29/06/2025 Code - A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.+91-1244168300

MM : 720 ITS-7 Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered :
PHYSICS:
Motion in a Straight Line
Motion in a Plane
Laws of Motion
CHEMISTRY:
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Structure of Atom
BOTANY:
Cell : The unit of Life
Plant Kingdom
ZOOLOGY:
Body Fluids and Circulation
Excretory Products and their Elimination
Breathing and Exchange of Gases

PHYSICS

1. A boat takes 2 hours to move downstream and 3 hours to 3. A monkey of mass 60 kg climbs on a rope which can
move upstream between two fixed point in a river. The withstand a maximum tension of 900 N. For which of the
time taken by boat to cover one side journey in still water following value of acceleration, monkey will not be able to
is climb safely on the rope?
(1) 2.5 hours (1) 4 m s–2
(2) 2.4 hours
(2) 5 m s–2
(3) 2.25 hours
(3) 0.8 m s–2
(4) 2.75 hours
(4) 8 m s–2
2. Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two
ends of a light inextensible string that goes over a
4. The displacement x of a particle at the instant when its
frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. If all the
velocity is given by v = √−
−−−−
4x + 9 , where x is in metre and
surfaces are smooth and system is released from rest,
then net force on the pulley by the string will be (g = 10 v is in m/s. The acceleration and initial velocity of the
particle, respectively will be
m/s2)
(1) 2 m/s2, 3 m/s

(2) 1 m/s2, 1.5 m/s

(3) 4 m/s2, 9 m/s

(4) 1 m/s2, 3 m/s

(1) 48 N
(2) 96 N
–
(3) 48√2 N
–
(4) 96√2 N

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5. A ball starts falling freely from rest. The ratio of distance 10. In ground to ground projectile motion, the maximum
travelled by the particle in first half second and in next height is 4 m. The horizontal range is 12 m. The velocity
half second is of projection is
(1) 1 : 1 −
−
g
(1) 5√
2

(2) 1 : 2
−
−
g
(3) 1 : 3 (2) 3√
2

(4) 1 : 4 −
−
g
(3) 1
√
6. A : Finite change in momentum can be produced by large 3 2

impulsive force in short time. −

−
g

R : Impulsive force is large enough and acted for a short (4) 1

5
√
2

time.
11. For a particle projected with a speed 20 m/s from ground,
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1) the kinetic energy at top most point on the trajectory is
the correct explanation of the assertion
th
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (
1
) of the initial kinetic energy. The angle of projection
(2)
4

not the correct explanation of the assertion from the horizontal is

(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false (1) 30°
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (2) 45°
7. Find contact force between blocks (3) 60°
(4) 37°

12. At maximum height for an oblique projectile

(1) Kinetic energy is zero
(2) Linear momentum is zero
(3) Kinetic energy is minimum but not zero
(1) 20 N
(4) Linear momentum has the maximum magnitude
(2) 40 N
13. → →
(3) 60 N The vectors A and B are such that
∣→ →∣ ∣ → →∣
(4) 50 N ∣A + B ∣ = ∣A – B ∣ . The angle between the two vectors
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

8. During circular motion of a body with uniform speed is

(1) Both velocity and acceleration change (1) 30°
(2) Both velocity and acceleration are constant (2) 60°
(3) Velocity is constant but acceleration changes (3) 90°
(4) Acceleration is constant but velocity changes (4) 120°
9. What is the acceleration of 5 kg mass? (Assume all the 14. The trajectory of a projectile is given by y = 4x – 2x2
surfaces to be smooth
where y direction is vertical and x direction is horizontal.
The horizontal range of the projectile is (all coordinates
are in SI units)

(1) 2 m/s2 (1) 2 m

(2) 1 m
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 4 m
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) 5 m
(4) 3 m/s2 15. A projectile is projected at 10 m/s by making an angle 60°
with the horizontal. After sometime, its velocity makes an
angle of 30° to the horizontal. Its speed at this instant is

m/s
10
(1) √3

–
(2) 10√3 m/s

(3)
5
m/s
√3

(4) –
5√3 m/s

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16. A platform is moving in upward direction with uniform 22. A particle is moving with constant speed. Select the
velocity 40 ms–1. When it reaches at a height of 100m correct option for the particle.
from the ground, a packet is dropped from it. The total (1) The acceleration may be variable
distance travelled by packet during its free fall is (Take g =
(2) The acceleration may be zero
10 ms–2)
(3) The magnitude of acceleration may be constant
(1) 160 m
(4) All of these
(2) 260 m
23. A block of mass 20 kg is resting on a rough inclined plane
(3) 180 m
of inclination 45° as shown in figure. The block is tied with
(4) 300 m horizontal string which has a tension of 100 N. The
minimum value of coefficient of friction between contact
17. The velocity acquired by a body moving with uniform surfaces is
acceleration is 30 ms–1 in 2 s and 60 ms–1 in 4 s. Find
the initial velocity of body
(1) Zero
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

