Q1.
The term “taxonomy” was coined by:
A) Linnaeus
B) A. P. de Candolle
C) Haeckel
D) John Ray
Q2. The scientific name of Mango is:
A) Mangifera indica L.
B) Mangifera Indica
C) Mangifera Indica Linn.
D) Mangifera indica Linn.
Q3. Binomial nomenclature ensures:
A) Stability of names
B) Multiple names for a species
C) Confusion in identification
D) No universal acceptance
Q4. The book “Systema Naturae” was written by:
A) Carolus Linnaeus
B) Aristotle
C) Darwin
D) Hooker
Q5. Who proposed five kingdom classification?
A) Whittaker
B) Copeland
C) Haeckel
D) Woese
Q6. Basic unit of classification is:
A) Family
B) Genus
C) Species
D) Order
Q7. Select the correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy:
A) Kingdom–Phylum–Class–Order–Family–Genus–Species
B) Kingdom–Class–Phylum–Order–Family–Genus–Species
C) Phylum–Kingdom–Class–Order–Family–Genus–Species
D) Kingdom–Order–Class–Phylum–Family–Genus–Species
Q8. ICZN stands for:
A) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
B) International Committee of Zoological Nomenclature
C) Indian Code of Zoological Nomenclature
D) International Congress of Zoological Nomenclature
Q9. The term “Systematics” was introduced by:
A) Linnaeus
B) John Ray
C) Bentham
D) Theophrastus
Q10. Taxon refers to:
A) Any rank in classification
B) Species only
C) Kingdom only
D) Genus only¶
Q11. The species name in binomial nomenclature is always:
A) Capitalized
B) Underlined and capitalized
C) Written in italics and lowercase
D) Written in bold
Q12. Botanical gardens are important because they:
A) Protect wildlife
B) Maintain plant diversity ex-situ
C) Classify animals
D) Store fossils
Q13. A herbarium is a collection of:
A) Live plants
B) Preserved plant specimens
C) Plant seeds only
D) Plant tissues
Q14. The branch dealing with identification, nomenclature and classification is:
A) Ecology
B) Cytology
C) Taxonomy
D) Morphology
Q15. The taxonomic category between family and species is:
A) Class
B) Order
C) Genus
D) Phylum
Q16. An example of a monograph is:
A) A detailed study of one taxon
B) A pictorial guide of several species
C) A record of fossils
D) An index of botanical names
Q17. Select the correct statement:
A) All living organisms have the same genetic material
B) Living organisms are self-replicating and evolving
C) Metabolism is absent in living organisms
D) Consciousness is present in all organisms
Q18. The living world is defined by:
A) Growth and reproduction only
B) Growth and movement only
C) Metabolism, reproduction, and consciousness
D) Metabolism only
Q19. Identify the correct match:
A) Species Plantarum – Linnaeus
B) Genera Plantarum – Bentham
C) Historia Plantarum – Theophrastus
D) All of the above
Q20. Manuals are useful for:
A) Detailed study of taxonomy
B) Identifying names of species found in an area
C) Drawing specimens
D) Classifying fossils
Q21. A taxonomic key is primarily used for:
A) Preservation
B) Identification
C) Nomenclature
D) Classification
Q22. The largest taxonomic category among these is:
A) Class
B) Phylum
C) Family
D) Genus
Q23. Who first used the term “taxonomy”?
A) A.P. de Candolle
B) Theophrastus
C) Linnaeus
D) John Ray
Q24. Botanical name of rice:
A) Oryza sativa
B) Triticum aestivum
C) Zea mays
D) Hordeum vulgare
Q25. Zoological name of human:
A) Homo erectus
B) Homo sapiens
C) Homo habilis
D) Australopithecus afarensis
Q26. The discipline that includes identification, nomenclature, and classification:
A) Cytology
B) Morphology
C) Taxonomy
D) Ecology
Q27. Term “flora” refers to:
A) Animal life
B) Plant life
C) Fungi
D) Fossils
Q28. Carolus Linnaeus is known as:
A) Father of Biology
B) Father of Taxonomy
C) Father of Genetics
D) Father of Zoology
Q29. Which one is NOT a taxon?
