DAY

02
A Review for Qualifying Examination:

PSYCHOLOGICAL
STATISTICS
1. Which statement is correct regarding
psychological variables like intelligence,
motivation, and stress?
a. Most psychological data are nominal but treated as ordinal due to their
magnitude.
b. Most psychological data are ordinal but treated as ratio because of an absolute
zero point.
c. Most psychological data are ordinal but treated as interval for flexible analysis.
d. Most psychological data are interval but treated as ordinal because of
classification.
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 d. Most psychological data are interval
but treated as ordinal because of
classification.
Psychological variables are often measured on an interval scale, which allows for the measurement of differences between
values. However, because these variables can be complex and subjective, they are sometimes treated as ordinal in analysis.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Psychological data are not typically treated as nominal because nominal scales don’t capture the magnitude of differences.
b. Most psychological variables are not measured as ratio scales because they lack a true zero point.
c. While psychological data might be treated as ordinal, the key aspect is that they are often considered intervals in
measurement.
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 LEVELS OF MEASUREMENT

Nominal - the data can only be categorized

Ordinal - the data can be categorized and
ranked
Interval - the data can be categorized, ranked,
and evenly spaced
Ratio - the data can be categorized, ranked,
evenly spaced, and has natural zero
2. Students in a beginner art class are
categorized as art majors or non-art
majors. What measurement scale is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

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 a. Nominal

Nominal scales categorize data without any inherent order. Art majors and non-art
majors are distinct categories without a ranking system.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. Ordinal scales imply an order or ranking, which isn’t present here.
c. Interval scales provide meaningful distances between values but require ordering,
which isn't used here.
d. Ratio scales involve a true zero and ordering, not applicable for simple categories.
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3. In a study, participants are classified as
having high, medium, or low self-esteem.
Which measurement scale is used here?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

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 b. Ordinal

Ordinal scales involve ranking or ordering but don’t specify the exact differences
between ranks.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Nominal scales categorize data without order.
c. Interval scales provide exact differences but require ordering.
d. Ratio scales include true zero and are used for precise measurements.

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4. Ranking high school seniors based on
their academic performance (1st, 2nd, etc.)
involves which scale of measurement?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

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 b. Ordinal

Ordinal scales involve ranking data but don’t specify the exact differences
between ranks.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Nominal scales do not involve ranking.
c. Interval scales involve exact differences but not just ordering.
d. Ratio scales require true zero and exact differences.

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5. A teacher evaluates quiz performance by
counting the correct answers for each
student. Which scale of measurement is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

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 d. Ratio

Ratio scales involve counting and have a true zero (zero correct answers).

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Nominal scales categorize without measurement of quantity.
b. Ordinal scales rank but do not involve counting.
c. Interval scales have equal intervals but lack a true zero.

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6. A psychologist ranks depression severity
from mild to severe using a questionnaire.
What level of measurement is this?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

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 c. Ordinal

Ordinal scales rank data without specifying exact distances between ranks.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Nominal scales categorize without order.
b. Interval scales require exact differences between values.
d. Ratio scales include true zero and exact differences.

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7. A researcher categorizes political affiliation
as "Democrat," "Republican," "Independent,"
or "Other." What is the measurement level?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

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b. Nominal

Nominal scales categorize data without order.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Ordinal scales involve ranking, which isn’t used here.
c. Interval scales involve ordering and exact differences.
d. Ratio scales require counting and a true zero.

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8. What additional information is gained from
an interval scale compared to an ordinal
scale?
a. Whether measurements are identical or different
b. The direction of the difference
c. The magnitude of the difference
d. None of the above

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c. The magnitude of the difference

Interval scales provide information on the exact differences between values.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Ordinal scales don’t provide exact differences.
b. Ordinal scales lack a true zero.
d. Interval scales provide exact differences, not just order.

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9. If a researcher states that Tom's score is 4
points higher than Bill's, what measurement
scale is being used?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Interval/Ratio

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 c. Interval

Interval scales allow measurement of exact differences between values.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Nominal scales do not involve measurement of differences.
b. Ordinal scales provide ranking but not exact differences.
d. Ratio scales involve true zero, but this scenario doesn’t use it.

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10. Jenny is studying the coping styles and
resilience of college students. To find the most
frequently used coping style, which measure of
central tendency is appropriate?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above

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c. Mode

The mode identifies the most frequently occurring value.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Mean calculates the average, not frequency.
b. Median identifies the middle value but not frequency.
d. Variance measures dispersion, not frequency.

