Haryana Public Service Commission (HPSC)

Assistant Professor(2025)
MOCK Test No.2
1. Which of the following is true about the Line and Staff structure of an
organization?
(a) The authority lies with line personnel.
(b) The authority lies with staff personnel.
(c) The authority lies equally with line personnel and staff personnel.
(d) The authority lies more with line personnel and less with staff personnel.
(e) The authority lies less with line personnel and more with staff personnel.

2. organizational structure allows the involvement of two or more bosses as

per the situational requirements.
(a) Line
(b) Line and Staff
(c) Committee
(d) Matrix
(e) Special Task Force

3. Role ambiguity is primarily an outcome of poor:

(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Organising
(d) Controlling
(e) processing

4. Who propounded the "Two-Factor Theory of Motivation"?

(a) Maslow
(b) Herzberg
(c) Mintzberg
(d) Alderfer
(e) Mouton and Blake

5. Which among the following justifies the principles of Theory Y?

(a) People are self motivated and are willing to work.
(b) People by default do not want to work.
(c) Punishment creates a fear, which leads people to work.
(d) The motive of working is to avoid penalties or punishments
(e) Proper supervision is required in to ensure adequate work from people.

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6. _______ was propounded by William Ouchi.
(a) ERG Theory
(b) Theory X
(c) Theory Y
(d) Theory Z
(e) Need Hierarchy Theory

7. Managerial Grid, as a performance evaluation tool, was devised by:

(a) Peter F. Drucker
(b) Mouton and Blake
(c) Koontz and O' Donnel
(d) Henry Mintzberg
(e) Frank and Lillian Gilberth

8. What does 'Management by Exception' typically talk about?

(a) Targets should be achieved in a defined time limit.
(b) Management should involve in day to day working without allowing any exceptions.
(c) Exceptional cases must not be included in Management and be treated as special
cases.
(d) One Head, One Plan, unless there is an exception to it.
(e) Management should not involve in routine things rather must concentrate on
Strategies.

9. Who propounded the concept of Management by Objective?

(a) F. W. Taylor
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) David Richardo
(d) Peter F. Drucker
(e) Paul Samuelson

10. Principle of "Order" as one of the principles of Management essentially

speaks about:
(a) A place for everything and everything in its place
(b) Orders should flow from top to bottom and responsibilities from bottom to top
(c) One subordinate should respond to the orders of one superior
(d) One Head One Plan
(e) Short-Circuiting of hierarchy to by-pass order

11. Which among the following is NOT considered as an objective of Secretarial

Audit?
(a) To check and report on Compliances
(b) To point out Non-Compliances and inadequate Compliances
(c) To protect the interest of the customers, employees, society etc
(d) To check and verify personally all financial and cost data
(e) To avoid any unwarranted legal actions by law enforcing agencies and other persons

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12. Which of the following acts do not have any coverage under Secretarial
Audit?
(a) The Companies Act, 1956 and the rules made there under
(b) The Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 ('SCRA') and the rules made there
under
(c) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the rules & regulations made there
under
(d) Specific Regulation of Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
(e) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 and the rules there under

13. One of the primary responsibilities of the Company Secretary is to attend the
Annual General Meeting of the company. As per the Companies Act, Annual
General Meeting and requisitioned Extra ordinary General Meetings are explained
U/S.
(a) 150 to 156
(b) 159 to 163
(c) 166 to 169
(d) 173 to 175
(e) 183 to 187

14. Amongst the following statements, find the odd one out with regards to book
keeping.
(a) Bookkeeping has limited scope and concerned with recording, classifying &
summarizing.
(b) Book keeping is essentially a clerical work.
(c) Book keeping depends on Accounting for making accounting records more useful.
(d) Book keeping only considers monetary transactions.
(e) Book keeping happens after the Accounting process.

