COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

HUMAN PERFORMANCE

TYPICAL QUESTIONS

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 1 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

1. Haemoglobin, a protein molecule found in the red blood cells, function as:

a) A transport molecule for oxygen from the lungs to the tissue cells.
b) A “breathing drive” or “respiration stimulant” to the brain when not combined
with oxygen.
c) A molecule splitter, by breaking down carbon dioxide in the blood to carbon
dioxide in the blood to carbon and oxygen.

2. As altitude is increased above sea level:

a) The partial pressure exerted by oxygen in the atmosphere remains constant,

while its percentage composition of the atmosphere decreases.
b) The partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere decreases, while that of
carbon dioxide increases.
c) The partial pressure of oxygen, as well as the other gases in the atmosphere,
decreases.

3. Hypoxia is:

a) A regular occurrence in pressurized aircraft at an altitude of more than

10 000 ft above sea level.
b) A measure of the blood’s oxygen saturation.
c) Directly related to the rate of ascent and not the final cruise altitude.

4. The first symptoms of hypoxia usually start occurring at altitudes above 10 000 ft
and:

a) Are very easily and immediately detectable by crew members in each other.
b) Are usually associated with mental functions owing to the fact that nervous
tissue (the brain) is most sensitive to lack of oxygen.
c) Loss of muscular control is one of the earliest manifestations.

5. Susceptibility to hypoxia can be increased by:

a) Alcohol, drugs and tobacco.

b) Age over 25 years.
c) Pilots who fly regularly exposed to mild hypoxia.

6. Resistance to hypoxia can be increased by:

a) Drugs which slow down the circulation and therefore the rate of oxygen
consumption.
b) The valsalva manoeuvre, which forces more oxygen into the blood.
c) Good physical condition and 25 years of age and over.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 2 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

7. In the classification of hypoxia, hypoxic hypoxia is defined as:

a) A condition where there is insufficient oxygenation of the blood in the lungs

owing to decreased partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in the alveoli.
b) A condition where, owing the blood loss, there is a decreased in the total
circulation haemoglobin.
c) A condition where there are heart or circulatory (cardo-vascular) problems
(pathology).

8. The time of useful consciousness at 30 000 ft is:

a) 30-60 seconds.
b) 10-20 seconds.
c) 2-4 seconds.

9. Hyperventilation, or over breathing, occurs most commonly:

a) Owing to the “breathing drive” which is a function of increased body carbon

dioxide.
b) In young anxious pilots.
c) In pilots over the age of 25 years who fly regularly exposed to mild hypoxia.

10. Symptoms of hyperventilation include:

a) Loss of all muscle tone.

b) Light-headedness with a tingling or numbness of the fingers, hands, toes and
lips.
c) A pale skin with a bluish tint of the fingertips, lips ears and nose.

11. Non-conductive hearing loss is usually associated with inner ear pathology and:

a) Middle ear infections are a common cause.

b) Age plays no roll in non-conductive hearing loss.
c) Allergies are a common cause of non-conductive hearing loss.

12. Spatial disorientation, a condition in which the subject is unable to perceive his
position, attitude and motion relative to the earth:

a) Is most commonly caused by long-term exposure to a hazardous noise

environment.
b) Can be immediately reversed by referring to the aircraft flight instruments.
c) Can be aggravated by middle ear infections involving the vestibular
apparatus.

13. The vestibular system is made up of:

a) The semi-circular canals only.

b) The semi-circular canals, the otolith organs and the eyes.
c) The semi-circular canals and the otolith organs.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 3 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

14. As a pilot’s environment is one of constantly changing pressure:

a) He should not fly with a head cold, throat, ear or sinus infection.
b) He should not allow his teeth to be x-rayed, as this can cause the formation
of small pockets of air in the fillings.
c) He should not take part in any of scuba diving.

15. The Eustachian tube is used to:

a) Conduct sound waves from the outer to the inner ear.

b) Prevent “decompression sickness” in divers who have to fly soon after a dive
exceeding 30 ft.
c) Equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum.

16. In order to avoid decompression sickness:

a) Divers may fly in unpressurised aircraft immediately after a dive even if a

depth of 30 ft was exceeded.
b) Divers may fly in pressurized aircraft immediately after a dive even if a depth
of 30 ft was exceeded.
c) Divers should not fly within 12 hours of having used compressed air or within
24 hours if a depth of 30 ft was exceeded.

17. Circadian rhythms are “body clocks” which control physiological processes such as
sleep and body temperature. In this regard:

a) Most circadian rhythms will only re-synchronise at a rate of 1-11/2 hours per
day.
b) Flying north-south has the most effect and flying east-west has the least
effect.
c) De-synchronisation of circadian rhythms can be avoided by the use of
sleeping table and a “long sleep” before starting a long haul flight.

18. In the event of a forced landing or ditching, generally the priorities for survival, in a
host environment in order of importance, are:

a) Water, food, protection and location.

b) Protection, location, water and food.
c) Water, protection, location and food.

19. The best night vision is achieved by:

a) Looking directly at an object to ensure maximum exposure of the object to the

cones, which are more efficient for night vision.
b) Looking slightly off centre at an object, which will allow the rods greater
exposure during their concentration away from the centre of the retina
(Fovea).
c) Regular, brief exposure to light.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 4 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

20. Treatment of hyperventilation should include:

a) Increasing the rate and depth of breathing.

b) Breathing oxygen mask.
c) Reducing the rate and depth of breathing.

21. Method of combating hypoxia include:

a) Breathing into a paper bag.

b) Increasing the rate and depth of breathing.
c) Maintaining an adequate oxygen pressure gradient.

22. Anaemic hypoxia can occur as a result of:

a) Blood loss from severe bleeding.

b) Poor circulation.
c) Poisoning of the body’s cells or tissues.

23. Anaemia is a condition in which:

a) There is a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the red blood cells.

b) The heart is unable to pump sufficient blood to the lungs to collect oxygen.
c) There is a restriction in the form of a blood clot in a coronary artery.

24. Diabetes in a disease which occurs as a result of:

a) Too much glucose in the blood.

b) Too little glucose in the blood.
c) A deficiency of insulin.

25. The term systolic is used to indicate that blood pressure is:

a) At its lowest level.

b) At its highest level.
c) Normal.

26. Long term high blood pressure may lead to:

a) An aneurysm.
b) An increased pulse rate.
c) An increase in the heart rhythm.

27. The function of the Eustachian tube is to:

a) Equalise pressure in the middle ear.

b) Equalise pressure in the inner ear.
c) Prevent changes in pressure in the middle ear.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 5 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

28. The primary function of the semi-circular canals is to:

a) Sense linear accelerations.

b) Sense angular accelerations.
c) Sense gravitational accelerations.