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MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
Mode - most frequent value
Median - middle number in an ordered data
set
Mean - sum of all values divided by the total
number of values
8, 12, 12, 13, 10, 9, 4, 2
3, 13, 2, 34, 11, 26, 47
11. Barry measured the sociability of psychology
students, noting that most had average sociability.
Which measure of central tendency did he likely
use?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above

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a. Mean
The mean provides an average measure of central tendency.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. Mode identifies frequency, not average.
c. Median indicates the middle value, not average.
d. Variance measures dispersion, not central tendency.

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12. After a 150-item exam, a professor
finds most students scored highly. What
does this indicate?
a. The exam was very difficult.
b. The exam was very easy.
c. The exam had moderate difficulty.
d. The distribution is positively skewed.

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b. The exam was very easy.
High scores suggest the exam was easy for most students.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. The exam was challenging, would result in lower scores.
c. The scores were widely varied, not indicated here.
d. The exam had a high average difficulty, not suggested by high scores.

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13. Which statement about the
median is correct?
a. Used for rank-ordered or ordinal data.
b. Used for interval or ratio data with extreme values.
c. Used when the distribution is highly skewed.
d. All of the above.

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 d. All of the above.

The median works with rank-ordered data, interval/ratio data, and is less affected
by extreme values.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. The median does work with rank-ordered data.
b. The median can handle interval/ratio data with extreme values.
c. The median is used with skewed distributions.

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14. To find the average number of intrusive
thoughts a patient has per day, which measure
of central tendency should a therapist use?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above

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a. Mean

The mean gives the average number of intrusive thoughts.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. Mode identifies frequency, not average.
c. Median is less informative for average counts.
d. Variance measures dispersion, not average.

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15. "Mean Squared Deviation"
is another term for:
a. Range
b. Variance
c. Standard Deviation
d. Median Absolute Deviation

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b. Variance

Variance is also known as mean squared deviation.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Standard deviation is the square root of variance.
c. Range measures the spread between extreme values.
d. Mean is an average, not a measure of spread.

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16. A 5-year-old boy's intelligence test score
converts to a z-score of 4.45. If the mean IQ is 100
with a standard deviation of 15, what does this imply?

a. The boy's intelligence is normal.

b. The boy is probably a genius.
c. The boy may have an intellectual disability.
d. The boy studies very well.

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 b. The boy is probably a genius.

A z-score of 4.45 indicates a score significantly higher than average, suggesting

exceptional intelligence.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Normal intelligence would not have such a high z-score.
c. Average intelligence would have a much lower z-score.
d. A z-score of 4.45 indicates exceptional intelligence, not just above average.

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17. A boy scores z = 3.51 on an
aggressiveness scale where M = 15 and
SD = 3. What does this mean?
a. Below-average aggressiveness.
b. Average aggressiveness.
c. Above-average aggressiveness.
d. Low aggressiveness.

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c. Above-average aggressiveness.

A z-score of 3.51 indicates a score significantly above average.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Average aggressiveness would have a z-score closer to 0.
b. Below-average aggressiveness would have a negative z-score.
d. A z-score of 3.51 indicates significantly above average, not average.

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18. In a normal distribution, a z-
score of 2 indicates that:
a. Around 2% of others scored higher.
b. Around 95% scored equal to or lower.
c. Around 5% scored higher.
d. Around 68% scored equal to or lower.

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a. Around 2% of other scored higher.

In a normal distribution, a z-score of 2 is in the top 2% of scores.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. Around 50% scored lower.
c. Around 5% scored higher
d. A z-score of 2 does not mean around 50% scored higher.

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19. Which statement about the tails
of a normal distribution is correct?
a. Right tail proportions > 0.50, left tail proportions < 0.50.
b. Right tail proportions < 0.50, left tail proportions > 0.50.
c. Both tails have proportions < 0.50.
d. Both tails have proportions > 0.50.

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c. Both tails have proportions < 0.50.

Each tail of a normal curve contains less than 50% of the total area.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Both tails are symmetric and should have equal proportions.
b. Both tails are symmetric and should have equal proportions.
d. Tail of a normal distribution has less than 50% of the total area.

