quantitative Risk Analysis
36. A possible event which can have a negative impact upon the organization.
> Risk
37. Determining that the potential benefits of a business function outweigh the possible risk
impact/likelihood and performing that business function with no other action.
> Risk Acceptance
38. The process of identifying and analyzing risks to organizational operations (including mission,
functions, image, or reputation), organizational assets, individuals and other organizations. The analysis
performed as part of risk management which incorporates threat and vulnerability analyses and considers
mitigations provided by security controls planned or in place.
> Risk Assessment
39. Determining that the impact and/or likelihood of a specific risk is too great to be offset by the potential
benefits and not performing a certain business function because of that determination.
> Risk Avoidance
40. The process of identifying, evaluating and controlling threats, including all the phases of risk context
(or frame), risk assessment, risk treatment and risk monitoring.
> Risk Management
41. A structured approach used to oversee and manage risk for an enterprise.
> Risk Management Framework
42. Putting security controls in place to reduce the possible impact and/or likelihood of a specific risk.
> Risk Mitigation
43. The level of risk an entity is willing to assume in order to achieve a potential desired result. Source:
NIST SP 800-32. Risk threshold, risk appetite and acceptable risk are also terms used synonymously with
risk tolerance.
> Risk Tolerance
44. Paying an external party to accept the financial impact of a given risk.
> Risk Transference
45. The determination of the best way to address an identified risk.
> Risk Treatment
46. The management, operational and technical controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures)
prescribed for an information system to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the system
and its information.
> Security Controls
47. A measure of the importance assigned to information by its owner, for the purpose of denoting its
need for protection.
> Sensitivity
48. Use of just one of the three available factors (something you know, something you have, something
you are) to carry out the authentication process being requested.
> Single-Factor Authentication
49. The condition an entity is in at a point in time.
> State
50. The quality that a system has when it performs its intended function in an unimpaired manner, free
from unauthorized manipulation of the system, whether intentional or accidental.
> System Integrity
51. Security controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) for an information system that are primarily
implemented and executed by the information system through mechanisms contained in the hardware,
software or firmware components of the system.
> Technical Controls
52. Any circumstance or event with the potential to adversely impact organizational operations (including
mission, functions, image or reputation), organizational assets, individuals, other organizations or the
nation through an information system via unauthorized access, destruction, disclosure, modification of
information and/or denial of service.
> Threat
53. An individual or a group that attempts to exploit vulnerabilities to cause or force a threat to occur.
> Threat Actor
54. The means by which a threat actor carries out their objectives.
> Threat Vector
55. A physical object a user possesses and controls that is used to authenticate the user’s identity.
> Token
56. Weakness in an information system, system security procedures, internal controls or implementation
that could be exploited by a threat source.
> Vulnerability
57. IEEE is a professional organization that sets standards for telecommunications, computer engineering
and similar disciplines.
> Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
## [Chapter 2 - Incident Response, Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
Concepts](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-2)
1. Events with a negative consequence, such as system crashes, network packet floods, unauthorized
use of system privileges, defacement of a web page or execution of malicious code that destroys data.
> Adverse Events
2. The loss of control, compromise, unauthorized disclosure, unauthorized acquisition or any similar
occurrence where: a person other than an authorized user accesses or potentially accesses personally
identifiable information; or an authorized user accesses personally identifiable information for other than
an authorized purpose.
> Breach
3. Actions, processes and tools for ensuring an organization can continue critical operations during a
contingency.
> Business Continuity (BC)
4. The documentation of a predetermined set of instructions or procedures that describe how an
organization’s mission/business processes will be sustained during and after a significant disruption.
> Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
5. An analysis of an information system’s requirements, functions, and interdependencies used to
characterize system contingency requirements and priorities in the event of a significant disruption.
> Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
6. In information systems terms, the activities necessary to restore IT and communications services to an
organization during and after an outage, disruption or disturbance of any kind or scale.
> Disaster Recovery (DR)
7. The processes, policies and procedures related to preparing for recovery or continuation of an
organization’s critical business functions, technology infrastructure, systems and applications after the
organization experiences a disaster. A disaster is when an organization’s critical business function(s)
cannot be performed at an acceptable level within a predetermined period following a disruption.
> Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)
8. Any observable occurrence in a network or system.
> Event
9. A particular attack. It is named this way because these attacks exploit system vulnerabilities.
> Exploit
10. An event that actually or potentially jeopardizes the confidentiality, integrity or availability of an
information system or the information the system processes, stores or transmits.
> Incident
11. The mitigation of violations of security policies and recommended practices.
> Incident Handling
12. The mitigation of violations of security policies and recommended practices.
> Incident Response (IR)
13. The documentation of a predetermined set of instructions or procedures to detect, respond to and limit
consequences of a malicious cyberattack against an organization’s information systems(s).
> Incident Response Plan (IRP)
14. A security event, or combination of security events, that constitutes a security incident in which an
intruder gains, or attempts to gain, access to a system or system resource without authorization.
> Intrusion
15. A centralized organizational function fulfilled by an information security team that monitors, detects
and analyzes events on the network or system to prevent and resolve issues before they result in
business disruptions.
> Security Operations Center
16. Weakness in an information system, system security procedures, internal controls or implementation
that could be exploited or triggered by a threat source.
> Vulnerability
17. A previously unknown system vulnerability with the potential of exploitation without risk of detection or
prevention because it does not, in general, fit recognized patterns, signatures or methods.
> Zero Day
## [Chapter 3 - Access Control
Concepts](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-3)
1. Independent review and examination of records and activities to assess the adequacy of system
controls, to ensure compliance with established policies and operational procedures.
> Audit
2. An architectural approach to the design of buildings and spaces which emphasizes passive features to
reduce the likelihood of criminal activity.
> Crime Prevention through Environmental Design (CPTED)
3. Information security strategy integrating people, technology, and operations capabilities to establish
variable barriers across multiple layers and missions of the organization.
> Defense in Depth
4. A certain amount of access control is left to the discretion of the object’s owner, or anyone else who is
authorized to control the object’s access. The owner can determine who should have access rights to an
object and what those rights should be.
> Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
5. To protect private information by putting it into a form that can only be read by people who have
permission to do so.
> Encrypt
6. Devices that enforce administrative security policies by filtering incoming traffic based on a set of rules.
> Firewalls
7. An entity with authorized access that has the potential to harm an information system through
destruction, disclosure, modification of data, and/or denial of service.
