SCIENCE - PHYSICS

LESSON -1 - LAWS OF MOTION

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1) Inertia of a body depends on
a) weight of the object b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
c) mass of the object d) Both a & b
2) Impulse is equals to
a) rate of change of momentum b) rate of force and time
c) change of momentum d) rate of change of mass
3) Newton’s III law is applicable
a) for a body is at rest b) for a body in motion
c) both a & b d) only for bodies with equal masses
4) Plotting a graph for momentum on the X-axis and time on Y-axis. slope of momen-
tum-time graph gives
a) Impulsive force b) Acceleration c) Force d) Rate of force
5) In which of the following sport the turning of effect of force used
a) swimming b) tennis c) cycling d) hockey
6) The unit of ‘g’ is m s . It can be also expressed as
-2

a) cm s-1 b) N kg-1 c) N m2 kg-1 d) cm2 s-2

7) One kilogram force equals to
a) 9.8 dyne b) 9.8 × 104 N c) 98 × 104 dyne d) 980 dyne
8) The mass of a body is measured on planet Earth as M kg. When it is taken to a
planet of radius half that of the Earth then its value will be____kg
a) 4 M b) 2M c) M/4 d) M
9) If the Earth shrinks to 50% of its real radius its mass remaining the same, the
weight of a body on the Earth will
a) decrease by 50% b) increase by 50% c) decrease by 25% d) increase by 300%
10) To project the rockets which of the follow-ing principle(s) is /(are) required?
a) Newton’s third law of motion b) Newton’s law of gravitation
c) law of conservation of linear momentum d) both a and c

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. To produce a displacement force is required
2. Passengers lean forward when sudden brake is applied in a moving vehicle. This can
be explained by inertia of motion
3. By convention, the clockwise moments are taken as negative and the anticlockwise
moments are taken as positive
4. Gear is used to change the speed of car.
5. A man of mass 100 kg has a weight of 980 N at the surface of the Earth

III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE.

CORRECT THE STATEMENT IF IT IS FALSE:
1. The linear momentum of a system of particles is always conserved. - False
In the absence of external force, the linear momentum of a system of particle is
always conserved.
2. Apparent weight of a person is always equal to his actual weight - False
Both apparent weight and actual weight can be greater or lesser according to the
movement of the person inside the lift.
3. Weight of a body is greater at the equator and less at the polar region. - False
Weight of the body is less at equator, more at polar region.
4. Turning a nut with a spanner having a short handle is so easy than one with a
long handle. - False
Turning effect (i.e torque) depends on perpendicular distance of the line of action
of the applied force N = F x d
5. There is no gravity in the orbiting space station around the Earth. So the
astronauts feel weightlessness. - False
When space station and astronauts have equal acceleration, they are under free fall
condition, so both astronaut and space station are in the state of weightlessness.

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
a. Newton’s I law Propulsion of a rocket
b. Newton’s II law Stable equilibrium of a body
c. Newton’s III law Law of force
d. Law of conservation of Linear momentum Flying nature of bird
Answer:
(a) Newton's law - stable equilibrium of a body
(b) Newton's II law - Law of force
(c) Newton's III law - Flying nature of bird
(d) Law of conservation of Linear momentum- propulsion of a rocket

V. TWO MARKS:
1. Define inertia. Give its classification.
 The inherent property of a body to resist any change in its state of rest or motion
is called inertia.Types of inertia: 1. Inertia of rest. 2. Inertia of motion 3. Inertia of
direction
2. Classify the types of force based on their application.
(i) Contact force: Example: pushing or pulling an object,
(ii) Non - contact force Example: gravitational force
3. Differentiate mass and weight.
Mass Weight
Quantity of matter Gravitational force exerted
Scalar quantity Vector quantity
SI unit is kg SI unit is N
Measured using a physical balance Measured using a spring balance
4. Define moment of a couple.
Couple: Two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct
points constitute a couple. Ex: Turning a tap
5. State Newton’s second law.
 The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear
momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction
of force. F = m x a
6. Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy
vehicles?
 Larger the perpendicular distance, lesser is the force required to turn the body.
 τ = F × d.
7. While catching a cricket ball the fielder lowers his hands backwards. Why?
When the fielder pulls back his hands he experiences a smaller force for a longer
interval of time leading to less damage to his hands.
8. How does an astronaut float in a space shuttle?
 Space station and astronauts have equal acceleration, they are under free fall
condition.
 Hence, both the astronauts and the space station are in the state of
weightlessness.

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
Types of Inertia 1. Inertia of rest 2. Inertia of motion 3. Inertia of direction
a) Inertia of rest: To resist a body to change its state of rest
Ex: Shaking the trees leaves fall down
b) Inertia of motion: To resist a body to change its state of Motion
Ex: An athlete runs for long jumping
c) Inertia of direction To resist a body to change its direction.
Ex: Sharp turn while driving a car
2. State Newton’s laws of motion?
a) Newton's First law:
Everybody continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion along a
straight line unless it is acted upon by some external force.
b) Newton's second law:
The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear
momentum of the body F = ma
c) Newton's third law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
3. Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion.
Let us consider, m - mass of the body, u - Initial velocity , v - Final velocity
t - time taken , F - External force
Proof: Initial momentum (Pi) = mu Final momentum (Pf) = mv
 change in momentum (∆P ) = Pf – Pi = mv – mu = m(v –u)
According to Newton’s second law of motion ,
F α rate of change in momentum
F α change in momentum / time
F α m (v – u) / t
F = k m (v –u ) / t , k – is constant( k = 1)
F = m (v – u) / t Acceleration (a) = (v – u) / t
F = ma or Force = mass x acceleration
4. Describe rocket propulsion.
 Based on Law of conservation of linear momentum and Newton’s III law of motion.
 Filled with fuel in the propellant tank
 When the rocket is fired, producing a huge momentum.
 This momentum makes the rocket project forward.
  The mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
 The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in gradual increase in
velocity of the rocket.
 At one stage, it reaches escape velocity.
5. Give the applications of universal law gravitation.
 Dimensions of heavenly bodies can be measured
 Mass, radius of the Earth, acceleration due to gravity can be calculated.
 Helps in discovering new stars and plants.
 To Explain the germination of roots using geotropism.
 To predict the path of the astronomical bodies.

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LESSON -2 -OPTICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4
respectively. The speed of light is maximum in
a) A b) B c) C d) D
2. Where should an object be placed so that a real and inverted image of same size
is obtained by a convex lens
a) f b) 2f c) infinity d) between f and 2f
3. A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is
switched on, the lens will produce
a) a convergent beam of light b) a divergent beam of light
c) a parallel beam of light d) a coloured beam of light
4. Magnification of a convex lens is
a) Positive b) negative c) either positive or negative d) zero
5. A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at focus. Then the
position of the object is at
a) focus b) infinity c) at 2f d) between f and 2f
6. Power of a lens is –4D, then its focal length is
a) 4m b) –40m c) –0.25 m d) –2.5 m
7. In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed
a) behind the retina b) on the retina c) in front of the retina d) on the blind spot
8. The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) convex mirror d) Bi focal lenses
9. Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters
found in a dictionary?
a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm
10. If VB, VG, VR be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass
prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
a) VB = VG = VR b) VB > VG >VR c) VB < VG < VR d) VB < VG > VR

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. The path of the light is called as ray
2. The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than one
3. If the energy of incident beam and the scattered beam are same, then the scattering of
light is called as elastic scattering.
4. According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely
proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength
5. Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by Iris

III. TRUE OR FALSE. IF FALSE CORRECT IT.

1. Velocity of light is greater in denser medium than in rarer medium - False
Velocity of light is lesser in denser medium than in rarer medium.
2. The power of lens depends on the focal length of the lens - True
3. Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’ - True
4. The convex lens always gives small virtual image. - False
Concave lens always gives small virtual image.

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

COLUMN - I COLUMN - II
1. Retina a) Path way of light
2. Pupil b Far point comes closer
3. Ciliary muscles c) near point moves away
4. Myopia d) Screen of the eye
5 Hypermetropia f Power of accommodation
Answer:
(1) Retina - Screen of the eye
(2) Pupil - Path way of light
(3) Ciliary muscles - Power of accommodation
(4) Myopia - Far point comes closer
(5) Hypermetropia - near point moves away

V. TWO MARKS:
1. What is refractive index?
 It is defined as ratio of the speed of light in air (or) vacuum to the speed of light
in medium. μ=c/v
2. State Snell’s law.
 The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is
equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media.
 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒊 / 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒓 = 𝝁𝟐 / 𝝁𝟏
3. Define dispersion of light
 When a beam of white light refracted through any transparent media. It is split into
its component colours.
 This phenomenon is called dispersion of light.
4. State Rayleigh’s law of scattering
 The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of
its wavelength.
 S ∝ 𝟏 /𝝀𝟒
5. Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Convex lens Concave lens
Thicker in the middle than at edge Thinner in the middle than at edge.
Converging lens Diverging lens
It is used to treat Hypermeteropia It is used to treat myopia
Produces mostly real images Produces virtual images
6. What is power of accommodation of eye?
The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called
power of accommodation of the eye.
7. What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
 Lengthening of eye ball.
 The focal length of eye lens is reduced.
 The image of distance objects are formed before retina.
8. Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
 The blue colour of shorter wavelength is scattered to a great extent.
 This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.
9. Why are traffic signals red in colour?
 Red light has longest wavelength.
 The Red light travels long distance.
 So red colour used in traffic signals.

1. List any five properties of light.

 Light is a form of energy.
 Light always travels along a straight line.
 Light does not need medium for its propagation.
 The speed of light in air is C = 3 × 108𝑚𝑠-1
 Light is in the form of waves.
 Violet light has the lowest wavelength, and red light has the highest wavelength.
2. Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermeteropia
Myopia Hypermeteropia
Short sightedness Long sightedness.
Lengthening of eye ball Shortening of eye ball.
Nearby objects can be seen clearly Distant objects can be seen clearly
The image formed before retina. The image formed behind retina.
Corrected by using concave lens. Corrected by using concave lens.

3. Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’. Construction:

 It consists of two convex lenses.
 The lens placed near the object called as objective
lens
 The lens placed near the observer’s eye is called as
eye lens
 Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with
adjustable provision.
Working:
  The object AB is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of
objective lens.
 A real, inverted and magnified image A'B' is formed at the other side of the
objective lens.
 This image behave as the object for the eye lens.
 The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A'B') falls
within the principal focus of the eye piece.
 This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A"B") on the same side of
object.

1. Applications of convex lenses:

 Used as camera lenses, magnifying lenses
 Used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
 Used to correct hypermetropia
2. Applications of concave lenses:
 Used to correct ‘myopia’
 Used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
 Used in wide angle spy hole indoors.
3. Uses of Simple microscope:
 Used by watch repairers and jewellers.
 Used to read small letters clearly.
 Used to observe parts of flower, insects etc.
 Used to observe finger prints in the field of forensic science.