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20. A distribution has a mean (μ) of 6.
What position is identified by z =
+2.00?
a. 2 points above the mean
b. 2 points below the mean
c. 12 points above the mean
d. 12 points below the mean

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 a. 2 points above the mean

Assuming, each standard deviation is equal to 1 point, then the 2 standard

deviations would be 2.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. It indicates a position 2 standard deviation above the mean
c. Without knowing the standard deviation, we cannot say that 12 is exactly the
point.
d. Without knowing the standard deviation, we cannot say that 12 is exactly the
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point
21. What is the z-score corresponding
to the mean of any distribution?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 100
d. Cannot be determined

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 a. 0

Z-score measures the number of standard deviations a data point is from the mean

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. Data point is one standard deviation away from the mean
c. Z-score of 100 is very rare

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22. How is a hypothesis test best
described?
a. Describes a sample
b. Describes a population
c. Uses sample data to infer about a population
d. Uses population data to predict about a sample

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 c. Uses sample data to infer about a
population.
Statistical method used to make inference or draw conclusion about population
based on sample data. It involves testing or hypothesis about population parameter
using data collected from a sample.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Hypothesis test does not focus on describing the sample itself.
b. It does not primarily describes population
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23. According to the Central Limit Theorem, what
pattern emerges in the distribution of sample means
as more samples are collected, even if individual
spending amounts are not normally distributed?
a. Uniform distribution
b. Resembles individual spending amounts
c. Becomes increasingly skewed
d. Tends to become normally distributed

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 d. Tend to become normally distributed

As the number of sample increases, the distribution of the sample means will tend
to approach normal distribution, regardless of the shape of distribution of the
individual data point as long as the sample size is sufficiently large.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. Uniform distribution is a form of probability where every possible outcome has an
equal likelihood of happening.
b. Even if the original data is not normally distributed, the distribution of the sample
means will approximate a normal distribution as the same size increase
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 d. Tend to become normally distributed

c. Central Limit Theorem specifically discuss the convergence of the sample mean’s
distribution towards a normal distribution not skewness. But if the original
distribution is skewed, the sample mean’s distribution will become less skewed as
the sample size increases and tend towards normality.

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24. In a study on memory retention with Group A
undergoing cognitive training and Group B not
participating, under what circumstance would you
reject the null hypothesis?
a. When the p-value is smaller than 0.05.
b. When the p-value is larger than 0.05.
c. When Group A's mean memory retention score equals Group B's.
d. When Group A's mean memory retention score does not equal Group B's.

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 a. When the P-value is smaller than 0.05

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

c. It shows that group A and B has no difference, which would support the null
hypothesis.
d. It does not specify the significance level of difference.

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25. A hypothesis test produces a z-score
of 2.37 in a two-tailed test. What decision
should be made?
a. Reject the null hypothesis with α = 0.05 but not with α = 0.01.
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis with either α = 0.05 or α = 0.01.
c. Reject the null hypothesis with either α = 0.05 or α = 0.01.
d. Cannot answer without additional information.

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 a. Reject the null hypothesis with a σ =
0.05 but not with σ = 0.01

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. The z-score of 2.37 is significant at σ = 0.05 (where the critical value is ± 1.96)
but not at σ = 0.01 (where the critical value is ± 2.58)
c. While the z-score of 2.37 is sufficient to reject the null hypothesis at σ = 0.05, it is
not sufficient to reject the null hypothesis at σ = 0.01

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26. In a study on a new therapy's impact on
creativity, what is the consequence of
committing a Type I error?
a. Concluding the therapy affects creativity when it doesn't.
b. Concluding the therapy has no effect when it does.
c. Concluding the sample size is too small.
d. Concluding the data collection was flawed.

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 a. Concluding the therapy affects
creativity when it doesn’t.
Type I error occurs when you reject the null hypothesis when it’s actually true.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. It describes the Type II error.
c. It does not pertain to the error type but rather to the adequacy of the study’s
design and analysis.
d. It is not the type of error made in hypothesis testing but about potential problems
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 TYPE I & TYPE II ERROR

Type I (α) Error - appears when null hypothesis

(Ho) of an experiment is true but still rejected.

Type II (β) Error - appears when the null

hypothesis (Ho) is false but mistakenly fails to be
refused.
27. In a study on a new intervention's
impact on mood, what is the consequence
of committing a Type II error?
a. Concluding the intervention affects mood when it doesn't.
b. Concluding the sample size is too small.
c. Concluding the data collection was flawed.
d. Concluding the intervention has no effect when it does.

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 d. Concluding the intervention has no
effect when it does.

Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is false but mistakenly to reject.

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. It describes the Type I error.
b. It does not pertain to the error type but rather to the adequacy of the study’s
design and analysis.
c. It is not the type of error made in hypothesis testing but about potential problems
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28. Which ANOVA assumption states that
residuals should be normally distributed
for each group?
a. Independence
b. Homogeneity of Variance
c. No Significant Outliers
d. None of the above

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 d. None of the above

It should be Normality of Residuals

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. This assumption states that the observation within and between group should be
independent of each other.
b. This assumption also known as homoscedasticity, requires that the variances of
residuals (or errors) should be approximately equal across groups
c. It is not an assumption related to the normal distribution of residuals.