> Insider Threat
8. An operating system manufactured by Apple Inc. Used for mobile devices.
> iOS
9. The use of multiple controls arranged in series to provide several consecutive controls to protect an
asset; also called defense in depth.
> Layered Defense
10. An operating system that is open source, making its source code legally available to end users.
> Linux
11. A system irregularity that is identified when studying log entries which could represent events of
interest for further surveillance.
> Log Anomaly
12. Collecting and storing user activities in a log, which is a record of the events occurring within an
organization’s systems and networks.
> Logging
13. An automated system that controls an individual’s ability to access one or more computer system
resources, such as a workstation, network, application or database. A logical access control system
requires the validation of an individual’s identity through some mechanism, such as a PIN, card, biometric
or other token. It has the capability to assign different access privileges to different individuals depending
on their roles and responsibilities in an organization.
> Logical Access Control Systems
14. Access control that requires the system itself to manage access controls in accordance with the
organization’s security policies.
> Mandatory Access Control
15. An entrance to a building or an area that requires people to pass through two doors with only one
door opened at a time.
> Mantrap
16. Passive information system-related entity (e.g., devices, files, records, tables, processes, programs,
domains) containing or receiving information. Access to an object (by a subject) implies access to the
information it contains. See subject.
> Object
17. Controls implemented through a tangible mechanism. Examples include walls, fences, guards, locks,
etc. In modern organizations, many physical control systems are linked to technical/logical systems, such
as badge readers connected to door locks.
> Physical Access Controls
18. The principle that users and programs should have only the minimum privileges necessary to
complete their tasks.
> Principle of Least Privilege
19. An information system account with approved authorizations of a privileged user.
> Privileged Account
20. A type of malicious software that locks the computer screen or files, thus preventing or limiting a user
from accessing their system and data until money is paid.
> Ransomware
21. An access control system that sets up user permissions based on roles.
> Role-based access control (RBAC)
22. An instruction developed to allow or deny access to a system by comparing the validated identity of
the subject to an access control list.
> Rule
23. The practice of ensuring that an organizational process cannot be completed by a single person;
forces collusion as a means to reduce insider threats. Also commonly known as Separation of Duties.
> Segregation of Duties
24. Generally an individual, process or device causing information to flow among objects or change to the
system state.
> Subject
25. The security controls (i.e., safeguards or countermeasures) for an information system that are
primarily implemented and executed by the information system through mechanisms contained in the
hardware, software or firmware components of the system.
> Technical Controls
26. A one-way spinning door or barrier that allows only one person at a time to enter a building or pass
through an area.
> Turnstile
27. An operating system used in software development.
> Unix
28. The process of creating, maintaining and deactivating user identities on a system.
> User Provisioning
## [Chapter 4 - Network Security](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-4)
1. A set of routines, standards, protocols, and tools for building software applications to access a
web-based software application or web tool.
> Application programming interface (API)
2. The most essential representation of data (zero or one) at Layer 1 of the Open Systems
Interconnection (OSI) model.
> Bit
3. Broadcast transmission is a one-to-many (one-to-everyone) form of sending internet traffic.
> Broadcast
4. The byte is a unit of digital information that most commonly consists of eight bits.
> Byte
5. A model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of
configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can
be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
> Cloud Computing
6. A system in which the cloud infrastructure is provisioned for exclusive use by a specific community of
consumers from organizations that have shared concerns (e.g., mission, security requirements, policy
and compliance considerations). It may be owned, managed and operated by one or more of the
organizations in the community, a third party or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off
premises.
> Community Cloud
7. The opposite process of encapsulation, in which bundles of data are unpacked or revealed.
> De-encapsulation
8. The prevention of authorized access to resources or the delaying of time-critical operations.
(Time-critical may be milliseconds or it may be hours, depending upon the service provided.)
> Denial-of-Service (DoS)
9. This acronym can be applied to three interrelated elements: a service, a physical server and a network
protocol.
> Domain Name Service (DNS)
10. Enforcement of data hiding and code hiding during all phases of software development and
operational use. Bundling together data and methods is the process of encapsulation; its opposite
process may be called unpacking, revealing, or using other terms. Also used to refer to taking any set of
data and packaging it or hiding it in another data structure, as is common in network protocols and
encryption.
> Encapsulation
11. The process and act of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext. Sometimes it is also
referred to as enciphering. The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably in literature and have
similar meanings.
> Encryption
12. The internet protocol (and program) used to transfer files between hosts.
> File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
13. In a fragment attack, an attacker fragments traffic in such a way that a system is unable to put data
packets back together.
> Fragment attack
14. The physical parts of a computer and related devices.
> Hardware
15. A combination of public cloud storage and private cloud storage where some critical data resides in
the enterprise’s private cloud while other data is stored and accessible from a public cloud storage
provider.
> Hybrid cloud
16. The provider of the core computing, storage and network hardware and software that is the foundation
upon which organizations can build and then deploy applications. IaaS is popular in the data center where
software and servers are purchased as a fully outsourced service and usually billed on usage and how
much of the resource is used.
> Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
17. An IP network protocol standardized by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) through RFC 792
to determine if a particular service or host is available.
> Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
18. Standard protocol for transmission of data from source to destinations in packet-switched
communications networks and interconnected systems of such networks.
> Internet Protocol (IPv4)
19. An attack where the adversary positions himself in between the user and the system so that he can
intercept and alter data traveling between them.
> Man-in-the-Middle
20. Part of a zero-trust strategy that breaks LANs into very small, highly localized zones using firewalls or
similar technologies. At the limit, this places firewall at every connection point.
> Microsegmentation
21. Purposely sending a network packet that is larger than expected or larger than can be handled by the
receiving system, causing the receiving system to fail unexpectedly.
> Oversized Packet Attack
22. Representation of data at Layer 3 of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
> Packet
23. The primary action of a malicious code attack.
> Payload
24. An information security standard administered by the Payment Card Industry Security Standards
Council that applies to merchants and service providers who process credit or debit card transactions.
> Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
25. The web-authoring or application development middleware environment that allows applications to be
built in the cloud before they’re deployed as SaaS assets.