18. When a man walks on a straight road with speed of 5

km/h, rain appears to fall vertically downward. As he (1) 1

stops, the rain appears to fall at an angle 30° with the

vertical. The speed of rain w.r.t ground is (2) 1

–
(3)
2
10√3
(1) 3
km/h
(2) 5 km/h (4) 3

–
(3) 5√3 km/h 24. A particle is moving towards west with velocity 20 m/s. In
10 s, it changes its velocity towards 60° south of west. Its
(4) 10 km/h average acceleration will be
19. The position of a particle moving in x - y plane is given as (1) 1 m/s2
x = 4 sinωt, y = 4 cosωt. Which of the following statement
is correct (where t is time)? (2) 2 m/s2
(1) The path of particle is elliptical
(3) m/s2
–
√3
(2) The acceleration of particle is uniform
(4) 0.5 m/s2
(3) The speed of the particle is constant
(4) The speed of the particle is increasing 25. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r with
constant speed v as shown in the figure. Average
20. An air plane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 acceleration of particle during its motion from A to B is
km/h drops a food packet while flying at a height of 490
m. Find horizontal range of food packet.
(1) 180 m
(2) 980 m
(3) 500 m
(4) 670 m

21. Position of a body moving along x-axis varies with time as (1) 3√3 v
2

x = 12t – t3 + 8. The acceleration of the body when its

πr

velocity becomes zero is (2) v

2

πr

(1) 6 m/s2
(3)
2
2v

πr

(2) –12 m/s2

(4)
2
3v

(3) 8 m/s2 πr

(4) – 4 m/s2

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26. The range of two projectiles projected with same speed at 30. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following
two different angles are same. If one of the angles is 30°, graph represent velocity-time graph of the ball during its
then the ratio of height attained by them may be flight (air resistance is neglected)?
(1) 1 : 3
(2) 2 : 1 a.
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 3 : 4

27. A ball is projected vertically upward from the ground. The

ball is at the same height at t = 3 s and t = 9 s. The height
b.
of ball at t = 5 s is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 180 m
(2) 175 m
(3) 135 m
(4) 200 m c.

28. Two projectiles are projected simultaneously at angles

30° and 45° respectively. If first particle is projected with
velocity 10 m/s, then velocity of particle which is projected
at 45° such that they collides in air is
d.

(1) a
(2) b
(1) 5 m/s (3) c
(2) 10 m/s (4) d
(3) –
10√2 m/s 31. The graph between the displacement x and time t for a
–
particle moving in a straight line is shown in figure.
(4) 5√2 m/s During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the acceleration
of the particle is
29. If y = A sin(ωt − kx), where ω and k are constant then
dy dy
(
dx
)/ (
dt
) is

(1) ω/k
(2) –ω/k
(3) kω
(4) –k/ω

OA AB BC CD

(1) + 0 + +

(2) – 0 + 0

(3) + 0 – +

(4) – 0 – 0

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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32. A particle is moving on a straight line according to the 35. A body in one dimensional motion has zero speed at an
given acceleration time graph. If particle starts with instant. At that instant, body must have
velocity 3 ms–1, then velocity at t = 6 second is (1) Zero velocity
(2) Non-zero velocity
(3) Zero acceleration
(4) Non-zero acceleration

36. → → →
Two vectors A and B are given as A
ˆ ˆ
= i + 2j and
→ → →
B
ˆ
= 2k . The scalar product of A and B is
(1) 6
(1) 23 ms–1
(2) 2
(2) 13 ms–1
(3) 4
(3) 20 ms–1 (4) Zero

(4) 10 ms–1 37. The value of ∫

0
π
sin 2θ dθ is equal to

33. A block of mass 5 kg is slipping down a rough inclined (1) 1

wedge of mass 15 kg kept at rest on a horizontal table,
with constant velocity as shown in the figure. (2) 2
(3) Zero
(4) –1

38. A particle is moving on a circular track of radius r. If speed

of the particle is increasing with time then the angle
between acceleration (linear) and position vector of the
particle is (centre of circle is taken as origin).
(1) Acute
(2) Obtuse
Force by the wedge on the table will be
(3) Equal to 90°
(1) 100 N
(4) Equal to 180°
(2) 200 N
39. The magnitude of acceleration of blocks A and B are a1
(3) 400 N
and a2 respectively. If mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg
(4) 260 N and 3 kg respectively, then relation between a1 and a2 is
34. Two bodies A and B of mass 5 kg and 10 kg in contact (Pulleys and strings are massless and frictionless)
with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall. The
coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is
0.2. When the force of 200 N is applied horizontally on A,
which of the following is correct? (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) a1 = a2

(2) a2 = 2a1

(3) a1 = 3a2

(4) a1 = 2a2

(1) The reaction of wall is 200 N

The action reaction force between A and B is more
(2)
than reaction of wall
The action reaction force between A and B is less
(3)
than reaction of wall
(4) Both (A) and (C) are correct

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40. Assertion: Minimum number of vectors of unequal 43. Two blocks 4 kg and 2 kg are sliding down on a fixed
magnitude to give zero resultant in a plane are three. inclined plane as shown. The acceleration of 2 kg block is
Reason: Minimum number of vectors to give zero
resultant may be two.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (1) 1.66 ms–2
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(2) 2.69 ms–2
41. A particle is moving on straight line x'x with constant
velocity 20 m/s. An observer B is sitting at perpendicular (3) 3.212 ms–2
distance 50 m from x'x. The angular velocity of particle A
w.r.t B at the instant θ = 45° is (4) 4.13 ms–2

44. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of

radius 35 cm in 10 s. The displacement of the athlete at
the end of 40 s is
(1) 70 cm
(2) 110 cm
(3) Zero
(1) 0.1 rad/s (4) −
−
35√2 cm

