VETERINARY MICROBIOLOGY II
1. Which one of the following is describe Marek's disease?
A. lymphomatous and neuropathic disease
B. One of the important viral diseases of poultry
C. Gallid Herpesvirus 3- oncogenic strains
D. Fowl paralysis
2. Which of the following clinical specimen is preferred for Isolation and identification of FMD
Virus?
A. Vesicular fluid
B. Epithelium covering a vesicle
C. Flaps of epithelial tissue still attached
D. Blood
E. All
3. Which one of the following is true about Newcastle disease causing Virus?
A. Avian Paramyxovirus 1 (APMV-1)
B. It is negative sense RNA viruses.
C. They are enveloped viruses
D. They possess icosahedral symmetry
4. Which one of the following Newcastle disease virus strains is causing mild infections of the
respiratory tract?
A. Velogenic
B. Mesogenic
C. Lentogenic
D. Avirulent
5. Which one of the following is true about Rinderpest virus?
A. H is responsible for attachment
B. Specific cytopathic effects develop after three days.
C. Rinderpest virus is pleomorphic
D. F is responsible for entry into the cell.
E. All
6. Which one the following is not appropriate samples to detect Rinderpest virus and PPR virus
from live animals?
A. Blood in EDTA or heparin
B. lacrimal fluid
C. Urine
D. Necrotic tissue from the oral cavity
7. Which of the following diagnostic tool is prescribed test for international trade of PPR
disease?
A. Sandwich ELISA
B. PCR
C. Competitive ELISA
D. Virus neutralization test
E. Agar gel immunodiffusion
8. Which is not about African horse sickness virus
A. The virus can survive at room temperature (37°C for 37 days) for nearly a month.
B. The viruses are stable at basic pH range of 6.3-12.0.
C. The genome is replicated in the nuclease in a conservative fashion.
D. There are 9 serotypes of AHSV and all these serotypes are immunologically distinct.
E. The virus can also be cultivated in chicken embryo fibroblast, but no CPE are
produced.
9. Which is not morphological Characteristics of Influenza virus?
A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable),
B. The outer surface of the particle consists of a lipid envelope
C. The genome is of s/s (-) sense RNA linear non-segmented
D. Glycoprotein spikes of two types Haemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
E. The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein.
10. Which is not true about rabies virus?
A. attaches to a cell by interaction G protein
B. The virions are present in the cytoplasm as large endosomes (cytoplasmic vesicles).
C. Messenger RNAs must be transcribed by polymerase (L) present in the core.
D. Rabies virus induce minimal CPE,
E. Presence of rabies virus in tissue culture system is confirmed by antibody test
11. A positive result in a serological test (antibody test) indicates what?
A. The patient has recently been exposed to a virus
B. The patient is currently infected with the virus
C. The patient has never been exposed to the virus
D. The patient was previously infected with the virus
12. Which of the following describes correct viral cytopathic effect?
A. Cytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Noncytocidal: Viruses alter cell metabolism and kill the cell
C. Cytocidal: Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
D. Noncytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells
13. What is cytocidal viral cytopathic effect?
A. Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
C. The spread of disease caused by virions in the body
D. A virus getting transmitted from one individual to another
14. Which one of the following viruses is responsible to cause major disease of each domestic
animal species, except sheep, including such important diseases as infectious bovine
rhinotracheitis, pseudo rabies, and Marek’s disease?
A. Parvovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes viruses
D. Togavirus
15. Which birds are most commonly affected by Newcastle disease?
A. Chicken
B. Ducks
C. Pigeons
D. All of the above
16. Type of virus-cell interaction in which virus replicate and viral progeny produce and they are
fully infective is
A. Abortive infection
B. Productive infection
C. Nonproductive infection
D. Cytolytic Infection
17. All are types of primary tissue culture, but not one:
A. Continuous cell line
B. Organ culture
C. Suspension culture
D. Monolayer
18. Which of the following viruses belongs to the Rhabdovirus family?
A. Yellow fever virus
B. Coronavirus
C. Rabies virus
D. Hepatitis C virus
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by most Rhabdoviruses?
A. Enveloped structure
B. Rod shaped virions
C. Highly pathogenic nature
D. Single-stranded genome with poly A tail
20. Most Rhabdoviruses are spread through:
A. Contaminated food and water supplies
B. Sexual contact
C. Inhaling airborne particles
D. Biting from an infected animal
21. What shape are virions of rhabdoviruses?
A. Spherical
B. Ovoid
C. Pleomorphic
D. Rod shaped
22. What is the most common cause of Foot and Mouth Disease?
A. Parasitic infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Viral infection
D. Fungal infection
23. What type of animals can get Foot and Mouth Disease?
A. Dogs and cats
B. Pigs and cows
C. Fish and birds
D. All of the above
24. What are the clinical signs associated with Foot and Mouth Disease?
A. Weight loss, decreased appetite, labored breathing
B. Fever, mouth sores, lameness
C. Swelling and lesions on feet, vomiting
D. All of the above
25. Which of the following practice prevent spread of Foot and Mouth Disease?
A. Vaccinations
B. Improved hygienic practices
C. Quarantine infected animals
D. All of the above
26. What type of Nucleic acid the Foot and Mouth Disease Virus contain?
A. Both DNA and RNA
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. DNA or RNA
27. What one of the following can be susceptible to PPR Virus?
A. Pigs
B. cattle
C. Sheep
D. All of the above
28. How do Foot and Mouth Disease spread?
A. Airborne particles
B. Artificial insemination
C. Contact with infected animals or animal products
D. All of the above
29. Which is not true about Coronaviruses?
A. are enveloped viruses with a helical nucleocapsid that contains single-stranded RNA
with positive (messenger) polarity.