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29. What does the homogeneity
assumption in ANOVA refer to?
a. Equal sample sizes in each group
b. Approximately equal variances in the groups
c. Independence of observations
d. Normal distribution of data

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 b. Approximately equal variances in the
group

The variance of the data within each group should be equal

Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

a. It concerns about equal sample size, homogeneity assumption specifically
concerns the variances within the group
c. It refers on the independence
d. It refers on the normality
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 Assumptions of ANOVA

Normality - the data within each group should be

normally distributed.

Homogeneity of Variance - the variance of the

data within each group should be equal.
 Assumptions of ANOVA

Independence - the observation within each

group should be independent

Random Sampling - observation within each

group have been sampled randomly and are
independent of each other.
30. In a study on mindfulness techniques and
stress reduction, you perform a Shapiro-Wilk's test
on the residuals. What assumption are you
examining?
a. Normality
b. Homogeneity of Variance
c. Independence of Observations
d. Checking for Outliers

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a. Normality

Normality means that the distribution of the test is normally distributed (or bell-
shaped) with 0 mean, with 1 standard deviation and a symmetric bell shaped curve.

Shapiro - Wilk’s test - assess whether the residuals (or errors) from your model are
normally distributed, which is an important assumption in many statistical test and
models.

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To test the assumption of normality, the following measures and test can be
applied:

1. Skewness and Kurtosis - to test the assumption of normal distribution,

Skewness should be within the range ± 2. And Kurtosis values should be within
range of ± 7
2. Shapiro - Wilk’s test - to test the assumption of normality, Wilk’s test should not
be significant to meet the assumption of normality.
3. Kolmogorov - Smirnov test - in the scale of large sample, most researchers use
KS test to test the assumption of normality.
 Skewness and Kurtosis
Skewness - focuses on the tail of a normal distribution
Kurtosis - focuses more on height of a normal distribution

Types of Kurtosis
1. Mesokurtic - type of distribution in which there is symmetry. This means that
both the extreme ends of the graph are similar.
2. Leptokurtic - has a greater kurtosis than the mesokurtic, which has longer tails.
3. Platykurtic - this distribution has lower kurtosis than the mesokurtic that is has
a shorter tails.
31. When using a Kolmogorov-Smirnov test to
examine self-esteem scores among different
interventions, what assumption are you
addressing?
a. Homogeneity of Variance
b. Independence of Observation
c. Checking for Outliers
d. Normality

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 d. Normality

KS test is use to assess whether a sample comes from specific distribution often
the normal distribution.

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32. In a study on happiness scores with and without
positive psychology interventions, what are you
assessing with a Shapiro-Wilk's test?

a. Normality
b. Independence of Observation
c. Checking for Outliers
d. Homogeneity of Variance

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 a. Normality
Why Other Choices are Not Applicable:

b. Shapiro Wilk’s test does not assess independence, it focuses on whether the data
follows a normal curve distribution.
c. Shapiro Wilk’s test is not used for checking for outliers.
s. Shapiro Wilk’s test does not assess variance.

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33. To investigate the distribution of sleep quality
scores, you create boxplots. What are you trying to
identify?

a. Normality
b. Independence of Observation
c. Checking for Outliers
d. Homogeneity of Variance

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 c. Checking for Outliers
Checking for Outliers: Boxplots are primarily used to identify outliers in the data. The whiskers of the
boxplot extend to the smallest and largest values within 1.5 times the interquartile range, and points
outside this range are considered outliers.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. Normality: Boxplots can give a rough idea about symmetry and spread but are not specifically
designed to assess normality.
b. Independence of Observation: This assumption pertains to the design of the study rather than what a
boxplot can show.
d. Homogeneity of Variance: This is typically assessed using tests like Levene's test or examining
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34. Using Levene's test to examine stress scores
among different therapies assesses which
assumption?

a. Normality
b. Independence of Observation
c. Checking for Outliers
d. Homogeneity of Variance

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 d. Homogeneity of Variance
Homogeneity of Variance: Levene's test checks whether variances are equal across
groups, which is crucial for certain statistical tests like ANOVA.