A) Family
B) Order
C) Category
D) Phylum
Q30. The binomial name of wheat is:
A) Triticum aestivum
B) Zea mays
C) Oryza sativa
D) Hordeum vulgare
Q31. Which of the following is true about growth in living organisms?
A) Growth occurs only due to external factors
B) Growth is intrinsic and internal
C) Growth stops after certain age in all organisms
D) Growth is not a defining property
Q32. Scientific naming follows which language?
A) Greek
B) Latin
C) English
D) German
Q33. Who is called the Father of Botany?
A) Theophrastus
B) Linnaeus
C) Darwin
D) Bentham
Q34. Binomial nomenclature uses how many names?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q35. Correct hierarchy:
A) Species–Genus–Family–Order–Class–Phylum–Kingdom
B) Genus–Species–Family–Order–Class–Phylum–Kingdom
C) Species–Family–Genus–Order–Class–Phylum–Kingdom
D) Family–Species–Genus–Order–Class–Phylum–Kingdom
Q36. The book “Species Plantarum” was published in:
A) 1735
B) 1753
C) 1859
D) 1761
Q37. A guide describing plants of a particular area:
A) Monograph
B) Flora
C) Manual
D) Catalogue
Q38. “Classification based on observable characteristics” is called:
A) Natural system
B) Artificial system
C) Phylogenetic system
D) Molecular taxonomy
Q39. Name given to a taxonomic unit at any level:
A) Category
B) Taxon
C) Species
D) Genus
Q40. Which taxonomic aid is arranged like a book of pressed plant specimens?
A) Herbarium
B) Botanical garden
C) Museum
D) Monograph
Q41. The process of arranging organisms into groups:
A) Classification
B) Identification
C) Nomenclature
D) Systematics
Q42. “New systematics” was coined by:
A) Julian Huxley
B) Darwin
C) Linnaeus
D) Bentham
Q43. The taxonomic category directly higher than genus:
A) Family
B) Order
C) Class
D) Species
Q44. Taxonomic category below phylum:
A) Class
B) Order
C) Family
D) Kingdom
Q45. The largest category in classification:
A) Phylum
B) Kingdom
C) Class
D) Family
Q46. The living world is characterized by all EXCEPT:
A) Metabolism
B) Growth
C) Reproduction
D) Absence of organization
Q47. Correct statement about binomial nomenclature:
A) First word is species name
B) Second word is genus name
C) Both words are capitalized
D) First word is genus, second word is species
Q48. Classification based on evolutionary relationships:
A) Artificial
B) Natural
C) Phylogenetic
D) Numerical
Q49. Zoological name of housefly:
A) Musca domestica
B) Musca nebulo
C) Apis mellifera
D) Drosophila melanogaster
Q50. Name given by Linnaeus for man:
A) Homo erectus
B) Homo sapiens
C) Homo habilis
D) Australopithecus
Q51. International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi, and plants:
A) ICZN
B) ICN
C) ICBN
D) ICVN
Q52. Manuals provide information about:
A) Collection of live specimens
B) Preservation of plants
C) Identification of species in area
D) Fossil records
Q53. The correct taxonomic sequence:
A) Order–Family–Genus–Species
B) Family–Order–Genus–Species
C) Genus–Species–Family–Order
D) Species–Genus–Family–Order
Q54. Scientific names avoid:
A) Confusion
B) Stability
C) Priority
D) Universality
Q55. The smallest taxonomic category:
A) Genus
B) Family
C) Species
D) Order
Q56. “Species Plantarum” described:
A) Animals
B) Plants
C) Fungi
D) Microorganisms
Q57. The term “systematics” refers to:
A) Classification only
B) Identification only
C) Taxonomy and evolutionary relationships
D) Nomenclature only
Q58. Taxonomic hierarchy includes all EXCEPT:
A) Phylum
B) Species
C) Genus
D) Substrate
Q59. In binomial name, author citation is:
A) After genus name
B) After species name
C) Before genus
D) Before species
Q60. The genus of rice is:
A) Oryza
B) Triticum
C) Zea
D) HordeAll
Q61. Which taxonomic category contains related genera?
A) Order
B) Family
C) Class
D) Species
Q62. Which of the following helps in quick identification of plants and animals?