29. In order to allow more light to enter the eye:

a) The iris contracts, which increase the size of the pupil.

b) The iris expands, which increases the size of the pupil.
c) The cilliary muscles contract, which improves accommodation.

30. Long sightedness, or hypermetropia, can be corrected:

a) Only by surgery.
b) By wearing convex lenses.
c) By wearing concave lenses.

31. Sudden and severe chest pains, following which the victim collapses are symptoms
of:

a) Angina.
b) Coronary thrombosis.
c) An aneurysm.

32. Low blood pressure or hypotension, may lead to:

a) Dizziness or fainting.
b) An aneurysm.
c) A heart attack.

33. Blood pressure is:

a) The force exerted by the blood against the walls of the main arteries.
b) The rate at which the heart beats.
c) Responsible for the regular beating of the heart.

34. Platelets are the blood cells which:

a) Fight infection and disease.

b) Play a key role in the formation of blood clots.
c) Make up the bulk of blood plasma.

35. Non-diabetics can also suffer from low blood glucose. The symptoms, which include
dizziness and shaking, can be corrected:

a) By not eating before flying.

b) By eating regularly.
c) Only by having an insulin injection.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 6 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

36. Fainting is a condition which causes a loss of consciousness due to:

a) A reduction in the supply of blood to the brain.

b) Low blood sugar.
c) High blood pressure.

37. After donating blood a pilot may not fly for a period of:

a) 48 hours.
b) 36 hours.
c) 24 hours.

38. Cyanosis is likely to result from:

a) Hyperventilation.
b) Too much carbon dioxide in the blood.
c) Hypoxia.

39. Rods are instrumental in our:

a) Peripheral vision.
b) Central vision.
c) Perception of colour.

40. Good night vision is dependant upon:

a) Cones, which are effective in poor light.

b) Rods, which are able to function in dim light.
c) Accommodation, which increases the size of the pupil.

41. The term “acute” is used to describe:

a) Physical stress.
b) Short-term stress.
c) Long-term stress.

42. A fugue state is a condition which:

a) May last from a few days to a few weeks.

b) Causes total amnesia.
c) Causes memory loss due to the passage of time.

43. Semantic memory is memory which deals with:

a) The storage of events, which have occurred during life.

b) The storage of information in word form.
c) The temporary storage of information.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

44. A close loop system is a method of processing information which:

a) Is used by motor programs.

b) Includes feedback.
c) Excludes feedback.

45. One of the aims of CRM training is to:

a) Change personality traits.

b) Change and develop attitudes.
c) Modify individual differences in crewmembers.

46. Cognitive dissonance is a term used to describe:

a) Mental confusion when beliefs are contradicted by new information.

b) A condition is which a person suddenly loses all recollection of their personal
identify.
c) A condition in which a person cannot remember words.

47. Acute fatigue is best treated by:

a) Medication to help you sleep.

b) Restful and uninterrupted natural sleep.
c) Removing yourself for an extended period from flight duty.

48. Paradoxical or REM sleep is characterized by:

a) High levels of brain activity.

b) Decreasing brain wave activity.
c) Very low frequency brain waves.

49. Which of the following conditions could cause sudden total incapacitation?

a) Hypertension.
b) Dehydration.
c) Heart attack.

50. Who is responsible for ensuring a pilot is medically fit for each flight

a) The Airline.
b) The designated medical examiner.
c) The Pilot.

51. Which of the following are disqualifying illnesses?

a) Headache.
b) Influenza.
c) Diabetes.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 8 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

52. Which of the following food groups should you eat least of?

a) Meat, fish and eggs.

b) Fruit and vegetables.
c) Refined sugars, alcohol.

53. Which of the following may result from insufficient exercise?

a) Diarrhoea.
b) Hypertension.
c) Epilepsy.

54. Exercise programs must:

a) Be regular and at least 1 hour a week.

b) Should involve mobility, strengthening and aerobic components.
c) Should not increase the pulse rate by more than 10 beats per minute.

55. Coronary Thrombosis:

a) Is felt as pain that comes with exercise and subsides with rest.
b) Is a dramatic sudden blockage of a heart artery.
c) Is a result of excessive exercise.

56. The major factor in assessing an individuals risk of heart disease is:

a) Family history of premature heart disease.

b) Hypertension.
c) Cigarette smoking.

57. Which of the following statement is true?

a) Fainting results in permanent loss of license.

b) Fainting is due to interrupted blood supply to the brain.
c) Fainting is a symptom of epilepsy.

58. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Any psychiatric disease results in permanent loss of license.

b) Psychosis results in permanent loss of license.
c) Neurosis results in permanent loss of license.

59. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Females should not drink more than 21 standard drinks per week.
b) Females should not drink more than 28 standard drinks per week.
c) Females should not drink more than 7 standard drinks per week.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 9 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

60. A possible result of lower hygiene in food preparation could be:

a) Hypertension.
b) Gastroenteritis.
c) Angina.

61. The tropical disease that kills more than any other is:

a) Rabies.
b) Cholera.
c) Malaria.

62. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Pilots should not fly for 72 hours after blood donation.

b) Pilots must not fly when pregnant.
c) To avoid dehydration with air temperature above 30 degrees we should drink
a minimum of 250 ml every half hour.

63. Which of the following is correct regarding Boyles Law?

a) The pressure of a gas varies directly with its temperature, volume remaining
constant.
b) The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure to which it is
subjected, temperature remaining constant.
c) The pressure of a gas varies indirectly with its temperature, volume remaining
constant.

64. The main mechanism of transport of oxygen around the human body is achieved by:

a) The gas exchange mechanism allowing oxygen to bind with nitrogen in the
Alveoli.
b) The binding of oxygen with Haemoglobin.
c) The gas exchange mechanism in the Alveoli oxygen to dissolve in the blood.

65. Reduced pressure cause the body gasses to expand e.g. ears tend to “pop” with
altitude. Nitrogen tends to dissolve in body fluids and with the reduction of
atmospheric pressure; bubbles can form in these fluids particular around the joints.
The altitude at which this can occur is uncommon below:

a) 18 000 ft.
b) 25 000 ft.
c) 15 000 ft.

66. Hyperventilation:

a) Is unlikely to occur above 10 000 ft.

b) Can result from an inadequate partial pressure of oxygen.
c) Is likely to result in death if not corrected.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 10 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

67. Tingling sensation in the fingertips and lips is most likely due to:

a) Hyperventilation.
b) Hyperactivity.
c) Hypertension.

68. The concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere:

a) Reduces above 10 000 ft.

b) Is 78% of the total of all gases present.
c) Is constant at all altitudes.