Why not a, b, or c:
a. Normality: Levene's test does not test for normality but for equal variances.
b. Independence of Observation: This assumption is related to study design.
c. Checking for Outliers: Levene's test does not focus on outliers but on the equality
of variances.
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35. What measure describes the range
of values within which a population
parameter likely falls?
a. Margin of error
b. Point estimate
c. Confidence interval
d. Significance level

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 c. Confidence interval
A confidence interval provides a range of values that likely includes the population
parameter.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. Margin of error: This is part of a confidence interval but not the interval itself.
b. Point estimate: This gives a single value estimate, not a range.
d. Significance level: This refers to the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis
when it is true, not a range of values.
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36. When reporting a 95% confidence
interval for a population mean, what
does this imply?
a. The mean is within the interval 95% of the time.
b. 95% of sample means fall within the interval.
c. The true population mean falls within the interval 95% of the time.
d. The interval is 95% accurate.

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 c. The true population mean falls within
the interval 95% of the time.
This is the correct interpretation of a 95% confidence interval.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. The mean is within the interval 95% of the time: The statement should refer to the
population mean, not just "the mean."
b. 95% of sample means fall within the interval: This is incorrect; it refers to the probability
that the population mean falls within the interval.
d. The interval is 95% accurate: This is a vague statement and not a standard interpretation.
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37. In psychological
research, a Type I error is:
a. Rejecting a true null hypothesis.
b. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis.
c. Rejecting a false null hypothesis.
d. Failing to reject a true null hypothesis.

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 a. Rejecting a true null hypothesis.

A Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is true but is incorrectly rejected.

Why not b, c, or d:
b. Failing to reject a false null hypothesis: This describes a Type II error.
c. Rejecting a false null hypothesis: This is a correct decision, not an error.
d. Failing to reject a true null hypothesis: This is a correct decision as well.

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38. A researcher finds no significant difference in self-
efficacy before and after an intervention, but the
intervention was effective. What error was
committed?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

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 b. Type II

A Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is false (the intervention was
effective), but the researcher fails to reject it (finds no significant difference).

Why not a, c, or d:
a. Type I: This occurs when the null hypothesis is true, but incorrectly rejected.
c. Type III: This refers to correctly rejecting the null hypothesis for the wrong
reason.
d. Type IV: This is not a standard term in statistics.
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39. To determine if a new teaching
method impacts test scores, the null
hypothesis should state:
a. There is no difference in test scores between the new and traditional methods.
b. There is a difference in test scores between the new and traditional methods.
c. The new method is superior to the traditional method.
d. The new method is inferior to the traditional method.

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 a. There is no difference in test scores
between the new and traditional
methods.

The null hypothesis generally states no effect or no difference to be tested against the alternative
hypothesis.

Why not b, c, or d:
b. There is a difference in test scores between the new and traditional methods: This would be the
alternative hypothesis.
c. The new method is superior to the traditional method: This is a specific alternative hypothesis.
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d. The new method is inferior to the traditional method: This is also a specific alternative hypothesis.
40. In hypothesis testing, rejecting the
null hypothesis when it is actually true is
known as:
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Power of the test
d. Statistical significance

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 a. Type I error

A Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is true, but is incorrectly rejected.

Why not b, c, or d:
b. Type II error: This occurs when the null hypothesis is false, but is not rejected.
c. Power of the test: This refers to the probability of correctly rejecting a false null
hypothesis.
d. Statistical significance: This is a measure of whether an effect observed in a
study is likely due to chance.
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41. In hypothesis testing, what is the
probability of rejecting the null
hypothesis when it is actually false?
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Power of the test
d. Statistical significance

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 c. Power of the test

The power of a test is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. Type I error: This is the probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis.
b. Type II error: This is the probability of failing to reject a false null hypothesis.
d. Statistical significance: This indicates whether an effect observed in a study is
unlikely to have occurred by chance.
42. What does a p-value
represent in hypothesis testing?
a. The probability of making a Type I error
b. The probability that the null hypothesis is true
c. The probability of obtaining a test statistic at least as extreme as the one
observed, assuming the null hypothesis is true
d. The probability of making a Type II error

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 c. The probability of obtaining a test statistic
at least as extreme as the one observed,
assuming the null hypothesis is true

This is the definition of a p-value.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. The probability of making a Type I error: This is not the definition of a p-value.
b. The probability that the null hypothesis is true: This is not what a p-value measures.
d. The probability of making a Type II error: This is not related to the p-value.
43. A researcher wants to compare the
means of three different treatment groups.
Which statistical test should they use?
a. t-test for independent samples
b. Paired t-test
c. ANOVA
d. Chi-square test