> Platform as a Service (PaaS)
26. The phrase used to describe a cloud computing platform that is implemented within the corporate
firewall, under the control of the IT department. A private cloud is designed to offer the same features and
benefits of cloud systems, but removes a number of objections to the cloud computing model, including
control over enterprise and customer data, worries about security, and issues connected to regulatory
compliance.
> Private cloud
27. A set of rules (formats and procedures) to implement and control some type of association (that is,
communication) between systems.
> Protocols
28. The cloud infrastructure is provisioned for open use by the general public. It may be owned, managed,
and operated by a business, academic, or government organization, or some combination of them. It
exists on the premises of the cloud provider.
> Public cloud
29. The standard communication protocol for sending and receiving emails between senders and
receivers.
> Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)
30. Computer programs and associated data that may be dynamically written or modified during
execution.
> Software
31. The cloud customer uses the cloud provider’s applications running within a cloud infrastructure. The
applications are accessible from various client devices through either a thin client interface, such as a
web browser or a program interface. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud
infrastructure including network, servers, operating systems, storage, or even individual application
capabilities, with the possible exception of limited user-specific application configuration settings.
> Software as a Service (SaaS)
32. Faking the sending address of a transmission to gain illegal entry into a secure system
> Spoofing
33. Internetworking protocol model created by the IETF, which specifies four layers of functionality: Link
layer (physical communications), Internet Layer (network-to-network communication), Transport Layer
(basic channels for connections and connectionless exchange of data between hosts), and Application
Layer, where other protocols and user applications programs make use of network services.
> Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) Model
34. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical group of workstations, servers, and network devices
that appear to be on the same LAN despite their geographical distribution.
> VLAN
35. A virtual private network (VPN), built on top of existing networks, that can provide a secure
communications mechanism for transmission between networks.
> VPN
36. A wireless area network (WLAN) is a group of computers and devices that are located in the same
vicinity, forming a network based on radio transmissions rather than wired connections. A Wi-Fi network is
a type of WLAN.
> WLAN
37. The graphical user interface (GUI) for the Nmap Security Scanner, an open-source application that
scans networks to determine everything that is connected as well as other information.
> Zenmap
38. Removing the design belief that the network has any trusted space. Security is managed at each
possible level, representing the most granular asset. Microsegmentation of workloads is a tool of the
model.
> Zero Trust
## [Chapter 5 - Security Operations](https://www.isc2.org/Training/Self-Study-Resources/CC/chapter-5)
1. A computer responsible for hosting applications to user workstations.
> Application Server
2. An algorithm that uses one key to encrypt and a different key to decrypt the input plaintext.
> Asymmetric Encryption
3. A digit representing the sum of the correct digits in a piece of stored or transmitted digital data, against
which later comparisons can be made to detect errors in the data.
> Checksum
4. The altered form of a plaintext message so it is unreadable for anyone except the intended recipients.
In other words, it has been turned into a secret.
> Ciphertext
5. Classification identifies the degree of harm to the organization, its stakeholders or others that might
result if an information asset is divulged to an unauthorized person, process or organization. In short,
classification is focused first and foremost on maintaining the confidentiality of the data, based on the data
sensitivity.
> Classification
6. A process and discipline used to ensure that the only changes made to a system are those that have
been authorized and validated.
> Configuration management
7. One who performs cryptanalysis which is the study of mathematical techniques for attempting to defeat
cryptographic techniques and/or information systems security. This includes the process of looking for
errors or weaknesses in the implementation of an algorithm or of the algorithm itself.
> Cryptanalyst
8. The study or applications of methods to secure or protect the meaning and content of messages, files,
or other information, usually by disguise, obscuration, or other transformations of that content and
meaning.
> Cryptography
9. System capabilities designed to detect and prevent the unauthorized use and transmission of
information.
> Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
10. The reverse process from encryption. It is the process of converting a ciphertext message back into
plaintext through the use of the cryptographic algorithm and the appropriate key for decryption (which is
the same for symmetric encryption, but different for asymmetric encryption). This term is also used
interchangeably with the "deciphering."
> Decryption
11. A technique of erasing data on disk or tape (including video tapes) that, when performed properly,
ensures that there is insufficient magnetic remanence to reconstruct data.
> Degaussing
12. The result of a cryptographic transformation of data which, when properly implemented, provides the
services of origin authentication, data integrity, and signer non-repudiation.
> Digital Signature
13. Monitoring of outgoing network traffic.
> Egress Monitoring
14. The process and act of converting the message from its plaintext to ciphertext. Sometimes it is also
referred to as enciphering. The two terms are sometimes used interchangeably in literature and have
similar meanings.
> Encryption
15. The total set of algorithms, processes, hardware, software, and procedures that taken together
provide an encryption and decryption capability.
> Encryption System
16. A reference to the process of applying secure configurations (to reduce the attack surface) and
locking down various hardware, communications systems, and software, including operating system, web
server, application server, application, etc. Hardening is normally performed based on industry guidelines
and benchmarks, such as those provided by the Center for Internet Security (CIS).
> Hardening
17. An algorithm that computes a numerical value (called the hash value) on a data file or electronic
message that is used to represent that file or message and depends on the entire contents of the file or
message. A hash function can be considered to be a fingerprint of the file or message.
> Hash Function
18. The process of using a mathematical algorithm against data to produce a numeric value that is
representative of that data.
> Hashing
19. The requirements for information sharing by an IT system with one or more other IT systems or
applications, for information sharing to support multiple internal or external organizations, missions, or
public programs.
> Information Sharing
20. Monitoring of incoming network traffic.
> Ingress Monitoring
21. A digital signature that uniquely identifies data and has the property such that changing a single bit in
the data will cause a completely different message digest to be generated.
> Message Digest
22. The software "master control application" that runs the computer. It is the first program loaded when
the computer is turned on, and its main component, the kernel, resides in memory at all times. The
operating system sets the standards for all application programs (such as the Web server) that run in the
computer. The applications communicate with the operating system for most user interface and file
management operations.
> Operating System
23. A software component that, when installed, directly modifies files or device settings related to a
different software component without changing the version number or release details for the related
software component.
> Patch
24. The systematic notification, identification, deployment, installation and verification of operating system
and application software code revisions. These revisions are known as patches, hot fixes, and service
packs.
> Patch Management
25. A message or data in its natural format and in readable form; extremely vulnerable from a
confidentiality perspective.