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LESSON – 3 THERMAL PHYSICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. The value of universal gas constant
a) 3.81 mol–1 K–1 b) 8.03 mol–1 K–1 c) 1.38 mol–1 K–1 d) 8.31 mol–1 K–1
2. If a substance is heated or cooled, the change in mass of that substance is
a) positive b) negative c) zero d) none of the above
3. If a substance is heated or cooled, the linear expansion occurs along the axis of
a) X or –X b) Y or –Y c) both (a) and (b) d) (a) or (b)
4. Temperature is the average ___________ of the molecules of a substance
a) difference in K.E and P.E b) sum of P.E and K.E
c) difference in T.E and P.E d) difference in K.E and T.E
5. In the Given diagram, the possible direction of heat energy transformation is

Ans: a) A ← B,A ← C,B ← C

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. The value of Avogadro number 6.023 x 1023 / mol (or) mol-1
2. The temperature and heat are Scalar quantities
3. One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gm of
water through 1°C.
4. According to Boyle’s law, the shape of the graph between pressure and reciprocal of
volume is straight line

III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE,

IF FALSE EXPLAIN WHY?
1. For a given heat in liquid, the apparent expansion is more than that of real
expansion. - False
The real expansion is more (or) less than that of apparent expansion.
2. Thermal energy always flows from a system at higher temperature to a system at lower
temperature. - True
3. According to Charles’s law, at constant pressure, the temperature is inversely
proportional to volume. - False
Volume is directly proportional to temperature at constant pressure.

IV. MATCH THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-I TO THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-II

COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
1. Linear expansion (a) change in volume
2. Superficial expansion (b) hot body to cold body
3. Cubical expansion (c) 1.381 X 10-23 JK-1
4. Heat transformation (d) change in length
5. Boltzmann constant (e) change in area
Answer:
1. Linear expansion - Change in length
2. Superficial expansion - change in area
3. Cubical expansion - change in volume
4. Heat transformation - hot body to cold body
5. Boltzmann constant - 1.381 x 10-23 JK-1

V. TWO MARKS:
1. Define one calorie.
One calorie is the amount of heat required to rise the temperature of 1 gram of
water through 1°C.
2. Distinguish between linear, arial and superficial expansion.
i) Liner Expansion: When a body is heated, the length of the body changes.
αL = ΔL/L0ΔT
ii) Arial Expansion and superficial expansion: When a body is heated, the area of
the body changes . αA = ΔA/A0ΔT
3. What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
The ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its
unit volume is called as co-efficient of cubical expansion. It's unit is K -1.
4. State Boyle’s law
When the temperature is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is
inversely proportional to its pressure.
P ∝ 1/V PV = constant
5. State-the law of volume
According to this law, when the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a
gas is directly proportional to the temperature of the gas. V ∝ T or V/T = constant
6. Distinguish between ideal gas and real gas.
Ideal gas Real gas
If the atoms or molecules of a gas If the molecule or atom of a gas interact
do not interact with each other with each other
Force of attraction is very weak There is no force of attraction
7. What is co-efficient of real expansion?
The ratio of true rise in the volume of the liquid to unit original volume when the
temperature rises by one kelvin”. Its SI unit is K-1.
8. What is co-efficient of apparant expansion?
The ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in
temperature to its unit volume. Its SI unit is K-1.
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. Derive the ideal gas equation.
An ideal gas obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’s law and Avogadro’s law.
Boyle’s law, PV = constant ... (1)
Charles’s law, V/T = constant ... (2)
Avogadro’s law, V/n = constant ... (3)
Combining three equations, PV/nT = constant ... (4)
Substitute n = μNA
Equation (4) can be written as PV/ μNAT = constant
Constant, kB Boltzmann’s constant.
PV/ μNAT = kB
PV = μNA kB T
 μNA kB = R (universal gas constant)
PV = RT ... (5) This is called ideal gas equation.
2. Explain the experiment of measuring the real and apparent expansion of a liquid
with a neat diagram.
 The liquid whose real and apparent expansion is to be
determined is poured in a container up to a level.
Mark this level as L1.
 Now, heat the container and the liquid using a burner.
Initially, the container receives the thermal energy and
it expands.
 As a result, the volume of the liquid appears to have
reduced. Mark this reduced level of liquid as L2.
 On further heating, the thermal energy is supplied to
the liquid resulting in the expansion of the liquid.
 Hence, the level of liquid rises to L3.
 Now, the difference between the levels L1 and L3 is
called as apparent expansion, and the difference
between the levels L2 and L3 is called real expansion.
 The real expansion is always more than the apparent expansion.

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 LESSON – 4 ELECTRICITY
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:
1. Which of the following is correct?
a) Rate of change of charge is electrical power b) Rate of change of charge is current.
c) Rate of change of energy is current d) Rate of change of current is charge.
2. SI unit of resistance is
a) mho b) joule c) ohm d) ohm meter
3. In a simple circuit, why does the bulb glow when you close the switch?
a) The switch produces electricity. b) Closing the switch completes the circuit.
c) Closing the switch breaks the circuit. d) The bulb is getting charged.
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of
a) resistivity b) conductivity c) electrical energy d) electrical power

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. When a circuit is open, current cannot pass through it.
2. The ratio of the potential difference to the current is known as resistance.
3. The wiring in a house consists of parallel circuits.
4. The power of an electric device is a product of voltage and current.
5. LED stands for Light Emitting Diode.

III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE:

IF FALSE CORRECT THE STATEMENT:
1. Ohm’s law states the relationship between power and voltage. - False
Ohm's law states the relationship between current and voltage.
2. MCB is used to protect house hold electrical appliances. - True
3. The SI unit for electric current is the coulomb. - False
The SI unit for electric current is the ampere
4. One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to 1000 kilowatt hour. - False
One unit of electrical energy consumed is equal to kilowatt hour
5. The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is lesser than the
lowest of the individual resistances - False
The effective resistance of three resistors connected in series is greater than the highest
of the individual resistances.

IV. MATCH THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-I TO THE ITEMS IN COLUMN-II:

Column - I Column - II
(i) electric current (a) volt
(ii) potential difference (b) ohm meter
(iii) specific resistance (c) watt
(iv) electrical power (d) joule
(v) electrical energy (e) ampere
Answer:
(i) electric current - ampere
(h) potential difference - volt
(iii) specific resistance - ohm meter
(iv) electrical power - watt
V. VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS.
1. Define the unit of current.
 A charge of one coulomb flows across any cross section of conductor in
one second.
 Ampere (A) 1 Ampere = 1 coulomb / 1 second.
2. What happens to the resistance, as the conductor is made thicker?
(i) Decreases : The resistance decreases as the conductor is made thicker.
(ii) Reason: Resistance is inversely proportional to area of cross section A.
i. e., R α 1/A
3. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs, but not in fuse wires?
 Tungsten has a very high melting point.
 It will not melt when a large amount of current is passed through it and the
appliance will be damaged.
4. Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of the electric
current. Electric iron, and electric oven

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
 The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
 The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the earth.
2. State Ohm’s law.
At a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is
directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between two ends of the conductor.
V = IR
3. Distinguish between the resistivity and conductivity of a conductor.
Resistivity Conductivity
The resistance of a conductor of unit The reciprocal electrical resistivity
length and unit of cross section.
It’s unit is ohm metre It’s unit is mho metre-1
4. What connection is used in domestic appliances and why?
 Parallel connection.
 Reason: Each appliance will get the full voltage. Each of them can be put ON / OFF
independently.

VII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. a) What is meant by electric current?
 The rate of flow of charges in a conductor. I = 𝐐/𝐭
b) Name and define its unit.
 Ampere (A)
 1 Ampere = 1 coulomb / 1 second.
 A charge of one coulomb flows across any cross section of conductor in one
second
c) Which instrument is used to measure the electric current? How should it be
connected in a circuit?
Ammeter. It should be connected in a series in a circuit.
2. a) State Joule’s law of heating.
Joules’ law of heating states that the heat produced in any resistor is
Directly proportional to
 the square of the current passing through the resistor.
 the resistance of the resistor.
 the time for which the current passing through the resistor.
 H = I2Rt
b) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
(i) It has high resistivity.
(ii) It has a high melting point.
(iii) It is not easily oxidized.
c) How does a fuse wire protect electrical appliances
When a large current passes through the circuit, the fuse wire melts due to joule’s
heating effect and hence the circuit gets disconnected.
3. Explain about domestic electric circuits.
 Important components of the main box are (i) a fuse box and (ii) meter.
 Two insulated wire 1) Red wire  Live wire 2) Black wire  neutral wire.
 An electrical potential at 220 V.
 Both, the live wire and the neutral wire enter into box where the main switch
 It passes to main switch which has to two separate circuits.
 i)5A rating. ii) 15 A rating.
 It should be noted that all the circuits in a house are connected in parallel.
4. a ) What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
 It has brighter picture quality.
 It is thinner in size.
 It used less power and consumes very less energy.
 Its life span is more.
 It is more reliable.
b) List the merits of LED bulb.
 Low power, No loss of energy
 It is not harmful to the environment.
 A wide range of colours is possible here.
 Mercury and other toxic material are not required.

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 LESSON – 5 - ACOUSTICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles
a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
d) do not vibrate
2. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 m s–1. If the pressure is increased
by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature, the velocity of sound in the
gas is
a) 330 m s–1 b) 660 m s1 c) 156 m s–1 d) 990 m s–1
3. The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is
a) 50 kHz b) 20 kHz c) 15000 kHz d) 10000 kHz
4. The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 m s–1. What will be
its value when temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
a) 330 m s–1 b) 165 m s–1 c) 330 × √2 m s–1 d) 320 / √ 2 m s–1
5. If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 104 Hz at 344 m s–1, the
wavelength will be
a) 27.52 m b) 275.2 m c) 0.02752 m d) 2.752 m
6. The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from
which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
a) speed b) frequency c) wavelength d) none of these
7. Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 m s–1. The minimum
distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hear the echo, should be
a) 17 m b) 20 m c) 25 m d) 50 m

II. FILL UP THE BLANKS:

1. Rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called Vibration
2. If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the
medium would be vibrating in both north and south
3. A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at
a speed of 33 m s–1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms –
1
) 500 Hz.
4. A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits
a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent
frequency heard by the observer is 2068 Hz.

III. TRUE OR FALSE:- (IF FALSE GIVE THE REASON)

1. Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum. - False
Sound waves cannot travel through vacuum
2. Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic. - True
3. The velocity of sound is independent of temperature. - False
The velocity of sound is dependent of temperature.
4. The Velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids. - False
The velocity of sound is high in liquids than gases.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Infrasonic (a) Compressions
2. Echo (b) 22 kHz
3. Ultrasonic (c) 10 Hz
4. High pressure region (d) Ultrasonography
Answer:
1. Infrasonic - 10 Hz
2. Echo - Ultrasonography
3. Ultrasonic - 22 kHz
4. High pressure region - Compressions

1. What is a longitudinal wave?

These are the waves in which the particles of the medium vibrate along the
direction of wave motion is called longitudinal wave.
2. Why does sound faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
 Presence of moisture in air decreases the density of air.
 Velocity increases with the decrease in density.
 Hence, velocity of sound increases on a rainy day.
3. Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
The amplitude of vibration of air molecules is greater than liquid molecules, so
empty vessel produces more sound than a filled one.
4. Explain why, the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
 The ceiling of concert halls are made curved so that sound, after reflection from
the curved ceiling, reaches all the paths of the hall.
 A curved ceiling actually acts like a large concave soundboard and reflection sound
down onto the audience sitting in the Hall.
5. Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
 When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
 When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular direction.
 When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.