𝑪𝒉𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆𝒔 𝒊𝒏 𝑷𝒓𝒐𝒇𝒊𝒕𝒔
15. × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = =__________________
𝐂𝐡𝐚𝐧𝐠𝐞𝐬 𝐢𝐧 𝐒𝐚𝐥𝐞𝐬

(a) Break Even Point

(b) P/V Ratio
(c) Contribution
(d) % increase in sales
(e) Margin of Safety

16. Which among the following belongs to Nominal Account?

(a) Bad Debts Recovery A/C
(b) Bank A/C
(c) Bills Payable A/C
(d) Drawings A/C
(e) Commission Received in Advance

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17. Debit: all Expenses and Losses
Credit: all gains or Income
This formula is applicable for:
(a) Representative Personal Accounts
(b) Tangible Real Accounts
(c) Natural Personal Accounts
(d) Intangible Real Accounts
(e) Nominal Accounts

18. Choose the most appropriate answer:

First hand data collected afresh for the purpose of statistical investigation is
called:
(a) Skewed Data
(b) Symmetric Data
(c) Primary Data
(d) Statistical Data
(e) Secondary Data

19. Which of the following is NOT a head of Income as prescribed by the Income
Tax Act?
(a) Income from Salary
(b) Income from House Property
(c) Income from Foreign Earnings
(d) Income from Business and Profession
(e) Income from Capital Gains

20. Which of the following is NOT a part of measuring the central tendency?
(a) Weighted Average
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) Harmonic Mean
(e) Chi Square Test

21. As per the Principles of Management suggested by Fayol, what does the
principle of "Esprit De Corps" essentially talk about?
(a) Uniformity
(b) Departmentalization
(c) Team work
(d) Honesty
(e) Short circuiting of functional relationships

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22. As per the terminologies defined by the Income Tax Act, the year in which
income is earned is called and in which the income is taxable is called.
(a) Previous year; assessment year
(b) Assessment year; previous year
(c) Previous years; taxable year
(d) Financial year; assessment year
(e) Assessment year; taxable year

23. As per Section 288 A of Income Tax Act, the taxable income shall be rounded
off to the nearest multiple of:
(a) Rs.1 for part of a rupee consisting of paise
(b) Rs.5 for the nearest divisible number
(c) Rs.10 for the nearest divisible number
(d) Rs.50 for the nearest divisible number
(e) Rs.100 for the nearest divisible number

24. Who among the following is NOT included as "Person" as per section 2(31)
of Income Tax Act?
(a) An Individual being an NRI
(b) A Hindu undivided family
(c) An Association of persons or body of individuals whether incorporated or not
(d) A Company
(e) A Local Authority or Artificial Juridical Person

25. Which of the following incomes is NOT taxable as per Income Tax Act?
(a) Regular and definite source of Income
(b) Income received in kind
(c) Income received from mutual funds activities
(d) Income earned from illegal sources
(e) Income from let out house property

26. Which of the following acts has replaced the Monopolistic and Restrictive
Trade Practices (MRTP) Act?
(a) Consumer Protection Act
(b) Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA)
(c) Essential Commodities Act
(d) Food Safety and Standards Act
(e) Competition Act

27. In which year was the Consumer Protection Act enacted?

(a) 1975
(b) 1979
(c) 1982
(d) 1986
(e) 1991

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28. As per the Consumer Protection Act, who among the following is NOT
regarded as Consumer?
(a) Who buys any goods or services
(b) Who hires or avails any services
(c) Who uses/is benefitted from services without making any payment
(d) Who obtains goods for resale
(e) Who sells/purchases shares to a share broker

29. Which of the following statements regarding National Commission is NOT

true as per the Consumer Protection Act?
(a) National Commission has been set up by the Central Government
(b) The chairman of the commission must be a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme
Court.
(c) The commission consists of 8 members out of which minimum 2 members are women.
(d) It hears the appeals or complaints where the value/compensation exceeds ? 1 crore.
(e) It hears the appeals made against the decisions of the State Commission.

