NMTC PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER – 7 & 8th

PAPER - 2019
Q.1.- Q.15 – Objective – (1 Marks Each)
Q.15.- Q.30 – Subjective– (1 Marks Each)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 30

Time : 120 min

1) Fill in the response sheet with your name, class, the

institution through which you appear in the specified paper.
2) Diagrams are only visual aids; they are not drawn to scale.
3) You are free to do rough work on separate sheets.
4) Duration of the test: 2 pm to 4 pm – 2 hours.

PART - A
Note:

• Only one of the choices A, B, C and D is correct for each

question. Shade that alphabets of your choice in response
sheet (If you have doubt in the method of answering seek the
guidance of your supervision)
• For each correct response you get 1 mark; for each incorrect
response you lose ½ mark.
1. If 4921 × D – ABBBD, them the sum of the digits of
ABBBD × D is _____
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d) 26
2. What is the 2019th digit to the right of the decimal
5
point, in the decimal representation of ?
28
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 7
3. If X is a 1000-digit number, Y is the sum of its digits,
Z the sum of the digits of Y and W the sum of the
digits of Z, then the maximum possible value of W is
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 22
4. Let x be the number 0.000….001 which has 2019
zeroes after the decimal point. Then which of the
following numbers is the greatest?
10000 1
5. (a) 10000 + x (b) 10000⸱x (c) (d) 2
x x
6. then the number of possible values for A, B,

C, D, E satisfying this equation where A, B, C, D and

E are distinct digits is
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
7. In a 5 × 5 grid having 25 cells, Janani has to enter 0
or 1 in each cell such that each sub square grid of size
2 × 2 has exactly three equal numbers. What is the
maximum possible sum of the numbers in all the 25
cells put together?
(a) 23 (b) 21 (c) 19 (d) 18
8. ABCD is a square E is one fourth of the way from A
to B and F is one fourth of the way from B to C. X is
the center of the square. Side of the square is 8 cm.
Then the area of the shaded region in the figure in
cm2 is
 (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 20
9. ABCD is a rectangle with E and F are midpoints of
CD and AB respectively and G is the mid-point of
AF. The ratio of the area of ABCD to area of AECG
is

(a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 6 : 5 (d) 8 : 3

10. If and each alphabet represents a different

digit, what is the maximum possible value of FLAT?

 (a) 2450 (b) 2405 (c) 2305 (d) 2350
11. How many positive integers smaller than 400 can you
get as a sum of eleven consecutive positive integers?
(a) 37 (b) 35 (c) 33 (d) 31
12. Let x, y and z be positive real numbers and let x > y >
z so that x + y + z = 20.1. Which of the following
statements is true?
(a) Always xy < 99 (b) Always xy > 1
(c) Always xy  75 (d) Always yz  49
13. A sequence {an} is generated by the rule, an = an – 1 –
an – 2 for n > 3. Given a1 = 2 and a2 = 4, the sum of the
first 2019 terms of the sequence is given by
(a) 8 (b) 2692 (c) – 2692 (d) – 8
14. There are exactly 5 prime numbers between 2000 and
2030. Note: 2021 = 43 × 47 is not a prime number.
The difference between the largest and the smallest
among these is
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 26
15. Which of the following geometric figures is possible
to construct?
(a) A pentagon with 4 right angled vertices.
(b) An octagon with all 8 sides equal and 4 angles
each of measure 60 and other four angles of measure
210.
(c) A parallelogram with 3 vertices of obtuse angle
measures.
(d) A hexagon with 4 reflex angles.
16. If y10 = 2019, then
(a) 2 < y < 3 (b) 1 < y < 2 (c) 4 < y < 5 (d) 3 < y < 4

PART – B
Note:

• Write the correct answer in the space provided in the

response sheet.
• For each correct response you get 1 mark; for each incorrect
response you lose ¼ mark.
17. A sequence of all natural numbers whose second
digit (from left to right) is 1, is written in strictly
increasing order without repetition as follows: 11, 21,
31, 41, 51, 61, 71, 81, 91, 110, 111…..Note that the
first term of the sequence is 11. The third term is 31,
eight term is 81 and tenth term is 110. The 100th term
of the sequence will be______?
18. In ABC, AB = 6 cm, AC = 8 cm, median AD = 5
cm. Then, the area of ABC in cm2 is _____
19. Given a, b, c are real numbers such that 9a + b + 8c =
12 and 8a + 12b + 9c = 1. Then a2 – b2 + c2 = ____.
20. In the given figure, ABC is a right angled triangle
with ABC = 90. D, E, F are points on AB, AC, BC
respectively such that AD = AE and CE = CF: Then,
DEF = _____ (in degrees).
21. Number of 5-digti multiples of 13 is _____.
22. The area of a sector and the length of the arc of the
sector are equal in numerical value. Then the radius
of the circle is _____.
23. If a, b, c, d are positive integers such that
1 43
a+ = , then d is _____.
1 30
b+
1
c+
d
24. A teacher asks 10 of her students to guess her age.
They guessed it as 34, 38, 40, 42, 46, 48, 51, 54, 57
and 59. Teacher said "At least half of you guessed it
too low and two of you are off by one. Also, my age
is a prime number". The teacher's age is _____.
25. The sum of 8 positive integers is 22 and their L.C.M
is 9. The number of integers among these that are less
than 4 is _____.
26. The number of natural numbers n < 2019 such that
3 48n is an integer is _____.
27. Anita is riding her bicycle at the rate of 18 km/h.
When Anita is riding her bicycle on a straight road,
she sees Basker skating at the rate of 12 km/h in the
1
same direction, km in front of her. Anita overtakes
2
him and can see him in her rear-view mirror unitl he
1
is km behind her. The total times in seconds that
2
Anita can see Baskar is_____.
28. In a room, 50% of the people are wearing gloves, and
80% of the people are wearing hats. The minimum
percentage of people in the room wearing both a hat
and a glove is ____.
29. In ABC, AB = BC = 29 cm and AC = 42 cm. Then,
area of ABC = ____ cm2.
30. The smallest integer larger than the perimeter of any
triangle with two sides of length 10 and 20 units is
_____.
31. The number of perfect cubes that lie between 29 + 1
and 218 + 1 is _____.
 Answers Key

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c)

6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d)

11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a)

16. 1100 17. 24 18. Bonus 19. 45 20. 6923

21. 2 22. 4 23. 47 24. 7 25. 3

26. 600 27. 30% 28. 420 29. 60 30. 56

www. vedantu.com
 NMTC PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER – 9 &10
PAPER - 2019
Q.1.- Q.15 – Objective – (1 Marks Each)
Q.15.- Q.30 – Subjective– (1 Marks Each)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 30

Time : 120 min

1) Fill in the response sheet with your name, class, the

institution through which you appear in the specified paper.
2) Diagrams are only visual aids; they are not drawn to scale.
3) You are free to do rough work on separate sheets.
4) Duration of the test: 2 pm to 4 pm – 2 hours.

PART - A

Note:

• Only one of the choices A, B, C and D is correct for each

question. Shade that alphabets of your choice in response
sheet (If you have doubt in the method of answering seek the
guidance of your supervision)
• For each correct response you get 1 mark; for each incorrect
response you lose ½ mark.
1. The number of 6 digit numbers of the form
"ABCABC", which are divisible by 13, where A, B
and C are distinct digits, A and C being even digits is
(a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 160 (d) 128
2. In ABC, the median through B and C are
perpendicular. Then b2 + c2 is equal to
(a) 2a2 (b) 3a2 (c) 4a2 (d) 5a2
3. In a quadrilateral ABCD, AB = AD = 10, BD = 12,
CB = CD = 13. Then
(a) ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
(b) ABCD has an in-circle
(c) ABCD has both circum-circle and in-circle
(d) It has neither a circum-circle nor an in-circle
4. Given three cubes with integer side lengths, if the
sum of the surface area of the three cubes is 498 sq.
cm, then the sum of the volumes of the cubes in all
possible solutions is
 (a) 731 (b) 495
(c) 1226 (d) none of these
5. In a rhombus of side length 5, the length of one of the
diagonals is at least 6, and the length of the other
diagonal is at most 6. What is the maximum value of
the sum of the diagonals?
(a) 10 2 (b) 14 (c) 5 6 (d) 12
6. In the sequence 1, 4, 8, 10, 16, 21, 25, 30 and 43, the
number of blocks of consecutive terms whose sums
are divisible by 11 is
(a) only one (b) exactly two
(c) exactly three (d) exactly four
7. Let A = {1, 2, 3, ….., 17}. For every nonempty
subset B of A find the product of the reciprocals of
the members of B. The sum of all such products is
153 153
(a) (b)
191 sum (1, 2,.....,17 )
(c) 18 (d) 17
8. The remainder of f(x) = x100 + x50 + x10 + x2 – 6 when
divided by x2 – 1 is
(a) x + 1 (b) – 2 (c) 0 (d) 2
9. The number of acute angled triangles whose vertices
are chosen from the vertices of a rectangular box is
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 24
10. In the subtraction below, what is the sum of the digits
in the result?
111……111 (100 digits) = 222…….222 (50 digits)
(a) 375 (b) 420 (c) 429 (d) 450
11. If m and n are positive integers such that
m+n 4
= , then m + n is equal to
m2 + mn + n 2 49
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
12. Given a sheet of 16 stamps as shown, the number of
ways of choosing three connected stamps (two
adjacent stamps must have an edge in common) is
 (a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 42 (d) 44
13. In an election 320 votes were cast for five candidates.
The winner's margins over the other four candidates
were 9, 13, 18 and 25. The lowest number of votes
received by a candidate was
(a) 49 (b) 50 (c) 51 (d) 52
14. A competition has 25 questions and is marked as
follows:
(A) Five marks are awarded for each correct answer
to Questions 1 to 15
(B) Six marks are awarded for each correct answer to
Questions 16 to 25
(C) Each incorrect answer to Questions 16 to 20 loses
1 mark
(D) Each incorrect answer to Questions 21 to 25 loses
2 marks
 (a) 126 (b) 127 (c) 128 (d) 129
15. A, M, T, I are positive integers such that A + M + T
+ I = 10, The maximum possible value of A × M × T
×I+A×M×T+A×M×I+A×T×I+M×T×I
+ A × M + A × T + A × I + M × T + M × I + T × I is
(a) 109 (b) 121 (c) 133 (d) 144

PART – B
Note:

• Write the correct answer in the space provided in the

response sheet.
• For each correct response you get 1 mark; for each incorrect
response you lose ¼ mark.

16. The three digit number XYZ when divided by 8,

gives as quotient the two digit number ZX and
remainder Y. The number XYZ is _____.
17. The digit sum of any number is the sum of its digits.
N is a 3 digit number. When the digit sum of N is
subtracted from N, we obtain the square of the digit
sum of N. The number N is _____ .
18. A 4 × 4 anti-magic square in an arrangement of the
numbers 1 to 16 in a square so that the totals of each
of the four rows, four columns and the two diagonals
are ten consecutive numbers in some order. The
diagram shows an incomplete anti magic square.
When is it completed, the number in the position of *
is _____.
14
* 9 3 7
12 13 5
10 11 6 4
19. An escalator moves up at a constant rate. John walks
up the escalator at the rate of one step per second and
reaches the top in twenty seconds. The next John's
 rate was two steps per second, and he reached the top
in sixteen seconds. The number of steps in the
escalator is _____.
20. In a stack of coins, each now has exactly one coin
less than the row below. If we have nine coins, two
such towers are possible. Of these, the tower on the
left is the tallest. If you have 2015 coins, the height of
the tallest tower is ____.

21. Circles A, B and C are externally tangent to each

other and internally tangent to circle D. Circles A and
B are congruent. Circle C has radius 1 unit and passes
through the center of circle D. Then the radius of
circle B is ____ units.
22. The number of different integers x that satisfy the
– 11x + 30)
equation (x2 – 5x + 5)( x
2
= 1 is ___.
23. In a single move a King K is allowed to move to any
of the squares touching the square it is on, including
diagonals, as indicated in the figure. The number of
different paths using exactly seven moves to go from
A to B is _____.

24. In ABC shown below, AB = AC; F is a

point on AB and E a point on AC such
that AF = EF. H is a point in the interior
of ABC, D is a point on BC and G is a
point on AB such that EH = CH = DH =
GH = DG = BG. Also, CHE = HGF. The measure
of BAC in degree is ___.
25. Let x and y be real numbers satisfying x4y5 + y4x5 =
810 and x3y6 + y3x6 = 945. Then the value of 2x3 +
x3y3 + 2y3 is _____.
26. The least odd prime factor of 20198 + 1 is _____.
27. Let a, b, c be positive integers each less than 50, such
that a2 – b2 = 100c. The number of such triples (a, b,
c) is _____.
28. The number of non-negative integers which can be
written in the form b4 . 34 + b3 . 33 + b2 . 32 + b1 + 31
+ b0 . 30, where b, ∈ (– 1, 0, 1) for 0 < i < 4 is ___.
29. (ak) is a sequence of integers, with a1 = – 2 and am + n =
am + an + mn, for all positive integers m, n. Then the
value of a0 – _____.

30. The coefficient of x90 in (1 + x + x2 + x3 + ….. +

x60)(1 + x + x2 + …. + x120) is equal to _____.
 ANSWER KEY: NMTC (Stage-1) 2019

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. D D B C B D D B
Que. 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B D D C D A C

Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans. 435 156 16 80 BOUNS 8/9 6 127
Que. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 20 89 97 25 122 12 61

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 SET
INTERMEDIATE ADMISSION TEST A*
AY 2024-25

Class : Into 1st Year Intermediate (SET – A*) Max. Marks : 120 M
Subjects : MPC Time: 2 Hrs

Student Information
Name of the Student
SECURED
Name of the father/Mother MARKS

Phone Number

Address

Present Studying School

Important Instructions
➢ In this paper, consisting Mathematics (30 Q), Physics (15 Q), Chemistry (15 Q)
➢ There will be 60 objective type questions with four options having single correct answer.
➢ For each correct answer +2 mark awarded. -1 Negative Marks for wrong answer.