(2) 0.2 rad/s

45. The tension in the rope in the following diagram is
(3) 0.4 rad/s
(4) 0.5 rad/s
42. A block of mass 2.0 kg is kept over another block of mass
3.0 kg, kept on a smooth horizontal surface. Coefficient of
friction between two blocks is 1.0. If a horizontal force F = (1) 2 N
25 N is applied horizontally on 2.0 kg block as shown in
the figure, then frictional force between two blocks is (g = (2) 5 N
10 m s–2) (3) 4 N
(4) Zero

(1) 20 N
(2) 15 N

(3) 20

3
N

(4) 40

3
N

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CHEMISTRY

46. For hydrogen atom, correct order of energy of orbital is 52. The de-Broglie wavelength for an electron moving with
(1) 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 3d kinetic energy of 4.55 × 10–23 J is

(2) 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p < 3d (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)

(3) 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d (1) 65.25 nm

(4) 2s < 2p = 3s < 3p < 3d (2) 79.41 nm

47. Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted when (3) 72.81 nm

a light of frequency 1.1 × 1012 Hz is irradiated on a metal (4) 53.84 nm

surface whose threshold frequency is equal to 1.0 × 1011 53. Which pair of elements shows diagonal relationship with
Hz, is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s) each other?

(1) 6.6 × 10–25 J (1) Li, Al

(2) Mg, Al
(2) 1.8 × 10–21 J
(3) Li, Si
(3) 5.1 × 10–20 J
(4) Be, Al
(4) 6.6 × 10–22 J 54. Which of the following electronic configurations is
expected to have maximum difference in second and
48. Which shows highest electron gain enthalpy? third ionization energies?
(1) He (1) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(2) Ne
(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(3) Ar
(4) Kr (3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

49. A : Reluctance of s-electrons to participate in bonding (4) 1s2 2s2 2p1

process is known as inert pair effect.
R : Tl can show +1 oxidation state. 55. Increasing order of electron affinity is

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is (1) O < S < Cl < F
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion (2) S < O < F < Cl
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (3) O < S < F < Cl
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) S < Cl < F < O
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
56. The work function of a metal is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements incident radiation for photoelectron which stopping
50. The wave number for the shortest wavelength transition potential is 3.7 eV, is
in Paschen series of Li2+ ion is (R : 109677 cm–1) (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)

(1) 1.25 × 10–7 m

(1) 27420 cm–1
(2) 2.25 × 10–8 m
(2) 164515 cm–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–8 m
(3) 219354 cm–1
(4) 2.25 × 10–7 m
(4) 109677 cm–1
57. For an electron moving in the s-orbital, its orbital angular
51. The element having Z = 79 will belong to which of the momentum is
following group and period of long form periodic table?
(1) Zero
(1) 11th group and 5th period
(2) 1
(2) 11th group and 6th period
(3) 1

(3) 10th group and 5th period

(4) 3

(4) 10th group and 6th period

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58. The element having maximum value for its 3rd ionisation 62. de-Broglie wavelengths of two particles A and B (having
enthalpy is same charge) are plotted against (
1
) ; where V is the
√V

(1) B potential of the particles. Which one of the following

relations is correct about the mass of particles?
(2) Be
(3) Al
(4) C
59. Which of the following orbital diagram violates Pauli’s
exclusion principle?

(1)

(1) mA = mB
(2) (2) mA> mB

(3) mA < mB

(4) mA ≤ mB
(3)
63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Energy of electron in the second Bohr's
orbit is higher than the first orbit.
(4) Reason (R) : Energy of the electron in Bohr's orbit is
2

equal to −13.6
Z

n2
eV (n = orbit number, z = number of
60. A : Limiting line of any spectral series in H atom is the line protons)
when nf = ∞. In the light of above statements, choose the correct
R : In hydrogen atom if electrons falls from 5th shell to answer from the options given below.
ground state then the maximum number of visible lines Both (A) and (R) are true and the reason is the correct
observed will be three. (1)
explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is Both (A) and (R) are true but the reason is not the
(1) (2)
the correct explanation of the assertion correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
64. Orbital which is represented by Ψ4,2,0 is :
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) 5f
61. In the graph of atomic volume Vs atomic weight, the
element labelled as X, Y and Z are respectively to (2) 4s
(3) 5pz

(4) 4dz2

65. A 0.5 kg of an object is moving with a speed of 200 m/s.

The wavelength associated with it will be (h = 6.62 × 10–
34 Js)

(1) 6.62 × 10–34 m

(1) Group 1, Group 2 and Group 17 (2) 6.62 × 10–36 m
(2) Group 17, Group 1 and Group 2
(3) 3.31 × 10–34 m
(3) Group 2, Group 1 and Group 17
(4) 3.31 × 10–36 m
(4) Group 1, Group 17 and Group 2
66. The set representing metalloids is
(1) B, Sb, Bi, Pb
(2) Sb, Te, Bi, Ge
(3) Sb, Te, As, Ge
(4) Si, Ge, Sb, Pb

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67. If each orbital can accomodate only one electron then the 73. Find out the correct statement(s) about moseley's work
number of elements in the second period of the periodic leading to modern periodic law.
table will be
Atomic number is more fundamental property than
(1)
(1) 8 atomic mass
(2) 4 (2) All of these
(3) 12
(4) 16
68. The electronegativity value of an atom on Pauling scale is (3)
(IP = 13.0 eV and EA = 4.0 eV)
(1) 2.8
(2) 2.21
√v = a(Z − b) where Z is atomic no. v is frequency of
(3) 3.03 (4)
emitted x-rays
(4) 1.7
74. If uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in
69. −−
momentum then uncertainty in velocity will be
1 h
If uncertainty in velocity is √
2π
then the ratio of
m
2
(1) h