> Plaintext
26. The recordings (automated and/or manual) of evidence of activities performed or results achieved
(e.g., forms, reports, test results), which serve as a basis for verifying that the organization and the
information system are performing as intended. Also used to refer to units of related data fields (i.e.,
groups of data fields that can be accessed by a program and that contain the complete set of information
on particular items).
> Records
27. A practice based on the records life cycle, according to which records are retained as long as
necessary, and then are destroyed after the appropriate time interval has elapsed.
> Records Retention
28. Residual information remaining on storage media after clearing.
> Remanence
29. The first stage of change management, wherein a change in procedure or product is sought by a
stakeholder.
> Request for change (RFC)
30. The entirety of the policies, roles, and processes the organization uses to make security decisions in
an organization.
> Security Governance
31. Tactics to infiltrate systems via email, phone, text, or social media, often impersonating a person or
agency in authority or offering a gift. A low-tech method would be simply following someone into a secure
building.
> Social engineering
32. An algorithm that uses the same key in both the encryption and the decryption processes.
> Symmetric encryption
33. A computer that provides World Wide Web (WWW) services on the Internet. It includes the hardware,
operating system, Web server software, and Web site content (Web pages). If the Web server is used
internally and not by the public, it may be known as an "intranet server."
> Web Server
34. Phishing attacks that attempt to trick highly placed officials or private individuals with sizable assets
into authorizing large fund wire transfers to previously unknown entities.
> Whaling Attack
### Questions and Answers
1. A cyberattacker changes the website of a pharmacy so it displays
incorrect information about COVID testing. This is an example of
what kind of compromise?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Nonrepudiation
ANS: B. Changing data without proper authorization is a compromise of
integrity.
2. The function of a computer system that verifies the identity of a user
is called _________.
A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Authenticity
D. Availability
ANS: A. Authentication is the function of verifying a user’s identity.
3. Jane received an electronic message from Fred that was digitally
signed proving it came from him. However, Fred said he never sent it.
This is an example of what message integrity characteristic?
A. Nonreputation
B. Nonrefutability
C. Nonrepudiation
D. Authenticity
ANS: C. Nonrepudiation technologies are used to guarantee that a sender
of a message cannot later deny that they sent the message.
4. Which of the following elements do not apply to privacy?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. None of the above
ANS: D. All of the items listed apply to privacy.
5. Information assurance refers to the ____________ of information
security.
A. Quality
B. Confidentiality
C. Ethics
D. Measurement
ANS: D. Information assurance is the measurement of the security controls
an organization has put into place.
6. What is the first thing a cyberattacker would want to do to launch an
attack against an organization?
A. Learn about the organization’s vulnerabilities.
B. Learn about the organization’s business, including domain names,
corporate information, facilities, names of employees, etc.
C. Deploy malware.
D. Steal data.
ANS: B. While learning about vulnerabilities might seem like a good
answer, the best answer is learning about the organization’s business
details because that will provide the basic information the
cyberattacker can use to launch the attack.
7. An earthquake is an example of a ____________?
A. Threat agent
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Risk
ANS: B. An earthquake is a natural disaster that may occur and that could
cause harm to an organization; therefore it is a threat to the
organization.
8. Which of the following statements is most correct?
A. Security should be done the same way regardless of the situation.
B. Security should be tailored based on the situation.
C. It’s always best to mitigate risks rather than transfer them.
D. Risk avoidance trumps security controls every time.
ANS: B. Answers A, C, and D all contain absolute statements about
applying security. But security is never absolute; it is tailored based
on the situation and the organization’s tolerance for risk, so the best
answer is B.
9. You are asked to perform a risk assessment of an information system
for the purpose of recommending the most appropriate security
controls. You have a short amount of time to do this. You have
information about how each asset in the system is used and its
importance to the business, but you have no financial information
about the assets or the information systems. Which is the most
appropriate method to use for this assessment?
A. Qualitative
B. Threat modeling
C. Quantitative
D. Delphi
ANS: A. Since you have no financial data, a quantitative assessment is not
possible, but since you have information about how each asset in the
system is used and its importance to the business, you have what you
need to do a qualitative analysis.
10. You are asked to implement a risk treatment in which your IT
department is removing a server from the environment that it deems is
too risky due to having too many vulnerabilities in it. You have just
practiced which type of risk treatment?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk mitigation
ANS: C. Risk avoidance is the best answer because by removing the risky
server altogether, you are avoiding the risk. Answer D may have
been considered because vulnerability mitigation is a type of risk
treatment, but that usually involves addressing specific
vulnerabilities, not removing entire systems or services.
11. A security engineer is performing a review of an organization’s
datacenter security controls. They document that the datacenter lacks
security cameras for monitoring the facilities. What type of control
does this represent?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Physical
D. Logical
ANS: C. Security cameras used for monitoring facilities are an example of
physical security controls. Administrative controls are managementoriented controls such as
documentation, policies, procedures, and
training. Technical or logical controls are hardware or software
components implemented by computer systems or network devices.
12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the types of
security controls?
A. Physical controls are also referred to as logical controls.
B. Logical controls are also referred to as managerial controls.
C. Physical controls are also referred to as managerial controls.
D. Administrative controls are also referred to as soft controls.
ANS: D. Administrative controls are also referred to as soft controls or
managerial controls. Technical controls are also referred to as logical
controls.
13. The senior security engineer is creating a document that provides
step-by-step instructions on how to launch a vulnerability scan
utilizing the organization’s vulnerability scanning tool that all security
engineers will be required to follow. Which of the following
governance elements is this an example of?
A. Policy
B. Procedure
C. Guideline
D. Law
ANS: B. A document containing step-by-step instructions on how to
perform a vulnerability scanning is an example of a procedure.
Policies are high-level management statements providing directives
to the organization but do not prescribe exact steps. Guidelines serve
as best practice references but are not required to be followed. While
following the procedure may be a requirement of the business, the
procedure itself is not a law.
14. An information security policy is an example of which of the
following types of controls?
A. Administrative
B. Technical
C. Logical
D. Physical
ANS: A. A policy is an example of an administrative control.
Administrative controls are management-oriented controls that
provide directives and instruction aimed at people within the
organization, such as documentation, training, and other personnel
management practices. Technical controls, also known as logical
controls, are hardware or software components that protect virtual
resources. Physical controls are tangible controls put in place to
protect physical resources against physical threats
15. Sarah is a security engineer for a Software as a Service (SaaS)
organization. Her friend Kyle is a systems administrator for the
organization and helped her get the job by serving as a reference.