69. The bronchi:

a) Joint the trachea to the lungs.

b) Consist of a thin membrane, which enables oxygen to pass freely into the
blood stream.
c) Are easily damaged in a rapid decompression.

70. The “time of useful consciousness” after exposure to an altitude of 25 000 ft is:

a) 45-75 seconds.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 2-3 minutes.

71. At altitude the necessary oxygen requirements may be provided for normal
respiration by an oxygen/air mix up to:

a) 40 000 ft.
b) 24 000 ft.
c) 33 700 ft.

72. Smoking and flying do not mix because:

a) It damages aircraft air conditioning systems.

b) It increases the risk of coronary artery disease.
c) All the above.

73. A female pilot who becomes pregnant:

a) Can continue flying until the 24th week of pregnancy.

b) Is not allowed to continue flying until after the end of her pregnancy.
c) Maybe permitted to continue flying with the approval of the CAA.

74. Barotrauma of sinuses is most likely to occur:

a) In the climb.
b) In level flight at altitude.
c) In the descent.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 11 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

75. Following consumption of alcohol, when is it safe to fly?

a) 8 hours after the last drink.

b) 12 hours after the last drink.
c) 24 hours after the last drink.

76. Loss of hearing due to damage in the eardrum or auditory ossicles is known as:

a) Presbycusis.
b) Noise induced hearing loss. (NIHL)
c) Conductive deafness.

77. A symptom known as cyanosis is a blue colouration of the nails and lips recognised
more by an observer, than the effected, occurs when a person is suffering from:

a) Carbon monoxide poisoning.

b) Decompression sickness.
c) Hypoxic hypoxia.

78. A pilot who has been Scuba diving should avoid flying:

a) Within 36 hours of the last drive.

b) Within 12 hours or 24 hours if a depth of 30 feet has been exceeded.
c) Only after consultation with a doctor if a depth of 30 feet has been exceeded.

79. The partial pressure of various gasses in the alveoli differs from atmospheric air
because:

a) There is a significant increase of carbon dioxide and water vapour in the

alveoli.
b) Oxygen is removed at a higher rate from alveolar air than carbon dioxide
replaces it.
c) The venturi effects of air passing through the trachea and bronchi cause a
reduction of the pressure in the alveoli.

80. The function of the nasal passages are:

a) To enable the detection of possible noxious gases and trigger the body’s
automatic defences.
b) To trap harmful particles and bacteria in the mucous membranes so that they
will not pass into the very delicate lung tissue.
c) To filter, warm, and humidity air down in during inspiration.

81. The red blood cells are produced in the body:

a) By liver and spleen.

b) By the liver when trigged by hormone secretion.
c) By the bone marrow.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 12 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

82. The composition of Atmosphere in volume is:

a) Oxygen 21% Nitrogen 70%

b) Oxygen 79% Nitrogen 21%
c) Oxygen 21% Nitrogen 79%

83. In the event of rapid cabin decompression, the venturi effect may lead to:

a) A restriction of vision due to the sudden pressure drop causing water vapour
to condense in the cabin.
b) The cabin altitude being at a greater altitude than the aircraft altitude.
c) A sudden rise in the skin temperature of the fuselage with consequent
dangers of ignition of any fuel, which may flow, from fractured lines.

84. Sinuses in the skull are required:

a) To act as a reservoir for the fluids necessary to maintain the mucous

membranes of the respiratory system in a healthy state.
b) To provide a system to allow any sudden changes in air pressure to be
equalised over the whole skull.
c) To make the skull lighter and the voice resonant.

85. The body can tolerate short duration accelerations of +45g:

a) In the vertical axis.

b) In the fore and aft axis.
c) In the lateral axis.

86. Breathing into a paper bag assists recovery from hyperventilation by:

a) Increasing oxygen concentration in the blood.

b) Increasing carbon dioxide concentration in the blood.
c) Decreasing carbon dioxide concentration in the blood.

87. Select the correct statement regarding pilots/pax who have not been diving.

a) Decompression sickness is possible at any altitude.

b) Decompression sickness is not possible below 10 000 ft.
c) Decompression sickness is unlikely below 18 000 ft.

88. Resistance to the adverse effects of acceleration can be increased by:

a) Drugs which slow down the circulation and therefore the rate of oxygen
consumption.
b) The Valsalva manoeuvre which forces more oxygen into the blood.
c) Healthy rested condition and use of antistraining manoeuvres.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 13 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

89. In consideration of the anatomy of the human eye, which of the following is correct?

a) The rods are more sensitive to light than the cones.

b) The fovea contains a high concentration of rods.
c) The rods are more sensitive to colour than the cones.

90. Visual defects can be corrected with suitable lenses. Which of the following is
correct?

a) Long sightedness can be corrected with a concave lens.

b) Near sightedness can be corrected with a convex lens
c) Farsighted eyes can be corrected with a convex lens.

91. During a visual search, a saccade/rest cycle usually takes about:

a) 0.1 seconds.
b) 0.3 seconds.
c) 0.7 seconds.

92. When can a pilot use contact lenses?

a) During cruise.
b) Never when flying.
c) Only when a suitable pair of bifocals spectacles is carried for emergency use.

93. In the eye, the rods:

a) Are used primarily by day.

b) Are highly sensitive to colour changes.
c) Are sensitive to much lower light levels than the cones.

94. During scanning of both the instruments and externally of the aircraft, the
approximate time of a saccade is:

a) 0.1 seconds.
b) 1.0 seconds.
c) 1/3 seconds.

95. Light bending by the cornea is….. and by the Lens is……:

a) 70% and 30%.

b) 30% and 70%.
c) 79% and 21%.

96. The factor which contributes most in assessing an individuals risk in developing
corona artery disease is:

a) Obesity.
b) Smoking.
c) Family history.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 14 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

97. The major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart
attack is:

a) The amount of saturated fats in the diet.

b) High blood pressure.
c) Family history.

98. To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should:

a) Concentrate on any peripheral movement detected.

b) Continually sweep the field of vision.
c) Systematically focus on different segments of vision for short intervals.

99. A person who is 75 kg and 184 cm tall is:

a) Below normal.
b) Normal.
c) Overweight.

100. Increasing breathing at sea level during exercise increases body oxygen and is
compensated for by increased circulation. But increased breathing with body at rest
has the effect of:

a) Increasing the body carbon dioxide content.

b) Causing on over-saturation of the blood oxygen content.
c) Decreasing the body’s carbon dioxide content without increasing the amount
of oxygen carried.

101. Pilots exposed to accelerations of greater than 3.5 g can expect possible:

a) Sagging of facial tissue.

b) Felling of heaviness to the arms and legs.
c) “Greying out”

102. Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

a) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.

b) An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
c) Judgement and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even
small amounts of alcohol.

103. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Above 10 000 ft pilots should use supplementary oxygen.

b) The symptoms of hypoxia will make a pilot a poor judge of whether he is
receiving sufficient oxygen.
c) Both responses (a) and (b) are correct.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

104. The magnitude of the effects of decompression depends on:

a) How fast cabin air ventilates to atmosphere.

b) The difference in cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure and the rate at
which the pressure can equalize.
c) The speed at which oxygen can be restored.

105. The organ of the body most sensitive to an oxygen saturation level of less than
100% is:

a) The brain.
b) The kidneys.
c) The arteries.

106. Serious damage may occur to the brain if deprived of oxygen for:

a) 2 min.
b) 4 min.
c) 3 min.

107. The unit of measurement for loudness is the “db” and the threshold of normal
hearing is about 0 db. Exposure to noise levels in excess of 85 db are typically
found in the environment of:

a) Light aircraft cockpits.

b) Loud conversation.
c) A library.

108. Supplementary oxygen is required above 10 000 ft even though the composition of
the atmosphere does not change with altitude significantly. Why is additional
oxygen required:

a) Because the partial pressure of oxygen is reducing.

b) The proportion of oxygen in the atmosphere is reducing.
c) Because the proportion of carbon dioxide is increasing.

109. At sea level, the actual value of oxygen pressure available in the lungs is about 100
mm Hg at this pressure, the oxygen carrying agent haemoglobin will be 100%
saturated. At an altitude of between 8000 – 10 000 ft, the blood oxygen content will
have fallen to around:

a) 60%.
b) 90%.
c) 30%.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

110. Oxygen is diffused into the bloodstream through a thin membrane in the lungs. The
factor that determines how much oxygen is able to be diffused into the bloodstream
is:

a) Altitude.
b) Atmospheric pressure.
c) The pressure in the lung membrane.

111. The degrading of performance due to a reduction in blood oxygen level is in order of
the following pattern:

a) Euphoria, impaired judgement and colouration of the lips.

b) All of the above occur simultaneously.
c) Impaired judgement, euphoria, and actions become erratic and blue
colouration of the lips.

112. The eye is a lens system. Its primary purpose in to focus light into the:

a) Optic nerve.
b) Rods.
c) Retina.

113. The most common warning of the body indicating hypoxia is:

a) Increase heart beat.

b) Increased breathing rate.
c) Increased sense of well being (euphoria).

114. Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as:

a) Humidity decreases.
b) Air pressure increases.
c) Oxygen demand increases.

115. Hypoxia:

a) Can be difficult to recognise by anyone suffering its effects.

b) Will occur at lower altitudes by people who smoke.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

116. Above 10 000 ft the flight crew must use supplementary oxygen and a good oxygen
regulator will increase the oxygen content of the gas breathed until around 38 000 ft
the crew would be breathing:

a) 100% oxygen.
b) 90% oxygen, 10% nitrogen.
c) 80% oxygen, 20% nitrogen.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

117. How does haze affect ability to see traffic during flight?

a) It enables the eyes to detect movement easily.

b) It enables the eyes to detect contrasting colours quite easily.
c) All traffic appears to be further away than actual distance.

118. The “time of useful consciousness” after exposure to an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

a) 30 minutes.
b) 2 to 3 minutes.
c) 12 seconds.

119. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

a) Insufficient carbon dioxide.

b) Excessive carbon monoxide.
c) Insufficient oxygen.

120. When flying above cloud at night, the eyes lack any distant point on which to focus
and the lens will adopt a position of rest. This could result in:

a) The pilot having a reduced perception.

b) Mis-sighting another aircraft in the pilot’s visual field.
c) Reduce night vision.

121. Two cues are available for the pilot to determine whether another aircraft is on a
collision course at night. These are:

a) The bearing of the other aircraft is fixed and is manoeuvring.

b) The other aircraft manoeuvring and its navigation lights are visible.
c) The bearing of the aircraft is fixed and its navigation lights are visible.

122. To overcome the problem of empty field myopia. I.e. the lens adopting its position of
rest, the pilot should:

a) Bring his eyes to focus on the instrument panel.

b) Periodically bring his eyes of focus on distant cloud.
c) Periodically bring his eyes to focus on say the wing tips.

123. Select the correct statement regarding the alleviation of the effects of hypoxia at
cabin altitudes above 10 000 ft, without the use of supplementary oxygen.

a) The effects can be alleviated by slow, deep breathing.

b) The effects can be alleviated by rapid, shallow breathing.
c) The effects cannot be alleviated.

124. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

a) Avoid red lights at least 30 minutes before flight.

b) Wear amber coloured glasses at least 30 minutes before the flight.
c) Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

125. A head cold can:

a) Causes the Eustachian Tubes to swell, which may lead to severe pain during
a descent.
b) Causes a decrease in the rate at which air pressure equalizes either side of
the eardrum.
c) Both response (a) and (b) are correct.

126. The usual cause of hyperventilation is:

a) Anxiety.
b) Physical condition.
c) Alcohol.

127. Night vision may be affected by hypoxia as low as:

a) 20 000 ft.
b) 30 000 ft.
c) 4 000 ft.

128. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:

a) Breathing faster and relaxing.

b) Breathing slower and relaxing.
c) Descending to a lower altitude.

129. Carbon monoxide:

a) Can cause headaches, nausea, reduced vision, vomiting and loss of

muscular power.
b) Is tasteless, colourless and odourless.
c) All the above responses are correct.

130. In bright lights, the best vision is obtained by looking:

a) Directly at the object.

b) Off centre of the object.
c) With quick scanning motions.

131. The rods of the retina are very sensitive to the lack of oxygen, this markedly affects
night vision. Degradation of night vision occurs at approximately:

a) 10 000 ft.
b) 4 000 ft.
c) 14 000 ft.

132. In aircraft, carbon monoxide poisoning:

a) Can be caused by faulty cabin heating systems.

b) Is more likely to occur when rich mixture is being used.
c) Can often be traced to defective oil defective oil cooling systems.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

133. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Motion sickness remedies will have no effect upon pilot competence.

b) No ill effects from the common cold will be experienced proved the flight
altitude is kept below approximately 1 000 ft.
c) A sensible rule in relation to the consumption of alcohol is to allow at least 8
hours between drinking and flying.

134. If you look directly at an object at night, you will see it:

a) Less clearly because there are not as many cones as rods.

b) Less clearly because the fovea is a blind spot.
c) More clearly because it is focused in the fovea.