4π
uncertainty in position to momentum is
−
−
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1

2m
√ℏ

(2) 2 : 1 −
−
(3) 1

2m
√
h

(3) 1 : 3
−
−
(4) 4 : 1 (4) √
h

70. Total possible exchange for a f6 configuration is

75. Which transition of electron in H-atom spectrum occurs if
electron transition from 5th excited state to first excited
(1) 6 electrons
state in He+ ion spectrum have same wavelength?
(2) 12 electrons
(1) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) 15 electrons
(2) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) 28 electrons
(3) n = 4 to n = 1
71. Which one of the following statements is correct
regarding following graph? (4) n = 3 to n = 2

76. Number of degenerate orbital(s) present in the first

excited state of He+ ion is
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

77. If radius of ground state of He+ ion is `x' then the radius of
its 3rd excited state will be
(1) The graph is for 2s orbital
(1) 9x
(2) There are two radial nodes
(2) 4x
(3) There are three spherical nodes
(3) 16x
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) 25x
72. In which of the following options, the order of
arrangement does not agree with the variation of property 78. If the electron from fifth excited state of hydrogen atom
indicated against it? returns to the ground state then the maximum number of
spectral lines obtained in Lyman series is
(1) I < Br < F < Cl (Negative electron gain enthalpy)
(1) 15
(2) Cl– < S2– < Ca2+ < K+ (Increasing ionic size) (2) 5
(3) B < C < O < N (First ionisation enthalpy) (3) 4
(4) C < N < O < F (Electronegativity) (4) 10

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79. IUPAC name of an element having atomic number 105 is 85. A : An ideal body, which emits and absorbs radiations of
all frequencies uniformly, is called a black body.
(1) Ununhium R : Black body experiment supports particle nature of
(2) Unnilseptium electromagnetic radiations.

(3) Unnilpentium Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(4) Unnilhexium
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
80. Which of the following statement is not correct? (2)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
Electronegativity of gr-16 elements decreases down (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1)
the group
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Basic character of hydrides of gp-15 decreases down
(2) 86. In which of the following the order of arrangement does
the group
not agree with the variation of property indicated against
Basic character of oxides of gr-2 decreases down the it?
(3)
group
(1) O < Te < Se < S (Electron affinity)
Oxidising character of gr-17 elements decreases
(4) (2) In < Ga < Tl < B (First ionisation enthalpy)
down the group

81. A : Maximum oxidation state of thorium is +3 (3) Si < Be < Mg < Na (Metallic nature)
R : Thorium is transuranic element. (4) H– < F– < Cl– < Br– (Ionic radii)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1) 87. A : + 2+
: Order of ionization energy.
the correct explanation of the assertion M(g) < M (g) < M (g)

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is R : As the value of (
e
) decreases, ionisation energy of a
(2) p

not the correct explanation of the assertion species increases.

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements the correct explanation of the assertion

82. Maximum number of electrons in an atom having n + l + Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
m = 3 is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(1) 6 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

(2) 2 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

(3) 8 88. Minimum wavelength of emitted photon of Paschen

series for H atom (RH : Rydberg constant of hydrogen
(4) 4
atom) is
83. If the uncertainty in velocity of electron is 1 × 107 1
(1)
ms–1 then the uncertainty in position of electron will be
RH

(mass of an electron is 9 × 10–28 g)

3
(2) RH

(1) 4.85 × 10–13 m (3)

9

2RH

(2) 5.86 × 10–12 m

(4) 9

RH

(3) 3.12 × 10–13 m

89. The ion/atom with maximum number of unpaired d-
(4) 6.45 × 10–11 m electrons is

84. The first four successive ionization energies (kJ/mol) for (1) Ni3+
an element are 577.5, 1817, 2745, 11580 respectively. In
(2) Cr
which of the following group of the modern periodic table
this element is present? (3) Fe
(1) Group 13 (4) Mn3+
(2) Group 14
90. The most acidic oxide among the following is
(3) Group 15
(1) CO2
(4) Group 16
(2) Cl2O7

(3) Al2O3

(4) SO2

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BOTANY

91. When a chromosome is observed at anaphase, it is found 97. All of the following organisms produce non flagellated
that the p-arm of that chromosome has a satellite gametes, except
Based on the above information, which of the following
(1) Ulothrix
statements should be correct?
(1) This chromosome has only one constriction (2) Spirogyra

The length of the arm which has no satellite is (3) Gelidium

(2)
comparatively longer (4) Polysiphonia
(3) This chromosome lacks centromere 98. Select the correct statements w.r.t. plasma
The centromere in this chromosome is present at the membrane and choose the option accordingly.
(4) (a) Tail of lipid is polar whereas head is non-polar.
terminal end
(b) Integral proteins are totally or partially buried in the
92. Among the following cell organelles which one lacks membrane.
nucleic acid? (c) In human, the membrane of the RBC has
approximately 40 percent protein and 52 percent lipids.
(1) Nucleus (d) Proteins move laterally within overall bilayer of lipid.
(2) Plastid
(1) (a) and (b)
(3) Ribosome (2) (b) and (c)
(4) Golgi apparatus (3) (a) and (c)
93. A polymorphic cell organelle, which is bound by a single (4) (b) and (d)
membrane, is not associated with
99. Select the plant which has vascular tissues but lacks
(1) Digestion of food materials seeds.
(2) Conversion of fats into carbohydrates (1) Pteris
(3) Lysis of old cell organelles
(2) Riccia
(4) Ephagy of undigested substances (3) Cycas
94. From which of the following classes of algae, the (4) Cedrus
hydrocolloids algin and agar are extracted respectively?
100.Which feature of Cycas differentiates it from Pinus?
(1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae (1) Having pinnately compound leaves