A) Flora
B) Key
C) Monograph
D) Manual
Q63. In binomial nomenclature, the first word represents:
A) Species
B) Kingdom
C) Genus
D) Order
Q64. Which is the correct format of a scientific name?
A) Mangifera Indica
B) Mangifera indica
C) mangifera Indica
D) Mangifera indica L.
Q65. Which one is NOT a taxonomic aid?
A) Flora
B) Monograph
C) Museum
D) Zoological park
Q66. Which among the following is used to store preserved animals?
A) Museum
B) Herbarium
C) Botanical garden
D) Sanctuary
Q67. A place where live animals are kept and bred:
A) Herbarium
B) Zoological Park
C) Sanctuary
D) Biosphere Reserve
Q68. Which of the following is NOT a function of herbarium?
A) Preservation of plant specimens
B) Identification
C) Live display of animals
D) Taxonomic study
Q69. “Taxonomic hierarchy” means:
A) Arrangement of taxonomic categories
B) Identification chart
C) Naming of plants
D) Grouping of ecosystems
Q70. The first step in taxonomy is:
A) Identification
B) Classification
C) Nomenclature
D) Evolutionary study
Q71. Which of the following is not an example of a scientific name?
A) Panthera leo
B) Homo sapiens
C) Tiger
D) Zea mays
Q72. Who is considered the Father of Taxonomy?
A) Aristotle
B) Linnaeus
C) Darwin
D) Mendel
Q73. Which is the correct taxonomic sequence?
A) Kingdom–Phylum–Class–Order–Family–Genus–Species
B) Kingdom–Class–Order–Phylum–Family–Genus–Species
C) Kingdom–Order–Phylum–Class–Family–Genus–Species
D) Kingdom–Phylum–Order–Class–Family–Genus–Species
Q74. Which taxonomic category contains the least number of organisms?
A) Species
B) Genus
C) Family
D) Order
Q75. Which one of the following is a taxonomic aid for identification of plants based on
contrasting characters?
A) Key
B) Herbarium
C) Manual
D) Catalogue
Q76. All of the following are taxonomic categories except:
A) Species
B) Genus
C) Division
D) Variety
Q77. Which of the following characters is not used in taxonomy?
A) External morphology
B) Cellular structure
C) Molecular data
D) Personal preferences
Q78. Carolus Linnaeus introduced binomial nomenclature in:
A) 1753
B) 1735
C) 1859
D) 1767
Q79. Which one is true about binomial nomenclature?
A) Genus name is written after species name
B) Species name is capitalized
C) Full name is written in bold letters
D) Scientific names are in Latin
Q80. Reproduction is not a defining feature of:
A) Amoeba
B) Mules
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
Q81. Which of these is not part of biological classification hierarchy?
A) Kingdom
B) Family
C) Order
D) Classmate
Q82. The basic similarity of all living organisms is in their:
A) Reproductive behavior
B) Genetic material
C) Habitat
D) Mode of nutrition
Q83. Growth in non-living things is due to:
A) Intrinsic activity
B) Accretion of materials
C) Cell division
D) Consciousness
Q84. Which of these is considered a living characteristic?
A) Movement
B) Metabolism
C) Composition
D) Rigidity
Q85. Which is not a component of systematics?
A) Classification
B) Nomenclature
C) Identification
D) Decomposition
Q86. Phylum in animals is equivalent to _______ in plants.
A) Class
B) Division
C) Family
D) Genus
Q87. Which is not used for classification of living organisms?
A) DNA analysis
B) Morphology
C) Fossil records
D) Astrology
Q88. Which category is broader than class?
A) Phylum
B) Order
C) Family
D) Genus
Q89. Correctly written scientific name of Lion is:
A) Panthera Leo
B) panthera leo
C) Panthera leo
D) Panthera leo L
Q90. Consciousness is a property found only in:
A) Plants
B) Animals
🟣 CHEMISTRY SECTION (45
C) Viruses
D) All
QUESTIONS)
Q1. The mass of 1 mole of oxygen gas (O₂) is:
A) 16 g
B) 8 g
C) 32 g
D) 28 g
Q2. The empirical formula of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is:
A) CH₂O
B) C₂H₄O₂
C) C₃H₆O₃
D) C₆H₁₂O₆
Q3. Molarity is defined as:
A) Moles of solute / Mass of solvent in grams
B) Moles of solute / Volume of solution in litres
C) Moles of solute / Volume of solvent in litres
D) Grams of solute / Volume of solvent in litres
Q4. 1 mole of NaCl contains how many formula units?