1. What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
 Effect of density :
The velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases. V α √1/𝑑
 Effect of temperature :
The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature. V ∝ √𝑇.
 Effect of relative humidity :
Humidity increases, the speed of sound increases.
2. a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
These are sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 kHz.
b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
 Used in SONAR to measure the depth of sea.
 Used for scanning the position of stones in the kidney.
 To make an image of a person’s internal body structure.
c) Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
1. Mosquito, 2. Dogs, 3. Bats
3. What is an echo?
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound
a) Two conditions necessary for hearing an echo:
1. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.
2. The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.
b) The medical applications of echo:
Echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography
c) Calculation speed of sound :
Speed of Sound = 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐝 / 𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞 𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞𝐧 = 𝟐𝐝/t
********************************************************************************
LESSON – 6 NUCLEAR PHYSICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Man-made radioactivity is also known as _____________
a. Induced radioactivity b. Spontaneous radioactivity
c. Artificial radioactivity d. a & c
2. Unit of radioactivity is _____________
a. roentgen b. curie c. Becquerel d. all the above
3. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by ___________
a. Bequerel b. Irene Curie c. Roentgen d. Neils Bohr
4. In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes
place i) α decay ii) β decay iii) γ decay iv) neutron decay
a. (i) is correct b. (ii) and (iii) are correct
c. (i) & ( iv) are correct d. (ii) & (iv) are correct
5. ____________ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
a. Radio Iodine b. Radio Cobalt c. Radio Carbon d. Radio Nickel
6. Gamma radiations are dangerous because
a. it affects eyes & bones b. it affects tissues
c. it produces genetic disorder d. it produces enormous amount of heat
7. _____________ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations
a. Lead oxide b. Iron c. Lead d. Aluminium
8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. α particles are photons ii. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
iii. Ionization power is maximum for α rays
iv. Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
a. (i) & (ii) are correct b. (ii) & (iii) are correct c.(iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are correct
9. Proton - Proton chain reaction is an example of __________________
a. Nuclear fission b. α – decay c. Nuclear fusion d. β – decay

10. In the nuclear reaction , the value of A & Z.

a. 8, 6 b. 8, 4 c. 4, 8 d. cannot be determined with the given data
11. Kamini reactor is located at __________
a. Kalpakkam b. Koodankulam c. Mumbai d. Rajasthan
12. Which of the following is/are correct?
i. Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
ii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
iii. The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
iv. No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb
a. (i) only correct b. (i) & (ii) are correct c. (iv) only correct d. (iii) & (iv) are correct

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. One roentgen is equal to 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second
2. Positron is an antiparticle of electron.
3. Anemia can be cured by Radio iron isotope
4. Abbreviation of ICRP International Commission on Radiological Protection
5. Dosi meter is used to measure exposure rate of radiation in humans.
6. Gamma rays has the greatest penetration power.
7. ZYA → Z+1YA + X ; Then, X is Beta particle
8. ZXA → ZYA This reaction is possible in Gamma decay.
9. The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about 3.84x10 12 J.
10. Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order
of 107 to 109 K K.
11. The radio isotope of phosphorous helps to increase the productivity of crops.
12. If the radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause leukemia.

III. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE:

IF FALSE, CORRECT THE STATEMENT:
1. Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material. - True
2. Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion. - False
Elements having atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion not fusion.
3. Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission. - True
4. Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor. - False
Natural uranium U-235 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
5. If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave as an atom bomb.
- False
If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will not behave as an atom bomb.
6. During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced. - True
7. Einstein’s theory of mass energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
- True
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING
MATCH: I
a. BARC Kalpakkam
b. India’s first atomic power station Apsara
c. IGCAR Mumbai
d. First nuclear reactor in India Tarapur
Answer:
(a) BARC – Mumbai
(b) India's first atomic power station - Tarapur
(c) IGCAR – Kalpakkam
(d) First nuclear reactor in India - Apsara
MATCH: II
a. Fuel lead
b. Moderator heavy water
c. Coolant cadmium rods
d. Shield uranium
Answer:
(a) Fuel – uranium
(b) Moderator - cadmium rods
(c) Coolant - heavy water
(d) Shield - lead
MATCH: III
a. Soddy Fajan Natural radioactivity
b. Irene Curie Displacement law
c. Henry Bequerel Mass energy equivalence
d. Albert Einstein Artificial Radioactivity
Answer:
(a) Soddy and Fajan - Displacement law
(b) Irene Curie - Artificial Radio activity
(c) Henry Becquerel - Natural radio activity
(d) Albert Einstein - Mass energy equivalence
MATCH: IV
a. Uncontrolled fission reaction Hydrogen Bomb
b. Fertile material Nuclear Reactor
c. Controlled fission reaction Breeder reactor
d. Fusion reaction Atom bomb
Answer:
(a) Uncontrolled fission reaction - Atom bomb
(b) Fertile Material - Breeder reactor
(c) Controlled fission reaction - Nuclear Reactor
(d) Fusion reaction - Hydrogen Bomb
MATCH: V
a. Co - 60 Age of fossil
b. I - 131 Function of Heart
c. Na - 24 Leukemia
d. C - 14 Thyroid disease
Answer:
(a) Co-60 - Leukemia
(b) I - 131 - Thyroid disease
(c) Na-24 - Function of Heart
(d) C- 14 - Age of fossil

V. ARRANGE THE FOLLOWING IN THE CORRECT SEQUENCE:

1. Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power
Alpha rays, beta rays, gamma rays, cosmic rays
(i) gamma rays (ii) beta rays (iii) Alpha rays (iv) cosmic rays
2. Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery
Nuclear reactor, radioactivity, artificial radioactivity, discovery of radium.
(i) radioactivity (ii) discovery of radium (iii) artificial radio activity (iv) Nuclear reactor

VI. USE THE ANALOGY TO FILL IN THE BLANK

1. Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process : Artificial radioactivity
2. Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission : Room temperature
3. Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart : Radio sodium
4. Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection : γ - ray

VII. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Define critical mass.
The minimum mass of a fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction.
Depends on the nature, density and the size.
2. Define one roentgen.
The quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58x10-4
coulomb in 1 kg of air at STP and humidity.
3. Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have
sustained chain reaction.
They absorb the neutrons.
4. What is stellar energy?
Fusion reaction that takes places in the cores of the sun and other stars results in
an enormous amount of energy.
5. Give any two uses of radio isotopes in the field of agriculture?
Radio isotope of P32 – Increase the productivity of crops.
Radio isotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites.
6. Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
It cannot be controlled It can be controlled
Spontaneous process Induced process
Alpha, beta and gamma Elementary particles-neutron Positron
Z > 83 Z < 83

7. State Soddy and Fajan’s displacement law.

When a radioactive element emits an alpha particle, a daughter nucleus is
formed whose mass number is less by 4 units and the atomic number is less by 2
units.
A radioactive element emits a beta particle, a daughter nucleus is formed whose
mass number is the same and the atomic number is more by 1 unit.

8. In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
 Due to high exposure of radiation
 Caused by atom bomb during second world war
9. Mr. Ramu is working as an X - ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not wear
the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr. Ramu?
 Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used .
 Avoid eating while handling radioactive materials.
 Dosimeters should be worn by the users to check the level of radiation.

VIII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Controlled chain reaction:
 The number of neutrons released is maintained to be one.
 The energy released due to this reacttio can be utilized for constructive
purposes.
 Used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled
manner.
Uncontrolled chain reaction:
 The number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large
amount of the fissile material.
 This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a
second.

2. Compare the properties of alpha, beta and gamma radiations.

PROPERTIES α rays β rays γ rays
Definition Helium nucleus electrons Photons.
Charge Positively charged Negatively charged Neutral particles.
Ionising power greater than β rays Comparatively low Very less ionization
and γ rays. power
Penetrating power Low penetrating Greater than that of High penetrating
α rays. power
Effect of electric and Deflected by both Deflected by both Not deflected by
magnetic field fields fields both fields
Speed 1/10 to 1/20 times 9/10 times the They travel with the
the speed of light. speed of light. speed of light.

3. What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
 Nuclear reactor:
A device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a controlled
manner to produce electricity.
 Fuel:
A fissile material is used as the fuel. Ex.Uranium.
 Moderator:
 It is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow
neutrons.
 Graphite and heavy water
 Control rod:
 To control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain
reaction.
 Boron or Cadmium rods
  Coolant:
 A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to
produce steam.
 Water, air and helium are some of the coolants
 This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity.
 Protection wall
A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to
prevent the harmful radiations.

4. Compare Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.

Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
The process of breaking up of a heavy Combination of two lighter nuclei to form a
nucleus into two smaller nuclei heavier nucleus.
Can be performed at room temperature. Extremely high temperature and pressure is
needed.
Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are
emitted. emitted.
Fission leads to emission of gamma Only light and heat energy is emitted.
radiation.

5. Explain uses of Radioactivity in medicine

 Radio sodium (Na24) is used for the effective functioning of heart.
 Radio – Iodine (I131) is used to cure goiter.
 Radio - iron is (Fe59) is used to diagnose anemia and also to provide treatment for
the same.
 Radio phosphorous (P32) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
 Radio cobalt (Co60) and radio - gold (Au198) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.

******************************************************************************
 LESSON – 7 ATOMS AND MOLECULES
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
1. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
a. 6.023 × 1023 atoms of He b. 1 atom of He
c. 2 g of He d. 1 mole atoms of He
2. Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
a. Glucose b. Helium c. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen
3. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at S.T.P
a. 22.4 litre b. 2.24 litre c. 0.24 litre d. 0.1 litre
4. Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is
a. 28 amu b. 14 amu c. 28 g d. 14 g
5. Which of the following represents 1 amu?
a. Mass of a C – 12 atom b. Mass of a hydrogen atom
c. 1/12th of the mass of a C – 12 atom d. Mass of O – 16 atom
6. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. One gram of C – 12 contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
b. One mole of oxygen gas contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
c. One mole of hydrogen gas contains Avogadro’s number of atoms.
d. One mole of electrons stands for 6.023 × 1023 electrons.
7. The volume occupied by 1 mole of a diatomic gas at S.T.P is
a. 11.2 litre b. 5.6 litre c. 22.4 litre d. 44.8 litre
8. In the nucleus of 20Ca , there are
40

a. 20 protons and 40 neutrons b. 20 protons and 20 neutrons

c. 20 protons and 40 electrons d. 40 protons and 20 electrons
9. The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is
a. 16 g b. 18 g c. 32 g d. 17 g
10. 1 mole of any substance contains ____ molecules.
a. 6.023 × 1023 b. 6.023 × 10-23 c. 3.0115 × 1023 d. 12.046 × 1023

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Atoms of different elements having same mass number, but different atomic
numbers are called isobars.
2. Atoms of different elements having same number of neutrons are called isotones.
3. Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other element by artificial
transmutation
4. The sum of the numbers of protons and neutrons of an atom is called its mass
number
5. Relative atomic mass is otherwise known as standard atomic weight
6. The average atomic mass of hydrogen is 1.0079 amu.
7. If a molecule is made of similar kind of atoms, then it is called Homo atomic molecule.
8. The number of atoms present in a molecule is called its atomicity
9. One mole of any gas occupies 22400 ml at S.T.P
10 Atomicity of phosphorous is 4
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. 8 g of O2 4 moles
2. 4 g of H2 0.25 moles
3. 52 g of He 2 moles
4. 112 g of N2 0.5 moles
5. 35.5 g of Cl2 13 moles
Answer:
1. 8 g of O2 - 0.25 moles
2. 4 g of H2 - 2 moles
3. 52 g of He - 13 moles
4. 112 g of N2 - 4 moles
5. 35.5 g of Cl2 - 0.5 moles

IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)

1. Two elements sometimes can form more than one compound. - True
2. Noble gases are Diatomic - False Noble gases are monoatomic.
3. The gram atomic mass of an element has no unit - False
The gram atomic mass of an element is exposed in grams.
4. 1 mole of Gold and Silver contain same number of atoms - True
5. Molar mass of CO2 is 42g. – False Molar mass of CO2 is 44g.

V. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Define: Relative atomic mass.
The Relative Molecular Mass of a molecule is the ratio between the mass of one
molecule of the substance to 1/12th mass of an atom of Carbon-12.
𝐀𝐯𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐠𝐞 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐢𝐬𝐨𝐭𝐨𝐩𝐞𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭
Relative atomic mass Ar =
𝟏 ⁄𝟏𝟐𝐭𝐡 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐨𝐧𝐞 𝐜𝐚𝐫𝐛𝐨𝐧 𝟏𝟐 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦
2. Write the different types of isotopes of oxygen and its percentage abundance.
Isotope Mass (amu) % abundance
8
O16
15.9949 99.757
8
O17 16.9991 0.038
8
O18 17.9992 0.205
3. Define: Atomicity
The number of atoms present in the molecule is called as its atomicity.
Ex. HCl- no. of atoms: 2 – Atomicity -2
4. Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Examples of heterodiatomic HCl, CO.
5. What is Molar volume of a gas?
(i) The volume occupied by one mole of any gas at S.T.P is called molar volume.
(ii) One mole of any gas occupies = 22.4 litre or 22400 ml at S.T.P.
6. Find the percentage of nitrogen in ammonia.
% of nitrogen in NH3 = [ Mass of nitrogen / Molar mass of NH3 ] x 100
= (14/17) X 100 = 82%
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. Give the salient features of “Modern atomic theory”.
 An atom is no longer indivisible.
 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
Ex – isotopes l7Cl35 , l7Cl37.
 Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
Ex – Isobars 18Ar40, 20Ca40.
 Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements.
 Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
Eg: Glucose C6H12O6
 Atom is the smallest particle that take part in a chemical reaction.
 Mass of an atom can be converted into energy. E = mc2.
2. Difference between Atom and Molecule.
Atom Molecule
Smallest particle of an element Smallest particle of an element or
compound.
Does not exist in free state except in Exists in a free a state
noble gas
Highly reactive Less reactive
Does not have a chemical bond Atoms in a molecule are held by chemical
bonds

3. Write the application of Avogadro’s law

 It explains Gay – Lussac’s Law.
 To determine Atomicity of gases
 To derive molecular formula of gases
 To derive the relationship between molecular mass and vapour density
 To determine gram molecular mass ( 22.4 litre at STP)

4. Derive the relationship between Relative molecular mass and Vapour density
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
(i) Relative Molecular Mass =
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐇
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐧 𝐯𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
(ii) Vapour density =
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐬𝐚𝐦𝐞 𝐕𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧

According to Avogadro’s law,

𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐧 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
Vapour density (at STP) =
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐧 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
Hydrogen is diatomic molecule so,
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝟏 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
Vapour density =
𝟐 𝐗 𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝟏 𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚 𝐠𝐚𝐬 𝐚𝐭 𝐒𝐓𝐏
2 x Vapour density =
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐟 𝟏 𝐚𝐭𝐨𝐦 𝐨𝐟 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧
2 x Vapour density = Relative Molecular Mass
Relative Molecular Mass = 2 x Vapour density

***************************************************************************************
 LESSON – 8 PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
1. The number of periods and groups in the periodic table are______.
a) 6,16 b) 7,17 c) 8,18 d) 7,18
2. The basis of modern periodic law is______.
a) atomic number b) atomic mass c) isotopic mass d) number of neutrons
3. _____ group contains the member of halogen family.
a) 17th b) 15th c) 18th d) 16th
4. _____ is a relative periodic property
a) atomic radii b) ionic radii c) electron affinity d) electronegativity
5. Chemical formula of rust is ________.
a) FeO.xH2O b) FeO4.xH2O c) Fe2O3.xH2O d) FeO
6. In the alumino thermic process the role of Al is _____.
a) oxidizing agent b) reducing agent
c) hydrogenating agent d) sulphurising agent
7. The process of coating the surface of metal with a thin layer of zinc is
called______.
a) painting b) thinning c) galvanization d) electroplating
8. Which of the following have inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell.
a) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
9. Neon shows zero electron affinity due to _____.
a) stable arrangement of neutrons b) stable configuration of electrons
c) reduced size d) increased density
10. ______ is an important metal to form amalgam.
a) Ag b) Hg c) Mg d) Al

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. If the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms in a molecule is greater
than 1.7, the nature of bonding is ionic
2. 6th is the longest period in the periodical table.
3. Atomic number forms the basis of modern periodic table.
4. If the distance between two Cl atoms in Cl2 molecule is 1.98Å, then the radius of Cl
atom is 0.99 A.
5. Among the given species A–,A+, and A, the smallest one in size is A+.
6. The scientist who propounded the modern periodic law is Henry Moseley.
7. Across the period, ionic radii decreases (increases,decreases).
8. Lanthanides and Actinides are called inner transition elements.
9. The chief ore of Aluminium is Bauxite.
10. The chemical name of rust is hydrated ferric oxide.

III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

1. Galvanisation Noble gas elements
2. Calcination Coating with Zn
3. Redox reaction Silver-tin amalgam
4. Dental filling Alumino thermic process
5. Group 18 elements Heating in the absence of air
Answer
1. Galvanisation : Coating with Zn
2. Calcination : Heating in the absence of air
3. Redox reaction : Alumino thermic process
4. Dental filling : Silver-tin amalgam
5. Group 18 elements : Noble gas elements

IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)

1. Moseley’s periodic table is based on atomic mass. - False
Moseley's periodic table is based on atomic number.
2. Ionic radius increases across the period from left to right. - False
Ionic radius decreases across the period from left to right.
3. All ores are minerals; but all minerals cannot be called as ores- True
4. Al wires are used as electric cables due to their silvery white colour. - False
Al wires are used in electric cables as they are good condutors.
5. An alloy is a heterogenous mixture of metals. - False
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of metals.

V. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. A is a reddish brown metal, which combines with O2 at < 1370 K gives B, a black
coloured compound. At a temperature > 1370 K, A gives C which is red in colour.
Find A,B and C with reaction.
Reddish brown metal A is copper.
A Cu Copper
B CuO Copper II oxide
C Cu2O Copper I oxide

2. A is a silvery white metal. A combines with O2 to form B at 800oC, the alloy of A is

used in making the aircraft. Find A and B A Al Aluminium
Silvery white metal is aluminium.
B Al2O3 Aluminum oxide
4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 (Aluminium oxide)
3. What is rust? Give the equation for formation of rust.
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric oxide
on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of formation of
rust is known as rusting.
4Fe + 3O2 + x H2O → 2Fe2O3.xH2O (rust)
4. State two conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
(i) Presence of moist air (ii) Presence of water (iii) Presence of oxygen
5. Define Alloys?
It is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or one or two more metals with
non metals.
6. What is Amalgam ? Give Example?
An alloy of mercury with another metal Ex: Silver tin Amalgam
7. State the modern periodic law.
The physical and chemical properties of the elements are the periodic function of
their atomic number.
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. Give reasons for alloying.
 To modify appearance and colour.
 To modify chemical activity.
 To lower the melting point.
 To increase hardness and tensile strength.
 To increase resistance to electricity.
2. What are the methods include to preventing of corrosion.
(i) Alloying : The metals can be alloyed to prevent the process of corrosion.
Eg: Stainless steel.
(ii) Surface Coating: It involves application of a protective coating over the metal.
It is of the following types.
Galvanization Zinc on iron sheets
Electroplating Coating the metal by electric current.
Anodizing Change the corrosion resistant. Ex: Aluminium
Cathodic Corrodible metal act as anode and the protected metal
Protection act as cathode

3. a) State the reason for addition of caustic alkali to bauxite ore during purification
of bauxite.
Caustic soda solution at 150° is added to bauxite ore to obtain Sodium Meta
Aluminate
b) Along with cryolite and alumina, another substance is added to the electrolyte
mixture. Name the substance and give one reason for the addition.
Fluorspar is added to the electrolyte mixture so as to lower the fusion temperature
of the electrolyte.
4. The electronic configuration of metal A is 2, 8, 18, 1. The metal A when exposed
to air and moisture forms B a green layered compound. A with con. H 2SO4 forms C
and D along with water. D is a gaseous compound. Find A,B,C and D.
Metal A is copper
 2Cu + O2 + CO2 + H2O → CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
[A] [B]
 Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 ↑ + H2O
[A] [C] [D]
Compound Formula Name
A Cu Copper
B CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 Basic copper carbonate
C CuSO4 Copper sulphate
D SO2 Sulphur-di-oxide
5. Metal A belongs to period 3 and group 13. A in red hot condition reacts with
steam to form B. A with strong alkali forms C. Find A,B and C with reactions.
2Al + 3H2O  Al2O3 + 3H2
[A] [B]
2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O  2NaAlO2+3H2 ↑
[A] [C]
Compound Formula Name
A Al Aluminium
B Al2O3 Aluminium oxide
C NaAlO2 Sodium meta aluminate

6. Name the acid that renders aluminium passive. Why?

 The acid that renders aluminium passive is dilute orconcentrated nitric acid.
 Aluminium becomes passive due to the formation of anoxide film on its surface.
7. a) Identify the bond between H and F in HF molecule. Ionic bond
b) What property forms the basis of identification? Electronegativity
c) How does the property vary in periods and in groups?
 Along the period, from left to right in the periodic table, the electronegativity
increases.
 On moving down a group, the electronegativity of the elements decreases.