MATHEMATICS
1. In the following rectangle, let P be the point in its interior with distances from the four
corners as shown. Find the value of x. [ ]
D C
P
10 3
X
6
A B
A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40
2. ABC is right angled at B. On the side AC, a point D is taken such that AD = DC and
AB = BD then the angle A is [ ]
A) 60° B) 90° C) 45° D) 30°
3. In the given figure, DA ⊥ AB, CB ⊥ AB and OM ⊥ AB . If AO = 5.4 cm, OC = 7.2 cm and
BO = 6cm, then the length DO is [ ]
C

D
O

A M B
A) 2.5 B) 3.5 C) 4.5 D) None

Page No:1 AY 2022-23

4. If f(x) = 2x4 – 13x2 + ax + b is divisible by x2 – 3x + 2, then (a, b) = [ ]
A) (– 9, – 2) B) (6, 4) C) (9, 2) D) (2, 9)
5. Let p(x) be a polynomial such that when p(x) is divided by (x – 19), the remainder is 99 and
when p(x) is divided by (x – 99), the remainder is 19. The remainder when p(x) is divided by
(x – 19) (x – 99) is [ ]
A) (– x + 80) B) (x + 80) C) (– x + 118) D) (x + 118)
6. (b – c + d + a) (d + a – b + c) + (c – d + a + b) (b + c + d – a) = [ ]
A) 3(ad + bc) B) 2(ad + bc) C) 4(ad + bc) D) (ad + bc)
x −8
7. If  3, then x [ ]
2
A) (6, 8) B) (2, 14) C) (– 8, 24) D) none
 1  1  1   1 
8. 1 + 1 + 1 +  .... 1 +  = ... [ ]
 2  3  4   n 
n −1 n +1 n ( n + 1)( 2n + 1)
A) B) C) D) None
2 2 6

9. If l = 20 + 20 + 20 + 20 + ... then equation whose root are l, l + 1 is [ ]

A) x2 – 11x + 30 = 0 B) x2 + 11x + 30 = 0
C) x – x – 30 = 0
2
D) x2 + x – 30 = 0
1 1
10. If x = 7 + 4 3 and xy = 1, then 2
+ 2 = [ ]
x y
1
A) 64 B) 134 C) 194 D)
49
11. If (x + y) (y + z) = 35, (y + z) (z + x) = 42, (z + x) (x + y) = 30, then xyz = [ ]
A) 27 B) 48 C) 42 D) 24
12. The diameter of a coin is 1cm. If four of these coins be placed on a table so that the rim of
each touches that of the other two, then the area of the unoccupied space between them is
A) 0.215 sq.cm B) 0.125 sq.cm C) 0.1 sq.cm D) 0.2 sq.cm [ ]
13. A bucket made up of a metal sheet is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with
radii of its lower and upper ends at 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. The cost of the bucket if the
cost of metal sheet used is Rs. 16 per 100 cm2 is [ ]
A) Rs. 462 B) Rs. 624 C) Rs. 246 D) Rs. 264
1 − sin 
14. If = sec  − tan  , then  lies in the quadrants [ ]
1 + sin 
A) I or II B) II or III C) III or IV D) IV or I
sin 2 y 1 + cos y sin y
15. 1− + − = [ ]
1 + cos y sin y 1 − cos y
A) sin y B) cos y C) 1 D) 0
16. If cos x + cos2x = 1, then sin12x + 3sin10 x + 3 sin8x + sin6x = [ ]
A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D) 2
sin x + cos x
17. If 3
= a tan 3 x + b tan 2 x + c tan x + d then a + b + c + d = [ ]
cos x
A) 4 B) 2 C) 0 D) – 2
INTERMEDIATE IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – A*) Page 2
18. From the top of a light house 60 m high with its base at sea level, the angle of depression of a
boat is 15°. The distance of the boat from the foot of the light house is (in metres) [ ]
3 +1 3 +1 3 −1
A) B) .60 C) .60 D) None
3 −1 3 −1 3 +1
19. The figure obtained by plotting the points (2, 3), (– 2, 3), (– 2,– 3) and (2, – 3) is a [ ]
A) Trapezium B) Square C) Rectangle D) Rhombus
20. If P(1, 0), Q(4, 0) and S(1, 3) are three vertices of a square PQRS, then the coordinates of the
vertex R are [ ]
A) (3, 4) B) (4, 3) C) (– 3, – 4) D) (3, – 4)
21. The sum of the value of x and y which form a solution to be system of equations
15 1 6 3
+ = 2, − = 1 is [ ]
x −1 y − 2 x −1 y − 2
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
22. Points A and B are 90 km apart from each other on a high way. A car starts from A and
another from B at the same time. If they go in the same direction, they meet in 9 hours, and if
9
they go in opposite directions, they meet in hours. The speed of the faster car is [ ]
7
A) 50 km/hr B) 45 km/hr C) 30 km/hr D) 40 km/hr
7n + 1
23. For two different APs, the ratio of the sums of the first n terms is . The ratio of the
4n + 27
mth terms of the two Aps is [ ]
7 7m + 5 14m + 11 14m − 6
A) B) C) D)
4 4m − 3 8m − 9 8m + 23

( ) +( )( ) + (− )=
2 2 2 2
24. a+ b+ c− d a+ b− c+ d a− b+ c+ d a+ b+ c+ d
[ ]
A) 2(a + b + c + d) B) a + b + c + d C) 8(a + b + c + d) D) 4(a + b + c + d)
25. A survey shows that 76% of the Indians like oranges whereas 62% like bananas. The
percentage of Indians like both oranges and bananas is [ ]
A) 38% B) 27% C) 46% D) None of these
26. Two finite sets have m and n elements. The total number of subsets of the first set is 56 more
than the total number of subsets of the elements of the second set, then (m, n) = … [ ]
A) (4, 5) B) (6, 3) C) (3, 6) D) (5, 4)
27. One ticket is drawn from a bag containing 70 tickets numbered 1 to 70. Find the probability
that it is a multiple of 5 or 7. [ ]
1 1 6 11
A) B) C) D)
10 70 70 35
28. An urn contains 9 red balls and p green balls. If the probability of picking a red ball is thrice
that of picking a green ball, then p is equal to [ ]
A) 6 B) 7 C) 2 D) 3
29. The mean height of 25 boys in a class is 150 cm, and the mean height of 35 girls in the same
class is 145 cm. The combined mean height of 60 students in the class is [ ]
A) 143 B) 146 C) 147 D) 145

INTERMEDIATE IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – A*) Page 3

30. Find the sum of the series
1 + (1 + 2) + (1 + 2 + 3) + (1 + 2 + 3 + 4) + ….. + (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 20). [ ]
A) 1470 B) 1540 C) 1610 D) 1370

PHYSICS
31. A parallel beam of light passes parallel to the principal axis and falls on one face of a thin
convex lens of focal length f and after two internal reflections from the second face forms a
real image. The distance of image from lens if the refractive index of material of lens is 1.5.
[ ]
f f
A) B) C) 7f D) None of these
7 2
32. When an object is at a distance u1 and u2 from the optical centre of a lens, a real and virtual
image are formed respectively, with the same magnification. The focal length of lens is
u2 u1 + u2 u1 − u2
A) ( u1 + u2 ) B) u1 + C) D) [ ]
2 2 2
33. An object ‘O’ is kept in air in front of a thin plano-convex lens of radius of curvature 10cm.
3
It’s refractive index is and the medium towards right of plane surface is water of
2
4
refractive index . What should be the distance ‘x’ of the object so that the rays become
3
parallel finally. [ ]
x

O nw = 4/3

ng = 3/2
A) 5 cm B) 10 cm C) 20 cm D) None of these
34. By placing a convex lens of focal length equal to 15.0 cm between an object and a screen
2
separated by a distance of 75.0 cm, the sizes of the images obtained are 6.0 cm and cm.
3
The size of the object must be [ ]
A) 2.0 cm B) 4.0 cm C) 3.0 cm D) 1.5 cm

35. Different objects at different distances are seen by the eye. The parameter that remains
constant is [ ]
A) the focal length of the eye lens B) the object distance from the eye lens
C) the radii of curvature of the eye lens D) the image distance from the eye lens
36. Which of the four resistances generate the greatest amount of heat when a current flows from
A to B ? [ ]
P = 2 Q = 4
A B

R = 1 S = 2
A) P B) Q C) R D) S
INTERMEDIATE IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – A*) Page 4
37. A wire of uniform cross-section and resistance 4 is bent in the form of square ABCD.
Point A is connected to a point P on DC by a wire AP of resistance 1 when a potential
difference is applied between A and C, the points B and P are seen to be at the same
potential. The resistance of part DP is [ ]
A B

D P C
A) ( 2 − 2) B) ( 2 − 1) C) 
( )
2 − 1 / 2 

D) 
( )
2 + 1 / 4 

38. In the circuit shown below, the current that flows from a to b when the switch s is closed is
10
a

5 -
10V 20
s +

b
A) – 1. 5 A B) + 1.5 A C) + 1. 0 A D) – 1. 0 A [ ]
39. A network shown in the figure consists of a battery and five unknown resistors. When an
ideal ammeter is connected between the terminals A and B, its reading is 4 A and when a
resistance of 3 is connected in series with the ammeter its reading becomes 2 A. Now the
ammeter and the resistance are disconnected and an ideal voltmeter is connected between the
terminals A and B. What would the voltmeter read ? [ ]

A
B

A) 6 V B) 10 V C) 12 V D) 18 V
40. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the evaporation process ?
A) Evaporation takes place from the surface of a liquid at all temperature [ ]
B) The rate of evaporation depends upon the area of the exposed surface of the liquid, nature
of the liquid and its temperature
C) The rate of evaporation is independent of the pressure to which the liquid is subjected
D) The cooling produced in evaporation is a consequence of the fact that a liquid has latent
heat.
41. Given that the specific heat in cal/g is c = 0.6 t2, where t is the temperature on the Celsius
scale. If the temperature of 10 g of water is raised through 15°C, what is the amount of heat
required ? [ ]
A) 60 cal B) 200 cal C) 0.6 kcal D) 6750 cal
42. Celsius and a Fahrenheit thermometer are put in hot water. The reading of the Fahrenheit
thermometer is three times that of the Celsius thermometer. What is the reading of
Fahrenheit thermometer ? [ ]
80 160
A) B) 80 C) D) 160
3 3

INTERMEDIATE IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – A*) Page 5

43. A person’s far point is 3 meters and his near point is 50 cm. Find the nature, power of the
lens he must use to read a book kept at the least distance of distinct vision.
A) + 2.0 D B) 1.0 D C) 0.5 D D) – 1.8 D
44. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in
figure. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton
experience [ ]
Proton
Uniform
magnetic
field

Electron
A) forces both pointing into the plane of paper
B) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
C) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper respectively
D) forces pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field
respectively
45. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is [ ]
A) the process of charging a body
B) the process of generating magnetic field due to current passing through a coil
C) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnetic and the
coil
D) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor

CHEMISTRY
46. The reaction: H 2 S + H 2O2 → S + 2H 2O indicates [ ]
A) Oxidising action of H2O2 B) Reducing nature of H2O2
C) Acidic nature of H2O2 D) Alkaline nature of H2O2
47. X, Y and Z are three elements which undergo chemical reactions according to following
equations.
X 2O3 + 2Y → Y2O3 + 2 X
3ZSO4 + 2Y → Y2 ( SO4 )3 + 3Z
3ZO + 2 X → X 2O3 + 3Z
Which element is the least reactive? [ ]
A) X B) Y C) Z D) None
48. The difference of water molecules in gypsum and Plaster of Paris is [ ]
A) 5/2 B) 2 C) ½ D) 3/2
49. Equal volumes of solutions with pH = 4 and pH = 10 are mixed. The pH of the
resulting solution is [ ]
A) 8 B) 7 C) 6 D) 5
50. 50 mL of 0.2 N H2SO4 were added to 100 mL of 0.2 N HNO3. Then the solution is
diluted to 300 mL. The pH of the solution is [ ]
A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4

INTERMEDIATE IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – A*) Page 6

51. German silver is a mixture of [ ]
A) Copper and Zinc
B) Copper and Tin
C) Copper, Nickel and Zinc
D) Aluminium, Copper and traces of Mg and Mn
52. An organic compound ‘X’ which is sometimes used as an antifreeze has the molecular
formula C2H6O. ‘X’ on oxidation gives a compound ‘Y’ which gives effervescence with
baking soda solution. What can ‘X’ and ‘Y’ be respectively ? [ ]
A) Alcohol, Ketone B) Alcohol, Aldehyde
C) Alcohol, Carboxylic acid D) Aldehyde, Ketone
53. Three hydrocarbons A, B and C have melting points – 183°C, – 138°C and [ ]
– 95.3°C respectively. Which one has minimum number of carbon atoms in molecule ?
A) B B) C C) D D) A
54. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C and D are given below [ ]
2 2 6 2 2 4 2 2 6 1 2 2 5
a) 1s 2s 2 p b) 1s 2s 2 p c) 1s 2s 2 p 3s d) 1s 2s 2 p
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing tendency to gain electron?
A) A< C < B < D B) A < B < C < D C) D < B < C < A D) D < A < B < C
55. Identify the incorrect statement [ ]
A) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first ionization potential of Na.
B) The second ionization potential of Mg is less than the second ionization potential of Na
C) The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first ionization potential of Mg
D) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than the third ionization
potential of Al
56. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct order of acid strength is [ ]
A) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3 B) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2
C) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3 D) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
57. The first four ionization enthalpy values of an element are 191, 578, 872 and
5962 kcal mol–1. The number of valence electrons in the element is [ ]
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1
58. Calculate the absolute mass of one molecule of H2SO4. [ ]
A) 1.67 10−27 g B) 9.2 10−28 g C) 16.27 10−23 g −20
D) 3.4 10 g
59. A 40% (w/W) hydrochloric acid is found to have a density of 1.20 g mL–1. The molality of
the above solution will be nearly [ ]
A) 15.3 m B) 16.3 m C) 17.3 m D) 18.3 m
60. Equal masses of iron and magnesium in separate reactions with dilute H 2SO4 gave ‘x’ g and
‘y’ g of hydrogen respectively. ‘y’ g of hydrogen is just sufficient to reduce 0.75 moles of
Fe3O4. Calculate ‘x’ and ‘y’ [ ]
A) 3g, 4g B) 2.57g, 6g C) 2.7g, 3g D) 3.4g, 6.75g

>>>>> 0 <<<<<

INTERMEDIATE IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – A*) Page 7

 SET - A*
Q.No Ans Q.No Ans
1 B 31 A
2 A 32 C
3 C 33 B
4 C 34 A
5 C 35 D
6 C 36 D
7 B 37 B
8 B 38 D
9 A 39 C
10 C 40 C
11 D 41 D
12 A 42 B
13 D 43 A
14 D 44 A
15 B 45 C
16 C 46 A
17 A 47 C
18 B 48 D
19 C 49 B
20 B 50 A
21 D 51 C
22 D 52 C
23 D 53 D
24 D 54 A
25 A 55 A
26 B 56 B
27 D 57 B
28 D 58 C
29 C 59 D
30 B 60 B
 SET
S1
INTERMEDIATE ADMISSION TEST AY 2024-25

Class: Into 1st Year Intermediate (SET – S1) Max. Marks : 120 M
Subjects: MPC Time: 2 Hrs

Student Information
Name of the Student SECURED

Name of the father/Mother MARKS

Phone Number

Address

Present Studying School

Important Instructions
➢ In this paper, consisting Mathematics (30 Q), Physics (15 Q), Chemistry (15 Q)
➢ There will be 60 objective type questions with four options having single correct answer.
➢ For each correct answer +2 mark awarded. -1 Marks for wrong answer.