135. With regards to the requirements for oxygen when flying an aircraft, which of the
following is correct?

a) From sea level to 10 000 ft, there is no measurable difference in human

performance.
b) Above 33 700 ft, oxygen must be delivered under pressure.
c) Higher mental processes are affected from 8 000 ft.

136. At altitude the necessary oxygen requirements may be provided for normal
respiration by an oxygen/air mix up to:

a) 40 000 ft.
b) 24 000 ft.
c) 33 700 ft.

137. Sustained exposure to high noise levels can cause temporary or permanent hearing
loss. For this to occur, the level would need to be above:

a) 39 db.
b) 60 db.
c) 85 db.

138. The approximate time of useful consciousness following an oxygen supply failure at
35 000 ft is:

a) 3 to 5 seconds.
b) 1 to 2 seconds.
c) 20 to 30 seconds.

139. The effect of smoking on hypoxia is:

a) The smoker is effectively at several thousand feet altitude before he leaves

the ground.
b) The smoke is better able to withstand the effects of hypoxia.
c) Pain over the eyes and in the ears.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

140. Being unable to “vent” the middle ear may be aggravated by:

a) The intake of alcohol.

b) The common cold.
c) Flight at high altitude.

141. Rapid deep breathing, even when you are using supplemental oxygen, can cause a
condition known as:

a) Anaemic hypoxia.
b) Hypoxic hypoxia.
c) Hyperventilation.

142. High noise levels are significant in terms of:

a) Disorientation.
b) The leans.
c) Fatigue.

143. Nitrogen bubbles occurring in the fluids of the body resulting in pain around the
joints is known as the “bend”. Typical symptoms are:

a) Choking sensation, tingling sensation, paralyses of limbs.

b) Tingling sensation, euphoria, erratic behaviour.
c) Choking sensation, paralysis of limbs, erratic behaviour.

144. Which factor listed below is an unreliable indicator of hypoxia?

a) Blue colouring of the fingernails.

b) Sweating.
c) A person’s own judgement of his/her condition.

145. During a night flight, you see a steady white light, a steady green light, and a
flashing red light. The other aircraft is:

a) Approaching head on.

b) Approaching, but will pass from right to left.
c) Flying away from you and will cross from left to right.

146. Non-conductive hearing loss is usually associated with inner ear pathology and:

a) Middle ear infection is a common cause.

b) Age plays no roll in non-conductive hearing loss.
c) Allergies are a common cause on non-conductive hearing loss.

147. Positive acceleration may produce very considerable effects on the body:

a) Only if it exceeds 5 g.
b) Most notable on the respiratory system, in excess of 2 g.
c) Especially on the eyes, where reduced vision may occur owing to a reduction
in blood pressure.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

148. Spatial awareness is provided by:

a) Vestibular and visual sensations.

b) Vestibular, visual and somatosensory stimuli.
c) Vestibular and somatosensory stimuli.

149. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to
the brain by various sensory organs is defined as:

a) Spatial disorientation.
b) Hyperventilation.
c) Hypoxia.

150. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if:

a) Kinaesthetic senses are ignored.

b) Eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
c) Body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.

151. Typical measures to help reduce the effects of disorientation are: awareness, to be
physically fit, to have adequate IFR training. Also, the pilot should:

a) Remain on instruments.
b) Fly straight and level and avoid head movement.
c) All the above.

152. A reflex action known, as Vestibulo-Occular-Reflex is one that causes the eye to
move in the direction opposite to that of the movement of the aircraft, thus the eye
can maintain a position, fixing an abject in space.
During a prolonged roll, the action will be to induce correct compensatory eye
movements. On correction of the roll, a function of the eye will occur to
compensate. This flicking eye movement may give rise to:

a) Spatial disorientation.
b) Instrument blurring.
c) Vertigo.

153. Man has two eardrums, hence two Eustachian tubes; therefore, a differential of
pressure may exist in the tubes, particularly when there is some infection e.g. a cold.
The sensation produced by this pressure difference may result in:

a) The leans.
b) Vertigo and blurring of the vision.
c) Vertigo and disorientation.

154. Angular acceleration induces movement of the fluid (endolymph) flow, and
movement the head during a turn could produce a sensation of:

a) Tumbling or motion in the opposite direction.

b) Vertigo and illusions.
c) Pitch up.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

155. Misleading visual clues can result in the “leans”. Typical of these may be:

a) A sloping cloud bank.

b) Strobe lights on cloud.
c) Loss of the horizon.

156. The vestibular system function to provide the sense of balance and the fluid flow
with the semi-circular canals creates the sense of motion. However, once a roll has
been established the pilot may sense:

a) A sensation of further roll.

b) A sensation that the roll is decreasing.
c) A sensation of roll in the opposite direction.

157. The sensation of being banked in the direction opposite to that of the original motion
called:

a) Vertigo.
b) Disorientation.
c) Leans.

158. Spatial disorientation is the term used to describe that condition where the pilot:

a) Where the pilot fails to correctly sense position, motion or attitude.

b) Where the pilot fails to sense acceleration.
c) Is temporarily uncertain of the en-route position of the aircraft.

159. To alleviate barotraumas of the ear, the pilot may swallow or use force blowing with
the nose and mouth blocked. However the pilot needs to be aware that this could
result in:

a) The illusion of turning.

b) The sensation of vertigo or tumbling.
c) The illusion of pitching down.

160. The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is:

a) A combined pitch up and banking sensation.

b) A feeling that the aircraft has started to pitch up when the aircraft decelerates,
causing an automatic attempt to push the nose of the aircraft down.
c) A pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates.

161. Visual cues necessary for landing an aircraft are basically monocular. Perceptual
processing of these cues can be degraded by atmospheric, conditions. For
example, and aircraft on approach and landing in fog, rain, haze or snow which
result in poor visibility may cause:

a) An underestimation of distance.
b) An overestimation of distance.
c) An error of parallax.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

162. Perceptual errors may occur due to sloping runways and sloping terrain. Typically a
runway that slopes up and away from the approach threshold, tends to cause a pilot
to:

a) Make a low approach and land short.

b) Make a high approach and land long.
c) Make a low approach and overshoot.

163. It sometimes occurs that if the gaze is fixed on a signal, a phenomenon known as
auto kinesis tends to occur. This causes the light to:

a) Move at random.
b) Become a dimmer.
c) Flicker.

164. The term “atmospheric perspective” in aviation means:

a) A change in the altitude of the aircraft will lead to a possible lengthening or

shortening of the runway apparent length.
b) The tendency for objects to become indistinct with distance.
c) The tendency of objects of certain colours to remain in view for longer periods
during different light conditions.

165. If a pilot becomes airsick while flying alone, the safest immediate action to take
would be:

a) Get fresh air.

b) Recline.
c) Land as soon as possible.