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 c. ANOVA
Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) is used to compare the means of three or more
groups.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. t-test for independent samples: This is used to compare the means of two
independent groups.
b. Paired t-test: This is used for comparing means from the same group at different
times.
d. Chi-square test: This is used for categorical data, not for comparing means.
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44. In an experiment, if the variability within treatment
groups is much smaller than the variability between
treatment groups, what does this indicate about the F-
ratio in ANOVA?
a. The F-ratio will be close to 1
b. The F-ratio will be much greater than 1
c. The F-ratio will be much less than 1
d. The F-ratio will be negative

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 b. The F-ratio will be much greater than 1
When the between-group variability is much larger than within-group variability, it
suggests that there are significant differences between the groups, leading to a
high F-ratio.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. The F-ratio will be close to 1: This would imply no significant difference between
groups.
c. The F-ratio will be much less than 1: This is not a typical outcome in ANOVA.
d. The F-ratio will be negative: F-ratios are always non-negative. www.reallygreatsite.com
45. What is the purpose of
post-hoc tests in ANOVA?
a. To determine the overall significance of the test
b. To control for Type I errors
c. To identify which specific groups differ from each other
d. To increase the power of the test

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 c. To identify which specific groups differ
from each other
Post-hoc tests are performed after an ANOVA to find out which specific groups have
significant differences.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. To determine the overall significance of the test: This is done by the initial ANOVA.
b. To control for Type I errors: This is a secondary benefit but not the primary purpose.
d. To increase the power of the test: Post-hoc tests do not increase the power of the
initial ANOVA. www.reallygreatsite.com
46. When conducting a chi-square test
for independence, what is being
assessed?
a. The difference between observed and expected frequencies in categorical data
b. The correlation between two continuous variables
c. The difference between means of two independent groups
d. The effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable

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 a. The difference between observed and
expected frequencies in categorical data
The chi-square test for independence assesses whether there is a significant association
between two categorical variables.

Why not b, c, or d:
b. The correlation between two continuous variables: This is assessed using Pearson or
Spearman correlation.
c. The difference between means of two independent groups: This is assessed using a t-test.
d. The effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable: This is typically assessed
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using ANOVA or regression.
47. A significant result in a chi-square
test for independence indicates that:

a. The variables are dependent

b. The variables are independent
c. There is no association between the variables
d. The sample size is too large

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 a. The variables are dependent
A significant chi-square result indicates that there is an association between the
variables.

Why not b, c, or d:
b. The variables are independent: A significant result indicates dependency, not
independence.
c. There is no association between the variables: A significant result indicates there is an
association.
d. The sample size is too large: Sample size affects power but is not directly indicated by
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the chi-square result.
48. Which test would you use to determine if
the average score of a sample significantly
differs from a known population mean?
a. Independent samples t-test
b. One-sample t-test
c. Paired samples t-test
d. ANOVA

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 b. One-sample t-test

This test compares the sample mean to a known population mean.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. Independent samples t-test: This compares the means of two independent
groups.
c. Paired samples t-test: This compares means from the same group at different
times.
d. ANOVA: This is used to compare means of three or more groups.
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49. A researcher uses a paired samples
t-test. What kind of data is being
analyzed?
a. Two independent samples
b. Two dependent samples
c. More than two groups
d. Categorical data

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 b. Two dependent samples

A paired samples t-test compares means from the same group at two different
times or under two different conditions.
Why not a, c, or d:
a. Two independent samples: This would require an independent samples t-test.
c. More than two groups: This would require ANOVA.
d. Categorical data: T-tests are not used for categorical data.

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50. If a researcher uses a Pearson
correlation, what is being measured?
a. The difference between group means
b. The strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables
c. The difference between observed and expected frequencies
d. The proportion of variance explained by an independent variable

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 b. The strength and direction of the linear
relationship between two variables
Pearson correlation measures how strongly two variables are linearly related.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. The difference between group means: This is assessed using t-tests or ANOVA.
c. The difference between observed and expected frequencies: This is assessed using
chi-square tests.
d. The proportion of variance explained by an independent variable: This is related to
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regression analysis.
51. A correlation coefficient (r) of
0.85 suggests:
a. A weak positive relationship
b. A strong positive relationship
c. A weak negative relationship
d. No relationship

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 b. A strong positive relationship