A) 6.022 × 10²³
B) 3.011 × 10²³
C) 12.044 × 10²³
D) 1.204 × 10²³
Q5. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?
A) Acetic acid
B) Ammonia
C) Sodium chloride
D) Carbonic acid
Q6. The equivalent mass of H₂SO₄ in acid-base reactions is:
A) 49 g
B) 98 g
C) 24.5 g
D) 50 g
Q7. The pH of pure water at 25 °C is:
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 5
Q8. Avogadro’s number represents:
A) Number of molecules in 1 gram
B) Number of molecules in 1 mole
C) Number of atoms in 1 cm³
D) Number of protons in 1 mole
Q9. The mole fraction of solute in a dilute solution approaches:
A) 1
B) 0
C) 0.5
D) Infinity
Q10. A solution with pH = 3 is:
A) Neutral
B) Weakly acidic
C) Strongly acidic
D) Basic
Q11. Which of the following is a weak acid?
A) HCl
B) H₂SO₄
C) HNO₃
D) CH₃COOH
Q12. The normality of 0.5 M H₂SO₄ is:
A) 0.5 N
B) 1 N
C) 2 N
D) 0.25 N
Q13. If 1 g hydrogen reacts with oxygen, how many grams of water are formed?
A) 8 g
B) 9 g
C) 18 g
D) 36 g
Q14. Which of these solutions has the highest concentration of H⁺ ions?
A) pH = 2
B) pH = 4
C) pH = 7
D) pH = 9
Q15. Molar mass of Na₂CO₃ is:
A) 106 g/mol
B) 84 g/mol
C) 52 g/mol
D) 100 g/mol
Q16. What volume of 1 M HCl contains 1 mole HCl?
A) 100 ml
B) 500 ml
C) 1000 ml
D) 2000 ml
Q17. The limiting reagent is the one which:
A) Is in excess
B) Reacts fastest
C) Determines the amount of product formed
D) Remains unreacted
Q18. Which salt is formed by neutralization of NaOH and HCl?
A) Na₂CO₃
B) Na₂SO₄
C) NaCl
D) NH₄Cl
Q19. If 0.5 mole of NaOH is dissolved in 500 ml solution, its molarity is:
A) 1 M
B) 0.1 M
C) 0.5 M
D) 2 M
Q20. Ionic product of water at 25 °C is:
A) 1 × 10⁻¹⁴
B) 1 × 10⁻⁷
C) 1 × 10⁻¹²
D) 1 × 10⁻⁹
Q21. The pH of 0.01 M HCl solution is approximately:
A) 2
B) 4
C) 12
D) 7
Q22. Which of these represents the correct relationship?
A) Moles = Molarity × Volume(L)
B) Moles = Molarity / Volume(L)
C) Moles = Normality × Volume(L)
D) Moles = Volume(L) / Molarity
Q23. An empirical formula represents:
A) Actual number of atoms
B) Simplest whole number ratio
C) Molecular formula always
D) Structural formula
Q24. The molarity of pure water is approx.:
A) 18 M
B) 55.5 M
C) 1 M
D) 100 M
Q25. Which acid is used as a primary standard?
A) H₂SO₄
B) HCl
C) Oxalic acid
D) Acetic acid
Q26. The conjugate base of H₂CO₃ is:
A) HCO₃⁻
B) CO₃²⁻
C) CO₂
D) OH⁻
Q27. The pOH of a neutral solution at 25 °C is:
A) 14
B) 7
C) 0
D) 1
Q28. The equivalent mass of NaOH is equal to:
A) Molar mass / 2
B) Molar mass
C) Molar mass × 2
D) Molar mass / 3
Q29. pH + pOH = ?
A) 7
B) 0
C) 14
D) 1
Q30. Which is correct for a strong electrolyte?
A) Partial ionization
B) No ionization
C) Complete ionization
D) Weak conduction
Q31. Which of the following solutions is basic?