30. As per sec 24 A of the Consumer Protection Act, a complaint with the District
Forum, the State Commission or the National Commission with their respective
jurisdiction, must be field within from the date on which the cause of action has
arisen. However, the authority may condone the delay on being satisfied by the
complainant and after recording the reasons for the same.
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
(e) 2 years

31. Setting up of Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the byproduct of:

(a) Consumer Protection Act
(b) Competition Act
(c) MR IP Act
(d) Essential Commodities Act
(e) Food Safety and Standards Act

32. As per section 44 of the Competition Law, what is the penalty for making
false statements or omission to furnish material information by any party?
(a) Minimum penalty of Rs.50 lakhs and Maximum up to Rs.1 crore
(b) Minimum penalty of Rs.25 lakhs and Maximum up to Rs.1 crore
(c) Minimum penalty of Rs.10 lakhs and Maximum up to Rs.50 lakhs
(d) Minimum penalty of Rs.5 lakhs and Maximum up to Rs.50 lakhs
(e) Minimum penalty of Rs.5 lakhs and Maximum up to Rs.25 lakhs

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33. As per Indian Contract Act, the manifestation by the offeree of his/her assent
to the terms of the offer is said to be:
(a) Consideration
(b) Acceptance
(c) Offer
(d) Proposal
(e) Contract

34. Find the odd one out with regard to Essentials of a Contract as prescribed by
the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(a) Offer and Acceptance
(b) Free Consent
(c) Competent Parties
(d) Objects is beyond lawful considerations
(e) Certainty and possibility of performance

35. Consider the following case.

DTC runs a bus in a particular route and a passenger gets into the bus anticipating
that it will drop him at the desired place in between the route in which it is being
plied in exchange for certain fare or fees. Such a kind of contract between the
passenger and the bus operator will be:
(Choose the most appropriate option in the given context.)
(a) Express Contract
(b) Implied Contract
(c) Specific Offer
(d) General Offer
(e) Void Offer

36. A contract in which the consent of one of the parties is obtained by coercion,
undue influence, misrepresentation or fraud till the aggrieved party complains
can be called:
(a) Contingent Contract
(b) Contracts for Executed Consideration
(c) Quasi Contract
(d) Void Contract
(e) Voidable Contract

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37. Consider the following case.
Mr. Ram makes a telephonic call to Mr. Shyam offering a deal on repair of his old
refrigerator. The offer was heard and duly accepted by Mr. Shyam while on the
phone assuming that no disturbances were caused from telephone operator.
There is no written document to Verify this offer, as it happened over telephone.
As per your assessment, will it form a part of contract? If No, why? If Yes, then
which kind of contract is it?
(a) No, because there is no written document to support the contract.
(b) No, because telephonic conversations cannot form a part of Contract.
(c) Yes, it can form an Express contract as the acceptance was heard clearly, though it is
a phone.
(d) Yes, it can be a part of contingent contract
(e) No, ii cannot be a contract, because parties in the contracts are not in the same place.

38. is a contract, whether oral or written, to perform the promise or discharge

the liabilities of a third person in case of his defaults.
(a) Contract of Indemnity
(b) Contract of Guarantee
(c) Contract of Performance
(d) Contract of Bailment
(e) Contract of Pledge

39. Which of the following is NOT a method of collection primary data?

(a) Referrring to economic reports published by the Government
(b) Conducting oral interviews
(c) Taking information from correspondents
(d) Schedules through Enumerators
(e) Mailing of questionnaire

40. Which of the following falls into the category of non probability sampling
method?
(a) Simple Random Sampling
(b) Stratified Random Sampling
(c) Systematic Sampling
(d) Cluster Sampling
(e) Quota Sampling

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41. Match the following and choose the most appropriate option.
Column-A Column-B
A. Median 1. Hypothesis
B. StandardDeviation 2. Positional Average
C. F-Test 3. Distance from mean value
ABC
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3
(e) 1 3 2

42. Which of the following is NOT a part of the basic function of Office
Management?
(a) Public-relations function
(b) Receiving information
(c) Recording information
(d) Arranging information
(e) Giving information