**************************************************************************************
LESSON - 9 - SOLUTIONS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. A solution is a __________ mixture.
a. homogeneous b. heterogeneous
c. homogeneous and heterogeneous d. non homogeneous
2. The number of components in a binary solution is __________
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
3. Which of the following is the universal solvent?
a. Acetone b. Benzene c. Water d. Alcohol
4. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of
solvent at a given temperature is called _______
a. Saturated solution b. Un saturated solution
c. Super saturated solution d. Dilute solution
5. Identify the non aqueous solution.
a. sodium chloride in water b. glucose in water
c. copper sulphate in water d. sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide
6. When pressure is increased at constant temperature the solubility of gases in
liquid ___________.
a. No change b. increases c. decreases d. no reaction
7. Solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of
water how much more salt is required for saturation _____________.
a. 12g b. 11g c. 16g d. 20g
8. A 25% alcohol solution means
a. 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water b. 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
 c. 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water d. 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
9. Deliquescence is due to __________
a. Strong affinity to water b. Less affinity to water
c. Strong hatred to water d. Inertness to water
10. Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
a. ferric chloride b. copper sulphate penta hydrate
c. silica gel d. none of the above

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. The component present in lesser amount, in a solution is called Solute
2. Example for liquid in solid type solution is Mercury with sodium (amalgam)
3. Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in 100 g of solvent.
4. Polar compounds are soluble in polar solvents
5. Volume persentage decreases with increases in temperature because polar of
expansion of liquids

III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING

1. Blue vitriol CaSO4 .2H2O
2. Gypsum CaO
3. Deliquescence CuSO4 .5H2O
4. Hygroscopic NaOH

Answer:
1. Blue vitriol – CuSO4 .5H2O
2. Gypsum – CaSO4 .2H2O
3. Deliquescence – NaOH
4. Hygroscopic – CaO

IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)

1. Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution. - False
Solutions which contain three components are called Trinary solution.
2. In a solution the component which is present in lesser amount is called solvent.
- True
3. Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non-aqueous solution. - True
4. The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO4.7H2O - False
The molecular formula of green vitriol is Mg SO4.7H2O.
5. When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air, because it is
hygroscopic in nature – True

V. SHORT ANSWERS:
1. Define the term: Solution
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
2. What is mean by binary solution.
A solution consisting of two components are called binary solution.
3. Give an example each i) gas in liquid ii) solid in liquid iii) solid in solid iv) gas in
gas
i) Gas in liquid - soda water
ii) Solid in liquid – salt in water
iii) Solid in solid - copper dissolved in gold
iv) Gas in gas - mixture of Helium and oxygen.
4. What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
Aqueous solution The solution in which water acts as a E.g : salt in water
solvent
Non - Aqueous The solution in which any liquid E.g : Sulphur dissolved in
solution other than water acts as a solvent CS2

5. Define Volume percentage

The percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the
solution.
6. The aquatic animals live more in cold region Why?
The solubility of gas is more at lower temperature where as it decreases with
increasing temperature.
7. Define Hydrated salt.
The ionic substances, which contain water of crystallization, are known as hydrated
salts.
8. A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
Solubility increases with increase in temperature while decreases with decrease in
temperature. The solubility of copper sulphate at 250C is 20.7 g in 100g of water

9. Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic.

(Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride, and
Gypsum salt.)
Deliquescent substances Hygroscopic substances
Calcium chloride Conc. Sulphuric acid, Silica gel, Gypsum salt

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. Write notes on i) saturated solution ii) unsaturated solution
i) Saturated solution:
A solute in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of
the solven at a given temperature.
Ex : 36 g of NaCl in 100g of water at 250C
ii) Un saturated solution:
Solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution at
a given temperature.
Ex :10 g or 20 g of NaCl dissolved in 100g of water at 25℃

2. Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.

i) Nature of the solute and solvent
 Non polar compound do not dissolve in polar solvents. Polar compounds
do not dissolved in Non polar solvents.
ii) Effect of temperature
 a) Solubility of solid in liquid:
 Solubility of a solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.
b) Solubility of gases in liquid:
 The solubility of gas is more at lower temperature whereas it decreases with
increasing temperature.
iii) Effect of Pressure:
 When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas is also increased.
3. a) What happens when MgSO4.7H2O is heated? Write the appropriate equation
When magnesium sulphate heptahydrate crystals are gently heated, it loses seven
water molecules and becomes anhydrous magnesium sulphate.

b) Define solubility
Solubility is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in
100g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

4. In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.

Hygroscopic substances Deliquescence substances
1. They absorb moisture and do not 1. They absorb moisture and dissolve.
dissolve.
2. Do not change its physical state 2. Change its physical state
3.Amorphous solids or liquids. 3. Substance are crystalize solids.
Ex: Silica gel Ex: NaOH

5. Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath dissolves 50 g of

same sugar in 250 ml of cold water. Who will get faster dissolution of sugar? and
Why?
50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water will dissolve faster as solubility of solid solute
in liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature.

6. 'A' is a blue coloured crystaline salt. On heating it loses blue colour and to give
'B'. When water is added, 'B' gives back to 'A'. Identify A and B, write the equation.

(A) CuSO4.5H2O : Copper sulphate Pentahydrate - Blue

(B)CuSO4 : Anhydrous Copper sulphate - White

7. Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot? Explain
Cool drinks will fizz more at the top of the hill since when pressure decrease
solubility of a gas in liquid decreases so CO 2 bubbles out as a gas in a soda can.

***************************************************************************************
 LESSON - 10 -TYPES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER.
1. H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is a
a. Decomposition Reaction b. Combination Reaction
c. Single Displacement Reaction d. Double Displacement Reaction
2. Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ___________
a. heat b. electricity c. light d. mechanical energy
3. A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be
classified?
(i) Combination Reaction (ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction (iv) Irreversible Reaction
a. i and ii b. i and iv c. i, ii and iii d. i, ii and iv
4. The chemical equation Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)↓ + 2NaCl(aq)
represents which of the following types of reaction?
a. Neutralisation b. Combustion c. Precipitation d. Single displacement
5. Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii and iv c. ii, iii and iv d. i, iii and iv
6. A single displacement reaction is represented by X(s) + 2HCl(aq) → XCl2(aq) +
H2(g). Which of the following(s) could be X.
(i) Zn (ii) Ag (iii) Cu (iv) Mg.
Choose the best pair. a. i and ii b. ii and iii c. iii and iv d. i and iv
7. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
a. C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) b. 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s)
c. 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) d. 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
8. Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
(a) A(s) + B(s) → C(s) + D(s) (b) A(s) + B(aq) → C(aq) + D(l)
(c) A(aq) + B(aq) → C(s) + D(aq) (d) A(aq) + B(s) → C(aq) + D(l)
9. The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH–] concentration is
a. 1 × 10–3 M b. 3 M c. 1 × 10–11 M d. 11 M
10. Powdered CaCO3 reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO3 because of ___________.
a. large surface area b. high pressure c. high concentration d. high temperature

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. A reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralization.
2. When lithium metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is evolved.
3. The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as physical equilibrium.
4. The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its
pH Increases (increse/decrese)
5. The value of ionic product of water at 250 C is 1.00 x 10-14.
6. The normal pH of human blood is 7.35 - 7.45
7. Electrolysis is type of decomposition reaction
8. The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is one
9. Chemical volcano is an example for decomposition type of reaction
10. The ion formed by dissolution of H+ in water is called Hydronium ion
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING
REACTION TYPE ANSWER
1. NH4OH(aq) + CH3COOH(aq) → CH3COONH4(aq) + H2O(l) a) Single Displacement 1- c
2. Zn (s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) b) Combustion 2- a
3. ZnCO3(s) + Heat → ZnO (s) + CO2(g) c) Neutralization 3–d
4. C2H4(g) + 4O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + Heat d) Thermal 4- b
decomposition

IV. TRUE OR FALSE: (IF FALSE GIVE THE CORRECT STATEMENT)

1. Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid. - False
Silver metal will not be displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
2. The pH of rain water containing dissolved gases like SO3, CO2, NO2 will be less
than 7. - True
3. At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and
the products will be equal. - False
At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, there is no change in the concentration of the
reactants and the products.
4. Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the
yield. - True
5. On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is
basic. - False
On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is natural.

V. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution
of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this
reaction.
KCl + AgNO3 → KNO3 + AgCl ↓
2. Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Increase in temperature provides energy to break more bonds and thus speeds up the
reaction.
3. Define combination reaction. Give one example for an exothermic combination
reaction.
 A combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more reactants combine to
form a compound.
 Ex: On burning magnesium in air, it combines with oxygen to form magnesium
oxide. 2Mg(s)+ O2(g) → 2 MgO(s)
4. Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your
answer.
Nickel spatula cannot be used to stir the CuSO4 solution. Since Ni will displace Cu from
CuSO4 solution and Cu will be deposited on the Nickel spatula.
5. Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions
Reversible Reaction Irreversible reaction
i) It can be reversed under suitable It cannot be reversed
conditions
ii) Both forward and backward It proceeds only in forward direction
reactions take place simultaneously
iii) It attains equilibrium Equilibrium is not attained
iv) It is relatively slow It is fast

VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. What are called thermolysis reactions?
In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying heat.
As the molecule is dissociated by absorption of heat
2HgO(s) Heat→2Hg(l) + O2(g)
2. Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
(i) Precipitation Reactions :
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an
insoluble compound and a soluble compound.
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)
(ii) Neutralization Reactions :
 Acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water.
 It is called neutralization reaction as both acid and base neutralise each
other.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O(I)
3. Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
 Nature of reactant:
 The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic
acid.
 Concentration of the reactants:
 Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate.
 Temperature:
 Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature.
 Pressure:
 If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction
rate.
 Catalyst:
 A catalyst is a substance, which increases the reaction rate without being
consumed in the reaction.
 Surface area of the reactants:
 Powered reactants have more surface area. The collision of reactant particle
is increased.
4. How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
 Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. If any increases (or) decreases
leads to diseases.
 pH of the saliva normally ranges between 6.5 to 7.5. When the pH of the mouth
saliva falls below 5.5, the enamel get weathered.
  Toothpastes are generally basic it can neutralize the excess acid and prevent
tooth decay.
 Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice require acidic soil and
sugarcane requires neutral soil.
 The pH of rain water is approximately 7. Its pH less than 7. It is called acid rain.
5. What is a chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Chemical equilibrium: Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction.
CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Characteristics of equilibrium:
 In a chemical equilibrium the rates of the forward and backward reactions are
equal.
 Pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity etc., of the system remain
unchanged with time.
 Both the forward and backward reactions continue to occur even though it
appears static externally.
 In physical equilibrium, the volume of all the phases remains constant.
6. A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’. On passing
the gas ‘C’ through water, it becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
 CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
[A] [B] [C]
 CO2 + H2O → H2CO3
[C] (Carbonic acid)
A CaCO3 Calcium carbonate
B CaO Calcium oxide
C CO2 Carbon di oxide

***************************************************************************************
 LESSON 11 - CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:
1. The molecular formula of an open chain organic compound is C3H6. The class of
the compound is
a. alkane b. alkene c. alkyne d. alcohol
2. The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type
compound it is?
a. Aldehyde b. Carboxylic acid c. Ketone d. Alcohol
3. The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is ____
a. – ol b. – oic acid c. – al d. - one
4. Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous
series?
a. C3H8 and C4H10 b. C2H2 and C2H4
c. CH4 and C3H6 d. C2H5OH and C4H8OH
5. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O is a
a. Reduction of ethanol b. Combustion of ethanol
c. Oxidation of ethanoic acid d. Oxidation of ethanol
6. Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about _______ of ethanol
a. 95.5 % b. 75.5 % c. 55.5 % d. 45.5 %
7. Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
a. Carboxylic acids b. Ethers c. Esters d. Aldehydes
8. TFM in soaps represents ___________ content in soap
a. mineral b. vitamin c. fatty acid d. carbohydrate
9. Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?
a. It is a sodium salt of long chain fatty acids b. It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
c. The ionic part in a detergent is –SO3–Na+ d. It is effective even in hard water.