166. Select the correct statement:

a) Information lasts in the visual sensory store for one second or less.
b) Information lasts in the visual sensory store for 2 to 8 seconds.
c) Information lasts in the auditory sensory store for one second or less.

167. Select the correct statement:

a) Expectation has no effect on information perceived.

b) All information received is perceived.
c) Perception is the conversion of sensory information into meaningful
structures.

168. Select the correct statement:

a) Visual illusions can result from incorrect mental models.

b) Long term memory is also known as working memory.
c) Long term memory can be improved by grouping.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

169. Select the correct statement:

a) Semantic memory is our knowledge of specific events.

b) Common amnesia affects semantic memory only.
c) Semantic memory is memory for meaning.

170. Select the correct statement:

a) An integrated program of skills is a motor program.

b) Motor programs are automatic and do not require monitoring.
c) Motor programs absorb the single channel processing capacity of the central
processor.

171. Select the correct statement:

a) Increased levels of arousal lead to more rapid response.

b) A more accurate response will be generated by an expected stimulus.
c) Answer a) and b) are both correct.

172. Attention mechanism is:

a) Selective and divided.

b) Selective and semantic.
c) Episodic and semantic.

173. Which of the following is the graph for Arousal/Performance?

a) b) c)

174. Complex tasks are best performed with:

a) Lower arousal.
b) Over arousal.
c) High arousal.

175. Information in short term memory:

a) Can be retained for long periods.

b) Must be actively rehearsed to ensure long term retention.
c) Is unaffected by the arrival of new information.

176. The physiological responses to high levels of stress are:

a) Indecision, inattention, withdrawal.

b) Temporary mental confusion, restlessness.
c) Sweating, dryness of the mouth, breathing difficulties.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

177. The “fight of flight” response occurs:

a) When a normal non-aggressive person suffers stress as a result of shock.

b) Turns pale, trembles and chooses flight rather than fight.
c) When in anger a person becomes red in the face, aggressive and chooses to
fight rather than opt for flight.

178. Stress is caused by:

a) Perceived inadequacies in ability.

b) Only actual inadequacies in ability.
c) Perceived extremes in demand and perceived inadequacies in ability.

179. Select the correct statement:

a) At low arousal, we narrow our attention.

b) At low arousal, we sample our environment slowly and ineffectively.
c) At high arousal, we sample our environment slowly but very effectively.

180. Subjective effects of high levels of stress are:

a) Laughter, fatigue, sweating.

b) Moodiness, aggression, depression.
c) Forgetfulness, lack of concentration.

181. In dealing with stress:

a) We should adopt cognitive coping strategies.

b) We should adopt symptom directed coping strategies.
c) We should adopt coping strategies together with management techniques.

182. Examples of action coping include:

a) Health and fitness programs.

b) Tranquillisers, tobacco and alcohol.
c) Changing a job, taking a vacation.

183. Under conditions of very high stress:

a) An individual is more able to cope with a high workload.

b) The pattern of sampling information is adversely affected.
c) A pilot scans the instrument less frequently.

184. The effects of stress on the human being can be classified into distinct well-defined
areas. Which of the following could be classified as “Cognitive Effects”?

a) Headache, asthma, allergies.

b) Nervous laughter, trembling, neurosis.
c) Forgetfulness, lack of concentration, inability to make decisions.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

185. An average pilot tends to be an:

a) Anxious extrovert.
b) Anxious introvert.
c) Stable extrovert.

186. Which of the following will affect crewmember effectiveness?

a) Status.
b) Role.
c) All of the above.

187. Group decisions are likely to be:

a) Better than the ablest person in the group.

b) No better than the average group decision.
c) Better than an individual members decision.

188. Members of the same team are:

a) Likely to follow a group decision.

b) Likely to search for discrepancy in points of view.
c) Likely to make a safer decision than that of an individual.

189. If you are changeable and aggressive:

a) You are an anxious introvert.

b) You are an anxious extrovert.
c) You are a calm introvert.

190. If you are the captain faced with a developing problem, you should:

a) Solicit ideas.
b) Run a tight ship and discourage adverse comments.
c) Encourage ideas and comments.

191. As captain of the aircraft you should usually be:

a) P+G+
b) P-G-
c) P+G-

192. To improve group decision making, the captain should:

a) Start by stating his point of view.

b) Quickly repress differences of opinion.
c) Encourage ideas and doubts to be expressed.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

193. Information requiring immediate attention should be coloured:

a) White and green.

b) Red.
c) Flashing red.

194. If anthrometric data tables are used in order to build a flight deck in which the
average pilot can reach and operate all controls, measurements should be taken
from:

a) A large cross section of the general public using dynamic anthropometry only.
b) A specific population using dynamic anthropometry only.
c) A specific population using both dynamic and static anthropometry.

195. Anthropometry is:

a) The study of human behaviour in response to stress.

b) A means of establishing an individual reaction to sleep deprivation,
particularly that induced by the crossing of time zones.
c) The study of human measurement.

196. Layout of an instrument panel in the “Glass Cockpit”:

a) Differs from manufacturer to manufacturer.

b) Follows the T layout.
c) Depends on the engine fuel requirements.

197. To emphasis important points, a check list should have:

a) Some upper case and italics.

b) Lower case and underline.
c) All normal.

198. Select the correct statement:

A pilot’s eye position:

a) Is particular to each pilot.

b) Should allow him to see that length of approach lights covered in 3 seconds.
c) Is only important on approach.

199. Layout of controls should be designed to consider:

a) Frequency of use.
b) Design attractiveness.
c) Answers a) and b) are both corrupt.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

200. Warning systems are more efficient if they are:

a) Visual.
b) Audio (bells etc.).
c) Audio and visual.

201. Manuals and checklist should:

a) Be large and easy to find.

b) Kept to a minimum size.
c) Use only upper case text.

202. Glass cockpits:

a) Are always better than conventional cockpits.

b) May not alert the pilot to significant changes early enough.
c) Free the pilot to make higher-level decisions.

203. For a collapsed casualty, you should first:

a) Check the casualty’s airways.

b) Commence external cardiac massage.
c) Check for danger to yourself and patient and if necessary, move or remove
the cause.

204. The summary of first aid is often referred to as A, B, C. This stand for:

a) Action, Breathing, Circulation.

b) Airways clear, Bleeding, Call for help.
c) Airways clear, Breathing and bleeding, Circulation.

205. External bleeding should be stemmed by:

a) Pressing the skin edges together and placing a dressing firmly on the wound.
b) Tightly wrapping the wound with a dressing.
c) As for a) above but release the tourniquet every 20 minutes for one minute.