43. Which of the following is NOT a part of Production Cost Budget?

(a) Material Budget
(b) Labour Budget
(c) Cash Budget
(d) Plant Budget
(e) Sales Budget

44. The process of verification of cost accounts for the accuracy of data and
examination of these records to ensure that they adhere to its principles, plans,
procedures and objectives can otherwise be called:
(a) Performance Audit
(b) Strategic Audit
(c) Cost Audit
(d) Statutory Audit
(e) Secretarial Audit

45. is a behavioral approach to assess risk using a number of possible return

estimates to obtain a sense of the variability among outcomes.
(a) Range analysis
(b) Deviation analysis
(c) Dispersion analysis
(d) Probability analysis
(e) Sensitivity analysis

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46. BOGEY standard in Cost Accounting is also known as:
(a) Basic standard
(b) Ideal standard
(c) Attainable standard
(d) Abnormal loss standard
(e) Basic waste control standard

47. Which of the following is correct with regard to virtual office?

(a) Less freedom and flexibility
(b) Not suitable for part-time or contract workers
(c) Lack of face-to-face communication
(d) Tedious working environment
(e) More time consuming as compared to traditional offices

48. As per John F. Welsh, the CEO of General Electric Company, all except one are
the part of success rules for office managers. Which of the following is the
exception?
(a) Face Reality as it is. Not as it would or as you wish it may be.
(b) Be candid with everyone
(c) If you don't have a competitive advantage, don't compete
(d) Manage, don’t lead
(e) Change before you have to

49. Which of the following Joes NOT form a part of the function performed by an
office manager?
(a) Making Corporate Strategies
(b) Training of Staff
(c) Work Measurement and Compensation Management
(d) Secretarial Services
(e) Keeping Human Relations

50. Statement A: People work in an organization for accomplishment of group

goals.
Statement B: Group goals cannot be aligned with personal goals.
Reason: Organization gives a platform to accomplish individual goals.
Select the most appropriate option.
(a) Statement A is correct, but the reason R is not correct.
(b) Statement B is correct, but the reason R is not correct.
(c) Statement A is correct and the reason R is the correct justification.
(d) Statement B is correct and the reason R is the correct justification.
(e) Both statement A and B are correct, and the reason R is the correct justification for
both.

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51. Consider the following points.
1. Grouping the activities
2. Delegate the required authority
3. Defining and assigning activities to jobs
4. Division of work into activities
5. Fitting personnel into jobs
6. Knowledge of objectives
7. Create organizational relationships
Which of the following lists the correct sequence with regards to steps in organizing?
(a) 7,4,3,2,1,5,6
(b) 4,5,3,2,1,6,7
(c) 2,3,1,5,6,7,4
(d) 6,4,1,3,5,2,7
(e) 6,2,4,1,3,7,5

52. Which of the following factors is NOT a determinant of degree of delegation?

(a) Cost of the decision
(b) Government regulations
(c) Size of the firm
(d) Availability of capable managers
(e) Philosophy of management

53. Which of the following statements is NOT true in the context of

Centralization?
(a) Provides power and prestige to central authorities
(b) Increases morale of subordinates
(c) Increases burden on top management
(d) Suitable for small size organizations
(e) Facilitates quick decision making

54. Which of the following is NOT an aim of Scientific Management?

(a) Increased Productivity
(b) Quality Control
(c) Cost Reduction
(d) Incentive Wages
(e) Facilitating Shouldering

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55. Using of partition for making individual chamber is an example of:
(a) Office Location
(b) Office Layout
(c) Office Operation
(d) Office Protocol
(e) Office Balancing

Instruction:
Consider the data below and answer the questions (56-58) based on it.
Factory Expenses = Rs.30000
Administrative Expenses = Rs.20000
Labour Cost = Rs.25000
Materials = Rs.35000
Selling Expenses = Rs.10000
56. Ascertain the prime cost with the help given cost data.
(a) Rs.50000
(b) Rs.60000
(c) Rs.70000
(e) Rs.90000
(d) Rs.80000