While reviewing some system logs, Sarah discovered that Kyle is
running a crypto-mining program on a company server for his own
financial gain. How should Sarah respond to this situation?
A. Ask Kyle to stop
B. Ask Kyle to share the profits with her
C. Mind her own business
D. Escalate to senior management
ANS: D. Sarah should immediately escalate this to senior leadership in
accordance with the organization’s policies and procedures. This
would be the ethical response to this situation.
16. Jane is a security administrator setting up access for a new employee
who works in the manufacturing department. Jane makes sure to
enable the employee’s access for the manufacturing area but not for
the parts storage area. What best describes the principle Jane is
applying?
A. Principle of authentication
B. Two-person rule
C. Need to know
D. Least privilege
ANS: D. Least privilege is the most correct answer. By giving the
employee access to the area the employee requires access to but no
more, Jane is applying the principle of least privilege.
17. Which statement best describes the relationship between subjects,
objects, and rules?
A. A subject grants access to an object based on rules.
B. An object is granted access to a subject based on rules.
C. A subject is granted access to an object based on rules.
D. An object is granted access to a subject based on credentials.
ANS: C. After first requesting access, a subject gets access to an object
based on rules.
18. Credentials are composed of which of the following elements?
A. Username and password
B. Authorization and accountability
C. Something you know and something you have
D. Subjects and objects
ANS: A. Identification (commonly a username, ID, or account number)
and authentication (commonly a password, PIN, or token) are
typically used in combination and are called credentials.
19. Joe has to log in to many systems on a daily basis and has too many
passwords to remember. What is the best way for Joe to manage his
passwords?
A. Write the passwords down on a piece of paper.
B. Store the passwords in a text file and store it in a safe place.
C. Use the same password for every system so he only has to
remember one password.
D. Use a password manager or password vault software.
ANS: D. The best answer is to use a password manager or password vault
software to manage passwords. These products require credentials to
log in and protect the passwords with encryption and good access
control. None of the other answers provide a secure solution.
20. Debby has been an employee of Acme Corp. for over 20 years.
During that time, she has been able to access more and more systems.
Now she has access to systems she doesn’t even need access to in
order to do her job. This is an example of what type of situation?
A. Privilege modification
B. Access management
C. Privileged access management
D. Privilege creep
ANS: D. The situation described is an example of privilege creep, where
over time a person’s access increases beyond that which they require
to do their job.
21. The identity and access management lifecycle consists of which
steps?
A. Provisioning, review, revocation
B. Setup, review, auditing
C. Creation, monitoring, termination
D. Identification, authentication, authorization
ANS: A. The identity and access management lifecycle consists of
provisioning, review, and revocation steps.
22. Which of the following access control models leverages roles to
provision access, where users with similar access needs are assigned
to the same role?
A. DAC
B. MAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above
ANS: C. Role-based access control (RBAC) enforces access based on roles
that define permissions and the level of access provided to any user
assigned to that role. Roles are typically developed for similar users
with the same access needs (e.g., HR, Sales, IT, Security).
23. An organization is concerned about the risk of a car driving from the
parking lot through the entrance of the building. Which of the
following security measures would best help address this concern?
A. Biometrics
B. RBAC
C. Badge system
D. Bollards
ANS: D. Bollards are pillars or spheres made out of hard material used to
prevent vehicles from driving through entrances. Biometrics and
badge systems are measures to implement physical access control
but would not prevent a car from driving through the entrance.
RBAC is an access control model.
24. The security team is reviewing the configuration of the door that
serves as the only entrance or exit to the datacenter. Organization
personnel commonly access the datacenter to perform their work. In
the event of a fire that impacts power to the door-locking mechanism,
which of the following configurations is best?
A. The door should always remain locked.
B. The door should fail-secure.
C. The door should fail-open.
D. The door should automatically lock when there is no power.
ANS: C. The door should fail-open (also known as fail-safe). While this is
a less secure option, it ensures the preservation of human life, which
is the number-one priority.
25. The security team of an organization is concerned about the physical
security of datacenter access. They want the datacenter entrance built
in such a way that there are two doors with locks and the first door
must close before the next door can be unlocked. Which of the
following is this an example of?
A. Bollard
B. Mantrap
C. Fence
D. Biometric
ANS: B. A mantrap is an area that has two doors built in such a way that
the first door must be closed before the second door can be opened.
26. Which of the following access control models allows the creator of a
resource the ability to assign permissions to other users?
A. DAC
B. MAC
C. RBAC
D. None of the above
ANS: A. Discretionary access control (DAC) provides the owner of the
resource, typically the creator, full control to configure which users
can access the resource.
27. Which of the following is referred to as a physical address in
computer networking?
A. IPv4 address
B. IPv6 address
C. MAC address
D. Loopback address
ANS: C. Media access control (MAC) addresses are often referred to as a
physical address or hardware address since they are assigned to the
device’s physical hardware. Internet Protocol (IP) addresses are
known as logical addresses. A loopback address is a special type of
IP address.
28. How many layers are there in the OSI model?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
ANS: B. There are seven layers in the OSI model. These Include
Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data, and
Physical.
29. Which of the following terms best describes a computer that provides
content to other computers such as a website or an application?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Endpoint
D. Router
ANS: B. Server is a term that describes a computer that serves content or
provides a service to another computer on a network. A client is a
computer that accesses or uses the content or service provided by the
server. An endpoint is a computing device on a network, which
could include a server but is not the best answer. A router is a
network device that routes traffic on a network.
30. What is the name of the seventh layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Network
ANS: A. The Application Layer is Layer 7 (the uppermost layer) of the
OSI model. The order of the layers from top (Layer 7) to bottom
(Layer 1) are Application, Presentation, Session, Transport,
Network, Data Link, and Physical.
31. Which of the following attacks are most likely to be carried out by a
botnet?
A. Advanced persistent threat attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Trojan horse attack
D. Backdoor attack
ANS: B. A botnet is a group of computers under the control of an attacker,
most often for a coordinated attacker such as a DDoS attack.
Advanced persistent threat and backdoors are not specific types of
attacks, but rather features of attacks. A trojan horse is a type of
attack but unlikely to be carried out by a botnet.