MATHEMATICS
1. Given that the system of equations mx + 2 y = 10,3z − 2 y = 0 have the integer solution.
Then the possible values of m are [ ]

1) 2 and 8 2) 2 and -8 3) -3 and -8 4) -2 and 8

2. Consider an arithmetic progression with n terms. If the common difference is increased by 1,

then nth term increases by 19. If the 5th term of the progression is 28 and the average of first
and last term is 61, then 10th term of the progression is [ ]

1) 54 2) 56 3) 58 4) 60

3. In ABC A is ( 0,0) , Bis (18,21) & C has integer coordinates. The minimum non zero
area of ABC in square units is [ ]

Page No:1 AY 2024-25

 3 5 7 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
1 − cos 1
4. If = 0    90 then the value of 1 + tan is [ ]
sin  5

17 17 15 15
1) 2) 3) 4)
13 12 13 12

5. If both the roots of the equation x 2 − 2mx + = m2 − 1 = 0 are greater than −2 but less [ ]

than 4 then

1) −1  m  3 2) 1  m  4 3) −2  m  0 4) 1  m  3

6. Consider the collection of points ( a, b ) in the coordinate plane such that a and b are integers
such that −5  a  5 and −5  b  5 A point is selected at random from the collection. What is
the probability that the selected point is at a distance of most 2 units from origin? [ ]

11 13 11 13
1) 2) 3) 4)
100 100 121 121

7. The sum of deviations from 50 of n values x1 , x2 , x3 .........xn is −10 & sum of deviations
from 46 of x1 , x2 .........xn is 70. Then deviation of mean of the given values from 48 is [ ]

1) 1.5 2) -1.5 3) 2 4) -2.5

8. Let G be centroid of ABC in which the angle C is obtuse. Let AD, CF are the medias
from A & C on the sides BC and AB respectively. If the four points B,D,G and F are
BC
concyclic then [ ]
AC

1 1 1 1
1)  2)  3)  4) 
2 2 2 2

5− 2 x 10 + 2
9. x= then the value of is [ ]
2 3+ − 5 − 2 x 10 + 2 5

15 + 10 15 − 10 15 + 10 15 − 10
1) 2) 3) 4)
41 41 43 47

10. If ( ax + b ) ( x5 + 1) − ( 5 x + 1) is divisible by x 2 + 1 then the value of 2a + 3b is [ ]

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 2

 1) 5 2) 10 3) 12 4) 13

11. If  ,  are roots of the quadratic equation 2 x 2 − 5 x − 6 = 0 and Pn+1 =  n * Pn then the
P9 − 3P7
value of [ ]
4 P8

3 5 7 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 8 8 8

12. Let A( −5,5) B ( 4, −5) & C ( 4,5) be the vertices of ABC If a circle passes through the
vertices of ABC then area (in 5q.units) lying inside the circle but outside the ABC is[ ]

181 181 181 181

1)  − 45 2) − 40 3) − 45 4) − 40
2 2 2 4

13. ( )
a = cos sin  + sin 2  + sin + 2 then 141 is less than or equal to (here 141 represents
absolute value of 4) [ ]

1) 1 + sin 2  2) 1 + cos2  3) 2 + sin 2  4) 2 + cos2 

14. ABCD is a square of side 8cm. P is midpoint of AD and is joined with vertex B. A
perpendicular is drawn from vertex C on BP which intersects BP at point E. The area of ABC
is [ ]

64 2 64 2 32 2 32 2
1) cm 2) cm 3) cm 4) cm
5 5 5 5

15. The mean of three numbers is 10 more than the least number & 15 less than the greatest
number if the median of 3 numbers is 5 then sum of square of these numbers is [ ]

1) 625 2) 650 3) 675 4) 725

16. The longest possible area of ABC with AB = 5cm and sum of other sides as 7cm is[ ]

5 5
1) 5 6 cm2 2) 6 cm2 3) 3 cm2 4) 5 3 cm2
2 2

17. If m = n 2 − n where n is integer then m 2 − 2m is divisible by [ ]

1) 20 2) 24 3) 30 4) 16

18. The value of 97  98  99 100 + 1 is equal to [ ]

1) 9901 2) 9891 3) 9801 4) 9701

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 3
 −1
19. Let P ( x ) be a polynomial of degree 3 and P ( n ) for n = 1,2,3,4 then the value of P ( 5) is
n

[ ]

1 2 3
1) 0 2) 3) − 4)
5 5 5

20. If  ,  are roots of the equation 3x 2 − 5 x + 3 = 0 then quadratic equation whose roots are
 2 &  2 is [ ]

1) 3x 2 − 5 x + 3 = 0 2) 3x 2 − 8 x + 5 = 0 3) 3x 2 − 8 x + 3 = 0 4) 3x 2 − 5 x − 3 = 0

3+ 5
21. x= & y = x3 then y satisfies the quadratic equation [ ]
2

1) y 2 − 18 y + 1 = 0 2) y 2 + 18 y + 1 = 0 3) y 2 − 18 y − 1 = 0 4) y 2 + 18 y − 1 = 0

22. If tan 2  = 1 − e2 then value of sec + tan 3  cosec is [ ]

1 1 3 3
1) (1 − e 2 ) 2 2) ( 2 − e2 ) 2 3) ( 2 − e2 ) 2 4) (1 − e 2 ) 2

23. A solid metallic cylinder of height 10cm and diameter 14cm is melted to make two cones in
the proportion of their volumes 3:2 keeping the height 10cm, what would be the percentage
increase in the flat surface area [ ]

1) 9 2) 16 3) 50 4) 200

24. A circle is inscribed in a right-angled triangle of perimeter 7 then the ratio of numerical
values of circumference of a circle to area of the right-angle die is [ ]

1) 4:7 2) 3:7 3) 2:7 4) 1:7

25. If 2 dice are thrown together the probability that the difference of numbers appearing on them
is a prime number [ ]

2 4 5 17
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 12 36

26. Observe the following data

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 4

 Class 0–20 20–40 40–60 60–80 80–100 Total
Frequency 17 f1 32 f2 19 120
If the above date has mean 50, then missing frequencies f1 & f 2 are respectively [ ]

1) 28 an 24 2) 24and 28 3) 28 & 30 4) 30 & 28

Lcmof (1, 2,3.......200 )

27. Find the value of [ ]
Lcmof (102,103,104........200 )

1) 101 2) 106 3) 184 4) 176

28. The sum of integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 (or) 5 is [ ]

1) 2550 2) 3050 3) 3550 4) 4000

29. The points A, B, C on circle are taken in such a way that ABC − 52 & ABC − 78 the
measure of the angle subtended at the centre by arc BC will be [ ]

1) 26 2) 50 3) 100 4) 115

30. There is a rhombus of one side 17cm and one diagonal is 30cm. The area of rhombus
will be [ ]

1) 60cm 2 2) 240cm2 3) 305cm2 4) 750cm2

PHYSICS
31. M gm of ice at 0C is mixed with M gm of water at 20C. Then the temperature of mixture
is [ ]
1) −20C 2) 20C 3) 0C 4) −5C
32. The temperature at which, both centigrade and Fahrenheit scales have same magnitude is
______ [ ]
1) −40C 2) 40C 3) −45C 4) 45C
33. Two different wires have specific resistances, lengths, area of cross sections are in the ratio
3: 4,2 : 9 & 8: 27. Then the ratio of resistances of two wires is [ ]

16 9 8 27
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 16 27 8
34. Kirchoff’s law of voltages is in accordance with law of conservation of ________ [ ]
1) charge 2) Current 3) energy 4) momentum

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 5

35. A positive charged particle projected towards east is deflected towards north by a magnetic
field. The field may be [ ]
1) downward 2) towards south 3) upward 4) towards west
36. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B.
Kinetic energy of the particle is E, then the frequency of rotation is _________ [ ]
qB Bq qBE Bq
1) 2) 3) 4)
m 2 m 2 m 2 E
37. The refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is_________ [ ]
3 8 5 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 2 5
38. Optical fiber works based on the principle of [ ]
1) rectilinear propagation 2) Dispersion
3) total internal reflection 4) scattering
39. Lens makers formula for a plano–convex lens is ________ [ ]
1 1 1 1
1) = (  − 1)   2) = − (  − 1)  
f R f R
1 1 1  1 1 1 
3) = (  − 1)  −  4) = (  − 1)  + 
f  R1 R2  f  R1 R2 
40. The rear–view mirror of a car is [ ]
1) plane 2) convex 3) concave 4) prism
41. Two plane mirrors are at 45 to each other. If an object is placed between them, then the
number of images will be [ ]
1) 5 2) 9 3) 7 4) 8
42. Two thin lenses when in contact produce a combination of power +10D. When they are 0.25m
apart, the power is reduced to +6D. The powers of the lenses in diaptors are [ ]
1) 1 and 9 2) 2 and 8 3) 4 and 6 4) 5 and 5
43. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to
th
3
angle of emergence and the latter is equal to of the angle of the prism. The angle of
4
deviation is [ ]

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 6

 1) 45 2) 39 3) 20 4) 30
44. The eye defect presbyopia can be rectified by using [ ]
1) prismatic lens 2) cylindrical lens 3) Bifocal lens 4) convex lens
45. A person can see clearly upto 1m. The nature and power of the lens which will enable him to
see things at a distance of 3m is _________ [ ]
1) concave–0.66D 2) convex, –0.66D
3) concave, –0.33D 4) convex, –0.33D

CHEMISTRY
46. The correct order of variation in the sizes of atoms is [ ]
1) Be  C  F  Ne 2) Be  C  F  Ne
3) Be  C  F  Ne 4) F  Ne  Be  C
47. The ionization potential values of an element are in the following order I1  I 2  I 3  I 4
the element is [ ]
1) Alkali metal 2) Chalcogen 3) Halogen 4) Alkaline earth metals
48. Energy is released in the process of [ ]

→ Na(+g ) + e −
1) Na( g ) ⎯⎯ 2) O(−g ) + e ⎯⎯
→ O(−g2)

→ O(−g )
3) O( g ) + e ⎯⎯ 4) N (−g2) + e ⎯⎯
→ N(−g3)

49. The coupling between base units of DNA is through [ ]

1) Hydrogen Bonding 2) Electrostatic Bonding
3) Covalent Bonding 4) Vander Waal’s Bonding
50. Co–ordinate covalent bond is formed by [ ]
1) Transfer of electrons 2) sharing of electrons
3) donation of electrons 4) None of these
51. Which of the following contains unpaired electron [ ]

1) NO2 2) CO2 3) NO2− 4) CN −

52. The set of quantum numbers not possible to an electron is [ ]
1 1 1 1
1) 1,1,1, + 2) 1,0,0, + 3) 1,0,0, − 4) 2,0,0, +
2 2 2 2

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 7

53. Ernest Rutherford’s model of the atom didn’t specifically include the ________ [ ]
1) Proton 2) Electron 3) Nucleus 4) Neutron
54. The highest acidic solution has a pH of [ ]
1) 14 2) 7 3) 1 4) 0
55. The compound that cannot acts as both oxidizing and reducing agent is [ ]
1) H 2 SO3 2) H 2O2 3) HNO2 4) HNO3

56. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3 − CH ( OH ) − COOH is [ ]

1) Lactic acid 2) 2-hydroxy propanoic acid

3) 3-hydroxy propanoic acid 4) carboxy propanol
57. 4-methyl penta–1,2–diene is [ ]
1) CH 2 = CH ( CH 2 )2 − CH3 2) CH2 = CHCH (CH3 ) CH2 − CH3

3) CH3CH = C ( CH3 ) CH = CH 2 4) CH 2 = C = CH − CH ( CH 3 )2

58. Which of the following process is called oxidation [ ]

1) Addition of electrons 2) addition of Hydrogen
3) Addition of oxygen 4) None of these
59. The pH of a 0.001M aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide will be [ ]
1) 5.0 2) 7.5 3) 9.0 4) 11.0
60. Which of the following is correct formula for plaster of Paris [ ]
1) CaSO4 .2 H 2O 2) 2CaSO4 .H 2O 3) CaCO3 4) CaSO4

INTO INTER IPL ADMISSION TEST (SET – S1) Page 8

 Sample Test Paper : CLASS-X

2024
SECTION - A : PHYSICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The distance between three consecutive troughs in a wave produced in a string is 4 cm. If 2.5 wave
cycles pass through any point in a second, the wave in the string has velocity
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 0.16 cm/s (3) 0.8 cm/s (4) 5 cm/s
2. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(1) reflection (2) refraction
(3) dispersion (4) deviation
3. The velocity of a body moving with a uniform retardation of 5 m/s 2 is 100 m/s at an instant. Its velocity
after 7 second is
(1) 135 m/s (2) 100 m/s
(3) 65 m/s (4) Zero
4. A passenger in an aeroplane
(1) shall never see a rainbow
(2) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric circles
(3) may see a primary and a secondary as concentric arcs
(4) shall never see a secondary rainbow
5. A child is stuck on a frictionless horizontal surface and cannot exert any horizontal force by pushing
against the surface. How can he get off?
(1) By running (2) By rolling
(3) By jumping (4) By spitting or coughing
6. A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 m/s. The speed of the image relative to the man is
(1) 15 ms–1 (2) 30 ms–1
(3) 35 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1
7. A plane mirror makes an angle of 30° with horizontal. If a vertical ray strikes the mirror, find the angle
between mirror and reflected ray
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90°

3 4
8. Refractive index of glass is and refractive index of water is . If the speed of light in glass is
2 3
2.00×108 m/s, the speed in water will be
(1) 2.67×108 m/s (2) 2.25×108 m/s
(3) 1.78×108 m/s (4) 1.50×108 m/s

1/15
Sample Test Paper : CLASS-X

2024
9. Eddie hits a golf ball from the tee into the cup. At point A, the ball is stationary on the tee. At point B,
the ball is at its highest point in the air. At point C, the ball is rolling on the ground. At point D, the ball
is stopped in the cup. The diagram below shows the path the ball traveled from the tee to the cup.
Flight of a Golf Ball
B

Tee C D

Cup
Reference
Choose the correct option
At A From A to B From B to C At D
(1) Only PE Both KE + PE Both KE + PE Only PE
(2) Only KE Both KE + PE Both KE + PE Only PE
(3) Only PE Only PE Only KE Only KE
(4) Only KE Only PE Only KE Only PE
10. A ray of light follows the path as shown in figure as it travels though different media. Choose the correct
relation regarding refractive indices from the given alternatives.