A) pH = 2
B) pH = 5
C) pH = 7
D) pH = 10
Q32. Avogadro's law states:
A) Equal volumes of gases at same T and P have equal masses
B) Equal volumes of gases at same T and P contain equal number of molecules
C) Equal masses of gases occupy equal volumes
D) Gases always have same density
Q33. The molecular formula is always a multiple of:
A) Structural formula
B) Empirical formula
C) Normality
D) Molarity
Q34. Number of moles in 11 g CO₂ (Molar mass = 44 g/mol):
A) 0.25
B) 0.5
C) 0.75
D) 1
Q35. Equivalent mass of H₂SO₄ in redox reactions is:
A) 98
B) 49
C) 24.5
D) Depends on reaction
Q36. pH of 1 × 10⁻⁸ M HCl is approximately:
A) 8
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q37. Limiting reagent determines:
A) Yield of product
B) Rate of reaction
C) Purity of product
D) Solubility
Q38. Which of the following is NOT a unit of concentration?
A) Molarity
B) Molality
C) Mole fraction
D) Density
Q39. 1 mole of any gas at STP occupies:
A) 22.4 L
B) 24.4 L
C) 11.2 L
D) 44.8 L
Q40. If pH = 4, H⁺ ion concentration is:
A) 1×10⁻³
B) 1×10⁻⁴
C) 1×10⁻²
D) 1×10⁻⁵
Q41. Which statement about molality is correct?
A) Depends on volume
B) Depends on temperature
C) Moles of solute per kg of solvent
D) Changes with pressure
Q42. An acid with pH=1 is:
A) Weak acid
B) Strong acid
C) Weak base
D) Strong base
Q43. A solution whose pH does not change much on dilution is called:
A) Neutral
B) Buffered
C) Dilute
D) Saturated
Q44. The number of atoms in 12 g of carbon-12 is:
A) 6.022×10²³
B) 3.011×10²³
C) 12×6.022×10²³
D) 1 mole
Q45. Equivalent weight of Na₂CO₃ in acid-base reaction:
A) Molar mass / 2
B) Molar mass
C) Molar mass / 3
D) Molar mass × 2
🟢 PHYSICS SECTION (45 QUESTIONS)
Q1. The SI unit of displacement is:
A) Meter
B) Newton
C) Joule
D) Hertz
Q2. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents:
A) Distance
B) Displacement
C) Acceleration
D) Velocity
Q3. A body moving with uniform acceleration covers 100 m in 5 s. What is its acceleration if
initial velocity is 0?
A) 4 m/s²
B) 8 m/s²
C) 10 m/s²
D) 20 m/s²
Q4. The area under a velocity-time graph gives:
A) Acceleration
B) Displacement
C) Force
D) Power
Q5. A body has initial velocity u and uniform acceleration a. Its velocity after time t is:
A) ut
B) u + at
C) u – at
D) at
Q6. Newton’s First Law is also known as:
A) Law of inertia
B) Law of acceleration
C) Law of action-reaction
D) Law of conservation
Q7. The rate of change of momentum is equal to:
A) Force
B) Impulse
C) Energy
D) Power
Q8. SI unit of force:
A) kgf
B) dyne
C) Newton
D) Pascal
Q9. If mass = 2 kg, acceleration = 3 m/s², force = ?
