Sample Quiz Questions Set 10

1. Which literary device is used in “Life is a rollercoaster”?

a) Metaphor

b) Simile

c) Personification

d) Hyperbole
2. Fill in the blanks: “The ____ approach led to ____ results, despite ____ setbacks.”
a) Systematic, Positive, Numerous

b) Hasty, Negative, Few

c) Flexible, Mixed, Minor

d) Rigid, Stable, Major

3. Which sentence is not meaningful in a true sense?
a) Her leadership inspired the team.

b) His eloquent theory gained support.

c) Their project advanced technology.

d) She crafted an efficient system.

4. Match the words with their meanings: A. Leadership, B. Eloquent, C. Efficient,
D. Technology. (i) Persuasive, (ii) Guidance, (iii) Effective, (iv) Innovation.
a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

d) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

5. What does “Bite the bullet” mean?
a) Avoid a task

b) Face a challenge
 c) Celebrate success

d) Ignore advice
6. What is the term for the Earth’s innermost layer?
a) Crust

b) Mantle

c) Outer Core

d) Inner Core
7. Who won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2023?
a) Claudia Goldin

b) Paul Krugman

c) Amartya Sen

d) Esther Duflo
8. Which statements are true? A. Penguins are flightless birds.
B. Lizards are mammals.
C. Spiders have eight legs.
D. Ichthyology studies fish.
a) A, C, & D

b) B&C

c) A&D

d) All of the above

9. Who is known for the discovery of cosmic microwave background radiation?
a) Arno Penzias

b) Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar

c) Arno Penzias

d) Vikram Sarabhai
10. Match the personalities with their fields: A. Amartya Sen, B. W.B. Auden, C.
Euclid, D. Florence Nightingale. (i) Mathematics, (ii) Poetry, (iii) Nursing, (iv)
Economics.
a) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
 b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

11. Which Indian initiative promotes digital education?
a) PM e-Vidya

b) Swachh Bharat

c) Make in India

d) Startup India
12. Which country won the Women’s FIFA World Cup in 2023?
a) Spain

b) England

c) United States

d) Germany
13. Who was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2020?
a) Anand Mahindra

b) Sachin Tendulkar

c) A. R. Rahman

d) Mary Kom
14. The Men’s Wimbledon 2024 singles title was won by:
a) Barbora Krejčíková

b) Iga Świątek

c) Elena Rybakina

d) Ons Jabeur
15. Match the sports with their governing bodies: A. Football, B. Tennis, C.
Basketball, D. Cricket. (i) FIFA, (ii) ICC, (iii) FIBA, (iv) ITF.
a) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

16. The average marks of three students is 80, with a ratio of 3:4:1. What is the
marks of the highest scorer?
a) 96

b) 108

c) 120

d) 132
17. A car travels 15 km north, turns west for 8 km, then south for 15 km. How far
is it from the starting point?
a) 6 km

b) 8 km

c) 10 km

d) 12 km
18. Which word appears last in the dictionary?
a) Nature

b) Needle

c) Noble

d) Notice
19. In a queue of 55 people, line of 50 people, M is 18th from the front and N is
22nd from the back. How many people are between them?
a) 14

b) 15

c) 16

20. Complete the series: DEF, JKL, QSU, IKL?

a) IHU
b) JIV

c) KJI

d) LIW
21. The Gupta dynasty is known for its:
a) Golden Age of Art

b) Naval conquests

c) Nomadic lifestyle

d) Tribal governance
22. The title ‘Chakravartin’ was used by:
a) Ashoka

b) Chandragupta II

c) Kanishka

d) Harsha
23. The ‘Zamindari System’ was introduced by: System’ was introduced by:**
a) Lord Cornwallis

b) Lord

c) Lord Hastings

d) Lord Wellesley

e) Lord

f) Lord Dalhousie
24. Match the ancient Indian texts with their authors: A. Arthashastra, B.
Mudrarakshasa, C. Panchatantra, D. Kathasaritsagara. (i) Vishakhadatta, (ii)
Kautilya, (iii) Vishnu Sharma, (iv) Somadeva.
a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

b) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

c) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

25. Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
a) Simuka

b) Gautamiputra Satakarni

c) Hala

d) Vasishthiputra
26. Which statements about the First Anglo-Mysore War are true? A. It was fought
from 1767 to 1769.
B. It involved Hyder Ali.
C. It ended with the Treaty of Paris.
D. The British were defeated.