40°

Medium (1) P1

Medium (2) 50° P2

30° P3
Medium (3)

Medium (4) P4

Medium (5) 45° P5

(1) P1 > P2 < P3 = P4 > P5 (2) P1 = P2 < P3 = P4 > P5
(3) P1 > P2 < P3 > P4 < P5 (4) P1 < P2 < P3 = P4 > P5
11. An iron sphere of mass 20 kg has same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass 12 kg. Both spheres
are dropped from towers of same height. When they are 10 meter above the ground, they have the
same (neglect air resistance)
(1) acceleration (2) velocity (3) kinetic energy (4) both (1) and (2)
12. A force of 980 N acts on a body for 0.1 seconds. Calculate the change in momentum of the body.
(1) 98 N s (2) 9.8 N s (3) 0.98 N s (4) 980 N s
2/15
 Sample Test Paper : CLASS-X

2024
13. The weight of a rock on the moon is 200.6 N. What is its mass on the earth ?
(Take g of earth = 9.8 ms–2, g of moon=1.7 ms–2)
(1) 20 kg (2) 118 kg (3) 200 kg (4) 1180 kg
14. Two metal spheres of equal radius r and equal densities are touching each other. The force of attraction F
between them is

1
(1) F v r4 (2) F v r6 (3) F v r2 (4) F v
r2
15. Two men with their weights in the ratio 5 : 3 run up a staircase in times in the ratio 11 : 9. Then the ratio
of power of first to that of second is-

15 11 11 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
11 15 9 11

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct
16. Match the following :

Column-I Column-II
A Sodium p Yellow in colour
B Helium q Diatomic
C Sulphur r Soft metal
D Hydrogen gas s Noble gas

(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s (2) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s (3) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q (4) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
17. The given table shows the number of electrons, neutrons and protons in some atoms or ions of elements

Atom or ion Electron Neutron Proton

A 10 12 12
B 17 20 17
C 18 18 17
D 5 6 5
E 12 12 12

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) A is a cation while C is anion. (2) B and C are atoms of different elements.
(3) E has a nucleon number 24 and it is a metal. (4) None of these
18. What are the total number of moles of atoms in 4.32 g of Sc(NO3)3 ?
(Atomic weights: Sc = 45.0, O = 16.00, N = 14.01.)
(1) 0.0132 (2) 0.324 (3) 0.0187 (4) 0.243

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19. Read the given process carefully. What are A, B and C respectively?
H 2SO 4+Ca(OH)2 A+H2O + Heat
Crystallisation
100ºC
C B
Heat
(1) Gypsum, Lime, Plaster of paris
(2) Calcium sulphate, Gypsum, Plaster of paris
(3) Lime, Plaster of paris, Gypsum
(4) None of these
20. Choose the incorrect statements:
(1) The number of atoms in 5.2 moles of He is 31.3 × 1023
(2) The number of atoms in 52 amu of He is 13
(3) The number of atoms in 5.2 gm of He is 78.26 × 1022
(4) The number of atoms in 52 gm of He is 52.26 × 1023
21. Aluminium and copper are extracted from their oxide and sulphide ores respectively. Which of the
following is correct?
(I) Copper is extracted by the auto reduction of copper oxide by copper sulphide.
(II) Aluminium cannot be obtained by chemical reduction due to its strong affinity for oxygen.
(III) Smelting process (reduction with carbon) is also used for Aluminium.
(IV) Sulphide ores of copper are difficult to be reduced than the oxide ores.
(1) I, II and IV (2) I and III (3) II and III (4) II and IV
22. A car battery was accidentally knocked over and the sulfuric acid was spilt onto a marble floor. It was
observed that the acid began to fizz, indicating a gas was produced. Which gas is most likely to be
produced?
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Hydrogen (3) Oxygen (4) Sulphur dioxide
23. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is
(1) Calamine and siderite are carbonates.
(2) Argentite and cuprite are oxides.
(3) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides.
(4) Malachite and Azurite are ores of copper.
24. The diagram below shows a model of an atom that was developed following Rutherford’s experiment

Which component of the atom is not represented in Rutherford’s atomic model?

(1) The neutrons (2) The nucleus (3) The electrons (4) The protons
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25. Which of the following pairs are isotopes?
(1) Oxygen and ozone (2) Ice and steam
(3) Nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide (4) Hydrogen and deuterium
26. Gold and platinum group metals are found in nature in metallic form because
(1) they are solids at room temperature.
(2) they are highly reactive.
(3) they are soluble in water.
(4) they are relatively inert.
27. Which metal can prevent the corrosion of iron ?
(1) Zn (2) Cu (3) Pb (4) Ag
28. A silver article turns black when kept open in air for few days. The article when rubbed with toothpaste
again starts shining because
(1) hydrogen peroxide present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver sulphate.
(2) hydrated silica present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver oxide.
(3) aluminium hydroxide present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver hydroxide.
(4) calcium carbonate present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver carbonate.
29. Consider the following statement :
(i) Pb(OH)Cl is an acid salt.
(ii) A solution contain pH = 0 is neutral in nature.
(iii) If the concentration of (OH–) is 10–2 then the pH of solution is 12.
(iv) Blood is slightly basic in nature.
(1) All statement are correct (2) Only (iii) and (iv) is correct
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) is correct (4) Only (iii) is correct
30. Match the following –
Column A Column B
Types of chemical reaction Chemical equations
'
(a) Combination reaction (i) CaCO3 o CaO + CO2

(b) Thermal decomposition reaction (ii) 2H2O 

Electricity
o 2H2 + O2

(c) Displacement reaction (iii) CaO + CO2 o CaCO3

(d) Electric decomposition reaction (iv) Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq.) o FeSO4(aq)+ Cu(s)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

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SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. _______ is responsible for the recovery of water and sodium chloride from the urine
(1) Bowman’s capsule (2) Ureter (3) Loop of Henle (4) None of the above
32. One of the following diseases spreads by animal bite.
(1) Pneumonia (2) Tuberculosis (3) Cholera (4) Rabies
33. In which of the following maximum reabsorption of glomerular filtrate occurs ?
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Henle’s loop (4) Collecting duct
34. In which of the following plants, there will be no transpiration?
(1) Completely submerged aquatic plants (2) Plants growing in deserts
(3) Plants in tropical rainforest (4) Plants growing in hilly regions
35. Urea is formed in ________
(1) Liver (2) Kidney (3) Lung (4) Heart
36. Acid rain has high levels of __________.
(1) Nitric and Sulphuric acids (2) Nitric and Phosphoric acids
(3) Phosphoric and Carbonic acids (4) Sulphuric and Phosphoric acids
37. A plant bears seeds but not fruits, though it has vascular tissues and shows secondary growth. Assign
the plant group to which it belongs.
(1) Thallophyta (2) Angiosperm
(3) Pteridophyta (4) Gymnosperm
38. CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as
(1) Carboxyhaemoglobin (2) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) Oxyhaemoglobin (4) Both (1) and (2)
39. Given diagram shows a blood capillary in close contact with structure Y. The relative concentration
(in units) of carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2) are given at three different sites.
Which of the following statement is correct?

O2 = 100 O2 = 40
X Y Z
CO2 = 40 CO2 = 46
O2 = 105
CO2 = 40

Blood capillary

(1) Y is an alveolus and blood flow is from X to Z.

(2) Y is an alveolus and blood flow is from Z to X.
(3) Y is a muscle and blood flow is from X to Z.
(4) Y is a muscle and blood flow is from Z to X.
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40. Cholera and typhoid are the diseases that have one thing in common that is
(1) Both of them can be caused by bacteria.
(2) Both of them are transmitted by contaminated food and water.
(3) Both of them are cured by antibiotics.
(4) All of the above
41. Refer the given figure of a nephron with some parts labelled as D, E F, G, H and I. Match the
labelled parts with the functions given below and select the correct option.
D
E

H
I

G
F

(i) 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed.

(ii) Water is reabsorbed under the influence of vasopressin.
(iii) Site of ultrafiltration.
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) F G E
(2) E H and I D
(3) D F and G I
(4) E D F
42. Where is larynx positioned in the respiratory tract?
(1) Between pharynx and trachea (2) Between bronchi and alveoli
(3) Between trachea and bronchi (4) Between pharynx and nasal cavity
43. The given demonstration of an experiment is to prove that

Splitted
Wide mouth cork
bottle
Potted
plant

KOH

(1) Sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis

(2) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis
(3) O2 is evolved during photosynthesis
(4) CO 2 is necessary for photosynthesis

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44. Mark what is incorrect regarding to the phylum Arthropoda.
(1) Open type of circulatory system
(2) Bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate animals
(3) Diploblastic with head, thorax and abdomen
(4) The presence of Malpighian tubules and antennae
45. Which of following is an endoparasite?
(1) Cuscuta (2) Plasmodium (3) Mushroom (4) Bread mould
SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. From 87x + 53y = 15; 53x + 87y = – 155, find the value of x – y is ____
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) can’t be determined
2
47. On division by 6, a cannot leave remainder
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3
48. Find the largest positive number that will divide 396, 434 and 540 leaving the remainder 5, 9 and 13
respectively.
(1) 15 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 19
49. From the given figure, find x, y, z if GE || AF.
E

D >
95°
F
G >

C y°
x°

35° z°
A B
(1) 95°, 58°, 50° (2) 85°, 58°, 50°
(3) 95°, 85°, 95° (4) 95°, 85°, 50°
50. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, E is midpoint of AD.
ar(' BED)
= ___________
ar(||gm ABCD)
D C

A B
4 1 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 2 4
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3 –1 –1 –1
51. If D, E J are the zeroes of x – 7x + 2 ; the value of (D + E) + (E + J) + (J + D) is

7 7
(1) 0 (2) (3)  (4) None of these
2 2

sec 2 A  1
52. If 5cos A  12sin A 0 then is (0 d A  90°)
2 tan A  sec A

144 55 25 169
(1) (2) (3) (4)
169 144 276 144

53. In the given figure, AP and BP are tangents drawn from an external point P. If angle between tangents
is 60°, then find ‘x + ‘y + ‘z.

A
y
z o P
C 60°
x

(1) 60° (2) 120° (3) 100° (4) 150°

54. On rolling of 2 dice, the probability of getting sum less than 7 is

5 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 3 3 2

55. A floral design of a floor is made up of 16 tiles which are triangular in shape. The side
of the triangle being 9 cm, 28 cm and 35 cm. The cost of polishing the tiles at 50 paisa/ sq cm is____

6 2.45

(1) Rs. 289 (2) Rs. 288

(3) Rs. 705.6 (4) Rs. 500
56. The radius of two spheres is in the ratio 4 : 5 then, the ratio of their volumes is
(1) 4:5 (2) 64:125 (3) 16:25 (4) 5:4
3
57. Factorize the following polynomial x + 8xy .
2
(1) x(1 – 2y)(1 – 2y + 4y )
2
(2) x(1 + 2y)(1 – 2y + 4y )
2
(3) x(1 + 2y)(1 + 2y + 4y )
2
(4) x(1 – 2y)(1 + 2y + 4y )

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n n
T3  T5
58. If Tn = sin T + cos T, then T1 is equal to

T5  T7 T3  T5
(1) T3 (2) T7

T9  T6 T6  T9
(3) T4 (4) T4

59. Mean weight of a group of 30 students is 62.5 kg. A student (weight 71.5 kg) left the group and a new
student (weight 53.5 kg) joined the group. The new mean of the group will be
(1) 60 kg (2) 63.5 kg
(3) 61.9 kg (4) 59.5 kg
60. In the given figure, PB is tangent to the circle, ‘AOB = 60°, PB = 30 3 cm. Find length
of AB.

C
O
60° A

P
B 30 3 cm

(1) 15 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 30 3 cm

SECTION-E : MENTAL ABILITY

This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. In the following question, a series is given with next figure missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.

X
O X

O
O

X
?
O

O X
X X O
(1) (2) (3) (4)
O X

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62. At what time between 5 and 6 will the hands of the clock Coincide?

3
(1) 27 min past 5
11

5
(2) 34 min past 5
11

2
(3) 24 min past 5
11

3
(4) 25 min past 5
11
63. If we interchange y with + and 10 with 1000, then what will be the answer for the equation given
below?

1000 – 100 + 100 y 10

(1) 1009 (2) 999

(3) 1000 (4) 1100

64. In a row of persons, position of A from left side of the row is 9th & position of M from right side of the
row is 8th. If N is sitting just in middle of A& M and position of N from left side of the row is 15th. Find
the total number of persons in the row?

(1) 27 (2) 29

(3) 28 (4) 30

65. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8:30

(1) 80 Degrees (2) 75 Degrees

(3) 60 Degrees (4) 105 Degrees

66. Figures A and B are related in a particular manner. Establish the same relationship between figures C
and D by choosing a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which would replace the question
mark in fig. (D)

Problem Figures Answer Figures

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67. Count the number of cubes in the given figure and choose correct answer out of four
alternative.

(1) 64 (2) 68 (3) 66 (4) 70

68. In the following question, statements are given followed by conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Statements : Some roads are city.
All city are table.
Conclusions : 1. Some roads are table.
2. Some city are roads.
(1) Only 1 follows
(2) Only 2 follows
(3) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(4) Both 1 and 2 follows
69. Read the following information carefully to answer the question that folllows.

‘P – Q’ means ‘Q is father of P’

‘P Q’ means ‘Q is brother of P’

‘P + Q’ means ‘Q is wife of P’

‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘Q is sister of P’
Which of the following means M is the grandfather of T ?

(1) T  C y L  N * M (2) T  R y Z  L * M

(3) T y Z * L  F  M (4) None of these

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70. Find the number of triangles from the given figure.