(3) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae Having male and female sex organs on same plant
(2)
body
(4) Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(3) Having mycorrhizal roots
95. Part of chromosome which prevents loss of chromosomal
(4) Formation of fruits
segments and seals it is
(1) Centromere 101.Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum, Adiantum,
Lycopodium, Pteris belong to how many classes of
(2) Telomere pteridophytes?
(3) Chromomere (1) One
(4) Secondary constriction (2) Two
96. In addition to phospholipids, cell membrane contains all (3) Three
of the following molecules, except
(4) Four
(1) Cellulose
102.Select the set of organisms in which flagellated gametes
(2) Protein are not formed.
(3) Cholesterol (1) Ulothrix, Volvox, Spirogyra
(4) Carbohydrate (2) Porphyra, Gelidium, Spirogyra
(3) Sargassum, Fucus, Ulothrix
(4) Ulothrix, Chara, Chlamydomonas

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103.Leafy stage of Sphagnum represents its 109.In prokaryotes mesosome helps in all given processes,
except
(1) Juvenile stage
(1) Cell wall formation
(2) Spore forming stage
(2) Respiration
(3) Diploid photosynthetic stage
(3) Hide from host’s immune system
(4) Gametophytic stage
(4) DNA replication
104.Mosses are different from most liverworts as the former
110.Read the following statements regarding the giant
Has gametophyte as predominant stage of their life chromosomes
(1)
cycle
(a) Polytene chromosomes were discovered by Ruckert
(2) Has unicellular, unbranched rhizoids in dipteran insects.
(b) Lampbrush chromosomes are found in primary oocyte
(3) Has an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal nuclei of vertebrates and invertebrates.
(4) Are first embryophytes (c) Due to somatic pairing of salivary gland chromosomes
their number appears half of the normal somatic cells.
105.Read the following statements and choose the correct (d) Hairs on loops present in lampbrush chromosomes
option are nascent DNA molecules.
Statement A : In mosses, the first stage is protonema How many of the above statements is/are correct?
stage which directly develops from gamete.
Statement B : The sex organs are produced at the apex (1) 3
of the leafy shoot in Mosses. (2) 4
(1) Only statement A is correct (3) 2
(2) Only statement B is correct (4) 1
(3) Both statements A and B are correct 111. Polynephritis may occur due to the absence of ephagy
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect from

106.How many given statements is/are correct for first (1) Primary lysosomes
embryophytes of plant kingdom? (2) Secondary lysosomes
a. Lack ovule but have archegonia
b. Some are heterosporous (3) Residual bodies
c. Produce motile male gametes
(4) Autophagic vacuoles
d. Asexually reproduce by zoospores
(1) 4 112.Plant body is thallus like in all except

(2) 1 (1) Sargassum, Gracilaria, Fucus

(3) 2 (2) Spirogyra, Riccia, Porphyra

(4) 3 (3) Funaria, Dryopteris, Sphagnum

(4) Marchantia, Fucus, Anthoceros
107.How many of the given statements is/are true w.r.t matrix
of mitochondria? 113.40S smaller subunit of 80S ribosomes are made up of
(a) Contains single circular dsDNA with low G ≡ C
content. (1) 33 protein molecules & a single 18S-rRNA
(b) Contains enzyme for tricarboxylic acid cycle. (2) 40 protein molecules & 28S-rRNA
(c) 80S ribosomes are present
(d) Contains components required for synthesis of (3) 21 protein molecules & 16S-rRNA
protein.
(4) 33 protein molecules & 16S-rRNA
(1) 1
114.The layer of bacterial cell envelope which is structurally
(2) 2 similar to that of eukaryotes is related to all of the given
features, except
(3) 3
(1) Lipid bilayer mainly consists of phosphoglycerides
(4) 4
Hydrophilic head is outside and hydrophobic tails are
108.Which of the following features in heterosporous (2)
inside
pteridophytes is considered as a precursor of seed habit,
the event which is an important step in evolution? (3) Tail is composed of only unsaturated hydrocarbons
Gametophytes require cool, damp, shady places to (4) Within the bilayer, proteins show lateral movement
(1)
grow
(2) Need of water for fertilisation
(3) Biflagellated motile male gametes
Development of zygotes into young embryo within
(4)
female gametophytes