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible for chemical characteristics of an
organic compound is called functional group.
2. The general molecular formula of alkynes is CnH2n-2
3. In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented by root
word (root word / prefix / suffix)
4. (Saturated / Unsaturated) Unsaturated compounds decolourize bromine water.
5. Dehydration of ethanol by conc. Sulphuric acid forms ethene (ethene/ ethane)
6. 100 % pure ethanol is called absolute alcohol
7. Ethanoic acid turns Blue litmus to Red
8. The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as Saponification
9. Biodegradable detergents are made of straight(branched / straight) chain
hydrocarbons

III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

Functional group –OH Benzene
Heterocyclic Potassium stearate
Unsaturated Alcohol
Soap Furan
Carbocyclic Ethene
Answer:
1. Functional group -OH : Alcohol
2. Heterocyclic : Furan
3- Unsaturated : Ethene
4- Soap : Potassium stearate

IV. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
 Simplest Ketone is acetone
 Structural formula - CH3COCH3
2. Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of carbon chain and give
their structural formula: (i) Propane (ii) Benzene (iii) Cyclobutane (iv) Furan
(i) Propane : Acyclic (ii) Benzene : Cyclic, Aromatic
(iii) Cyclo butane : Alicyclic (iv) Furan : Hetetrocyclic
3. How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
Ethanoic acid is prepared in large scale, by the oxidation of ethanol in the presence
of alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate.

4. How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent

this pollution?
 Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable
by microorganisms present in water. So they cause water pollution.
 Remedial measures
 Replaceing detergents with branched hydro carbon chains with linear hydro carbon
chains which are biodegradable
5. Differentiate soaps and detergents.

Soap Detergent

Sodium salt of long chain fatty Sodium salt of sulphonic acids.

acids.
It is prepared from animal fats or It is prepared from crude oil.
vegetable oils.
Its effectiveness is reduced when It is effective even in hard water.
used in hard water.
It forms a scum in hard water. Does not form a scum in hard water.

Poor foaming capacity. Rich foaming capacity.

Biodegradable. Non-biodegradable.

V. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What is called homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics?
A group of organic compounds having same general formula and similar chemical
are called homologous series.
Important characteristics of homologous series:
i) Each series differs from CH2 group
 ii) All members of homologous series contain the same elements and function
group.
iii) Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar
iv) All the members can be prepared by a common method.
2. Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound: CH3–CH2–CH2–OH.
 Step 1 - It contains 3 carbon atoms (Prop).
 Step 2 - It contains single bond (ane).
 Step 3 - It contains alcohol group –OH (al)
 IUPAC of the given formula is (propanol)
3. How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
 Ethanol is manufactured from molasses.
 Molasses obtained the manufacture of sugar from sugarcane.
(i) Dilution of molasses: Molasses is first diluted with water
(ii) Addition of Nitrogen Source
If the nitrogen content of the molasses is poor, ammonium salts is added
(iii) Addition of yeast
 The solution obtained is collected to in large fermentation tanks and yeast is
added to it.
 The mixture is kept at about 303 K for few days.
 During this period, the enzymes invertase about the conversion of sucrose.

(iv) Distillation of Wash.

 The fermented liquid containing 15 to 18 % alcohol
 It is subjected to fractional distillation and becomes rectified spirit with 95.5 %
alcohol
 And then its refluxed over quick lime for about 5 to 6 hours and then allowed to
stand for 12 hours
 On distillation of this mixture, pure alcohol (100%) is obtained.
4. Give the balanced chemical equation of the following reactions:
(i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid.
Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium ethanoate and water.
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethanoic acid with NaHCO3.
Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate and liberates CO2, with brisk
effervescence. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + CO2↑ + H2O

(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichromate.

Ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid with alkaline KMnO4

(iv) Combustion of ethanol.

Ethanol is highly inflammable liquid. It burns with oxygen to form carbon dioxide
and water. C2H5OH + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O
5. Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
 Polar end is attracted to water.
 Non-polar end is attracted to dirt on the cloth.
 The non polar end of the soap molecule traps the dirt
 The polar end make the entire molecule soluble in water.
 When a soap is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called
micelles.
 The polar end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water.
 Thus the dirt is washed away with the soap.

6. The molecular formula of an alcohol is C4H10O. The locant number of its –OH
group is 2.
(i) Draw its structural formula.

(ii) Give its IUPAC name. – Butan-2-ol.

(iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated? - Saturated

2. An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular
formula C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling
compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’. Ethanoic acid (acetic acid).
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form
compound ‘B’.

(iii) Name the process. - Esterification.

*******************************************************************************
 LESSON-12 PLANT ANATOMY AND PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Casparian strips are present in the _____________ of the root.
a) cortex b) pith c) pericycle d) endodermis
2. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of
a) root b) stem c) leaves d) flower
3. The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called _________
a) radial b) amphivasal c) conjoint d) None of these
4. Which is formed during anaerobic respiration
a) Carbohydrate b) Ethyl alcohol b) Acetyl CoA d) Pyruvate
5. Kreb’s cycle takes place in
a) chloroplast b) mitochondrial matrix
c) stomata d) inner mitochondrial membrane
6. Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis ?
a) when ATP is converted to ADP b) when CO2 is fixed
c) when H2O is splitted d) All of these

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Cortex lies between epidermal and vascular tissues.
2. Xylem and phloem occurring on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle
called conjoint.
3. Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm.
4. The source of O2 liberated in photosynthesis is water.
5. Mitochondria is ATP factory of the cells

III. STATE WHETHER THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT

THE FALSE STATEMENT:
1. Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in plant. - False
Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plant.
2. The waxy protective covering of a plant is called as cuticle. - True
3. In monocot stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem. - False
In dicot stem cambium is present between xylem and phloem.
4. Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot root. - False
Palisade parenchyma cells occur below upper epidermis in dicot leaf.
5. Mesophyll contains chlorophyll. - True
6. Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration. - False
Aerobic respiration produces more ATP than anaerobic respiration.

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

1. Amphicribal Dracaena
2. Cambium Translocation of
food
3. Amphivasal Fern
4. Xylem Secondary growth
5. Phloem Conduction of water
Answer:
1. Amphicribal - Fern
2. Cambium - Secondary growth
3. Amphivasal - Dracaena
4. Xylem - Conduction of water
5. Phloem - Translocation of food

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What is collateral vascular bundle?
Collateral vascular bundle is one type of conjoint vascular bundle in which Xylem
lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery. Eg : Dicot stem.
2. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
The carbon that is used in photosynthesis comes from carbon dioxide in the air.
3. What is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Glycolysis is the common step in aerobic and anaerobic pathway.
4. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl
alcohol.
Fermentation or anaerobic respiration.

VI. SHORT ANSWERS:

1. What is collateral vascular bundle?
Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
2. Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Carbon dioxide taken from atmosphere
3. What is the common step is aerobic and anaerobic path way? Glycolysis
4. Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl
alcohol. Anaerobic respiration.
5. Give an account on vascular bundle of dicot stem.
 Vascular bundles of dicot stem are conjoint collateral, endarch and open.
 They are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith
6. Write a short note on mesophyll.
 In a leaf, the tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis is called
mesophyll.
 It is differentiated into palisade parenchyma and Spongy parenchyma.
7. Name the three basic tissue system in flowering plants.
 Dermal (or) Epidermal tissue system
 Ground tissue system
 Vascular tissue system

8. What is photosynthesis and where in a cell does it occur?

 Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organisms like green plants,
algae and chlorophyll
 Containing bacteria utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own
food.
 Photosynthesis occur in the chloroplast.
9. Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent
reaction?
 During light independent reactions, CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the
help of ATP and NADPH2.
 So light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction.
10. Write the reaction for photosynthesis.

Carbon dioxide + Water  Glucose + Water + Oxygen

11. What is R.Q?
It is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberates and the volume of oxygen consumed
during respiration.

12. Write down the functions of chloroplast

i) Photosynthesis ii) Storage of starch
iii) Synthesis of fatty acids iv) Storage of lipids.
13. What are the factors affecting photosynthesis
 External factors → Light, CO2, temperature, water and mineral elements.
 Internal factors → Pigments, leaf age, accumulation of carbohydrates and
hormones.

1. Differentiate the following: a) Monocot root and Dicot root

Dicot Root Monocot Root
No. of Xylem Tetrarch Polyarch
Cambium Present Absent
Secondary Growth Present Absent
Pith Absent Present
b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration:
Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration
Presence of oxygen. Absence of oxygen.
It occurs in most plants and animals It occurs in some bacteria
Glucose is converted into carbon dioxide. Glucose is converted into ethanol
Products : CO2, H2Oand energy Products : C2H5OH and energy

2. Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use
to obtain energy from glucose.
I) Glycolysis:
 It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose (6 carbon) into two molecules of
pyruvic acid (3carbon).
 Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm of the cell.
II) Krebs cycle:
 This cycle occurs in mitochondria matrix.
 At the end of glycolysis, the oxidation of two molecules of pyruvic acid enter into
into CO2 and water.
III) Electron Transport chain:
 NADH2 and FADH2 molecules formed during glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle are
oxidised to NAD+ and FAD+ to release the energy via electrons.
 The electrons as they more through the system, release energy which is trapped
by ADP to synthesize ATP.
 This process O2 the ultimate acceptor of electrons gets reduced to water.

3. How does the light dependent reaction differ from the light independent reaction?
What are the end product and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur
within the chloroplast?
Light dependent Reaction Light independent Reaction

It needs sunlight It does not needs sunlight

The end products are ATP and NADPH2 End product is carbohydrate, ADP and NADP
and O2
The reactants are 3 chlorophyll, sunlight The reactants are CO2, ATP and NADPH2.
and water
It occurs in thylakoid membrane of the It occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast
chloroplast.

********************************************************************************
LESSON - 13 STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. In leech locomotion is performed by
a) Anterior sucker b) Posterior sucker c) Setae d) None of the above
2. The segments of leech are known as
a) Metameres (somites) b) Proglottids c) Strobila d) All the above
3. Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of
a) Excretory system b) Nervous system
c) Reproductive system d) Respiratory system
4. The brain of leech lies above the
a) Mouth b) Buccal Cavity c) Pharynx d) Crop
5. The body of leech has
a) 23 segments b) 33 segments c) 38 segments d) 30 segments
6. Mammals are ______________ animals.
a) Cold blooded b) Warm blooded c) Poikilothermic d) All the above
7. The animals which give birth to young ones are
a) Oviparous b) Viviparous c) Ovoviviparous d) All the above

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the last 7 segments.
2. The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is
called diphyodont dentition.
3. The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called anterior sucker.
4. The blood sucking habit of leech is known as sanguivorous.
5. Kidney separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in rabbit.
6. 37 pairs spinal nerves are present in rabbit.

III. IDENTIFY WHETHER THE STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT

THE FALSE STATEMENT:
1. An anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called heparin. - False
Anticoagulant present in saliva of leech is called hirudin.
2. The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum. - False
The vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.
3. The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable. - False
The rabbit has a third eyelid called nictitating membrane which is movable.
4. Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit. - False
Diastema is a gap between incisors and premolar in rabbit.
5. The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by band of nerve tissue called
corpora quadrigemina. - False
The cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called
corpus callosum.