57. Considering the given cost information, what will be the works cost?
(a) Rs.50000
(b) Rs.65000
(c) Rs.75000
(d) Rs.80000
(e) Rs.90000

58. What will be the cost of production?

(a) Rs.80000
(b) Rs.85000
(c) Rs.90000
(d) Rs.100000
(e) Rs.110000

59. Fixed cost per unit _____ with increase in output.

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(cl Remains constant
(d) Increases at a decreasing rate
(e) Increases proportionately

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60. What is an opportunity cost?
Choose the most appropriate option.
(a) The cost of availing an opportunity
(b) The cost of advantage forgone
(cl The situational cost
(d) Cost of speculative activities
(e) The minimum cost to carry out a project

61. Which of the following is NOT a usual feature of a Company?

(a) Separate Legal Entity
(b) Common Seal
(c) Unlimited Liability
(d) Artificial Judicial Person
(e) Perpectual Succession

62. As per the commonly held belief, is concerned with the top management and
is a function of middle and low level management.
(a) management; administration
(b) administration; management
(c) execution of plans; planning
(d) budgeting; resource allocating
(e) Planning; strategic decision making

63. Who propounded the theory of Bureaucracy?

(a) Max Weber
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Fredric W. Taylor
(d) Chester Bernard
(e) Luther Flasley Gulick

64. Which of the following audits is exclusively done by Company Secretary?

(a) Statutory Audit
(b) Cost Audit
(c) Financial Audit
(d) Secretarial Audit
(e) Internal Audit

65. In case of absence of a partnership deed, what is the rule for charging
interest on drawings?
(a) No interest is charged
(b) Interest @ 4% is charged
(c) Interest @ 5% is charged
(d) Interest @ 6% is charged
(e) A flat interest @ 10% is charged on the Capital brought in

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66. The rate of interest @ p.a is to be allowed to a partner for Advances/Loans
given, assuming the partnership deed stays silent on the matter.
(a) 4%
(b) 5%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
(e) 10%

67. Calculate the interest on drawings assuming the rate @ 10% p.a for the year
ended 31” December 2016, for the withdrawals of Rs.2000 made at the beginning
of each month.
(a) Rs.1100
(b) Rs.1200
(c) Rs.1300
(d) Rs.1400
(e) Rs.1400

68. X and Y are partners in a firm. X is entitled to a salary of Rs.2000 per month
together with a commission of 10% of net profit before charging any
commission. Y is entitled to a salary' of Rs.5000 per annum together with a
commission of 10% of net profit after charging all commissions. Net profit before
charging any commission for the year was Rs.55,000. What will be the net profits
to be distributed to X and Y respectively?
(a) 20000 and 230000
(b) 215000 and 23500
(c) 22000 and 22500
(d) 22350 and 22450
(e) 22500 and 22500

69. As per the rules pertaining to Income Tax Act, any asset which is acquired
during the previous year and has been put to use for 50 days will be allowed to
deduct depreciation as:
(a) 20% of the usual depreciation.
(b) 30% of the usual depreciation,
(c) 33.33% of the usual depreciation
(d) 50% of the usual depreciation
(e) the usual depreciation, as applicable

70. Which of the following sections of the Income Tax Act deals with interest,
royalty, fees for technical services payable outside India or payable to a non-
resident?
(a) Section 40 (a) (i)
(b) Section 40 (a) (ii)
(c) Section 40 (b) (i)
(d) Section 40 (b) (ii)
(e) Section 40 (b) (iv)

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71. The sum received under key man insurance policy (including bonus) is always
taxable under head, if the same is not taxable as salary or business income.
(a) Salary
(b) Income from business and Profession
(c) Income from Capital Gains
(d) Income from House property
(e) Income from other sources