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115.How many of the plants listed in box exhibit diplontic life- 121.How many genera show the retention of the female
cycle? gametophyte on the parental sporophyte?
Volvox, Spirogyra, Fucus, Cycas, Pinus, Polysiphonia Volvox, Chara, Equisetum, Cycas, Cedrus, Pinus,
Mangifera, Dryopteris.
(1) 3
(1) One
(2) 4
(2) Two
(3) 2
(3) Six
(4) 5
(4) Four
116.One of the functions of a cell organelle that is neither
bound by any membrane nor found in prokaryotes is 122.How many of the given characters are associated with
brown algae?
(1) Formation of plasma membrane
(2) Synthesizing lipids and steroids
(3) Synthesizing enzymatic proteins
(4) Formation of spindle fibres
117.Match the following columns and choose the correct
option. (1) Eight
Column-I Column-II (2) Six
a. Vacuoles (i) Synthesis of steroidal hormones (3) Seven
Formation of glycoproteins and
b. Lysosomes (ii) (4) Five
glycolipids
Golgi 123.Megasporophyll of Cycas is homologous to
c. (iii) Rich in hydrolytic enzymes
apparatus
(1) Carpel
Contains ions and excretory
d. SER (iv) (2) Stamen
products
(3) Petal
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Sepal
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 124.Mark the statement incorrect for both Riccia and
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) Marchantia

(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) Both have dioecious plant body

118.The lipid component of the cell membrane does not (2) They asexually reproduce through gemmae
show/has (3) They have biflagellated antherozoids
(1) Quasi-fluid nature Their protonema vegetatively reproduce by budding
(4)
(2) Hydrophilic tail and fragmentation

(3) Flip-flop movement 125.Which of the given organelles of the endomembrane

system plays a role in origin of the structure which forms
(4) Saturated hydrocarbons the symplastic system between two cells?
119.Select the statement which is not true for the cell (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
organelle first observed by George Palade.
(2) Lysosome
(1) These are composed of RNA and proteins
(3) Golgi complex
In eukaryotes, these organelles are composed of 60S
(2) (4) Vacuoles
and 40S subunits only
(3) These organelles are also found in bacteria
(4) These are not surrounded by any membrane
120.Which of the following statements is wrong about the
component of cell that is the main arena of cellular
activities?
(1) It is surrounded by nuclear membrane
(2) It contains many cell organelles
(3) It is semi-fluid matrix
(4) Various chemical reactions occur in it

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126.Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) 130.How many of the following organisms lack membrane
and accordingly select the correct option. bound organelles?
a. In prokaryotes mesosomes help in DNA replication and
in respiration
b. Eukaryotic cells have a variety of complex locomotory
and cytoskeletal structures
c. The middle lamella is a layer made up of magnesium
pectate only
d. Plasmodesmata connects the cytoplasm of (1) 6
neighbouring cells
(2) 7
a b c d
(3) 3
(1) T T T T
(4) 4
(2) T F T F
131.Which of the given structures of cyanobacteria has
(3) F F T T functional resemblance with the chloroplast?

(4) T T F T (1) Lamellasome

(2) Plasma membrane
(1) (1)
(3) Ribosome
(2) (2)
(4) Chromatophore
(3) (3)
132.Which of the given feature(s) is/are not similar between
(4) (4) chloroplast and mitochondria?
127.Porins are a. Self duplicating organelles.
b. Have m-RNA, r-RNA & t-RNA.
Rotatory proteins found in the plasma membrane of c. Site of carbohydrate oxidation.
(1)
animal cells d. Have ATP synthesis enzyme.
e. Storage of starch.
Small pores in lipid bilayer and allows only water
(2)
molecules to pass through (1) Only c, d & e
Proteins that form large pores in outer membrane of (2) Only c & e
(3)
semiautonomous cell organelles
(3) Only a, b & c
Some lipid molecules that can change their polarity to
(4) (4) Only c
facilitate the transport of protein molecules
128.Select the incorrect statement for polytene 133.A feature, common between 'amphibians of plant
chromosomes. kingdom' and 'vascular cryptogams' is

(1) Their number appear half of normal somatic cells Presence of independent and photosynthetic
(1)
gametophyte
They contain upto 2000 chromonemata per
(2) (2) Occurrence of haplontic life cycle and zygotic meiosis
chromosome
Balbiani rings of these chromosomes are site of RNA Presence of true root, stem and leaves in main plant
(3) (3)
and protein synthesis body

These chromosomes undergo somatic pairing and (4) Formation of non-motile male and female gametes
(4) perform crossing over to produce new genetic 134.A : Chloroplasts are capable of self duplication.
combinations R : Chloroplasts have circular DNA, 70S ribosomes and
129.How many of the following organisms show diplontic life different types of RNAs
cycle? Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(a) Polysiphonia (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(b) Volvox
(c) Fucus Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(d) Wolfia not the correct explanation of the assertion
(e) Eucalyptus (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(f) Gnetum
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(1) Two
135.Disappearance of tail of the larva of frog during
(2) Three
metamorphosis is due to the activity of
(3) Four
(1) Primary lysosome
(4) Five
(2) Autophagic vacuole
(3) Heterophagosome
(4) Residual bodies

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ZOOLOGY

136.Which of the following combinations represents a 142.What would happen if the chordae tendineae of mitral
possibility of Erythroblastosis foetalis? valve are cut?