32. What is the best description of the difference between a phishing email and a spear phishing e-mail?
A. A phishing e-mail is sent to a specific person; a spear phishing email is sent to an entire company.
B. A phishing e-mail is sent to random recipients; a spear phishing email is sent to specific recipients.
C. A phishing e-mail is sent to an entire company; a spear phishing
e-mail is sent to a specific person.
D. A spear phishing e-mail is sent to random recipients; a phishing email is sent to specific recipients.
ANS: A phishing e-mail is sent to random recipients; a spear phishing email is sent to specific recipients.
A phishing e-mail is literally like
going fishing—you cast a wide net randomly and you see what you
get. Conversely spear phishing is literally like spearfishing—you
have a specific target in mind, and you shoot the spear directly at it.
A spear phishing e-mail is sent to a specific person or specific people
or an organization.
33. Which of the following is not a true statement about a worm?
A. It can replicate itself.
B. It is a type of malware.
C. It is a type of botnet.
D. It does not require a host program to infect and deliver it to the
victim system.
ANS: C. A worm is not a type of botnet. A worm can replicate itself and is
a type of malware, but since it isn’t a virus, it does not require a host
program to infect and serve as the delivery mechanism.
34. A rainbow table attack seeks to mitigate the limitations of dictionary
or brute force attacks by precomputing the hash of passwords and
storing them for later comparison.
A. True
B. False
ANS: A. The answer is true. Dictionary and brute force attacks take a lot of
processing time and resources, whereas rainbow table attacks do the
processing ahead of time and store the hashes in a table or database.
35. What is the primary difference between an IDS and an IPS?
A. They both do the same thing.
B. An IDS detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS prevents the
activity from happening in the first place.
C. An IDS detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS monitors
system performance.
D. An IDS detects malicious activity, whereas an IPS detects
malicious activity and takes action on it.
ANS: D. An IDS, which stands for intrusion detection system, detects
malicious activity, whereas an IPS, which stands for intrusion
prevention system, detects malicious activity and takes action on it.
36. Joe is a cyber criminal who has targeted a web server for a potential
cyberattack. Joe wants to know if the server has any unpatched
vulnerabilities he might be able to exploit. Which of the following
actions is Joe most likely to take?
A. Launch a smurf attack against the target server.
B. Run a vulnerability scan against the target server.
C. Send a phishing e-mail to the target server.
D. Send a spear phishing e-mail to the target server.
ANS: B. The answer is to run a vulnerability scan, as that is the only one of
the choices that will reveal vulnerabilities on the server.
37. __________________ is a method of attack where a hacker enters
SQL commands into fields on a vulnerable web page. The commands
are executed without proper authorization.
A. Buffer overflow
B. SQL injection
C. HTTP response splitting
D. Backdoor
ANS: B. If a web server software does not properly check the data input by
the user, it could allow an attacker to put SQL commands in the
field, which are then executed by the SQL database without proper
authorization. This is called a SQL injection attack.
38. Most cyber criminals would agree that _________________ are the
weakest link in cybersecurity.
A. Passwords
B. Backdoors
C. Laws
D. People
ANS: D. It is widely acknowledged that people are the weakest link in
cybersecurity. Despite extensive progress in technical tools and
controls, deliberate or accidental acts by people lead to the largest
number of and most damaging security breaches.
39. A hacker uses a phishing attack to obtain a user’s credentials, access
their company’s database, and steal proprietary information. This is an
example of _______________.
A. Denial of service
B. Advanced persistent threat
C. Extortion
D. Data exfiltration
ANS: D. The correct answer is data exfiltration, which is the unauthorized
transfer of data from a computer or network.
40. A sophisticated cyber criminal gains access to a financial institution’s
e-mail server, installs malware, and then over a period of weeks,
moves to other servers and systems on the company’s network,
installing other malware and tools, finding other credentials, stealing
data, and scrubbing logs to cover her tracks. Which term best
describes this type of activity?
A. Denial of service attack
B. Advanced persistent threat attack
C. Extortion attack
D. Website defacement attack
ANS: B. During an advanced persistent threat attack, there is a
sophisticated cyber criminal seeking to expand the attack over time,
probing the network, finding more systems with vulnerabilities,
exploiting them, and gaining unauthorized access to more and more
systems and data, all the while doing things to cover their tracks.
41. Mary is a network engineer who wants to install a firewall in front of
a database server to hide its IP address. What type of firewall should
Mary choose?
A. Proxy
B. Packet filter
C. Stateful/dynamic packet filter
D. Database filter
ANS: A. A proxy firewall impersonates the system at the other end of the
connection and hides the IP address of the devices within the
network it is protecting.
42. Antivirus software vendors use ______________ to keep up with the
latest information about viruses and threats.
A. Google
B. National Vulnerability Database
C. Threat intelligence
D. National Security Agency
ANS: C. Organizations and product vendors use threat intelligence from a
variety of sources. By collecting and studying data about threats,
vendors can prepare for and defend against them.
43. When leveraging a third-party cloud service provider, which of the
following is always the responsibility of the provider?
A. Data security
B. Physical security of the datacenter
C. Identity and access management controls
D. Endpoint protection
ANS: B. Physical security of the datacenter is always the responsibility of
the cloud service provider.
44. An organization is utilizing a public cloud from a cloud service whose
service offering allows the organization to use a framework to build
and deploy custom applications. Which of the following cloud service
models is being utilized?
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. On-premises
ANS: B. Platform as a service (PaaS) provides cloud service customers
with development or application platforms to build and deploy
applications.
45. An organization is using a cloud service provider to host their
infrastructure. The cloud service provider manages the underlying
infrastructure, and the organization manages the platforms and
software (such as the OS, development tools, and applications).
Which of the following cloud service models is being utilized?
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. On-premises
ANS: A. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) provides customers with access
to a pool of infrastructure resources such as network, server, and
storage resources that can be virtually provisioned. The cloud service
provider manages the underlying physical infrastructure, and the
cloud service customer manages the platforms and software (such as
OS, development tools, and applications) that run on the
infrastructure.
46. An organization has built out a cloud environment in their own
datacenter for exclusive use by their employees to allow other teams
to provision and manage virtual resources. Which of the following
cloud deployment models is this an example of?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid
ANS: B. A private cloud deployment model consists of computing
infrastructure and resources that are dedicated for use by a single
organization.