72. Under Section 194 B and 194 BB of Income Tax Act, tax is deductible @ on
payment in respect of winnings from lotteries or cross word puzzles etc.
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
(e) 50%

73. The famous case of Garner Vs. Murray in Partnership is applicable in the event
of:
(a) Admission of a partner in order to decided the sacrificing ratio
(b) Dissolution of partnership in the event of insolvency
(c) Death of a partner while distributing profits
(d) Retirement of a partner
(e) Formation of new partnership

74. Which of the following is usually NOT a right enjoyed by a Principal in the
contract of Agency?
(a) Right to revoke the agency
(b) Right to charge abnormal fee for the agency
(c) Right to repudiate the agency
(d) Right to recover the secret profits from the agent
(e) Right to enter into a contract

75. Which of the following does not fit into the characteristics of office system?
(a) Flexibility
(b) Systematic
(c) Adaptable
(d) Acceptability
(e) Complex Structure

76. Which of the following is NOT a reason for fraud?

(a) Absence or laxness in internal control
(b) Overstatement of stock
(c) Understatement of purchases
(d) Keeping voucher for monetary transactions
(e) Misappropriation of cash and goods

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77. Which of the following is NOT a part of Basic Audit Assumption?
(a) True and fair view
(b) Inter-dependency of the auditor
(c) Materiality
(d) Ethical conduct
(e) Report of audit evidence

78. Which of the following is NOT a method of collecting Audit Evidence?

(a) Reporting
(b) Inspection
(c) Observation
(d) Enquiry
(e) Computations

79. Closing stock is recorded in the books of accounts through:

(a) An adjustment entry
(b) A closing entry
(c) A closing entry or by adjusting purchases through an adjustment entry
(d) A opening entry
(e) A suspense entry

80. Following data is available from the records of a company:

Sales Rs.60000
Variable cost Rs.30000
Fixed cost Rs.15000
The P/V ratio, Break-even point and Margin of safety will respectively be:
(a) 55%, Rs.35000 and Rs.30000
(b) 50%, Rs.25000 and Rs.35000
(c) 50%, Rs.30000 and Rs.30000
(d) 40%, Rs.32500 and Rs.27500
(e) 40%, Rs.20000 and Rs.40000

81. Who among the following is eligible to be appointed as an auditor?

1. A person having qualified and recognized by ICAl as practicing CA
2. A body corporate
3. A person holding shares of the company having voting rights
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) Only 2
(e) Only 2 and 3

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82. The cost audit report has to be submitted within ____ days of the closure of
the books of account (or end of the accounting period).
(a) 45
(b) 60
(c) 90
(d) 120
(e) 180

83. Which of the following is NOT a function performed by a company secretary?

(a) CS as an agent of Top Management
(b) CS as a watch-dog
(c) CS as a proxy to the members of BOD
(d) CS as an Accountant
(e) CS as an Auditor

84. Match the following.

Column A Column B
A. Statutory Audit 1. Commerce graduate having proficiency in Accounting
B. Secretarial Audit 2. Practicing Company
Secretary
C. Cost Audit 3. Practicing Chartered Accountant
D. Internal Audit 4. Practicing Cost & Works (or Management) Accountant
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
(e) 1 2 3 4

85. Which of the following laws is applicable for the professional Misconduct
observed at a factory premise on the part of an Auditor?
(a) Code of Civil Procedure
(b) Code of Criminal Procedures
(c) Companies Act, 2013
(d) Factories Act, 1948
(e) Chartered Accountants Act, 1949

86. As per the SEBI regulation, a minimum of % of the issued capital must be
subscribed in order io validate a public share issue, failing of which, the issue
may be cancelled and may be reissued on a future date.
(a) 75
(c) 85
(e) 95
(b) 80
(d) 90
(d) Business Entity Concept
(e) Realization Concept

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87. The amount at any given volume of output by which aggregate costs are
changed if the volume of output is increased or decreased by one unit, can be
otherwise termed as:
(a) Abnormal Cost
(c) Fixed Cost
(e) Sunk Cost
(b) Marginal Cost
(d) Semi Variable Cost

88. Fixed Cost ± Profit or Loss =

(a) Variable Cost
(c) Contribution
(e) Break Even Point
(b) Marginal Cost
(d) Margin of Safety

𝑷𝒓𝒐𝒇𝒊𝒕
89. = ______
𝑷/𝑽 𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐

(a) Break Even Point

(b) Variable Cost
(c) Fixed Cost
(d): Margin of safety
(e) Angle of Incidence Ans.