(1) Rh– mother and Rh– foetus (1) Opening and closing of valves remains unaffected
(2) Decrease in the flow of blood in pulmonary artery
(2) Rh– mother and Rh+ foetus
(3) Decrease in the flow of blood to aorta
(3) Rh+ mother and Rh+ foetus
(4) Increase in flow of blood in pulmonary veins
(4) Rh+ mother and Rh– foetus
143.The component of the electrical conduction system of the
heart responsible for transmitting impulses from AV node
137.Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to
to ventricles is
inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles is mainly
exhibited by patients suffering from (1) Sino-atrial node
(1) Asbestosis (2) Pacemaker of heart
(2) Emphysema (3) AV Bundle
(3) Asthma (4) Pacesetter of heart
(4) Silicosis 144.After a normal inspiration, the total volume of air a person
138.Higher number of RBCs in the blood of a mountain can expire by maximum effort is
dweller in comparison to a person residing in plains can (1) TV + ERV
be explained by
(2) ERV + RV
(1) Lack of pollutants in higher mountainous regions
(3) TLC – VC
Less pO2 in atmospheric air on mountains requiring
(4) IC + ERV
(2) more RBCs to supply the required amount of O2 to
tissues 145.Pacemaker in human heart is a modified
(3) Better nutrition intake of mountain dwellers (1) Nerve
Enhanced erythropoiesis in mountain dwellers due to (2) Cardiac muscle
(4)
high exposure to UV rays
(3) Bone
139.Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. human mature RBCs.
(4) Cartilage
(1) Lack nucleus and mitochondria
146.A person with blood group ‘O–’ under ABO system met
(2) Have carbonic anhydrase with an accident and suffered much blood loss. Blood
(3) Transport CO2 as carbamino-hemoglobin group of the donor person to save the life of patient
should be
Undergo aerobic respiration during strenuous
(4) (1) AB+
exercise
140.Cardiac disorder which is characterized by sudden (2) AB–
damage to heart muscle due to inadequate blood supply
is (3) O–
(1) Heart attack (4) O+
(2) Heart failure
147.Read the following reactions and identify A and B
(3) Cardiac arrest respectively
A
(4) Heart block Prothrombin −→
− Thrombin
2+
Ca

141.Systemic heart refers to B

Fibrinogen −→
− Fibrin
(1) Two ventricles together Ca
2+

Choose the correct option

(2) Left auricle and right ventricle
(1) Thrombokinase, Thrombin
(3) Left auricle and left ventricle
(2) Thromboplastin, Thrombokinase
(4) Right auricle and right ventricle
(3) Thrombin, Thrombokinase
(4) Thrombokinase, Thromboplastin

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148.Pulmonary veins from lungs are known for carrying 153.Which of the following is not a function of conducting part
A blood to the B of heart. Choose the option that fills of human respiratory system?
¯¯¯¯¯ ¯¯¯¯¯
A and B correctly. Transportation of atmospheric air to terminal
(1)
A B bronchioles
(1) Oxygenated Right atrium (2) Humidification and temperature adjustment of air
(2) Deoxygenated Right ventricle (3) Diffusion of CO2 from blood to atmospheric air
(3) Oxygenated Left atrium
(4) Clearing air of the foreign particles
(4) Deoxygenated Left ventricle
154.Read the statements carefully and choose the option
(1) (1) representing true statements.
(a) pO2 in the atmospheric air does not change with
(2) (2)
altitude
(3) (3) (b) Most people who live at high altitude develop
polycythemia due to hypoxia.
(4) (4) (c) Excess inflation of the lungs is prevented by Hering-
149.Read the following statements w.r.t. the human respiratory Breuer's reflex.
system. (d) While transporting CO2 in blood, blood does not
Statement A : Left primary bronchus divides into two become acidic due to presence of blood buffers
secondary bronchi which further divide into tertiary
(1) (a) & (c) only
bronchi and bronchioles.
Statement B : Only trachea and the primary bronchi are (2) (b) & (c) only
supported by cartilaginous rings.
(3) (a), (b) & (c)
Choose the correct option.
(4) (b), (c) & (d)
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect 155.Read the following statements:
Statement A: Ventricular diastole leads to reduction in
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect ventricular pressure that causes closure of semilunar
valves and preventing the backflow of blood into
(4) Statement A is incorrect but B is correct
ventricles.
150.Which set of cells exhibit phagocytic property? Statement B: Ventricular systole increases the
ventricular pressure causing the closure of bicuspid and
(1) Neutrophils and eosinophils tricuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into
(2) Basophils and lymphocytes the atria.
Choose the correct option.
(3) Neutrophils and monocytes
(1) Only statement A is correct
(4) Monocytes and basophils
(2) Only statement B is correct
151.Read the statements A and B and choose the correct
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
option.
A : Solubility of the gases as well as the thickness of the (4) Both statements A and B are correct
diffusion membrane involved affect the rate of diffusion.
B : Pressure contributed by an individual gas in a mixture 156.Read the following statements.
of gases is called partial pressure. i. Presence of single layer of thin flattened squamous
epithelium
(1) A and B both are incorrect ii. Absence of ciliated epithelium
(2) A is correct but B is incorrect iii. Absence of cartilage
Choose the option which fulfills all the above criteria.
(3) A and B both are correct
(1) Primary bronchi
(4) B is correct but A is incorrect
(2) Pharynx
152.The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally and ventrally
respectively by (3) Alveoli
(4) Trachea
(1) Vertebral column and Sternum
(2) Sternum and Vertebral column
(3) Ribs and Sternum
(4) Diaphragm and Clavicle