IV. MATCH COLUMNS I, II AND III CORRECTLY:

Organs Membranous Location
Covering
Brain pleura abdominal cavity
Kidney capsule mediastinum
Heart meninges enclosed in thoracic cavity
Lungs pericardium cranial cavity
Answer:
Brain : meninges : cranial cavity
Kidney : capsule : abdominal cavity
Heart : pericardium : mediastinum
Lungs : pleura : enclosed in thoracic cavity

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Indian Cattle Leech.
2. How does leech respire?
Leech respires through the skin
3. Write the dental formula of rabbit.
(Canines- 2/0, Incisors – 0/0, Pre Molar – 3/2, Molar – 3/3 ).
4. How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Eleven (11) pairs of testes are present in leech.
5. How is diastema formed in rabbit?
The gap between incisors and premolar forms the diastema. Diastema helps in
mastication and chewing of food in rabbit.
6. What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Lungs are attached to the two bronchi
7. Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
Pharynx acts as suction pump in leech.
8. What does CNS stand for?
CNS stands for Central Nervous System.
9. Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
As there are three different kinds of teeth (Incisors, Premolars and Molars) in
rabbit, the dentition is called heterodont.
10. How does leech suck blood from the host?
Leech attaches itself to the body of the host by suckers. Jaws of mouth causes
wound. Then the blood is sucked by pharynx.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Why are the rings of cartilages found in trachea of rabbit?
Tracheal walls are supported by rings of cartilage. Cartilage is flexible tissue. They
help in the free passage of air.
2. List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
 Blood is sucked by pharynx.
 Anterior and posterior suckers help the leech attacks itself to the body of the host.
 The three jaws inside the mouth, causes a painless Y–shaped wound in the skin of
the host.
 Blood is stored in the crop.
VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart
structure?
 Haemocoelic system - No true blood vessels.
 Haemocoelic channels – contains blood like fluid.
 There are four longitudinal channels are there:
 Dorsal channel - lies above alimentary canal
 Ventral channel - lies below alimentary canal
 Lateral channel - lies either sides of the canals.
 All the four channels connected together at 26th segment.
2. How does locomotion take place in leech?
Locomotion in leech takes place by
(i) Looping or crawling movement and (ii) Swimming movement.
i) Looping or crawling movement :
 This type of movement is brought about by the contraction and relaxation of
muscles.
 The two suckers serve for attachment during
movement on a substratum.
ii) Swimming movement :
 Leeches swim very actively and perform
undulating movements in water.
3. Explain the male reproductive system of
rabbit with a labelled diagram.
 Male reproductive system of rabbit consists
of a pair of testes.
 Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs.
 Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules
called seminiferous tubule.
 Epididymis leads to vas deferens.
  The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder.
 The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis.
 There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland and
perineal gland.
 Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

*******************************************************************************
LESSON - 14 TRANSPIRATION IN PLANTS AND CIRCULATION IN HUMANS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Active transport involves
a) movement of molecules from lower to higher concentration b) expenditure of energy
c) it is an uphill task d) all of the above
2. Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant
through a) cortex b) epidermis c) phloem d) xylem
3. During transpiration there is loss of
a) carbon dioxide b) oxygen c) water d) none of the above
4. Root hairs are
a) cortical cell b) projection of epidermal cell c) unicellular d) both b and c
5. Which of the following process requires energy?
a) active transport b) diffusion c) osmosis d) all of them
6. The wall of human heart is made of
a) Endocardium b) Epicardium c) Myocardium d) All of the above
7. Which is the sequence of correct blood flow
a) ventricle - atrium - vein – arteries b) atrium - ventricle - veins - arteries
c) atrium - ventricle - arteries – vein d) ventricles - vein - atrium - arteries
8. A patient with blood group O was injured in an accident and has blood loss.
Which blood group the doctor should effectively use for transfusion in this
condition?
a) O group b) AB group c) A or B group d) all blood group
9. ‘Heart of heart’ is called
a) SA node b) AV node c) Purkinje fibres d) Bundle of His
10. Which one of the following regarding blood composition is correct
a) Plasma - Blood + Lymphocyte b) Serum - Blood + Fibrinogen
c) Lymph - Plasma + RBC + WBC d) Blood - Plasma + RBC+ WBC +Platelets

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Transpiration involves evaporative loss of water from aerial parts.
2. Water enters the root cell through a root hair plasma membrane.
3. Structures in roots that help to absorb water are root hairs.
4. Normal blood pressure is 120/80 m Hg.
5. The normal human heartbeat rate is about 72 time per minute.
III. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
Section I
1. Symplastic pathway Leaf
2. Transpiration Plasmodesmata
3. Osmosis Pressure in xylem
4. Root Pressure Pressure gradient
Answer:
1. Symplastic pathway - Plasmodesmata
2. Transpiration - Leaf
3. Osmosis - Pressure gradient
4. Root pressure - Pressure in xylem
Section II
1. Leukemia Thrombocytes
2. Platelets Phagocyte
3. Monocytes Decrease in leucocytes
4. Leucopenia Blood Cancer
5. AB blood group Allergic condition
6. O blood group Inflammation
7. Eosinophil Absence of antigen
8. Neutrophils Absence of antibody
Answer:
1. Leukemia - Blood cancer
2. Platelets - Thrombocytes
3. Monocytes - Phagocyte
4. Leucopenia - Decrease in leucocytes
5. AB blood group - Absence of antibody
6. O blood group - Absence of antigen
7. Eosinophil - Allergic condition
8. Neutrophils - Inflammation

IV. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE. IF FALSE WRITE THE CORRECT

STATEMENT:
1. The phloem is responsible for the translocation of food. - True
2. Plants lose water by the process of transpiration. - True
3. The form of sugar transported through the phloem is glucose. - False
The form of sugar transported through the phloem is sucrose.
4. In apoplastic movement the water travels through the cell membrane and enter
the cell. - False
In apoplastic movement the water travels through the intercellular spaces and
walls of the cells.
5. When guard cells lose water the stoma opens. - False
When guard cells become turgid the stoma opens.
6. Initiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by nerves. - False
nitiation and stimulation of heart beat take place by muscles.
7. All veins carry deoxygenated blood. - False
All veins carry deoxygenated blood except pulmonary vein which carries
oxygenated blood.
8. WBC defend the body from bacterial and viral infections. - True
9. The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of the ventricular
systole produces the first sound ‘LUBB’. - True

V. ANSWER IN A WORD OR SENTENCE:

1. Name two layered protective covering of human heart.
Two layered protective covering of human heart is Pericardium.
2. What is the shape of RBC in human blood?
RBCs of human blood are biconcave or disc-shaped.
3. Why is the colour of the blood red?
Blood is colour red due to the pigment hemoglobin.

4. Which kind of cells are found in the lymph?

White Blood cells (WBC) are found in the lymph.
5. Name the heart valve associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
Semilunar valves are associated with the major arteries leaving the ventricles.
6. Mention the artery which supplies blood to the heart muscle.
Coronary artery supplies blood to the heart muscles.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during
transpiration?
 The opening and closing of the stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the
guard cells.
 When turgidity increases within the two guard cells stoma opens.
 When the guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stoma closes
2. What is cohesion?
The force of attraction between molecules of water is called cohesion
3. Trace the pathway followed by water molecules from the time it enters a plant
root to the time it escapes into the atmosphere from a leaf.
Root hair  Root  Xylem  Stem  Leaf  Stomata  Water is evaporated
4. What would happen to the leaves of a plant that transpires more water than its
absorption in the roots?
 When transpiration exceeds water absorption by the roots, the plant dehydrates.
 Dehydration affects growth, photosynthesis etc. which can result in wilting and dying
of the plant.
5. Describe the structure and working of the human heart.
 Heart is a pumping organ.
 Human heart is four chambered.
 Two upper thin walled artium.
 Two lower thick walled ventricles.
 Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from varies parts of the body.
 Right and left auricles blood into the right and left ventricles.
 Aorta supplies oxygenated blood to varies parts of the body.
 The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.
6. Why is the circulation in man referred to as double circulation?
When the blood circulates twice through the heart in one complete cycle, it is
called double circulation.
7. What are heart sounds? How are they produced?
 Lubb during the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve.
 Dubb during the closure of semilunar valve.
8. What is the importance of valves in the heart?
Valves regulate the blood into a single direction and prevent back flow of blood.
9. Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
 Landsteiner and weiner discovered Rh factor in 1940.
 It was found in rhesus monkey so it is called as Rh factor.
10. How are arteries and veins structurally different from one another?
Artery Vein
Distributing vessel Collecting vessel
Pink in colour Red in colour
Deep location Superficial in location
Blood flow with high pressure Blood flow with low pressure
Internal valves are absent Internal valves are present
11. Why is the Sinoatrial node called the pacemaker of heart?
 SA node acts as the pace maker of the heart
 It is capable of initiating impulse which can simulate the heart muscles to contract.
12. Guard cells are responsible for opening and closing of stomata.
 The opening and closing of the stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the
guards cells.
 When water enters into guard cells, they become turgid and the stoma open.
 When the guard cells lose water, it become flaccid and the stoma closes.
13. The walls of the right ventricle are thicker than the right auricles.
 Reason: The walls of the right ventricles are thicker than the right auricles.
 From the right ventricle arises the pulmonary trunk, which bifurcates to, from right
and left pulmonary arteries.
14. Differentiate between systemic circulation and pulmonary circulation.
Systemic circulation Pulmonary circulation
It occurs between the heart and the It occurs between heart and the lungs.
entire body.
It carries oxygenated from the heart to It carries deoxygenated blood from heart
around the body. to lungs.
It carries deoxygenated blood to the It carries oxygenated blood to heart from
heart. lungs.

15. The complete events of cardiac cycle last for 0.8 sec. What is the timing for each
event?
 Arterial systole - 0.1 sec.
 Ventricle systole - 0.3 sec.
 Ventricle diastole - 0.4 sec.

VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. How do plants absorb water? Explain.
 Water is absorbed along with minerals, by the root hairs, purely by diffusion.
 Root hairs are thin walled, slender extension of epidermal cell that increase the
surface area of absorption.
 Once the water enters the root hairs, the concentration of water molecules in the
root hair cells become more than that of the cortex.
 Thus water from the root hair moves to the cortical cells by osmosis and then
reaches the xylem.
 From there the water is transported to the stem and leaves.
  Once water is absorbed by the root hairs, it can move deeper into root layers by
two distinct pathways:
 Apoplast pathway : Movement of water occurs exclusively through the
intercellular
 spaces and the walls of the cells.
 Symplast pathway : Movement the water travels through the cells.
2. What is transpiration? Give the importance of transpiration.
 Transpiration is the evaporation of water in plants through stomata in the leaves.
Importance of Transpiration:
 Creates transpirational pull for transport of water.
 Supplies water for photosynthesis.
 Transports minerals from soil to all parts of the plant.
 Cools the surface of the leaves by evaporation.
 Keeps the cells turgid; hence, maintains their shape.
3. Why are leucocytes classified as granulocytes and agranulocytes? Name each cell
and mention its functions.
Granulocyctes :
1. Neutrophils : increased during infection and inflammation
2. Eosinophils : detoxification of toxins.
3. Basophils : They release chemicals during the process of inflammation.
Agranulocytes
1. Lymphocytes : They produce antibodies during bacterial and viral infections
2. Monocytes : They are phagocytic and can energy bacteria
4. Differentiate between systole and diastole. Explain the conduction of heart beat.
Systole Diastole
One complete contraction of the atrium One complete relaxation of the atrium
and ventricles of the heart constitute and ventricles of the heart constitute
heart beat. heart beat.
Conduction of heart beat:
 The human heart is myogenic in nature.
 It is situated in the wall of the right atrium
 The wave of contraction from SA node reaches the atrioventricular (AV) node
 An impulse of contraction spreading to the ventricular bundle and the Purkinje
fibres.
5. Enumerate the functions of blood.
Functions of blood
 Transport of respiratory gases
 Transport of digested food materials to the different body cells.
 It is involved in protection of the body and defense against diseases.
 It acts as buffer and helps in regulation of pH and body temperature.
 It maintains proper water balance in the body.