47. An organization is hosting applications in a private cloud environment
and also making use of Amazon Web Services (AWS) to load-balance
the traffic for applications if there is a spike in demand. Which of the
following cloud deployment models is this an example of?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid
ANS: D. A hybrid cloud deployment model is a mix of the other models
(such as a public and private model).
48. An organization is utilizing Google Mail (Gmail) as their e-mail
service provider. Which of the following types of cloud service
models is being utilized?
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. On-premises
ANS: A. Software as a service (SaaS) provides customers with access to an
application hosted by the cloud service provider (such as an e-mail
service).
49. Alice sends Bob a message encrypted with a private key. Bob
decrypts the message with the same private key. Which of the
following types of encryption is this an example of?
A. Asymmetric
B. Symmetric
C. Hashing
D. None of the above
ANS: B. Symmetric encryption uses the same key for encryption and
decryption. This means that the sender and receiver of a message
need to have a copy of the same key in order to encrypt/decrypt the
message.
50. Which of the following is not a secure method of data deletion?
A. Emptying the recycle bin on your computer desktop
B. Physical destruction of a hard drive
C. Zeroization
D. Overwriting
ANS: A. Pressing the delete key on a computer and emptying the recycle
bin on your desktop are not secure methods of data destruction, as
the data is not actually securely deleted from the hard drive. These
actions simply tell the operating system that the location on the hard
drive is free for use.
51. Which of the following can be used to create message digests?
A. Symmetric encryption algorithms
B. Asymmetric encryption algorithms
C. Hash functions
D. All of the above
ANS: C. Hash functions transform information into fixed-length output
known as a hash value, message digest, or fingerprint.
52. A security administrator is looking for ways to automate the
monitoring of logs throughout the environment. Which of the
following solutions would help provide automated monitoring
capability?
A. Regularly review the logs
B. Store the logs on a centralized log server
C. Implement a SIEM
D. Implement a firewall
ANS: C. Implementing a security information and event management
(SIEM) system is one example of how an organization can
implement automated monitoring. A SIEM system is a tool that
ingests logs from various sources, serves as a central secure log
repository, and contains rules that alert on suspicious events
identified in logs.
53. Which of the following types of encryption uses two keys: one for
encryption and a separate key for decryption?
A. Asymmetric
B. Symmetric
C. Hashing
D. None of the above
ANS: A. Asymmetric encryption uses two keys: a public key (for
encryption) and a private key (for decryption).
54. As the new CISO of his organization, Joe decided to initiate a
comprehensive set of scans. The scans reported that nearly all of his
endpoints have known operating system vulnerabilities. What is the
most likely root cause of this situation?
A. The organization is the victim of an advanced persistent threat.
B. The endpoints do not have up-to-date antimalware software
installed.
C. The endpoints have not been kept up-to-date with the latest
security patches.
D. Brute force attack.
ANS: C. The most likely reason endpoints have known operating system
vulnerabilities is they do not have the latest patches installed from
the vendors. Poorly configured antimalware software or a brute force
attack would not cause this, and an APT might be the result of this
situation but not the cause of it.
55. A network administrator found that one of the firewalls was no longer
configured in accordance with recommended settings from DISA as it
once was. What is the most likely reason for this?
A. The settings from DISA were incorrect.
B. Configuration management procedures for the device were not
followed.
C. Privilege creep.
D. Data integrity.
ANS: B. The best answer is that it is most likely that someone changed a
setting without the proper approval and documentation; therefore,
CM procedures were not followed.
56. Mary isn’t sure if she is allowed to use her company-owned laptop to
send messages to her friend on Facebook. To find out if she can,
which policy should she refer to?
A. AUP
B. BYOD policy
C. Data handling policy
D. None of the above
ANS: A. Of the choices provided, the AUP is the one most likely to
provide guidance concerning whether or not Mary can use the
company-owned laptop for nonbusiness use.
57. Of the policies listed, which one is most likely to provide guidance on
connecting a home computer to the work network via VPN?
A. AUP
B. BYOD
C. Data handling policy
D. None of the above
ANS: B. Of the choices provided, the BYOD policy is the best choice. The
BYOD policy is used by organizations that want to allow their
employees to use their personally owned devices to connect to the
corporate network.
58. An employee notices a poster in the lunchroom reminding her about
not writing down her passwords but instead to use the companyprovided password vault software. What
is this an example of?
A. Security awareness
B. Security training
C. Security policy
D. Security testing
ANS: A. The use of posters and reminders in the workplace is an example
of security awareness.
59. What is the best reason to provide social engineering training to
employees?
A. To show people how to perform a social engineering attack
B. So employees can report security violations to management
C. To teach people what to look out for
D. None of the above
ANS: C. The correct answer is to show people what kinds of things they
should look out for as a way to defend against social engineering
attacks.
60. During which phase of the incident response process is the incident
response plan developed and documented?
A. Preparation
B. Containment, eradication, and recovery
C. Detection and analysis
D. Post-incident activity
ANS: A. The incident response plan is developed and documented during
the preparation phase of the incident response process.
61. During which phase of the incident response process does the lessonslearned assessment take
place?
A. Detection and analysis
B. Containment, eradication, and recovery
C. Preparation
D. Post-incident activity
ANS: D. The lessons-learned assessment occurs during the post-incident
activity phase of the incident response process.
62. A security analyst is reviewing log files from a system to determine if
a security incident has occurred. This is an example of an activity that
takes place in which of the following incident response process
phases?
A. Containment, eradication, and recovery
B. Detection and analysis
C. Preparation
D. Post-incident activity
ANS: B. Reviewing logs to determine if a security incident has occurred is
an example of an activity that takes place in the detection and
analysis phase of the incident response process.
63. In which phase of the incident response process would a security
analyst recover a system from a backup?
A. Preparation
B. Detection and analysis
C. Post-incident activity
D. Containment, eradication, and recovery
ANS: D. Recovering a system from backup would take place during the
containment, eradication, and recovery phase of the incident
response process.
64. What phase comes after the detection and analysis phase in the
incident response process?