(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 7 (4) 9

71. When Sanju saw Mahesh, he recalled, “He is the son of the father of my daughter.” How is Mahesh
related to Sanju ?
(1) Son (2) Brother
(3) Uncle (4) Father
72. How many leap years are there from 1701 to 1900 (both are included) :
(1) 50 (2) 49
(3) 48 (4) None of these
73. Eight players are standing to play ‘Standing Kho-Kho’. Geeta is at the third place to the right of
Mahesh. Amar is at the first place to the right of Geeta. Asha is to the fourth place to the left of Geeta.
Radha is at central place between Parag and Asha. Meena is at the central place between Geeta and
Hemant. Then
Who is at the fifth place to the left of Geeta?
(1) Mahesh (2) Asha
(3) Parag (4) Radha
74. Which of the given net from the answer options when folded will results in the given
cube?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

75. Jetplanes P,Q,R and S started flight towards east. After flying 125 kms planes P and S flew towards
right while planes Q and R flew towards left. After 115 km, planes Q and R flew towards their left
while Planes P and S also turned towards their left. In which directions are the jetplanes P,Q,S,R
respectively flying now ?
(1) North, South, East, West (2) East, West, West, East
(3) East, West, East, West (4) South, North, North, South

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76. Which number replace the question mark in the figure given below?

4 5 8 9 12 13

26 114 ?

2 3 6 7 10 11

(1) 236 (2) 426 (3) 266 (4) 256

77. If C = 24 and X-RAY = 40, then WHAT = ?
(1) 56 (2) 57 (3) 58 (4) 55
78. Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden. They are wearing clothes of black, blue,
white, green, pink, yellow and brown colours, out of these seven three are girls. No girl is wearing
either black, yellow or brown, M’s sister L is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. J is wearing
blue, while his sister K is not wearing green, N is wearing yellow, while his best friend P is a boy.
What colour are sister of J and M wearing?
(1) Pink and Green (2) Pink and Yellow
(3) White and Green (4) White and Pink
79. In the questions below, a problem figure is given. The problem figure is hidden in one of the figures
given as alternatives. Find the figure in which the problem figure is hidden.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

80. There are two/three statements followed by four conclusions numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : Some cars are trains
Some trains are cats.
Conclusions: 1. No car is cat.
2. Some cats are trains.
3. Some cars are cats.
4. All trains are cars.
(1) Either 1 or 2 and 3 follows (2) Either 1 or 2 and 4 follows
(3) Either 1 or 3 follows and 2 follows (4) None of these

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ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Ans. 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 1

Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 4 1 1 2 3

Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

Ans. 3 4 1 1 1 1 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 3 2

Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 2 2 1 3 3

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. 2 1 1 3 2 1 3 4 4 4 1 3 4 2 3

Que. 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 3 1 4 3 3

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 2023
Beaver
Computing
Challenge
(Grades 9 & 10)

Questions
Part A

2
 Photo

Story
A beaver took a photo looking directly down the centre of an arrangement of four logs assembled as
shown.

Question
Which of the following could be the beaver’s photo?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3
 Cards

Story
A card game has four types of cards:

The symbol on each card indicates the number of points the card is worth, as shown.

Symbol
Number of Points 8 4 2 1

A player’s score is the total number of points of the cards they have in their hand.

For example, Zita has the cards and her score is 4 + 2 = 6.

Question
If Silat’s score is 9, what cards could he have in his hand?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4
 Karla’s House

Story
Karla has three maps that all show exactly the same region. One map shows the forests , one shows
the rivers , and one shows the houses . Karla’s house is in the forest, touches the bank of the
river, and is House A, B, C, or D.
Forests Rivers Houses

Question
Which house is Karla’s house?

(A) House A

(B) House B

(C) House C

(D) House D

5
 Video Game

Story
Sasha uses the numbers from 0 to 7 to move her character different directions in a video game, as shown.

For example, to move her character clockwise along the grey path below and back to its original position,
she types the sequence 1, 0, 7, 6, 4, 5, 3, 2.

Question
Which of the following sequences will move Sasha’s character clockwise along the grey path and back
to its original position?

(A) 1, 1, 7, 7, 5, 5, 3, 3 (C) 1, 1, 0, 7, 7, 5, 5, 4, 3, 3

(B) 1, 1, 4, 7, 7, 5, 5, 0, 3, 3 (D) 7, 7, 0, 1, 1, 5, 5, 4, 3, 3

6
 Push the Button

Story
Numbered balls are stored in the device shown below. Pushing one of the buttons P , Q or R causes its
gate to open and the first ball behind that gate to drop.

Question
What is the maximum number of button pushes that result in balls being dropped in increasing (but
not necessarily consecutive) order?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

7
Part B

8
 Eating Carrots

Story
Four carrots are growing in four soil patches as shown.

Rabbits are capable of the following three actions:

Hop to the soil patch immediately to the left of the current soil patch.

Hop to the soil patch immediately to the right of the current soil patch.

Eat the carrot growing in the current soil patch.

Earl the rabbit started in one of the four soil patches, but we do not know which one. We do know
that Earl never jumped left of the leftmost soil patch nor right of the rightmost soil patch.

In addition, we know that Earl’s sequence of actions was:

Question
Which image below shows the soil patches and the one uneaten carrot after Earl finished his sequence
of actions?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)

9
 Bebras Ball

Story
Players are ranked from 1st place to 16th place based on their performance in a Bebras Ball tournament.
The tournament consists of four rounds. All the players are grouped together for the first round, and
divided into smaller groups after each round as shown. Winning players follow the left arrow to their
group in the next round (or final rank). Losing players follow the right arrow to their group in the next
round (or final rank).

For example, a player who wins during rounds 1 and 2, but loses during rounds 3 and 4, will receive a
rank of 4th place.

Question
If Noro played in the tournament and lost during exactly one round, which of the following ranks could
he not receive?

(A) 2nd

(B) 3rd

(C) 5th

(D) 7th

10
 Lockers

Story
When packages arrive at the post office they are placed in lockers to await pick up. The top row of
lockers can only hold small packages. The middle row of lockers can hold small or medium packages.
The bottom row of lockers can hold packages of any size. Each locker can only hold one package at a time.

The following image shows what the lockers at the post office currently look like. Lockers marked with
an X are holding a package.

When a new package arrives, it is placed in the lowest-numbered available locker in which it can fit.
When a customer arrives to pick up a package from a locker, the locker becomes available again.

The post office has opened for the day and the following five events occur in this order:

• Four small packages arrive.

• The packages in lockers 11 and 19 are picked up.
• Two medium packages arrive.
• The packages in lockers 20 and 21 are picked up.
• Two small packages arrive.

Question
Then one more small package arrives. In which locker is it placed?

(A) 20

(B) 19

(C) 24

(D) 17

11
 Island Vacation

Story
Ravi is on vacation in the Island Kingdom. On the map, each island is marked with a different shape,
and the routes between islands are marked with the type of boat used on the route. There are two types
of boats: and .

Ravi started at the island marked with and traveled to the island marked with , possibly visiting
some islands more than once.

Question
Which of the following sequences of boats could Ravi not have taken?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12
 Moving Documents

Story
Every day, employees of Beaver Logistics must move documents in boxes from one site to another. It
takes 1 minute per box to load the truck, 1 minute per box to unload the truck, and it is a 50 minute
round trip between the two sites. The truck can hold at most 20 boxes and so moving more than 20
boxes requires more than one trip back and forth.

At the start of each day, there are 36 boxes of documents to be moved. However, it is possible to spend
some time reorganizing to reduce the total number of boxes that then need to be moved.

• On Monday, Alia did a lot of reorganizing before moving the documents on Monday. It took her 2
minutes per original box to reorganize, but when she was done she had eliminated half the boxes.

• On Tuesday, Bala did some reorganizing before moving the documents. It took him 1 minute per
original box to reorganize, and when he was done he had eliminated a third of the boxes.

• On Wednesday, Yoko did no reorganizing at all before moving the documents. She had to move
all the original boxes.

Question
Who was able to move all the documents (including any time spent reorganizing), and return to the
starting site in less than 3 hours?

(A) Alia and Yoko

(B) Alia and Bala

(C) Bala and Yoko

(D) Alia, Bala and Yoko

13
Part C

14
 Magical Doors

Story
There are eight buildings, labelled A through H, along a road as shown below.

The only way to travel between the buildings is by using magical doors. There are seven different types
of doors:

Each building has two different doors. When you exit a building through one of its doors, you can then
enter any of the other buildings that have a door of the same type.

For example, if you exit building A via the leftmost door , then you can enter either building D or

building E, and if you exit building A via the rightmost door , then you will enter building H.

Question
If you passed through the fewest buildings possible starting in building A and ending in building C, how
many types of doors did you travel through?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

15
 Closer or Farther

Story
Daniel is playing a game to find treasure buried in a grid of squares. Starting from the square labelled
“S”, he can only move one step at a time to a neighbouring square. After each step, Daniel receives
a signal indicating whether he is now closer to (C) or farther away from (F) the treasure, where the
distance is the minimum number of steps it would take Daniel to reach the treasure from his current
location.

Daniel plays this game on the following 4-by-7 grid. His path and the signals he receives after each step
are shown.

You might notice that Daniel does not always make the best decisions.

Question
In which numbered square is the treasure buried?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

16
 Trains

Story
A train station is shown. It currently contains seven numbered trains in three numbered depots. The
main line is connected to these depots. The main line and each depot can each hold up to three trains.

Two types of commands result in trains moving between the depots and the main line:

• OUT(X): the rightmost train in Depot X becomes the leftmost train on the main line

• IN(X): the leftmost train on the main line becomes the rightmost train in Depot X

For example, the sequence of commands OUT(3) - OUT(1) - IN(3) - IN(1) will result in trains 5 and 6
exchanging positions.

Question
Which of the following sequences of commands will result in Depot 1 containing trains 1, 2, and 3?

(A) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3)

(B) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - IN(2) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

(C) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - IN(2) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

(D) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

17
 Watercolour

Story
A beaver designs mazes on rectangular grids of squares. To make the mazes more interesting, it can
pour watercolour on a square. The colour then spreads. Every second, colour reaches each uncoloured
square that shares an edge with a coloured square. However, colour does not spread through walls. Here
is an example:

0 seconds 1 seconds 2 seconds 3 seconds

If different colours are used and poured into two different squares, then the first colour that spreads
to an uncoloured square will fill it completely and no new colour will be added. If two colours reach a
square at the same time, the square takes the darker colour.

0 seconds 1 seconds 2 seconds 3 seconds

Question
If different colours are poured as shown, what will the maze look like when the maze is filled with colour?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

18
 Companion Planting

Story

Thalia is planting a garden with garlic , tomatoes , sunflowers , corn , and beans .
She wants the plants to help each other grow and knows that some pairs of plants are good companions
and some pairs of plants are bad companions:

Good Companions Bad Companions

All other pairs of plants do not affect each other’s growth.

There are 15 sections in Thalia’s garden bed. She wants to place three of each type of plant in her
garden. She has already placed three garlic plants, one corn plant, and one tomato plant as shown.

Question
In how many different ways can Thalia place the remaining plants so that each plant is next to at least
one of its good companions, and no plant is next to any of its bad companions?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

19
 2023
Beaver
Computing
Challenge
(Grades 9 & 10)

Questions,
Answers,
Explanations,
and
Connections
Part A

2
 Photo

Story
A beaver took a photo looking directly down the centre of an arrangement of four logs assembled as
shown.

Question
Which of the following could be the beaver’s photo?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3
 Answer

(D)

Explanation of Answer
To determine how the logs appear in the photo, it is necessary to shift our view from the side of the logs to
the top of the logs. To help make connections between these two views, we can look for relationships be-
tween the objects and then determine whether or not these relationships still hold when switching views.

If we first focus on the side view and look at the bases of the logs, we can number the logs as we move
clockwise:

We can then assign the same numbers to the same logs in the options for the top view. This will help
us identify the one where the relationships still hold.

In only Option D are the logs correctly numbered as we move clockwise.

4
 Connections to Computer Science
This task is concerned about determining the correct arrangement of objects, based on information
from a different perspective of those objects. That is, the information from two images needs to be
combined for consistency, using patterns in those images.

Detecting recurring patterns in given data is an important skill in computer science, generally referred
to as pattern recognition. For example, in image recognition, pattern recognition techniques assist in
identifying objects in images, classifying them into different categories, and even recognizing faces.
In natural language processing, pattern recognition enables computers to understand the structure of
sentences, identify topics, and even generate human-like text.

We can use pattern recognition with less abstract, real-life examples such as images. This task requires
spatial orientation, which is important in robotics and computer graphics. Spatial orientation involves
understanding and interpreting visual information, such as images, diagrams, or other graphical repre-
sentations, and the ability to manipulate these representations in order to solve problems or create new
solutions. In computer graphics, spatial orientation is used to create realistic animations and renderings,
as it helps artists and programmers understand and manipulate complex 3D models.

Country of Original Author

Lithuania

5
 Cards

Story
A card game has four types of cards:

The symbol on each card indicates the number of points the card is worth, as shown.

Symbol
Number of Points 8 4 2 1

A player’s score is the total number of points of the cards they have in their hand.

For example, Zita has the cards and her score is 4 + 2 = 6.

Question
If Silat’s score is 9, what cards could he have in his hand?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

6
 Answer

(B)

Explanation of Answer

If Silat has the cards then his score is 8 + 2 = 10.

If Silat has the cards then his score is 8 + 2 + 1 = 11.

If Silat has the cards then his score is 8 + 4 + 1 = 13.

However, if Silat has the cards then his score is 8 + 1 = 9 as required.

7
 Connections to Computer Science
In this task, there is a connection between the symbol on the card and the underlying value of the card.
All information that a computer works with has an underlying numeric value that is interpreted and
can be presented in various ways.

For example, the number 81 can be interpreted as a number that is used in a calculation, but a
computer could also interpret it as an ASCII code for the letter Q – depending on the context. The
American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) is an standard way of translating each
Latin-script keyboard character into a distinct number between 0 and 127. This standard allows
characters to be transferred to machines and interpreted in the correct way.

This idea of different representations of the same value is an instance of abstraction in computer science.
We use abstraction to hide unnecessary details, such as what the internal numeric value actually is,
in order to more easily focus on the broader concepts, such as how humans view the information. In
this task, the colour and pattern are the abstraction of the actual value of the card. Determining the
correct level of abstraction allows computer scientists to focus on the fundamental, high-level view of
the problem to find a general, scalable solution.