a) A & B only

b) A, B, & D only

c) B & C only

d) A & C only
27. The city of Surat was a major port under:
a) The British

b) The Portuguese

c) The Dutch

d) The French
28. Match the Indian philosophers with their schools: A. Shankaracharya, B.
Ramanuja, C. Madhvacharya, D. Nagarjuna. (i) Dvaita, (ii) Advaita, (iii)
Vishishtadvaita, (iv) Madhyamaka.
a) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

b) A-i, B-ii, C-ii, D-i

c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

29. Match the personalities with their contributions: A. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, B.
Susan B. Anthony, C. Toni Morrison, D. Jeff Bezos. (i) Women’s Suffrage, (ii)
Aerospace, (iii) Literature, (iv) Technology.
a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

c) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

30. The ‘Dandi Salt March’ took place in:
a) 1930

b) 1920

c) 1942

d) 47
31. Identify the correct statements: A. Tarikh-i-Alai was written by Amir Khusrau.
B. Safarnama was written by Nasiruddin.
C. Humayunnama was written by Gulbadan Begum.
D. Muntakhab-ul-Lubab was written by Khafi Khan.

a) A-i, C & D only

b) B & C only

c) A & D only

d) C & D only
32. The text “Mruchhakatika” was written by:
a) Shudraka

b) Kalidasa

c) Bhasa

d) Vishakhadatta
33. The Economics of Education studies:
a) Educational investment

b) Industrial automation

c) Military expenditure

d) Urban planning
 34. Which is not a concern of Economics of Education?
a) Educational access

b) Cost-effectiveness

c) Equity

d) Space research
35. Assertion (A): Education improves quality of life. Reason (R): It enhances
social mobility.
a) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

b) A is true, R is false

c) A and R are true, but R does not explain A

d) A is false, R is true
36 paikkanen. The Mudaliar Commission (1952–53) focused on: a) Secondary
education
b) Primary education
c) Higher education
d) Vocational education
37. Match the educational initiatives with their objectives: A. Midday Meal
Scheme, B. ASPIRE, B. Udaan, C. PM-USP, D. NIPUN Bharat. (i) Nutrition, (ii)
Literacy, (iii) Scholarships, (iv) Entrepreneurship.
a) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

c) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

38. The Economics of Education examines:
a) Funding models

b) Educational outcomes

c) Labor market effects

d) All of the above

39. The Environmental Performance Index is published by:
a) Yale & Columbia Universities

b) World Bank

c) UNDP

d) IMF
40. “Oligopoly” in economics refers to:
a) Single seller

b) Few sellers

c) Many sellers

d) No sellers
41. The primary goal of monetary policy is to:
a) Control money supply

b) Increase exports

c) Reduce taxes

d) Promote employment
42. The Global Gender Gap Report is published by:
a) World Economic Forum

b) UNDP

c) World Bank

d) IMF
43. The primary cause of soil pollution in rural India is:
a) Pesticide use

b) Industrial waste

c) Urbanization

d) Deforestation
44. The Tendulkar Committee in India is associated with:
a) Poverty estimation
b) Education reform

c) Tax policy

d) Health policy
45. Basalt is an example of a:
a) Igneous rock

b) Sedimentary rock

c) Metamorphic rock

d) Organic rock
46. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is in:
a) Geneva

b) New York

c) Paris

d) Brussels
47. The Roaring Forties are winds found in:
a) Southern Hemisphere

b) Northern Hemisphere

c) Equatorial region

d) Polar regions
48. Overgrazing contributes tos: :
a) Soil erosion

b) Water purification

c) Carbon sequestration

d) Habitat preservation
49. Match the wildlife sanctuaries with their states: A. Periyar, B. Sariska,adian. C.
Manas, D. Keoladeo. (i) Rajasthan, (ii) Assam, (iii) Kerala, (iv) Rajasthan.
a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
 b) A-ii, B-iv, C, C-iii, D

c) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D

d) A-i, B-iii, C, D-ii

50. The term ‘Environmental Determinism’ was popularized by:
a) Ellen Churchill Semple

b) Carl Sauer

c) David Harvey

d) Doreen Massey
51. The clouds associated with snow are:
a) Nimbostratus

b) Cirrus

c) Cumulus

d) Altocumulus
52. The asthenosphere is primarily:
a) Solid

b) Semi-fluid

c) Liquid

d) Gas
53. Match the lakes with their states: A. Wular, B. Pulicat, C. Loktak, D. Kolleru. (i)
Andhra Pradesh, (ii) Jammu & Kashmir, (iii) Manipur, (iv) Tamil Nadu.
a) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

b) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

c) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

d) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

54. Trade winds blow from:
a) East to West
 b) West to East

c) North to South

d) South to North
55. The term for a prolonged period of high humidity is:
a) Muggy

b) Frost

c) Breeze
56. Landforms created by rivers are:
a) Fluvial landforms

b) Aeolian landforms

c) Glacial landforms

d) Volcanic landforms
57. Political theory examines:
a) Political concepts

b) Election strategies

c) Party funding

d) Media campaigns
58. In political theory, “equity” refers to:
a) Absolute equality

b) Fairness

c) Economic dominance

d) Military control
59. The concept of “general will” was developed by:
a) Jean-Jacques Rousseau

b) John Locke

c) Thomas Hobbes
 d) Montesquieu
60. The political ideology advocating minimal state intervention is:
a) Libertarianism

b) Socialism

c) Communism

d) Fascism
61. “Authority” in a political context means:
a) Legitimate power

b) Economic wealth

c) Military strength

d) Social influence
62. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are in:
a) Part IV-A

b) Part III

c) Part V

d) Part VI
63. The ‘Right to Property’ in India is a:
a) Legal Right

b) Fundamental Right

c) Directive Principle

d) Moral Right
64. The term ‘sovereign’ in the Indian Constitution means:
a) External control

b) Self-governance

c) Monarch rule

d) Theocratic state
65. The difference between democracy and republic is:
 a) Democracy has a hereditary ruler

b) Republic has an elected head

c) Democracy excludes elections

d) Republic is non-democratic
66. The cash flow statement shows:
a) Profitability

b) Cash movements

c) Financial position

d) Tax obligations
67. The G7 was established in:
a) 1975

b) 1980

c) 1985

d) 1990
68. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) was founded in:
a) 2001

b) 1996

c) 2005

d) 2010
69. The concept of ‘restorative justice’ focuses on:
a) Reconciliation

b) Punishment

c) Retribution

d) Deterrence
70. An example of an indirect restriction on freedom is:
a) Poll tax
 b) Imprisonment

c) Media censorship

d) Curfew
71. Which is a source of medium-term finance?
a) Leasing

b) Commercial paper

c) Equity shares

d) Trade credit
72. Debt-to-equity ratio is calculated as:
a) Total Debt ÷ Equity

b) Equity ÷ Total Debt

c) Total Assets ÷ Equity

d) Total Liabilities ÷ Total Assets

73. Which is a method of financial planning?
a) Cash budgeting

b) SWOT analysis

c) PEST analysis

d) Portfolio analysis
74. The Indian Trusts Act, 1882 governs:
a) Partnerships

b) Trusts

c) Companies

d) Sole proprietorships
75. The formula for calculating capital ratio in a partnership is:
a) Capital Contribution ÷ Total Capital

b) Total Profit ÷ Capital

 c) Capital × Profit-Sharing Ratio

d) Total Assets ÷ Capital

76. The stratosphere is where:
a) Ozone layer is found

b) Weather occurs

c) Meteors burn

d) Radio waves are reflected

77. The primary source of atmospheric nitrogen is:
a) Volcanic activity

b) Nitrogen fixation

c) Combustion

d) Respiration
78. The formula for return on assets is:
a) (Net Profit ÷ Total Assets) × 100