206. Shock is a result of:

a) Sudden loss of oxygen intake.

b) Sudden illness.
c) Reduce blood flow through the body.

207. Severe bleeding may be suppressed by:

a) Applying direct pressure to the wound.

b) Applying a splint to the wound.
c) Laying the patient down and keeping him quiet.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

208. Before giving external cardiac compression check that the airway is clear and 5
breaths of air is given, then check the Carotid Pulse is present in the:

a) Wrist
b) Neck
c) Ankle

209. The sequence of events as a result of Asphyxia (a shortage of oxygen) is generally:

a) Breathing stops, casualty becomes unconscious, heart stops beating, death

occurs.
b) Casualty becomes unconscious, breathing stops, heart stops, death occurs.
c) Heart stops, breathing stops, casualty becomes unconscious, death occurs.

210. The correct application of CPR is:

a) 15 Compressions in 10 – 12 seconds, then giving 2 ventilations within 3 – 5

seconds, the complete cycle taking no more than 15 seconds.
b) 10 Compressions in 10 – 30 seconds, then giving 5 ventilations within 3 – 5
seconds, the complete cycle taking no more than 60 seconds.
c) 15 Compressions in 10 – 12 seconds, then giving 5 ventilations within 3 – 5
seconds, the complete cycle taking no more than 20 seconds.

211. Select the correct statement:

a) Sleep/wake cycle in 25 hours.

b) Sleep/wake cycle can vary between 20 and 28 hours.
c) Sleep/wake cycle is always 24 hours.

212. Select the correct statement:

a) You cannot sleep unless you are in sleep debit.

b) You have 1 credit point for every hour’s sleep.
c) Sleep is unlikely when body temperature is rising.

213. With problems of crossing time zones, sleep patterns are disrupted. Which of the
following is correct?

a) Sleep can be induced with alcoholic drinks because alcohol is selective

depressant acting on the nervous system.
b) Situational insomnia is the inability to sleep in normal favourable
circumstances.
c) Alcoholic induced sleep reduces REM sleep considerably.

214. Lowest body temperature is normally experienced at:

a) 0300 hours
b) 0500 hours
c) 1200 hours

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

215. 3 – 5 unit of alcohol:

a) Reduces REM sleep.

b) Increases REM sleep.
c) Reduces Stage 2/3 sleep.

216. Select the correct statement:

a) Narcolepsy is inability to fall asleep.

b) Somnambulism is sleep walking.
c) Apnoea means to stop breathing during sleep.

217. Select the correct statement:

a) Alcohol can be used to produce normal restful sleep.

b) Anti-histamines are recommended for sleep inducing.
c) Diazopines accumulate in the system with continued use.

218. Knowledge based behaviour:

a) Is prone to “environmental capture” error.

b) Is stored as a pattern of motor activity.
c) Is influenced by experience and probability.

219. There are two types of Long Term Memory, Semantic and Episodic. Which of the
following is correct?

a) Episodic memory is concerned with learnt ability, i.e. flying an aeroplane.

b) Semantic memory is concerned with past events and experiences.
c) Episodic memory will not remain static but can be influenced by expectations
of what should have happened.

220. Attention is required for “Decision Making” and to “Execute a Response”, however,
the human brain is limited in its ability to distribute attention between these two
items. Which of the following is correct?

a) Selective Attention is the process by which we attend to things in order to

successfully complete a task.
b) Focused Attention is the process which determines the way in which we
sample the inputs arriving at the sensory store.
c) Increasing age and experience is associated with quicker but less accurate
responses.

221. Rule based behaviours are stored in the brain:

a) As sets of rules in long term memory.

b) As “bits” in the working memory.
c) As conditioned responses in motor programs.

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

222. Rule based behaviours:

a) Are prone to failure in the long-term memory.

b) Are prone to failure in the decision channel.
c) Are prone to failure in the working memory.

223. Skill based behaviours:

a) Are based on an accurate automatic motor program.

b) Are easily modified or changed.
c) Bypass the central decision.

224. The number of unrelated items that may be retained in the working memory are
usually about:

a) 12
b) 14
c) 7

225. If suffering acute gastro-enteritis, the pilot should not fly:

a) For 24 hours.
b) For 72 hours.
c) While affected.

226. The risk of coronary artery diseases decrease with:

a) Being overweight.
b) Stress.
c) Exercise.

227. The complex process of deciding if a landing should be attempted on an aerodrome

with marginal weather will be:

a) Unaffected by arousal.
b) Affected equally by high or low arousal.
c) Adversely affected by low arousal.

228. Linear acceleration is sensed by …………………….. and angular acceleration by

…………………….:

a) Otolith, semicircular canals.

b) Semicircular canals, otolith.
c) Otolith, vestibular apparatus.

229. A person is 85 kg and 175 cm tall. According to his BMI he is:

a) Underweight.
b) Overweight.
c) Obese.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 32 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

230. The acceleration that gives an illusion of pitch up is:

a) Somatagyral, trust your instruments.

b) Somatagravic, trust your instruments.
c) Somatagyral, trust your vestibular organs.

231. Difficult tasks are best performed with:

a) Zero arousal levels.

b) Moderate arousal levels.
c) High arousal levels.

232. When faced with multiple stressors the best approach is to:

a) Identify individual stressors and solve individually.

b) Identify individual stressors and solve simultaneously.
c) Ignore the stressors.

233. If the final approach is lower than normal, the distance between the visual aiming
point and the touch down point (impact pt) ………………….. and the aircraft will
touch down ………………….. the threshold.

a) Decreases; Before.
b) Decreases; After.
c) Increases; Before.

234. A major problem has to be solved. How can the Captain come to the best solution if
he has adequate time available?

a) Voice his own idea instantly.

b) Use “Tight Ship” policy and discourage adverse comments.
c) Make a decision and not discuss it.

235. Which part of the eye controls the amount of light entering the eye?

a) Cornea.
b) Lens.
c) Iris.

236. Select the incorrect statement:

a) Environmental capture is more likely to occur to a trainee pilot.

b) Environmental capture is a problem with skill-based behaviour.
c) A habit can lead to environmental capture.

237. Select the incorrect statement. Skill based behaviour related to routine tasks or
motor programs is prone to errors such as:

a) Environmental captures.
b) Action slips.
c) Risky shift.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 33 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

238. The best visual clues on approach to land are:

a) Runway length.
b) Runway width and length.
c) Texture flow and size of known objects on the ground.

239. To fly 3° visual approach the pilot must be seated so that the visual impact point
appears:

a) 3° above the horizon.

b) 3° below the horizon.
c) 3° above the threshold.

240. In a healthy body breathing air, what is the height tolerance producing 55 mm HG
partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs?

a) 8 000 ft.
b) 10 000 ft.
c) 12 000 ft.