Figuring out what combination of cards results in a 9, we notice that the values of the cards are all pow-
ers of 2. The underlying numeric values computers use are represented as binary sequences – numbers
made up of just 0s and 1s. That is, instead of using our common base-10 representation of numbers,
where there is a “units” column, “tens” column, and “hundreds” column in a number, in base-2
representation, there is a “units” column, “twos” column, “fours” column, and “eights” column. These
column values are all powers of 2. All base-10 whole numbers can be represented by a sum of powers of 2.

For example, the base-10 number 8 would be represented as 1000 in base 2: one eight, with zero fours,
zero twos, and zero ones. As another example, 1111 in base-2 would represent the number 8 + 4 + 2
+ 1 = 15. The reason binary/base-2 numbers are used is that computers can more easily maintain bits,
which are either “on” (representing 1) or “off” (representing 0).

Country of Original Author

Ireland

8
 Karla’s House

Story
Karla has three maps that all show exactly the same region. One map shows the forests , one shows
the rivers , and one shows the houses . Karla’s house is in the forest, touches the bank of the
river, and is House A, B, C, or D.
Forests Rivers Houses

Question
Which house is Karla’s house?

(A) House A

(B) House B

(C) House C

(D) House D

9
 Answer
(A) House A

Explanation of Answer
To identify Karla’s house, the information from all three maps must be considered together. This can
be done by overlaying the 3 maps:

Since Karla’s house is in the forest and touches the bank of the river, it must be House A. Houses B
and C are not in the forest, and House D does not touch the bank of the river.

Connections to Computer Science

If the information about the forests, the rivers, and the houses were shown on a single map, then it
would be easy to identify the house you are looking for.

In a geographic information system (GIS), a wide variety of spatial information about the surface
of the Earth is captured, stored and displayed on a computer. In particular, each different type of
information, such as vegetation, buildings, water systems, or roadways is stored independently, but
can be integrated in various combinations in order to more easily visualize and analyze patterns and
relationships. Some applications of a GIS are emergency management when a natural disaster occurs,
car navigation systems, and mapping water systems to preserve wetland habitats.

The principle of multiple layers with different image information is also used in many computer graphics
programs, primarily to place visual objects in front of or behind other objects. An important question
is always which layer or which objects are displayed in the foreground. In this task with three layers of
images, Karla’s map of the houses should be the top layer in order for the houses to not be hidden by
the forest areas.

10
 Country of Original Author

Germany

11
 Video Game

Story
Sasha uses the numbers from 0 to 7 to move her character different directions in a video game, as shown.

For example, to move her character clockwise along the grey path below and back to its original position,
she types the sequence 1, 0, 7, 6, 4, 5, 3, 2.

Question
Which of the following sequences will move Sasha’s character clockwise along the grey path and back
to its original position?

(A) 1, 1, 7, 7, 5, 5, 3, 3 (C) 1, 1, 0, 7, 7, 5, 5, 4, 3, 3

(B) 1, 1, 4, 7, 7, 5, 5, 0, 3, 3 (D) 7, 7, 0, 1, 1, 5, 5, 4, 3, 3

12
 Answer
(C) 1, 1, 0, 7, 7, 5, 5, 4, 3, 3

Explanation of Answer
The image below shows each movement along with its corresponding number.

Thus, the sequence in Option C is correct.

Connections to Computer Science

A chain code is method to store an image based on its outline. The chain code of an image is determined
by specifying a starting pixel (squares in this task) and the sequence of steps to other squares of the
image in one of eight directions: left, right, up, down, or along any of the four diagonal movements. The
advantage of using chain codes is that it is lossless, meaning that the original image can be reconstructed
given the chain code, and it also results in a significant amount of compression, meaning that less
information needs to be stored about the image, saving memory or bandwidth if the image is transmitted
between computers. The first approach for representing images using chain codes was introduced by
Freeman in 1961, and is known as the Freeman Chain Code of Eight Directions (FCCE). Chain codes can
also be used in character recognition, in order to determine if written characters with slight variations
are the same character.

Country of Original Author

Lithuania

13
 Push the Button

Story
Numbered balls are stored in the device shown below. Pushing one of the buttons P , Q or R causes its
gate to open and the first ball behind that gate to drop.

Question
What is the maximum number of button pushes that result in balls being dropped in increasing (but
not necessarily consecutive) order?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

14
 Answer
(C) 8

Explanation of Answer
If the buttons are pressed in the order: R, Q, P, R, R, P, Q, R, then the balls will be dropped in the
order: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10. Thus, we have shown a way for eight button pushes to result in eight
balls being dropped in increasing order. After this, the remaining balls will be positioned as shown.

Since neither 7 nor 4 is greater than 10, any additional button pushes will result in the dropped balls
no longer being in increasing order.

In fact, no matter what order the buttons were pressed in, if the ball numbered 7 drops, the balls will not
drop in increasing order because 7 is less than 8 and the ball numbered 7 is behind the ball numbered 8.
Moreover, if the ball numbered 7 does not drop, then the ball numbered 1 which is behind it also does
not drop. The same reasoning holds for the balls numbered 4 and 11 which tells us there are four balls
that cannot drop if the balls drop in increasing order. Therefore, since there are twelve balls stored in
the device, at most 12 − 4 = 8 balls can drop in increasing order. Since we already showed that it is
possible for eight button pushes to result in balls dropping in increasing order, the desired maximum
number of button pushes is eight.

15
 Connections to Computer Science
This task focusses on the concept of merging, which is a crucial component of a well-studied sorting
algorithm called mergesort. The key idea in mergesort is that if we have two sorted lists of numbers,
such as A = [1, 6, 9] and B = [2, 4, 5, 10], we can merge them into sorted order by always selecting the
smaller of the two values at the front the list, and then making one step into the list that we selected
from. For example, in the two lists mentioned above, we select 1 from list A, since it is smaller than
2 and then step to the value 6 in list A. Next we would select 2 from list B since it is smaller than
6. We repeat this process until all the elements have been selected or one of the lists is empty, which
would yield the list [1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10] which is in sorted order. In most programming languages, these
lists would be stored in a data structure called an array.

This task alters the merging process to perform a three-way merge: the process is similar to merging
outlined above, but instead of two, we have three sorted arrays. The smallest unpicked elements from
each of these lists are compared and the smallest one is chosen. This process repeats until all elements
from all arrays have been picked. This results in a merged, sorted array.

However, this task further alters the merging process because the balls held with buttons P, Q, and
R are not all in sorted order: both P and Q are holding elements that are out of numeric order. If
we apply the three-way merge process here, the bottom unpicked ball from each of the buttons P, Q,
and R is compared. The ball with the smallest label is chosen and moved to the storage area. This
process repeats until no ball can be moved. As a result, the balls in the storage area would be sorted in
ascending order from bottom to top, which is the required condition.

Country of Original Author

Montenegro

16
Part B

17
 Eating Carrots

Story
Four carrots are growing in four soil patches as shown.

Rabbits are capable of the following three actions:

Hop to the soil patch immediately to the left of the current soil patch.

Hop to the soil patch immediately to the right of the current soil patch.

Eat the carrot growing in the current soil patch.

Earl the rabbit started in one of the four soil patches, but we do not know which one. We do know
that Earl never jumped left of the leftmost soil patch nor right of the rightmost soil patch.

In addition, we know that Earl’s sequence of actions was:

Question
Which image below shows the soil patches and the one uneaten carrot after Earl finished his sequence
of actions?

(A) (C)

(B) (D)

18
 Answer

(D)

Explanation of Answer
We will number the soil patches from left to right.

One way to solve this problem is to notice that Earl started by hopping to the right, so he couldn’t
have started on the fourth soil patch. Afterwards he hopped left three times, so he must have started
on the third soil patch.

Alternatively, if Earl started on the first soil patch, then his fifth action would cause him to jump left
of the leftmost soil patch. If Earl started on the second soil patch, then his sixth action would cause
him to jump left of the leftmost soil patch. If Earl started on the fourth soil patch, then his first action
would cause him to jump right of the rightmost soil patch. Therefore, it must be the case that Earl
started on the third soil patch.

From the third soil patch, Earl’s first two actions would result in eating the fourth carrot. The next two
actions would result in eating the third carrot. And the remaining three actions would result in eating
the first carrot. The second carrot was not eaten by Earl.

Connections to Computer Science

This task outlines an algorithm of how Earl moves through the soil patches. An algorithm is a finite
sequence of instructions to accomplish some task. In this algorithm, there are two kinds of instructions:
moving and eating. In many programming languages, there are instructions to assign values to variables,
to compare values, to repeat instructions, or to conditionally perform instructions if a given condition is
true.

In order to determine the initial location of Earl the rabbit, it is necessary to trace the given sequence
of instructions while observing the state of where Earl is. This process of determining the consequences
of the algorithm is an aspect of debugging a program. Debugging is the process of determining which
instruction(s) in a computer program are incorrect, in order to determine why the output or final state
of the algorithm is incorrect.

Country of Original Author

Slovakia

19
 Bebras Ball

Story
Players are ranked from 1st place to 16th place based on their performance in a Bebras Ball tournament.
The tournament consists of four rounds. All the players are grouped together for the first round, and
divided into smaller groups after each round as shown. Winning players follow the left arrow to their
group in the next round (or final rank). Losing players follow the right arrow to their group in the next
round (or final rank).

For example, a player who wins during rounds 1 and 2, but loses during rounds 3 and 4, will receive a
rank of 4th place.

Question
If Noro played in the tournament and lost during exactly one round, which of the following ranks could
he not receive?

(A) 2nd

(B) 3rd

(C) 5th

(D) 7th

20
 Answer
(D) 7th

Explanation of Answer
Since there are four rounds, and Noro lost during exactly one round, there are four possible scenarios.

Scenario 1: Noro lost during round 1 and won during all others. Thus, Noro would follow the arrows
“right, left, left, left” which leads to the rank of 9th place.

Scenario 2: Noro lost during round 2 and won during all others. Thus, Noro would follow the arrows
“left, right, left, left” which leads to the rank of 5th place.

Scenario 3: Noro lost during round 3 and won during all others. Thus, Noro would follow the arrows
“left, left, right, left” which leads to the rank of 3rd place.

Scenario 4: Noro lost during round 4 and won during all others. Thus, Noro would follow the arrows
“left, left, left, right” which leads to the rank of 2nd place.

To be ranked in 7th place, Noro would have to follow the arrows “left, right, right, left” which indicates
that Noro would have lost during exactly two rounds.

Connections to Computer Science

The diagram in this task, which models the tournament, is a type of structure called a decision tree.
The top of the tree (or root) is where the decision process begins. From there, we select a branch to
follow depending on the answer to a decision question. In this task, the decision question is “did I win
or lose during the round?” Answers of “win” mean we follow the left branch and answers of “lose”
mean we follow the right branch. When we run out of branches we say that we have reached the leaves
of the decision tree. The leaves represent the final outcomes. In this task, the final outcomes are the
ranks.

If you have ever tried to identify someone’s secret number by making a guess and having them respond
with “higher” or “lower”, you have also used a decision tree.

Decision trees are used in computer science in artificial intelligence, specifically in machine learning.
For example, when a program is being designed to distinguish between various images, such as “dog”,
“fish”, or “traffic light”, various features such as “rectangular shape”, “two eyes”, and “fins” are used
as decision questions. With repeated training, the program develops enough distinguishing features to
correctly classify an image.

21
 Country of Original Author

Slovakia

22
 Lockers

Story
When packages arrive at the post office they are placed in lockers to await pick up. The top row of
lockers can only hold small packages. The middle row of lockers can hold small or medium packages.
The bottom row of lockers can hold packages of any size. Each locker can only hold one package at a time.

The following image shows what the lockers at the post office currently look like. Lockers marked with
an X are holding a package.

When a new package arrives, it is placed in the lowest-numbered available locker in which it can fit.
When a customer arrives to pick up a package from a locker, the locker becomes available again.

The post office has opened for the day and the following five events occur in this order:

• Four small packages arrive.

• The packages in lockers 11 and 19 are picked up.
• Two medium packages arrive.
• The packages in lockers 20 and 21 are picked up.
• Two small packages arrive.

Question
Then one more small package arrives. In which locker is it placed?

(A) 20

(B) 19

(C) 24

(D) 17

23
 Answer
(A) 20

Explanation of Answer
We can keep track of the available lockers before and after each of the five events.

Event Notes Available Lockers

Post office opens 10, 14, 17, 21, 24, 30, 31
4 small packages arrive They occupy lockers 10, 14, 17, 21 24, 30, 31
Pickup from lockers 11 and 19 This frees lockers 11, 19 11, 19, 24, 30, 31
2 medium packages arrive They occupy lockers 24, 30 11, 19, 31
Pickup from lockers 20 and 21 This frees lockers 20, 21 11, 19, 20, 21, 31
2 small packages arrive They occupy lockers 11, 19 20, 21, 31

The small package that arrives next is placed in the lowest-numbered available locker, which is locker
number 20.

Connections to Computer Science

The key computer science concept outlined in this task is memory allocation strategies. Memory
allocation strategies are used by the operating system, which executes various applications or programs
and assigns each application/program an amount of memory in random access memory (RAM).
One such strategy is the best-fit strategy, where the smallest available block of memory that is
large enough for the program/application is the one that is chosen. The best-fit strategy is what
is used in this task: the lowest-numbered empty locker that is large enough to hold the package is chosen.

There are other allocation strategies, such as first-first, where the first available slot is chosen, and
worst-fit, where the largest available slot is chosen. It is worth noting that for any allocation strategy,
there is a sequence of allocations and deallocations that will cause an out of memory error, even though
there is enough available memory. For example, in this task, if 7 small packages arrive, then all lockers
will be allocated. Then, even if all the lockers from 10 to 19 are emptied, there is no room for a
medium sized package. When this happens, we say that memory has been fragmented. In operating
systems, fragmentation can be be resolved by paging blocks of allocated memory into smaller units, or
by compacting blocks to free up memory.

Country of Original Author

Iceland

24
 Island Vacation

Story
Ravi is on vacation in the Island Kingdom. On the map, each island is marked with a different shape,
and the routes between islands are marked with the type of boat used on the route. There are two types
of boats: and .

Ravi started at the island marked with and traveled to the island marked with , possibly visiting
some islands more than once.

Question
Which of the following sequences of boats could Ravi not have taken?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

25
 Answer
(D)

Explanation of Answer
The sequence of boats in Option A can be achieved with the following route:

The sequence of boats in Option B can be achieved with the following route:

The sequence of boats in Option C can be achieved with the following route:

We will try to find a route using the sequence of boats in Option D. From , Ravi could have taken
to only . From , Ravi could have taken to either or .