b) (Gross Profit ÷ Total Assets) × 100

c) (Net Profit ÷ Sales) × 100

d) (Gross Profit ÷ Sales) × 100

79. A company issues convertible bonds to:
a) Raise debt with equity option

b) Distribute profits

c) Increase share capital

d) Pay dividends
80. As per the Companies Act, 2013, a creditor is:
a) An owner

b) A lender

c) A director
 d) An employee
81. ‘Excise Duty’ in India is a:
a) Direct Tax

b) Indirect Tax

c) State Tax

d) Local Tax
82. What does SWOT stand for?
a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

b) Systems, Workflows, Objectives, Targets

c) Strategies, Wins, Options, Trends

d) Standards, Workforce, Outlook, Tactics

83. If total utility is maximum, marginal utility is:
a) Positive

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Increasing
84. A petty cash book records:
a) Large transactions

b) Small expenses

c) Credit sales

d) All transactions
85. The four components of a SWOT analysis are:
a) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

b) Systems, Strategies, Tactics, Targets

c) Goals, Plans, Actions, Results

d) SWOT
86. ‘The God of Small Things’ was written by:
a) Arundhati Roy

b) Jhumpa Lahiri

c) Kiran Desai

d) Anita Desai
87. Charles Dickens’ ‘Great Expectations’ was first published in:
a) 1861

b) 1851

c) 1871

d) 1841
88. Which statement is false? A. Shelley’s Ode to a Skylark is a lyric poem.
B. Keats’ Endymion is an epic poem.
C. Wordsworth’s The Solitary Reaper is a narrative poem.
D. Browning’s Porphyria’s Lover is a dramatic monologue.

a) B & C only

b) A&C

c) B only

d) C only
89. Which statement is not true? A. Jane Eyre was published in 1847.
B. The Catcher in the Rye was written by J.D. Salinger.

c) The Color Purple was published in 1992.

d) To Kill a Mockingbird was written by Harper Lee.

e) C only

f) A & B
90. **Match the works with their authors: A. Song of Myself, B. Mrs. Dalloway, C.
Slaughterhouse-Five, D. The Sound and the Fury*. (i) Virginia Woolf, (ii) Walt
Whitman, (iii) Kurt Vonnegut, (iv) William Faulkner.**
a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-i

c) A-i, B-ii, C-ii, D-iv

d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

91. “When I Have Fears” is by: FACTORY:”
a) John Keats

b) Percy Shelley

c) William Wordsworth

d) Samuel Coleridge
92. Which statement is false? A. Coleridge: Poetry is “a balance or reconciliation of
opposites.” B. Wordsworth: Poetry is “the spontaneous overflow of powerful
feelings.” C. Keats: Poetry is “a factual narrative of life.” D. Eliot: Poetry is “not a
turning loose of emotion, but an escape from emotion.”
a) C only

b) A&B

c) C&D

d) B only
93. “Tintern Abbey” is by:
a) William Wordsworth

b) John Keats

c) Percy Shelley

d) Samuel Coleridge
94. “Tomorrow, and tomorrow, and tomorrow” is from:
a) Macbeth

b) Hamlet

c) Othello

d) King Lear
95. The term ‘epic’ originates from:
a) Greek
b) Latin

c) French

d) Italian
96. ‘English Grammar in Use’ was authored by:
a) Raymond Murphy

b) Michael Swan

c) Betty Azar

d) John Eastwood
97. According to Halliday, language serves a function of:
a) Functional roles

b) Grammatical structures

c) Phonetic patterns

d) Vocabulary expansion
98. /ð/ is a sound of:
a) Dental

b) Bilabial

c) Alveolar

d) Velar
99. ‘Falling-rising intonation’ is used in:
a) Statements expressing doubt

b) Yes/No questions

c) Commands

d) Statements
100. Which statement is false? a) Stress patterns in English can distinguish between
parts of a speech.
b) Intonation varies by speaker’s intent.
C. All English words have fixed stress patterns.
d) Compound verbs often stress the second element.
C only