A correlation coefficient close to 1 indicates a strong positive relationship.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. A weak positive relationship: A weak positive relationship would have a lower
correlation coefficient.
c. A weak negative relationship: A negative relationship would have a negative
coefficient.
d. No relationship: A coefficient close to 0 indicates no relationship.
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52. In regression analysis, what does
the slope of the regression line
represent?
a. The predicted value of the dependent variable
b. The rate of change in the dependent variable for each unit change in the
independent variable
c. The intercept of the regression line
d. The correlation between the independent and dependent variables

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 b. The rate of change in the dependent
variable for each unit change in the
independent variable
The slope indicates how much the dependent variable changes for a one-unit change in the independent variable.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. The predicted value of the dependent variable: This is given by the regression equation, not the slope alone.
c. The intercept of the regression line: This is the value of the dependent variable when the independent variable is
zero.
d. The correlation between the independent and dependent variables: This is measured by the correlation
coefficient, not the slope. www.reallygreatsite.com
53. What is the primary purpose of
multiple regression analysis?
a. To predict the value of a dependent variable based on one independent
variable
b. To assess the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables
c. To predict the value of a dependent variable based on multiple independent
variables
d. To compare means across multiple groups

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 c. To predict the value of a dependent
variable based on multiple independent
variables
Multiple regression is used to understand the relationship between several independent variables and a dependent
variable.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. To predict the value of a dependent variable based on one independent variable: This is simple linear regression.
b. To assess the strength and direction of a relationship between two variables: This is done using correlation
analysis.
d. To compare means across multiple groups: This is done using ANOVA. www.reallygreatsite.com
54. When should a researcher use
logistic regression?
a. When predicting a continuous outcome
b. When predicting a categorical outcome with two possible values
c. When comparing means of two groups
d. When analyzing the relationship between two continuous variables

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 b.When predicting a categorical outcome
with two possible values
Logistic regression is used when the dependent variable is categorical and specifically binary (i.e., it has two possible values such as
success/failure, yes/no). It models the probability of a certain class or event.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. When predicting a continuous outcome: Logistic regression is not suitable for predicting continuous outcomes. For continuous outcomes,
linear regression is typically used. Linear regression models the relationship between a dependent variable (continuous) and one or more
independent variables (continuous or categorical).
c. When comparing means of two groups: When comparing means of two groups, t-tests (independent samples t-test or paired samples t-
test) are commonly used. These tests are designed to determine if there are significant differences between the means of two groups, not to
predict categorical outcomes.
d. When analyzing the relationship between two continuous variables: When analyzing the relationship between two continuous variables,
correlation analysis (e.g., Pearson or Spearman correlation) or linear regression is used. These methods examine the strength and direction of
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the relationship between continuous variables, whereas logistic regression is used for categorical (binary) outcomes.
55. Which measure indicates the proportion of
variance in the dependent variable explained by the
independent variable(s) in a regression model?

a. Correlation coefficient
b. Slope
c. R-squared
d. p-value

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 c. R-squared

R-squared (coefficient of determination) measures the proportion of variance in the dependent variable
that is explained by the independent variable(s). It ranges from 0 to 1, where higher values indicate a
greater proportion of variance explained by the model.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. Correlation coefficient: Measures the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two
variables but not the proportion of variance explained.
b. Slope: Represents the change in the dependent variable for a one-unit change in the independent
variable.
d. p-value: Indicates the significance of the results but not the proportion of variance explained.
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56. If a study reports a significant
interaction effect in a two-way ANOVA,
this indicates:
a. No effect of the independent variables on the dependent variable
b. Each independent variable affects the dependent variable independently
c. The effect of one independent variable depends on the level of the other
independent variable
d. There is a main effect of each independent variable

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 c. The effect of one independent variable
depends on the level of the other
independent variable
A significant interaction effect in a two-way ANOVA means that the impact of one independent variable on the
dependent variable varies depending on the level of the other independent variable.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. No effect of the independent variables on the dependent variable: A significant interaction effect implies that
there is a combined effect of the independent variables.
b. Each independent variable affects the dependent variable independently: This would describe main effects
without interaction.
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d. There is a main effect of each independent variable: This statement does not address interaction effects.
57. In psychological research, what is
the main advantage of using a within-
subjects design?
a. It reduces the risk of carryover effects
b. It allows for the comparison of different groups
c. It reduces variability due to individual differences
d. It increases the generalizability of the results

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 c. It reduces variability due to individual
differences
Within-subjects designs reduce variability because the same participants are used in all
conditions, controlling for individual differences.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. It reduces the risk of carryover effects: Carryover effects are a potential disadvantage of
within-subjects designs.
b. It allows for the comparison of different groups: This describes a between-subjects design.
d. It increases the generalizability of the results: Generalizability can be affected by other
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factors and is not a main advantage of within-subjects designs.
58. Which statistical test is appropriate
for examining the relationship between
two ordinal variables?
a. Pearson correlation
b. Spearman correlation
c. Independent samples t-test
d. Chi-square test