90. For a transport concern like Bus Transport, the most appropriate method of
costing technique will be:
(a) Unit Costing
(b) Standard Costing
(c) Operating Costing
(d) Job Costing
(e) Batch Costing

91. "Every debit should have equal and corresponding credit." Which of the
following Accounting Concept says so?
(a) Matching Concept
(b) Dual Aspect Concept
(c) Accrual Concept
(d) Business Entity Concept
(e) Realization Concept

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92. Consider the following information.
Commodity Price in 2015 (Rs.) Price in 2016 (Rs.)
A 50 70
B 40 60
C 80 90
D 110 120
E 20 20
If we go on constructing an index number for the year 2016, taking year 2015 as base,
what will be the value?
(a) 102
(c) 110
(e) 125
(b) 107
(d) 120

93. What is the relation between Mean, Median and Mode in a symmetrical
distribution?
(a) Mean = Median = Mode
(b) Mean > Median > Mode
(c) Mean < Median > Mode
(d) Mean < Median < Mode
(e) Mean > Median < Mode

94. Which of the following formulae is/are correct as per the relationship defined
by Karl Person?
1. Mode = Mean - 3 (Mean – Median)
2. Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
3. Median = Mode + 2/3 (Mean – Mode)
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1 and 3
(e) All 1,2 and 3

95. Which of the following is odd one out with regard to 'measure oi dispersion'?
(a) Coefficient of correlation
(b) Range and quartile deviation
(c) Mean deviation
(d) Standard deviation
(e) Coefficient of variation

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96. In a negatively skewed distribution, which of the following statements holds
to be true?
(a) The value of mean is maximum.
(b) The value of mode is minimum.
(c) The excess tail is in the left hand side.
(d) Median value is equal to mode.
(e) The curve is evenly spread to both the sides

97. While calculating the coefficient of correlation, if the computed value comes
as 0.959, then what will be the conclusion/interpretation?
(a) Perfectly positively correlated
(b) Highly positively correlated
(c) Moderately positively correlated
(d) Perfectly negatively correlated
(e) No correlation at all

98. Which of the following can be served as the best definition of a Government
Company?
(a) Where the central government holds 51% or more shares
(b) Where the state government holds 51% or more shares
(c) Where central and state governments together hold more than 51% of shares
(d) Where the central, state & local government hold more than 51% shares putting
together
(e) Where central, state or local government holds more than 51% shares or is working
as a subsidiary to a government company

99. Which of the following rules is NOT correct with regard to issue and forfeiture
of shares?
(a) For each call, at least 14 days notice to be given
(b) An interval of 30 days is required between two successive share calls
(c) Not more than 40% of the nominal value of the share can be called at a time as a call
(d) As prescribed by SEBI, capital issues have to be made fully paid up within 12 months,
if the total issue size is less than ? 500 crore.
(e) A defaulting member does not enjoy voting rights till the call money is paid

100. In case of dissolution of the partnership, if a partner's capital account shows

a debit balance and he subsequently turns out to be insolvent, what will be the
accounting treatment? (Consider the case laws)
(a) The loss has to be borne in the capital ratio by the solvent partners.
(b) The loss has to be borne in the existing profit sharing ratio.
(c) The loss has to be borne in the adjusted profit sharing ratio after insolvency.
(d) The loss has to be borne in the sacrificing ratio of the solvent partners.
(e) The loss has to be equally distributed among the solvent partners.

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