241. In most non-emergency situations the good aircraft captain’s style of leadership
should be:

a) Democratic.
b) Automatic.
c) Paternalistic.

242. Acute stress is:

a) Short term stress.

b) Long term stress.
c) Nice stress.

243. What is the percentage by volume of oxygen in the atmosphere up to 18 000 ft?

a) 21 %.
b) 79 %.
c) Decreases with altitude.

244. Alcohol will damage which parts of the body?

a) Brain, heart and lung.

b) Brain, heart and cochlea.
c) Brain, liver and kidneys.

245. A pilot who weighs 100 kg and is 1.74 m tall is:

a) Correct weight.
b) A little overweight.
c) Obese.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 34 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

246. Proper sleep hygiene can be aided by:

a) Caffeine.
b) Alcohol.
c) Warm milky drink.

247. An easy task can be accomplished at:

a) A moderate level of arousal.

b) A low level of arousal.
c) No arousal.

248. Symptoms of “creep” are:

a) Itching of the skin due to nitrogen bubbles.

b) Painful joints due to nitrogen bubbles.
c) Painful lungs due to nitrogen bubbles.

249. For optimum performance you require a regular sleep:

a) Credit.
b) Debit.
c) Balance.

250. The purpose of the Eustachian tube is:

a) To equalise pressure.
b) To detect angular acceleration.
c) To detect linear acceleration.

251. Select the correct statement about drug induced sleep:

a) Aspirin gives nose bleeds at altitude.

b) Anti-histamines give drowsiness at any altitude.
c) Alcohol induces a normal sleep.

252. The time taken for the amount of drug in the blood to fall to half its peak level is
called:

a) Reduction time.
b) Apnoea.
c) Narcolepsy.

253. A heart attack is also called:

a) Myocardial infarction.
b) Myopial infarction.
c) Stroke.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 35 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

254. Select the correct statement regarding the working memory:

a) Retention is improved if items are similar.

b) Retention is improved by shortening the time between inputs.
c) Retention is improved if items are dissimilar and well spaced.

255. The effect of a prolonged slow turn with no external reference will be sensation that:

a) The rate of turn is increased.

b) The rate of turn is staying the same.
c) The rate of turn is decreasing.

256. Information obtained through feeling is termed:

a) Intuitive.
b) Somatosensory.
c) Illusory.

257. Decompression sickness can produce several symptoms. Among them is a feeling
of ants crawling over the skin which is called:

a) Crepitation.
b) Parathesiae.
c) Formication.

258. “Empty-field myopia” is a condition which causes the eyes to focus on a point:

a) 2 – 5 metres ahead.
b) At infinity.
c) At the same distance ahead of the eyes as the focal length.

259. Decompression sickness occurs when:

a) Oxygen bubbles form at body joints.

b) Carbon dioxide forms at body joints.
c) Nitrogen is diffused into the muscles and joints.

260. The main reason drugs and flying don’t mix is:

a) Treating with drugs usually means you are ill so you are unfit to fly anyway.
b) The interaction of some drugs with other drugs and the varying personal
reaction to drugs is dangerous in the air.
c) Many drugs interfere with the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to the brain.

261. Blocked ears can be cleared with:

a) Suitable decongestant sprays or an increase in supplementary oxygen.

b) An increase in altitude.
c) Performing valsalva’s manoeuvre.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 36 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

262. A narrow runway can produce an illusion of a:

a) Lower than normal approach.

b) Higher than normal approach.
c) Groundspeed higher than normal on the approach.

263. Before night flying, it is a good practice to avoid bright lights for a period before take-
off of at least:

a) 30 minutes.
b) 1 hour.
c) 90 minutes.

264. Select the correct statement:

a) Absorption of nitrogen in the blood is dangerous.

b) Absorption of nitrogen in the blood is normal.
c) No nitrogen in the blood is dangerous.

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 37 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

ANSWERS

1 A 48 A 95 A
2 C 49 C 96 C
3 B 50 C 97 C
4 B 51 C 98 C
5 A 52 C 99 B
6 C 53 B 100 C
7 A 54 B 101 C
8 A 55 B 102 C
9 B 56 A 103 C
10 B 57 B 104 B
11 A 58 B 105 A
12 C 59 A 106 A
13 C 60 B 107 A
14 A 61 C 108 A
15 C 62 C 109 B
16 C 63 B 110 C
17 A 64 B 111 C
18 B 65 A 112 C
19 B 66 B 113 C
20 C 67 A 114 B
21 C 68 C 115 C
22 A 69 A 116 A
23 A 70 C 117 C
24 C 71 C 118 C
25 B 72 C 119 A
26 A 73 C 120 B
27 A 74 C 121 C
28 B 75 B 122 C
29 A 76 C 123 C
30 B 77 C 124 C
31 B 78 B 125 C
32 A 79 C 126 A
33 A 80 C 127 C
34 B 81 C 128 B
35 B 82 C 129 C
36 A 83 B 130 A
37 A 84 C 131 B
38 C 85 B 132 A
39 A 86 B 133 C
40 B 87 C 134 B
41 B 88 C 135 C
42 A 89 A 136 C
43 B 90 C 137 C
44 B 91 B 138 C
45 B 92 C 139 A
46 A 93 C 140 B
47 B 94 C 141 C

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 38 of 39

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 COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE – HUMAN PERFORMANCE (Typical Questions)

142 C 190 C 238 C

143 C 191 A 239 C
144 C 192 C 240 B
145 C 193 C 241 A
146 A 194 C 242 A
147 C 195 C 243 A
148 B 196 B 244 C
149 A 197 A 245 C
150 C 198 B 246 C
151 C 199 C 247 C
152 B 200 C 248 A
153 C 201 B 249 C
154 A 202 C 250 A
155 A 203 C 251 B
156 B 204 C 252 A
157 C 205 C 253 B
158 A 206 C 254 A
159 B 207 A 255 C
160 C 208 B 256 C
161 B 209 A 257 C
162 A 210 A 258 A
163 A 211 B 259 C
164 B 212 C 260 A
165 A 213 C 261 C
166 A 214 B 262 B
167 C 215 A 263 A
168 A 216 C 264 B
169 C 217 C
170 A 218 C
171 C 219 C
172 A 220 A
173 C 221 A
174 A 222 A
175 B 223 C
176 C 224 C
177 C 225 C
178 C 226 C
179 B 227 C
180 B 228 A
181 C 229 B
182 C 230 A
183 B 231 B
184 C 232 A
185 C 233 C
186 C 234 B
187 C 235 C
188 A 236 C
189 B 237 B

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS – HUMAN PERFORMANCE PAGE 39 of 39

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