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 b. Spearman correlation

This test measures the strength and direction of the relationship between two
ordinal variables.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. Pearson correlation: Used for continuous, interval, or ratio-level data.
c. Independent samples t-test: Compares means between two independent groups,
not relationships between variables.
d. Chi-square test: Used for categorical data, not ordinal data.
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59. What does a significant main effect
in a factorial ANOVA indicate?

a. A significant interaction effect between the independent variables

b. A significant difference between levels of one independent variable, averaging
across the levels of the other independent variable(s)
c. No significant differences between groups
d. A need to perform post-hoc tests

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 b. A significant difference between levels
of one independent variable, averaging
across the levels of the other
independent variable(s)
A main effect in factorial ANOVA indicates that one independent variable has a significant effect on the dependent variable,
regardless of the other variables.

Why not a, c, or d:
a. A significant interaction effect between the independent variables: This describes an interaction effect, not a main effect.
c. No significant differences between groups: A significant main effect indicates that there are significant differences.
d. A need to perform post-hoc tests: Post-hoc tests may be needed to explore specific group differences, but this is not what a
main effect indicates.
60. In psychological statistics,
what is an effect size?
a. The probability of making a Type I error
b. The probability of making a Type II error
c. The magnitude of a relationship or difference in the population
d. The sample size required for adequate power

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 c. The magnitude of a relationship or
difference in the population
Effect size measures the strength or magnitude of an observed effect, providing
information beyond p-values.

Why not a, b, or d:
a. The probability of making a Type I error: This is related to the significance level (alpha).
b. The probability of making a Type II error: This is related to the power of the test (beta).
d. The sample size required for adequate power: This is part of power analysis but not the
definition of effect size. www.reallygreatsite.com
Situation: Nonparametric Counterpart of the Paired t-test

Question: A researcher has collected data on the same group of subjects before and after a
treatment. The normality assumption is violated. Which nonparametric test should be used
instead of the paired samples t-test?
a) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
b) Mann-Whitney U test
c) Kruskal-Wallis test
d) Friedman test

Correct Answer: a) Wilcoxon signed-rank test

Explanation:
- The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is the nonparametric counterpart to the paired samples t-
test, used when the normality assumption is violated for paired data.
Situation: Choosing Between One-way ANOVA and Kruskal-Wallis Test

Question: A researcher wants to compare the mean scores of three different teaching
methods on student performance. The data are not normally distributed. Which test should be
used?
a) One-way ANOVA
b) Independent samples t-test
c) Kruskal-Wallis test
d) Pearson's r

Correct Answer: c) Kruskal-Wallis test

Explanation:
- The Kruskal-Wallis test is the nonparametric counterpart to the one-way ANOVA and is used
when comparing three or more independent groups with non-normally distributed data.
Situation: Choosing Pearson's r or Spearman's Rank Correlation

Question: A researcher wants to examine the relationship between two continuous variables,
but the data are not normally distributed. Which test should be used?
a) Pearson's r
b) Spearman's rank correlation
c) Independent samples t-test
d) Chi-square test

Correct Answer: b) Spearman's rank correlation

Explanation:
- Spearman's rank correlation is used to measure the strength and direction of the relationship
between two variables when the data are not normally distributed or when dealing with ordinal
data.
Situation: Nonparametric Counterpart of the Independent Samples t-test

Question: A researcher is comparing the median income of two independent groups. The data
are highly skewed. Which nonparametric test should be used?
a) Wilcoxon signed-rank test
b) Mann-Whitney U test
c) Kruskal-Wallis test
d) Friedman test

Correct Answer: b) Mann-Whitney U test

Explanation:
- The Mann-Whitney U test is the nonparametric counterpart to the independent samples t-
test, used to compare differences between two independent groups when the data are not
normally distributed.
Situation: Choosing the Test for More Than Two Related Samples

Question: A researcher wants to compare the effectiveness of three different diets on the
same group of individuals over three different periods. The normality assumption is violated.
Which test should be used?
a) One-way ANOVA
b) Kruskal-Wallis test
c) Friedman test
d) Pearson's r

Correct Answer: c) Friedman test

Explanation:
- The Friedman test is the nonparametric counterpart to the repeated measures ANOVA, used
when comparing three or more related samples with non-normally distributed data.
Thank you,
Psychmates