From , Ravi could have taken to either or . From , Ravi could have taken only
to .

From , Ravi could have taken to either or . From , Ravi could have taken to either
or .

Using the sequence of boats in Option D, Ravi would have to then take to . However, there is
no route between , , or and . Therefore, it is not possible to travel from the island marked
with to the island marked with using the sequence of boats in Option D.

26
 Connections to Computer Science
The diagram describing the movement of boats between islands is an example of a graph. Each island
is represented as a vertex of the graph. Each edge will connect one island to another island. As well,
each edge is labelled with the type of boat that travels between the two islands.

In this task, we want to determine valid paths between the two islands, given a sequence of edges. One
way to find such paths is to perform a breadth-first search: find all of the neighbours of Island where
the edge is valid (i.e., has label ), and then repeatedly determine the neighbours of each of those
neighbours, until Island is reached.

The idea of searching for a path in a graph has many applications, such as mapping out a driving route,
determining how to send information through the internet, and determining recommendations for who
you may want to connect with on social media platforms.

Country of Original Author

China

27
 Moving Documents

Story
Every day, employees of Beaver Logistics must move documents in boxes from one site to another. It
takes 1 minute per box to load the truck, 1 minute per box to unload the truck, and it is a 50 minute
round trip between the two sites. The truck can hold at most 20 boxes and so moving more than 20
boxes requires more than one trip back and forth.

At the start of each day, there are 36 boxes of documents to be moved. However, it is possible to spend
some time reorganizing to reduce the total number of boxes that then need to be moved.

• On Monday, Alia did a lot of reorganizing before moving the documents on Monday. It took her 2
minutes per original box to reorganize, but when she was done she had eliminated half the boxes.

• On Tuesday, Bala did some reorganizing before moving the documents. It took him 1 minute per
original box to reorganize, and when he was done he had eliminated a third of the boxes.

• On Wednesday, Yoko did no reorganizing at all before moving the documents. She had to move
all the original boxes.

Question
Who was able to move all the documents (including any time spent reorganizing), and return to the
starting site in less than 3 hours?

(A) Alia and Yoko

(B) Alia and Bala

(C) Bala and Yoko

(D) Alia, Bala and Yoko

28
 Answer
(A) Alia and Yoko

Explanation of Answer
For each employee we can calculate how much time is needed to move 36 boxes.

Employee Time to Number Time to Time to Number Driving

Reorganize of Boxes Load Unload of Trips Time
Alia 72 min 18 18 min 18 min 1 50 min
Bala 36 min 24 24 min 24 min 2 100 min
Yoko 0 min 36 36 min 36 min 2 100 min

The total time needed for each employee is then:

• Alia: 72 + 18 + 18 + 50 = 158 min (2 hours and 38 minutes)

• Bala: 36 + 24 + 24 + 100 = 184 min (3 hours and 4 minutes)

• Yoko: 0 + 36 + 36 + 100 = 172 min (2 hours and 52 minutes)

Therefore, Alia and Yoko were able to move 36 boxes is less than 3 hours.

29
 Connections to Computer Science
This task has connections to data compression, which is an operation that is useful when storing
information on a data storage device, such as a personal computer or in a data centre, and also to data
transmission, which is when information is transferred between a source and a destination, such as
when a web server sends information to a smartphone.

One component of compression and decompression is that they both require time to complete
and, therefore, it is important to make an appropriate data compression choice before transmitting
data. If D is the original data and C the compressed data, it would be appropriate to compress
the data if the time required to transmit D would be greater than the sum of the times required
to compress D into C on the sender side, transmit C, and decompress C back into D on the receiver side.

In this task, decompression time has not been considered in order to simplify the task. This task is
equivalent to, for example, compressing data for backup storage in a data centre where the data are
never decompressed on the receiver side.

This task is also related to packet segmentation because the truck can transport only 20 boxes at a time.
Packet segmentation means that when the data is larger than the transmission unit supported by the
network, the data will be divided into smaller units for transmission. For example, when a large file
is transmitted over the internet, it is divided into many small packets by the sender, transmitted, and
reassembled by the receiver.

Country of Original Author

Belgium

30
Part C

31
 Magical Doors

Story
There are eight buildings, labelled A through H, along a road as shown below.

The only way to travel between the buildings is by using magical doors. There are seven different types
of doors:

Each building has two different doors. When you exit a building through one of its doors, you can then
enter any of the other buildings that have a door of the same type.

For example, if you exit building A via the leftmost door , then you can enter either building D or

building E, and if you exit building A via the rightmost door , then you will enter building H.

Question
If you passed through the fewest buildings possible starting in building A and ending in building C, how
many types of doors did you travel through?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

32
 Answer
(B) 3

Explanation of Answer
The following diagram can help us solve and visualize this problem. It consists only of the labels of the
buildings and lines connecting two buildings exactly when they have a door of the same type. Notice
how the colours of these lines match the colour of the corresponding door.

Now it is easier to see that the only buildings you can reach from building A using one door are buildings
H, D and E. From there, the only new buildings you can reach using a total of two types of doors are
buildings F, G and B. This means that you cannot travel from building A to C using fewer than three
types of doors. However, you can travel from building A to building C using a total of three types of
doors. One way to do this is to travel from building A to building D and then to building G before
using a third type of door to enter building C.

Connections to Computer Science

As shown in the Explanation of Answer, this task involves finding the shortest path in a graph. Graphs
are composed of a set of nodes and a set of edges between nodes. In this task, the nodes are the
buildings, and the edges connect two buildings which have a door of the same type.

One major application of graphs is to represent maps for driving: each street address is a node and
roads are edges. When driving, finding the shortest path is the most common problem to solve. There
are several graph algorithms which can help us find the shortest path. Two examples of shortest path
algorithms are Dijkstra’s algorithm (used in common GPS systems) and the Warshall-Floyd algorithm
(used in Google Maps).

33
 Country of Original Author

Japan

34
 Closer or Farther

Story
Daniel is playing a game to find treasure buried in a grid of squares. Starting from the square labelled
“S”, he can only move one step at a time to a neighbouring square. After each step, Daniel receives
a signal indicating whether he is now closer to (C) or farther away from (F) the treasure, where the
distance is the minimum number of steps it would take Daniel to reach the treasure from his current
location.

Daniel plays this game on the following 4-by-7 grid. His path and the signals he receives after each step
are shown.

You might notice that Daniel does not always make the best decisions.

Question
In which numbered square is the treasure buried?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

35
 Answer
(D) 4

Explanation of Answer
Daniel receives a signal to say that he is closer to the treasure after his first step. Since squares 1 and 2
are farther away after this first step, this means that the treasure cannot be buried at either square 1 or 2.

Now consider the last square at which Daniel received the signal “F”. Since square 3 is closer to this
square than the previous square in Daniel’s path, the treasure cannot be buried in square 3.

Based on the hint Daniel receives, we can conclude that the treasure must be buried in square 4.
However, we can also verify that this is consistent with all the signals that Daniel receives. In the new
diagram below, the distance from each square Daniel reaches to square 4 is indicated. Every square
corresponding to a signal “C” is one where the distance has decreased from the previous square, and
every square corresponding to a signal “F” is one where the distance has increased from the previous
square.

36
 Connections to Computer Science
This task has connections to the area of artificial intelligence known as machine learning. In particular,
one key technique of machine learning is reinforcement learning (RL), which concerns with how
intelligent agents/learners should take actions in an environment in order to maximize the cumulative
reward. To evaluate the reward, the machine learning algorithm needs to quantify the “goodness” of a
particular state by way of a value function.

In this specific task, the new location on the playing board after a move represents the environment,
while the signal obtained from the detected distance serves as a reward signal (with ‘C’ indicating a
positive reward and ‘F’ indicating a negative reward). The player, Daniel, who collects reward signals
by making optimal decisions for the next step, serves as the agent. He must consider the possibility of
a square containing the treasure, which is similar to the value function.

Autonomous driving is an example of an application of RL. In order to operate successfully in an

unpredictable environment where vehicles, pedestrians, and obstacles are encountered at random points
in time, an autonomous driving system must perform numerous perception and planning tasks. Each of
these tasks needs to created based on the current environment and then dynamically altered based on
changes in the environment.

Country of Original Author

Slovakia

37
 Trains

Story
A train station is shown. It currently contains seven numbered trains in three numbered depots. The
main line is connected to these depots. The main line and each depot can each hold up to three trains.

Two types of commands result in trains moving between the depots and the main line:

• OUT(X): the rightmost train in Depot X becomes the leftmost train on the main line

• IN(X): the leftmost train on the main line becomes the rightmost train in Depot X

For example, the sequence of commands OUT(3) - OUT(1) - IN(3) - IN(1) will result in trains 5 and 6
exchanging positions.

Question
Which of the following sequences of commands will result in Depot 1 containing trains 1, 2, and 3?

(A) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3)

(B) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - IN(2) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

(C) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - IN(2) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

(D) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

38
 Answer
(B) OUT(1) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(2) - OUT(2) - IN(1) - OUT(3) - IN(2) - OUT(3) - IN(1)

Explanation of Answer
The table below shows the trains (in order from left to right) in each depot and on the main line, after
each command in Option B is performed.

Command Depot 1 Depot 2 Depot 3 Main Line

5 271 436
OUT(1) 271 436 5
OUT(2) 27 436 15
IN(1) 1 27 436 5
OUT(2) 1 2 436 75
OUT(2) 1 436 275
IN(1) 12 436 75
OUT(3) 12 43 675
IN(2) 12 6 43 75
OUT(3) 12 6 4 375
IN(1) 123 6 4 75

Thus, after the sequence of commands in Option B is performed, Depot 1 contains trains 1, 2, and 3.

Option A is incorrect because in order for Depot 1 to contain trains 1, 2, and 3, we must remove
the train currently in Depot 1, and add 3 more trains. So our set of commands needs to contain one
OUT(1) command, and three IN(1) commands. However the commands in Option A contain only two
IN(1) commands, so trains 1, 2, and 3 couldn’t all be in Depot 1.

We can see that the first four commands in Option C are the same as in Option B. So using the table
above, we see that after the fourth command (OUT(2)), the leftmost train on the main line is train
7. Since the next command in Option C is IN(1), this will result in train 7 moving to Depot 1. Since
there is no OUT(1) command after that, we can conclude that train 7 will remain in Depot 1. Thus,
Option C is incorrect.

We can see that the first seven commands in Option D are the same as in Option B. So using the table
above, we see that after the seventh command (OUT(3)), there are three trains on the main line. Since
the next command in Option D is OUT(3), this will result in a fourth train entering the main line.
However this is not possible since the main line cannot hold more than three trains. Thus, Option D is
incorrect.

39
 Connections to Computer Science
In this task, the trains are moved between the depots and the main line using two operations; OUT(X)
and IN(X). The main line and each depot can be thought of as simple data structures used in computer
science, called stacks. A stack follows the last in, first out or LIFO rule: the item that is placed in
last is the first to be removed. There are two main operations for a stack: push and pop. The push
operation adds an element to the top of the stack, and pop extracts the element at the top of the stack.

In this task, the OUT(X) operation is the pop operation of the depot X stack followed by a push
operation on the main line stack. The IN(X) operation is a pop of the main line stack followed by a
push of that train to the depot X stack.

Stacks are used frequently in computer science. One such usage is keeping track of operations that can
be “undone”, such as edits to a document, browsing history in a browser, or searching through a maze
by way of backtracking if a dead end is reached. When the stacks have fixed depth, as in this task where
the depth is at most 3, stacks are useful for problems involving limited resources and physical movement
of items such as warehouses.

Country of Original Author

Romania

40
 Watercolour

Story
A beaver designs mazes on rectangular grids of squares. To make the mazes more interesting, it can
pour watercolour on a square. The colour then spreads. Every second, colour reaches each uncoloured
square that shares an edge with a coloured square. However, colour does not spread through walls. Here
is an example:

0 seconds 1 seconds 2 seconds 3 seconds

If different colours are used and poured into two different squares, then the first colour that spreads
to an uncoloured square will fill it completely and no new colour will be added. If two colours reach a
square at the same time, the square takes the darker colour.

0 seconds 1 seconds 2 seconds 3 seconds

Question
If different colours are poured as shown, what will the maze look like when the maze is filled with colour?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

41
 Answer

(D)

Explanation of Answer
The image below shows the state of the maze second by second:

Thus, when the maze is filled with colour it will look like the maze in Option D.

42
 Connections to Computer Science
In order to solve this task, we can use a technique called breadth-first search, and specifically, a variant
called the flood fill algorithm.

Breadth-first search is an algorithm that searches by looking at all immediate “next locations” based on
the “current location”. In this task, the next locations are the interior spaces behind an exterior wall
which is being flooded. This process repeats, with the most recently added “next locations” becoming
the “current location”. When observing the pictures used in the Explanation of Answer, the entire area
is increasingly filled as if it were being flooded from two locations, and thus, the algorithm is known as
flood fill.

One very common use of breadth-first search is in finding the shortest path between two given points,
such as when finding the best sequence of directions to drive from one location to another. In this
task, we are finding the shortest path from the initial square to the squares that are at the “boundary”
between the two colours.

Flood fill algorithms can be found in many graphical drawing programs which contain a “bucket fill”
tool that will shade an entire region with a certain colour: the algorithm will colour adjacent pixels the
same colour until it locates a boundary pixel of a different colour.

Country of Original Author

Vietnam

43
 Companion Planting

Story

Thalia is planting a garden with garlic , tomatoes , sunflowers , corn , and beans .
She wants the plants to help each other grow and knows that some pairs of plants are good companions
and some pairs of plants are bad companions:

Good Companions Bad Companions

All other pairs of plants do not affect each other’s growth.

There are 15 sections in Thalia’s garden bed. She wants to place three of each type of plant in her
garden. She has already placed three garlic plants, one corn plant, and one tomato plant as shown.

Question
In how many different ways can Thalia place the remaining plants so that each plant is next to at least
one of its good companions, and no plant is next to any of its bad companions?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

44
 Answer
(C) 3

Explanation of Answer
We begin by noticing that there is only one way to place the three bean plants because they cannot be
placed next to garlic. This is shown below.

Next, we consider the garlic in the section along the top of the garden. There must be a tomato plant
next to it. However, this tomato plant cannot be placed next to a corn plant. Therefore, the top left
section must be a tomato plant as shown below.