B. The capsid consists of a densely-packed icosahedral arrangement of 60 protomers,
each consisting of 4 polypeptides, VP1, VP2, VP3 and VP4.
C. have distinctive club-shaped surface projections that give the appearance of a solar
corona to the virion.
D. replicate in the cytoplasm and bind to cytoplasmic vesicles; no viral antigens appear
on the surface of the infected cell.
30 Which one of the following is no true about Safe Working Environment Level 4
Laboratories?
A. Use only level I and level II biological safety cabinet
B. Very severely restricted in most of the countries by government decree
C. Airtight and access through airlocks
D. Ensure that nothing passes outside the room without being sterilized
31. Where a primary replication of African swine fever virus is occurs?
A. Monocytes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nuclease
D. Macrophages
32. Which is true about dengu virus?
A. Dengue fever can be caused by 4 different serotypes of the dengue virus
B. The virus can cause inflammation of central nervous system and heart muscles with
rashes over the body
C. cause respiratory tract infections
D. It is a highly contagious virus of mice and mortality may approach to 100% in virulent
outbreak cases.
33. Which one of the following Laboratory waste containers color- wrongly coded?
A. Red - For incineration
B. Light blue - For autoclaving
C. Black - Normal household waste: local authority refuse collection
D. White or clear plastic- soiled linen
34. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. A virion contains DNA and RNA.
B. Viruses are acellular.
C. Viruses replicate outside of the cell.
D. Most viruses are easily visualized with a light microscope.
35. Which one of the following is incorrect about Specimen Processing and Inoculation for
Isolation of Virus?
A. Urine specimens should have the pH adjusted toward neutrality before inoculation.
B. Respiratory or genital specimens are treated with antibiotics before inoculation to
prevent bacterial or fungal overgrowth.
C. After inoculation, cultures are incubated at 35 °C to 37 °C and inspected periodically.
D. sterile body fluids cannot be inoculated directly onto cell cultures without
decontamination
36. Which statement is not true of viral replication?
A. A lysogenic infection kills the host cell.
B. There are six basic steps in the viral replication cycle.
C. Viral replication does affect host cell function.
D. Newly released virions can infect adjacent cells.
37. Which one of the following is not true about Serum neutralization test?
A. This test is less specific and sensitive for viruses which produce cytopathic effects
(CPE).
B. It is considered to be the definitive standard against which other serological tests are
compared.
C. Neutralizing antibodies usually correlate closely with immune protection.
D. The presence of neutralizing antibodies in the serum prevents infection of the cells and
CPE.
38. Which of the following is not associated with prions?
A. Replicating shapes
B. Mad cow disease
C. DNA
D. Infectious proteins
39. Which one of the following not describe the virus?
A. Possess either DNA or RNA
B. Do possess active protein synthesizing apparatus
C. Do not have a nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria or ribosomes
D. No metabolic activity outside host: obligate intracellular parasites
40. Which one of following family comprises African horse sickness Virus?
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Reoviridae
C. Retroviridae
D. Birnaviradae
41. Which of the following is not about FMD virus?
A. Couse rarely fatal in adult animals
B. The virus affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
C. Known by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips & others parts.
D. Contain seven strains (A, O, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, Asia1 and Asia 2)
42. Which one of the following host Blue Tongue Virus cause fatal disease?
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Goat
D. Horse
43. Which one of the following Paramyxoviruses may not?
A. Replicate in the nuclease
B. Induce cell-cell fusion via F protein,
C. causing multinucleated giant Cell
D. Transmitted in respiratory droplets
44. The following is true of rabies virus
A. The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites
B. Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation
C. Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
D. The animal reservoir differs from country to country
E. May be diagnosed by serology
45. Which is one of the following does not represent Lumpy skin disese virus in Ethiopia?
A. It is severe in cows at peak lactation and causes a sharp drop in milk yield.
B. Couse to secondary bacterial mastitis.
C. The Virus Able to infect Human
D. Couse Temporary or permanent infertility may occur in cows and bulls.
46. Which one of the following genera contain causative agent of Rabies?
A. Vesiculo virus
B. Lyssa virus
C. Ephemerovirus
D. Novirhabdovirus genus
47. Which one of the following is not characteristic of Retrovirus?
A. single-stranded RNA with
B. Icosahedral nucleocapsid
C. The envelope has glycoprotein surface spikes.
D. Their genome in virion is diploid.
48. Which one of the following is not describe morphological Characteristics of Influenza virus?
A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable),
B. The outer surface of the particle consists of a lipid envelope
C. The genome is of s/s (-) sense RNA linear non-segmented
D. Glycoprotein spikes of two types Haemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
E. The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein.
49. Which one of the following virus Inclusion bodies situated in cytoplasm?
A. Pox virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Measles virus
D. Picorna virus
50. Which one of the following is not true about Complement fixation test?
A. It is a classic method for demonstrating the presence of antibody in serum.
B. It contains as indicator sheep red cells, complement and detect antibody
C. Complement fixation Test is assumed positive when Red Blood cell lysis occurs.
D. Complement fixation Test is assumed negative lack hemolysis