A) 6 N
B) 1.5 N
C) 5 N
D) 4 N
Q10. Impulse is equal to:
A) Change in energy
B) Change in velocity
C) Change in momentum
D) Change in displacement
Q11. A body of mass 4 kg moves with velocity 5 m/s. Its momentum is:
A) 20 kg m/s
B) 0.8 kg m/s
C) 9 kg m/s
D) 1.25 kg m/s
Q12. The acceleration of a body thrown vertically upwards is:
A) 0
B) 9.8 m/s² downward
C) 9.8 m/s² upward
D) Varies
Q13. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving with constant acceleration is:
A) A straight line
B) A parabola
C) A circle
D) A hyperbola
Q14. Unit of impulse:
A) N·s
B) J·s
C) m/s
D) kg
Q15. A body thrown upwards reaches maximum height when:
A) Acceleration becomes zero
B) Velocity becomes zero
C) Momentum becomes zero
D) Force becomes zero
Q16. Newton’s Second Law relates to:
A) Inertia
B) Acceleration
C) Action-reaction
D) Equilibrium
Q17. If a body moves with uniform velocity, acceleration is:
A) Zero
B) Constant
C) Increasing
D) Decreasing
Q18. Negative acceleration is also called:
A) Uniform acceleration
B) Retardation
C) Constant acceleration
D) Instantaneous acceleration
Q19. If a body starts from rest, distance covered in time t under uniform acceleration a is:
A) ut + ½at²
B) ½at²
C) at²
D) u + at
Q20. The action and reaction forces:
A) Act on same body
B) Cancel each other
C) Act on different bodies
D) Are unequal
Q21. A ball of mass 0.5 kg hits the wall and rebounds with same speed. If contact time is
0.1s, impulse is:
A) Zero
B) mv
C) 2mv
D) mv/2
Q22. The inertia of a body depends on its:
A) Volume
B) Density
C) Mass
D) Shape
Q23. The unit of mass in SI is:
A) Gram
B) Kilogram
C) Newton
D) Pound
Q24. A particle moving in a straight line covers equal distances in equal intervals of time. Its
acceleration is:
A) Zero
B) Constant
C) Variable
D) Infinite
Q25. If net external force on a system is zero, its total momentum:
A) Becomes zero
B) Increases
C) Decreases
D) Remains constant
Q26. Newton’s Third Law explains:
A) Momentum conservation
B) Energy conservation
C) Gravitation
D) Inertia
Q27. A 10 N force is applied to a body of mass 2 kg. Acceleration is:
A) 5 m/s²
B) 20 m/s²
C) 2 m/s²
D) 10 m/s²
Q28. Unit of acceleration:
A) m/s
B) m/s²
C) N·s
D) J
Q29. Impulse has the same units as:
A) Energy
B) Momentum
C) Power
D) Work
Q30. A constant force acts on a body for a short time. The quantity that changes is:
A) Mass
B) Momentum
C) Acceleration
D) Weight
Q31. Acceleration is defined as:
A) Rate of change of velocity
B) Rate of change of displacement
C) Rate of change of speed
D) Rate of change of distance
Q32. A body moving with velocity u comes to rest under uniform retardation a in time t. The
distance travelled is:
A) ut
B) ½at²
C) u²/2a
D) ut – ½at²
Q33. If initial velocity is u, final velocity v, acceleration a, and displacement s, equation is:
A) v² = u² + 2as
B) v² = u² – 2as
C) v = u + at
D) s = ut + ½at²
Q34. A car accelerates uniformly from 10 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s. Acceleration is:
A) 4 m/s²
B) 5 m/s²
C) 6 m/s²
D) 2 m/s²
Q35. The SI unit of momentum is:
A) kg m/s²
B) kg m/s
C) N·s²
D) m/s²
Q36. Inertia of rest means:
A) Body resists motion
B) Body resists change of position
C) Body resists acceleration
D) Body resists rotation
Q37. Which law states “Every action has equal and opposite reaction”?
A) Newton’s First Law
B) Newton’s Second Law
C) Newton’s Third Law
D) Newton’s Law of Gravitation
Q38. A ball dropped freely has acceleration:
A) 0 m/s²
B) 9.8 m/s² downward
C) 9.8 m/s² upward
D) Varying
Q39. A particle under uniform acceleration:
A) Velocity increases linearly
B) Acceleration increases
C) Acceleration decreases
D) Motion is circular
Q40. Quantity having both magnitude and direction is:
A) Scalar
B) Vector
C) Constant
D) Variable
Q41. Motion under gravity has acceleration:
A) 0
B) 9.8 m/s² upward
C) 9.8 m/s² downward
D) Varying
Q42. A body has mass m and acceleration a. Force is:
A) m+a
B) m/a
C) m×a
D) m–a
Q43. A body moving uniformly covers distance s in time t. Velocity is:
A) s×t
B) s/t
C) t/s
D) s–t
Q44. SI unit of velocity:
A) m/s²
B) m/s
C) km/hr
D) N
Q45. Which quantity changes in inelastic collision?
A) Momentum
B) Kinetic energy
C) Mass
D) Time