A. Containment, eradication, and recovery.
B. Preparation.
C. Post-incident activity.
D. Detection and analysis is the last phase of the process.
ANS: A. The containment, eradication, and recovery phase comes after the
detection and analysis phase of the incident response process. The
process steps are Preparation -> Detection and Analysis ->
Containment, Eradication, and Recovery -> Post-Incident Activity.
65. Carol is tasked with creating a business continuity plan for her
organization. What should she do to determine which of her
organization’s business functions should be restored in the event of an
incident?
A. Conduct a risk assessment.
B. Interview key stakeholders throughout the organization.
C. Calculate the MTD for each business function.
D. Conduct a business impact analysis.
ANS: D. The purpose of a business impact analysis is to determine which
business functions should be restored after an incident.
67. Of the following which is the most likely reason(s) a business
continuity program might fail?
A. Failure to test the plan and procedures
B. Failure to document activation procedures
C. Failure to address the threats the organization is most likely to
face
D. All of the above
ANS: D. Failure to test the plan and procedures, document activation
procedures, and address likely threats are all reasons the business
continuity program may fail.
68. Alice is responsible for designing her organization’s datacenter to
provide resiliency in the event of a disaster. If a disaster occurs, she
wants to have the new datacenter up and running within a few days,
but she does not want to incur the cost of building a full datacenter
with all equipment fully installed and configured. Which of the
following options is the best choice for her situation?
A. Hot site
B. Warm site
C. Cold site
D. Tertiary site
ANS: B. A warm site is a facility that is configured with equipment
suitable for supporting IT operations but without the computing
equipment itself. The warm site has power, HVAC, physical
infrastructure, and possibly telecommunications and peripheral
equipment.
69. Which of the following is the best example of a hot site?
A. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations but without the
computing equipment itself
B. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing
equipment installed and
configured
C. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing
equipment installed but not
configured
D. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing
equipment installed and configured, but the equipment is not powered on
ANS: B. A hot site is a facility that is configured with equipment suitable
for supporting IT operations and has the computing equipment
70. Which of the following is the best example of a cold site?
A. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations but without the
computing equipment itself
B. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing
equipment installed and configured
C. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing
equipment installed but not
configured
D. A facility that is configured with equipment suitable for supporting IT operations and has the computing
equipment installed and configured, but the equipment is not powered on
ANS: A. A cold site is a facility that is configured with equipment suitable
https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PL0hT6hgexlYw-k6GxQf_DIAPdc96T2MP-
https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLKbf3fxddlUHuoUGGOSe1onIObJDfpSbF
You might also like
- C32 - PFRS 5 Noncurrent Asset Held For SaleNo ratings yetC32 - PFRS 5 Noncurrent Asset Held For Sale4 pages
- Professional Cloud Security Manager - Mock Exam100% (1)Professional Cloud Security Manager - Mock Exam22 pages
- LTE End To End Call Flow: With Logs Using Common Troubleshooting Tools100% (1)LTE End To End Call Flow: With Logs Using Common Troubleshooting Tools132 pages
- Compression: DMET501 - Introduction To Media EngineeringNo ratings yetCompression: DMET501 - Introduction To Media Engineering26 pages
- Digital Paddlewheel Flow Meter: FeaturesNo ratings yetDigital Paddlewheel Flow Meter: Features4 pages
- Principles of Marketing: Developing New Products and Managing The Product Life CycleNo ratings yetPrinciples of Marketing: Developing New Products and Managing The Product Life Cycle35 pages
- Journal For Success: (Behavioural Science Programme)No ratings yetJournal For Success: (Behavioural Science Programme)12 pages
- Physical Planning (Physical Planners) Regulations 2020No ratings yetPhysical Planning (Physical Planners) Regulations 202066 pages
- 10 Examples of Human Rights - Human Rights CareersNo ratings yet10 Examples of Human Rights - Human Rights Careers5 pages
- Ifrs 8 Aggregation of Operating SegmentsNo ratings yetIfrs 8 Aggregation of Operating Segments8 pages
- Introduction To Cloud and Cloud Security - PreQuiz - Attempt ReviewNo ratings yetIntroduction To Cloud and Cloud Security - PreQuiz - Attempt Review4 pages
- Cloud Data Security and Management QuizNo ratings yetCloud Data Security and Management Quiz18 pages
- 5 - Accenture 2023 - Fundamentals of Networking, Security and Cloud - Trainer Handout100% (1)5 - Accenture 2023 - Fundamentals of Networking, Security and Cloud - Trainer Handout8 pages
- CCSK Free PDF Demo Latest Certification Tests 2020No ratings yetCCSK Free PDF Demo Latest Certification Tests 202014 pages
- Imp MCQ Question INT 244 - Unit 4 - 5 - 6No ratings yetImp MCQ Question INT 244 - Unit 4 - 5 - 6172 pages
- Quiz - Cloud Security and Virtualization - Attempt ReviewNo ratings yetQuiz - Cloud Security and Virtualization - Attempt Review4 pages
- Legal Issues To Consider To Protect Your App in 2024No ratings yetLegal Issues To Consider To Protect Your App in 202423 pages
- CCSK Module 1 To 6 With All Units Answers by Atul GuptaNo ratings yetCCSK Module 1 To 6 With All Units Answers by Atul Gupta93 pages
- Cloud Computing Quiz Based On Module 2 & 3: Answer: BNo ratings yetCloud Computing Quiz Based On Module 2 & 3: Answer: B5 pages
- B. Tech - (AR19 & AR 20) Question Bank-7th Sem - CSNo ratings yetB. Tech - (AR19 & AR 20) Question Bank-7th Sem - CS7 pages
- 5876 - 4 MCS 1 Cloud Computing - 3725 - (15-06-24 08 - 04 - 40 - 642 Am)No ratings yet5876 - 4 MCS 1 Cloud Computing - 3725 - (15-06-24 08 - 04 - 40 - 642 Am)3 pages
- D-CIS-FN-23 Dell Technologies Practice QuestionsNo ratings yetD-CIS-FN-23 Dell Technologies Practice Questions12 pages
- Introduction To Cloud and Cloud Security - PostQuiz - Attempt ReviewNo ratings yetIntroduction To Cloud and Cloud Security - PostQuiz - Attempt Review5 pages
- Introduction To Cloud and Cloud Security - PreQuiz - Attempt ReviewNo ratings yetIntroduction To Cloud and Cloud Security - PreQuiz - Attempt Review5 pages