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157.Read the following enzyme catalysed chemical reaction 163.Read the given statements carefully and select the
of respiration. correct option.
'X' 'X'
Statement A : Open circulatory system is present in
CO + H O ⇌ H CO ⇌
− +
HCO3 + H arthropods and all annelids.
2 2 2 3
Statement B : In open circulatory system, blood is
Select the incorrect point about enzyme 'X'. pumped out by the heart and the cells and tissues directly
The concentration of enzyme 'X' is higher in RBC than bathed in it.
(1)
in blood plasma (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) The name of enzyme 'X' is carbonic anhydrase (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
Enzyme 'X' helps in maximum transport of CO2 from (3) Only statement A is correct
(3)
tissue to alveoli as carbamino-haemoglobin form
(4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Zinc is a cofactor for enzyme 'X'
164.Pneumoconiosis is a type of
158.Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. oxygen-haemoglobin
dissociation curve in humans (1) Emphysema

(1) It is sigmoid or ‘S’ shaped (2) Occupational renal disease

Low partial pressure of oxygen will shift the curve to (3) Occupational respiratory disease
(2)
right (4) Coronary artery disease
+
(3) Low H concentration is favourable for shifting of 165.Number of double circulations completed by the human
curve to left heart per minute under resting conditions is
Shifting of curve towards left indicates dissociation of (1) 36
(4)
oxygen from Hb
(2) 72
159.Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery (3) 144
can recognise changes in
(4) 18
(1) pO2 and pCO2 levels of CSF
166.Assertion (A): Human heart is called myogenic.
(2) pCO2 and pH levels of blood Reason (R): Human heart is supplied by coronary
vessels.
(3) pH and pO2 of CSF
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(4) pO2 and pCO2 levels of blood significantly option.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
160.Which of the following will be incorrect w.r.t. joint diastole (1)
explanation of the (A)
stage of a cardiac cycle?
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
Tricuspid and bicuspid valves remain open during (2)
(1) explanation of the (A)
joint diastole
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
The semilunar valves remain open throughout the
(2)
joint diastole to allow ventricles to receive blood (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
Blood from vena cava flows into right ventricle through 167.A simple spirometer cannot be used to directly measure
(3)
right atrium
(1) IC, VC and EC
Blood from pulmonary veins flows into left ventricle
(4) (2) IC, IRV and VC
through left atrium
(3) FRC, RV and TLC
161.Choose the correct option to complete the analogy w.r.t.
respiratory structures. (4) IC, EC and IRV
Aquatic arthropods : Gills : : Earthworm : ____________
168.In humans, cardiac notch is present in
(1) Trachea
(1) Superior lobe of right lung
(2) Moist cuticle
(2) Superior lobe of left lung
(3) Book lungs
(3) Middle lobe of right lung
(4) Book gills
(4) Inferior lobe of left lung
162.A person tries to hold his breathe for sometime. Which of
the following changes in blood would first lead to an urge
to breathe?
(1) Fall in O2 concentration

(2) Rise in CO2 concentration

(3) Rise in pH
(4) Fall in osmolarity

17
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169.Assertion (A): Diuretic drugs often are prescribed to treat 175.Which of the following is a chronic disorder in which
hypertension. alveolar walls are damaged and due to which respiratory
Reason (R): Diuresis slows down the renal absorption of surface is decreased?
water which in turn reduces blood volume.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct (1) Asthma
option. (2) Emphysema
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (3) Silicosis
(1)
explanation of the (A)
(4) Asbestosis
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) 176.Match column-A with column-B and select the correct
explanation of the (A)
option.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Column-A Column-B
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
a. Medulla oblongata (i) Chemoreceptors
170.Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. human heart?
'Switch-off' centre for
(1) Cardiac cycle - 72 cycles in 60 seconds b. Pons varolii (ii)
breathing
Chordae tendinae - Prevent collapse of AV valves into Aorticarch and Normal respiratory
(2) c. (iii)
the atria carotid arch rhythm centre
Second heart sound - Due to opening of semilunar
(3) (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
valves
SA node - Generates maximum number of action (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(4)
potentials
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
171.Different structures of the human lungs are given in the (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
box below.
Trachea, Alveoli, Primary bronchi, Initial bronchioles, 177.The end of T-wave in standard ECG of a normal person
represents the
Secondary bronchi, Terminal bronchioles, Tertiary
bronchi (1) Contraction of both the atria
How many structures from the above are lined / (2) End of ventricular systole
supported by incomplete 'C' shaped cartilaginous rings?
(3) Beginning of the ventricular systole
(1) Four
(4) Initiation of the atrial contraction
(2) Five
178.Lymph collected from all parts of body is eventually
(3) Six drained into blood vessels known as
(4) Three
(1) Subclavian veins
172.Function not performed by the conducting part of human (2) Hepatic veins
respiratory tract is
(3) Renal arteries
(1) Humidification of inhaled air
(4) Subclavian arteries
(2) Trapping of foreign particles
179.Pneumotaxic centre present in pons is responsible for all
Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
(3) except
atmospheric air
(1) Alteration of respiratory rate
Bringing the temperature of inhaled air to body
(4) (2) Duration of inspiration
temperature
173.Parameter not affected by sympathetic stimulation of (3) Moderation of the function of respiratory rhythm centre
heart (4) Direct stimulation of diaphragm
(1) Cardiac output 180.The maximum amount of carbon dioxide is transported by
(2) Stroke volume blood in the form of

(3) Duration of cardiac cycle (1) Bicarbonate ions

(4) Involuntary nature of cardiac musculature (2) Dissolved gas

174.The value of tidal volume (TV) in a normal adult human is (3) Carboxyhaemoglobin

(1) 1000 mL (4) Carbaminohaemoglobin

(2) 2000 mL
(3) 500 mL
(4) 1500 mL

18