Similarly, the third tomato plant must be placed next to the garlic in the bottom row of the garden.
It must be in the bottom left section otherwise there is no way to place the remaining two corn plants
so that both are not next to a tomato plant. Since we have only corn and sunflowers left to plant, and
corn can’t be next to tomatoes, it follows that we must place sunflower plants in the two remaining
unoccupied sections of the garden that are next to tomato plants. At this point we have determined
that plants must be planted as shown below.

45
 Explanation of Answer Continued
We are left to place two corn plants and one sunflower plant. There are three ways to do this because
the sunflower can be placed in any of the three remaining sections. The three ways are shown below
and we can verify that in all three cases, the required conditions are met.

Connections to Computer Science

This task can be solved in a variety of ways. One approach is to use the brute-force algorithm, where
we try placing each of the plants in every square until every condition is met, but this takes a lot of
time. Instead, we can reduce the amount of searching to be done by looking for conditions which will
reduce the number of possible options.

Underlying this task is the idea of searching in an implicit graph. That is, we start with an initial
configuration, which is the garden presented in the task. From that point, there are 40 different gardens
that can be made by adding one plant. From each of these 40 gardens, there may be many other
gardens that can be obtained by adding another plant. As more plants are added, either we move closer
to a solution, or a condition will be violated, at which point we backtrack to an earlier configuration
and not use that particular plant in that particular location.

Many games and puzzles can be solved in this manner, such as sudoku, checkers, or chess. Each board
is one node in a graph, and the placing of a number or piece at a particular location creates a new node.
Instead of more standard graphs, there are no explicit edges connecting nodes together. Rather, we can
deduce the neighbour nodes of a particular node by making a “move” in the game or puzzle. Searching in
these graphs in an efficient and logical way by using backtracking algorithms or other ways of evaluating
a “better” node from a “worse” node are used in artificial intelligence algorithms for game playing.

Country of Original Author

Australia

46
Prime9 Eduation- (Engineering) (Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A

Prime9 Education Talent Hunt Exam

(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI)

Time : 1 Hour PHYSICS MM : 90

SECTION-I : SINGLE ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Two wires that are made up of same material have length in ratio 4 : 3 and area of cross-section in ratio
5 : 4. When wires are connected in parallel across a voltage source, the ratio of current flowing through them
is
16 15
(1) (2)
15 16
7 9
(3) (4)
8 8
2. The minimum distance between a real object and its real image formed by a concave mirror of focal length f
is
(1) f (2) 2f
(3) 4f (4) Zero
3. A concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 20 cm in front of a plane mirror as shown below. Light from a
very far away source is falling on the lens. The position of final image formed by combination is (Consider the
size of concave lens is sufficiently large)

(1) 10 cm in front of mirror (2) 5 cm in front of mirror

(3) 15 cm in front of mirror (4) 5 cm behind the mirror
4. The length of a wire is increased to twice while keeping its volume constant. The resistivity of wire become
(1) Double (2) Four times
(3) Sixteen times (4) Remains unchanged

Space for Rough Work

1
(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A Prime9 Education - (Engineering)
5. Choose the incorrect statement among the followings?
(1) The refractive index of the cold air is less than that of hot air
(2) The scattering of sunlight due to air molecules in atmosphere causes the sky to appear blue
(3) Danger signal lights are red in colour
(4) After a shower of rain, a rainbow is seen opposite to the sun

SECTION-II : MORE THAN ONE ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
MORE THAN ONE answer may be correct.

6. Five resistors R1 = R5 = 6 Ω, R2 = R4 = 3 Ω and R3 = 12 Ω are connected with a 12 V battery as shown. Then

(1) The equivalent resistance of circuit is 3 Ω (2) The current flowing through resistance R3 is 4 A

(3) The voltage drop across R1 is 6 V (4) The current flowing through R2 is 1 A

7. A virtual and erect image of a real object can be formed by

(1) Plane mirror (2) Concave mirror

(3) Convex mirror (4) Concave lens

SECTION-III : ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

This section contains 1 Assertion-Reason type question, which has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

8. A : Kerosene having higher refractive index is optically denser than water though it floats on water.

R : An optically denser medium always possess greater mass density.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Space for Rough Work

2
Prime9 Education - (Engineering) (Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A

SECTION-IV : MATRIX MATCH TYPE

This section contains 1 Matrix Match type question, which has 2 Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I has
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column-I with
the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-II.

For each entry in Column-I, tick the boxes of all the matching entries in Column-II. For example, if entry (A) in
Column-I matches with entries (P) & (S) in Column-II, then tick the boxes (P) & (S). Similarly, tick the boxes for
entries (B), (C) and (D).

9. Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected as shown below. P1, P2 and P3 are power consumed in resistor
R1, R2 and R3 respectively.

Column-I has relations between P1, P2 and P3. Column-II has relations between resistances R1, R2 and R3.

Column-I Column-II

(A) P1 = P2 = P3 (P) R2 = R3

R2
(B) P1 > P2 =
P3 (Q) R1 =
4

R2
(C) P1 < P2 =
P3 (R) R1 <
4

R2
(D) = =
8P1 18P2 9P3 (S) R1 >
4

Space for Rough Work

3
(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A Prime9 Education - (Engineering)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : SINGLE ANSWER TYPE
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

10. Iron (III) oxide reacts with aluminium and gives molten iron and aluminium oxide. The species which is being
reduced in this reaction is
(1) Iron (III) oxide
(2) Aluminium
(3) Molten iron
(4) Aluminium oxide
11. Choose the incorrect option

12. Atomic number of an element E is 12. Element E and chemical formula of its oxide respectively are
(1) Na and Na2O
(2) Mg and Mg2O
(3) Mg and MgO
(4) Al and Al2O3
13. Consider the following chemical reactions

2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2X(aq) + W(g)

2Al(s) + 3H2O(g) → Y(s) + 3W(g)

3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Z(s) + 4W(g)

Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2V + 3H2O

Space for Rough Work

4
Prime9 Education - (Engineering) (Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A
Now, identify V, W, X, Y and Z and choose the correct option.
(1) W = H2 (2) V = AlCl3
X = KOH W = H2
Y = Al2O3 X = KOH
Z = Fe2O3 Z = Fe3O4

(3) W = H2O (4) V = AlCl3

Y = Al2O3 W = H2
Z = Fe2O3 X = K 2O
X = KOH Y = Al(OH)3

14. When a piece of sodium metal is added to absolute ethanol, sodium ethoxide is produced along with the
evolution of H2 gas. This reaction is an example of
(1) Combination reaction (2) Decomposition reaction
(3) Displacement reaction (4) Endothermic reaction

SECTION-II : MORE THAN ONE ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
MORE THAN ONE answer may be correct.

15. Consider the following reaction

NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → A + B

If A is used in kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras, then choose the incorrect statement(s) regarding A
and B
(1) A is NaHCO3 and B is Na2CO3
(2) A on heating gives another compound Z which after recrystallisation can be used for removing
permanent hardness of water and B on mixing with water changes into a hard solid mass
(3) When A is mixed with mild edible acid and heated, it releases a gas which turns lime water milky and
B is a salt of weak base and strong acid
(4) A is used in soda-acid fire extinguishers and B is used as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries
16. Radhika, a student of class X was working in her school laboratory. Accidently she mixed aqueous solution
of some unknown compound C with aqueous solution of barium chloride and observed that a white precipitate
was obtained. C can be
(1) Sodium sulphate (2) Potassium sulphate
(3) Ammonium sulphate (4) Sulphuric acid

Space for Rough Work

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(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A Prime9 Education- (Engineering)

SECTION-III : ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

This section contains 1 Assertion-Reason type question, which has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

17. A : Eating too many candies cause tooth decay.

R : Bacteria present in mouth produces base by degradation of sugar.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
SECTION-IV : MATRIX MATCH TYPE
This section contains 1 Matrix Match type question, which has 2 Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I has
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column-I with
the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-II.
For each entry in Column-I, tick the boxes of all the matching entries in Column-II. For example, if entry (A) in
Column-I matches with entries (P) & (S) in Column-II, then tick the boxes (P) & (S). Similarly, tick the boxes for
entries (B), (C) and (D).

18. Match the Columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Do/does not react with O2 (P) Ca

(B) Do/does not react with cold H2O (Q) Zn

(C) React(s) with dil. HCl (R) Cu

(D) Displace(s) Fe from FeSO4 solution (S) Ag

Space for Rough Work

6
Prime9 Education - (Engineering) (Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A

MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : SINGLE ANSWER TYPE
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

x 2 –16 x + 48
19. The product of all real integral solutions of ( x 2 – 3 x + 3 ) =
1 is
(1) 24 (2) 48
(3) 96 (4) 144

5 3 θ
20. If −4 + 8 + 16 cosec 4 θ + sin4 θ = , where θ lies in 1st quadrant, then tan equals
6 2

(1) 6 (2) 3

1 1
(3) (4)
2 3 3
21. The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane is found to be 30 m larger when sun’s elevation is 30°, than
when it is 60°. Then, the height of the tower is

(1) 15 m (2) 15 3 m

(3) 5 3m (4) 30 m

22. If a and an be the first and nth term of an AP respectively. If

a + an a + an −1 3a5 + 3an − 4 a6 + an −5
x= + 2 − + , then the value of (p + q)x is (where p and q are positive
a3 + an − 2 a4 + an −3 a7 + an − 6 a8 + an −7
integers)
(1) 2 (2) 0
(3) –1 (4) 1

5
23. If (x + y ) + =
10 and (x + y) + 2(x – y) = 7 such that x and y are distinct natural numbers, then
(x − y )
x2 + 4y2 is
(1) 12 (2) 17
(3) 25 (4) 32
Space for Rough Work

7
(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A Prime9 Education - (Engineering)

cot 2 θ sec 2 θ − 1
24. + 1 is equal to
cosec2 θ tan2 θ − 1

(1) cosecθ (2) cosec2θ

(3) sin2θ (4) sec2θ + 1

SECTION-II : MORE THAN ONE ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
MORE THAN ONE answer may be correct.

25. The coordinates of the mid-point of hypotenuse of right triangle ABC, right angled at A(5, 5) is D(2, 1) and BC
is parallel to x-axis. Then, which of the following option(s) is/are true?

 7
(1) B can be (–3, 1) (2) Centroid is  3, 
 3

1
(3) AD = BC (4) C can be (7, 1)
3
26. The LCM of two numbers is 2400. Which of the following can be their HCF?
(1) 600 (2) 700
(3) 400 (4) 1200

SECTION-III : ASSERTION & REASON TYPE

This section contains 1 Assertion-Reason type question, which has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

27. A: In ∆ABC, D and E are points on AC and BC respectively such that DE || AB. If CD = 3 cm, EC = 4 cm
and BE = 8 cm, then DA is 6 cm.

R: If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, the
other two sides are divided in the same ratio.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Space for Rough Work

8
Prime9 Education - (Engineering) (Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A

SECTION-IV : MATRIX MATCH TYPE

This section contains 1 Matrix Match type question, which has 2 Columns (Column-I and Column-II). Column-I has
four entries (A), (B), (C) and (D), Column-II has four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S). Match the entries in Column-I with
the entries in Column-II. Each entry in Column-I may match with one or more entries in Column-II.
For each entry in Column-I, tick the boxes of all the matching entries in Column-II. For example, if entry (A) in
Column-I matches with entries (P) & (S) in Column-II, then tick the boxes (P) & (S). Similarly, tick the boxes for
entries (B), (C) and (D).

28. Match the Columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) If quadratic polynomial y2 + ky + k have equal (P) 47

zeroes, then the value of k can be

(B) If zeroes of the polynomial x3 –12x2 +Ax – 60 (Q) 4

are in A.P., then value of A is

(C) Gaurav has `(x3 – 7x2 + 24x + 11) in his (R) 7

pocket. He distributed `(x – 3) to each
children of his society. If there are (x2– 4x + 12)
children in his society and he left with `A, then
A is

(D) A quadratic polynomial has rational (S) Square root of 16

coefficients. If ( 3 + 2 ) is one of the zeroes of

polynomial, then product of the zeroes is

Space for Rough Work

9
(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A Prime9 Education - (Engineering)

MENTAL ABILITY
SECTION-I : SINGLE ANSWER TYPE
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

29. Choose the correct option which will continue the given pattern of figures.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30. If n is number of triangles and m is number of squares in the following figure, then value of
n + m will be

(1) 75 (2) 79
(3) 87 (4) 82
Space for Rough Work

10
Prime9 Eduation - (Engineering) (Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A
31. In a class test Rajesh is ranked 15th from top. Mohan is ranked 15th from last. Raja is ranked exactly between
Rajesh and Mohan. If Mohan is ranked 3 rank after Raja from top, then total number of students in the class
is
(1) 31
(2) 29
(3) 36
(4) 35
32. If GO is written as 46, AT is written as 44 and ME is written as 38, then ‘IT’ will be written as
(1) 60
(2) 58
(3) 62
(4) 66
33. Choose the correct number in place of ?

(1) 50
(2) 52
(3) 51
(4) 53
34. Choose the correct number in place of ‘?’
5 : 31 : : 6 : 43 : : 7 : 57 : : 8 : ?
(1) 71
(2) 73
(3) 72
(4) 70

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(Class X Studying Moving to Class XI) – Code-A Prime9 Education - (Engineering)

SECTION-II : MORE THAN ONE ANSWER TYPE

This section contains 1 multiple choice question, which has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which MORE THAN
ONE answer may be correct.

35. Study the given data and answer the following question.

Deptt. HR Account Academics Admin. Housekeeping

No. of females 15 8 50 7 6

No. of males 20 12 75 15 3

In which of the following department the percentage of women within department is more than 40%?
(1) Account
(2) HR
(3) Housekeeping
(4) Academics

  

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 FS

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam 2020

(for Class X Studying Moving to Class XI)

Code-A
ANSWERS

1. (2) 19. (3)

2. (4) 20. (4)
3. (2) 21. (2)
4. (4) 22. (2)
5. (1) 23. (3)
6. (1, 3)
24. (2)
7. (1, 2, 3, 4)
25. (1, 2, 4)
8. (3)
26. (1, 3, 4)
9. A(P, Q); B(P, S); C(P, R); D(Q)
27. (1)
10. (1)
28. A(Q, S); B(P); C(P); D(R)
11. (3)
29. (2)
12. (3)
13. (2) 30. (3)

14. (3) 31. (4)

15. (1, 2, 4) 32. (1)
16. (1, 2, 3, 4) 33. (3)
17. (3) 34. (2)
18. A(S); B(Q, R, S); C(P, Q); D(P, Q) 35. (2, 3)