*******************************************************************************
 LESSON -15 - NERVOUS SYSTEM
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Bipolar neurons are found in
(a) retina of eye (b) cerebral cortex (c) embryo (d) respiratory epithelium
2. Site for processing of vision, hearing, memory, speech, intelligence and thought is
(a) kidney (b) ear (c) brain (d) lungs
3. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle (b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain (d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
4. Dendrites transmit impulse ________ cell body and axon transmit impulse ________
cell body.
a) away from, away from b) towards, away from
c) towards,towards d) away from, towards
5. The outer most of the three cranial meninges is
(a) arachnoid membrane (b) piamater (c) duramater (d) myelin sheath
6. There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves and ________ pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31 (b) 31, 12 (c) 12, 13 (d) 12, 21
7. The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the
muscle fibre.
(a) afferent neurons (b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron (d) unipolar neuron
8. Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus (b) hypothalamus (c) corpus callosum (d) pons
9. Node of Ranvier is found in
(a) muscles (b) axons (c) dendrites (d) cyton
10. Vomiting centre is located in
(a) medulla oblongata (b) stomach (c) cerebrum (d) hypothalamus
11. Nerve cells do not possess
(a) neurilemma (b) sarcolemma (c) axon (d) dendrites
12. A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water
balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of brain is supposed to be
damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) cerebrum (c) pons (d) hypothalamus

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Neuron is the longest cell in our body.
2. Impulses travels rapidly in multipolar neurons.
3. A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called stimulus.
4. Dendrite carries the impulse towards the cell body.
5. The two antagonistic component of autonomic nervous system are sympathetic
nerves and para sympathetic nerves.
6. A neuron contains all cell organelles except centrioles
7. cerebro spinal fluid maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
8. sulci and gyri increases the surface area of cerebrum.
9. The part of human brain which acts as relay center is thalamus.
III. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE, IF FALSE WRITE THE CORRECT
STATEMENT:
1. Dendrons are the longest fibres that conducts impulses away from the cell body. -
False
Dendrone are the longest fibres and they conduct impulses towards cell body.
2. Sympathetic nervous system is a part of central nervous system. - False
Sympathetic nervous system is a part of autonomous nervous system.
3. Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of human body. - True
4. Cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body. - False
Cerebellum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
5. In the central nervous system myelinated fibres form the white matter. - True
6. All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges. - False
The brain and spinal cord are covered and protected by meninges.
7. Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain. - True
8. Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus. - True
9. Pons helps in regulating respiration. - True

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column I Column II
A. Nissil’s granules Cyton
B. Hypothalamus Forebrain
C. Cerebellum Hindbrain
D. Schwann cell Peripheral Nervous
system

V. SHORT ANSWERS:
1. Define stimulus.
It refers to the changes in the environmental condition.
2. Name the parts of the hind brain.
(i) cerebellum (ii) pons (iii) medulla oblongata
3. What are the structures involved in the protection of brain?
(i) Duramater (ii) Arachnoid (iii) Piamater
4. Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key on seeing a music note is an
example of conditioned reflexes.
5. Which acts as a link between the nervous system and endocrine system?
Hypothalamus
6. Define reflex arc.
The pathway taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called reflex
arc.
VI. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. A) Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Voluntary action Involuntary action

Controlled by the brain Controlled by the spinal cord.

Initiates by our own Without your own conscious.

conscious.
Under the control of the will. Not under the control of the will.

For Ex :- Breathing, eating For EX:- heartbeat, sneezing

b)Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.

Medullated (Myelinated) Non-medullated (Nonmyelinated)
Nerve Fibres Nerve Fibres
Myelin sheath is present. Myelin sheath is absent.
White matter of brain. Grey matter of brain.
Nodes of Ranvier are Nodes of Ranvier are absent.
present
They carry impulses faster. They carry impulses slower.

2. With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.

A neuron typically consists of three basic parts:
Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.
(i) Cyton: (cell body or perikaryon)
 It help in transmission of nerve impulses to and
from the cell body.
(ii) Dendrites:
 These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic
processes that project from the surface of the cell body.
 They conduct nerve impulses towards the
cyton.
(iii) Axon:
 The axon is a single, elongated, slender
projection.
 The axons may be covered by a protective
sheath called
 Myelin sheath is further covered by a layer of
Schwann cells called neurilemma.
 Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by
depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region
between the nodes is called as internode.
3. Illustrate the structure and functions of brain.
Structure Functions
Cerebral Sensory perception, control of voluntary functions, language,
cortex thinking, memory, decision making, creativity
Thalamus Acts as relay station.
Hypothalam Temperature control, thirst, hunger, urination, important link
us between nervous system and endocrine glands.
Cerebellum Maintenance of posture and balance, coordinate voluntary muscle
activity.
Pons and Role in sleep-awake cycle, cardiovascular, respiratory and
medulla digestive control centers

4. What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the
pathway of response with a neat-labelled diagram.
(i) When someone pricks your hand with a needle, the stimulus is the pain, which is
sensed by receptor called as pain receptors in our hand.
(ii) The sensory neuron transmits the message to the spinal cord.
(iii) Spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay
neuron, which in turn transmits it to a motor neuron.
(iv) Motor neurons carry command from spinal cord to our arm.
(v) Muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately from the
needle.
5. Classify neurons based on its structure.
Based on structure the neurons classified as follows:
i) Unipolar neurons:
 Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon
and dendron.
 They found in early embryos but not in adult.
ii) Bipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an
axon while another as a dendron.
 They found in retina of eye and olfactory epithelium of nasal
chambers.
iii) Multipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.
 They found in cerebral cortex of brain

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 LESSON-16. PLANT AND ANIMAL HORMONES
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Gibberellins cause:
a) Shortening of genetically tall plants b) Elongation of dwarf plants
c) Promotion of rooting d) Yellowing of young leaves
2. The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
a) Cytokinin b) Auxin c) Gibberellin d) Ethylene
3. Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants:
a) 2, 4-D b) GA3 c) Gibberellin d) IAA
4. Avena coleoptile test was conducted by
a) Darwin b) N. Smit c) Paal d) F.W. Went
5. To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with _______
a) Auxin b) Cytokinin c) Gibberellins d) Ethylene
6. LH is secreted by
a) Adrenal gland b) Thyroid gland c) Anterior pituitary d) Hypothalamus.
7. Identify the exocrine gland
a) Pituitary gland b) Adrenal gland c) Salivary gland d) Thyroid gland
8. Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland
a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Liver d) Lungs
9. Which one is referred as “Master Gland”?
a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Auxin causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
2. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of
fruit ripening.
3. Abscissic acid causes stomatal closure.
4. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in rosette plants.
5. The hormone which has negative effect on apical dominance is cytokinin.
6. Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by parathormone.
7. In the islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete insulin.
8. The growth and functions of thyroid gland is controlled by thyroid stimulating
hormone.
9. Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to cretinism.

III A) MATCH COLUMN I WITH COLUMNS II AND III

Column I Column II Column III
Auxin Gibberella fujikuroi Abscission
Ethylene Coconut milk Internodal elongation
Abscisic acid Coleoptile tip Apical dominance
Cytokinin Chloroplast Ripening
Gibberellins Fruits Cell division
Answer:
Column I : Column II : Column III
Auxin : Coleoptile tip : Apical dominance
Ethylene : Fruits : Ripening
Abscisic acid : Chloroplast : Abscission
Cytokinin : Coconut milk : Cell division
Gibberellins : Gibberella fujikuroi : Internodal elongation

III B) MATCH THE FOLLOWING HORMONES WITH THEIR DEFICIENCY

STATES
Hormones Disorders
a) Thyroxine Acromegaly
b) Insulin Tetany
c) Parathormone Simple goitre
d) Growth hormone Diabetes insipidus
e) ADH Diabetes mellitus
Answer:
a) Thyroxine - Simple goitre
b) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus
c) Parathormone - Tetany
d) Growth hormone - Acromegaly
e) ADH - Diabetes insipidus

IV. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE, IF FALSE WRITE THE CORRECT

STATEMENT:
1. A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of
nutrient mobilization is cytokinin. - True
2. Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato. - True
3. Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits. - False
Ethylene hastens senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
4. Exopthalmic goiter is due to the over secretion of thyroxine. - True
5. Pituitary gland is divided into four lobes. - False
Pituitary gland is divided into three lobes.
6. Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum. - False
Estrogen is secreted by the graffian follicles of the ovars.

V. SHORT ANSWERS:
1. Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
Gibberellin
2. Write the name of a synthetic auxin. 2,4 D
3. Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes? Gibberellin
4. What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in female after child
birth? Prolactin or lactogenic hormone
5. Name the hormones, which regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.
Minneralocorticoids - Aldosterone
6. Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
Adrenaline or Epinephrine
7. Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones? Pancreas
8. Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys. Adrenal
VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
1. What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
 Artificially synthesized auxins that have properties like auxins are called as
synthetic auxins.
 Example: 2, 4 D (2,4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid).
2. What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
 Bolting : Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot
elongation followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
 It is induced by artificial treatment with plant hormone gibberellin.
 It causes stem elongation in plants under normal condition.
3. Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
 ABA promotes the process of abscission (separation of leaves)
 ABA promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll.
4. What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer
with reason.
 We can spray auxins to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants.
 Auxins prevent the formation of abscission layer thus delay the abscission of
leaves and fruits.
 So leaf and fruit can remain attached to the stem long time.
5. What are chemical messengers?
Hormones are powerful messengers that control and coordinate essential
processes such as growth, metabolism and fertility by carrying messges from endocrine
glands to target cells and tissues.
6. Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Endocrine gland Exocrine gland
They secrete hormones They secrete enzymes, saliva and milk

They are ductless gland They may have or may not have ducts

They are transported through blood They are transported through ducts or
stream tubes
7. What is the role of parathormone?
 The parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body.
 They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.
8. What are the hormones secreted by posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention
the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Hormoes Effects
Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone Tissues of kidney tubules
Oxytocin Tissues of uterus and mammary gland
9. Why are thyroid hormones referred as personality hormone?
 Thyroid hormones Triiodothyronine and Thyroxine
 It is essential for normal physical, mental and personality development, they are
also known as personality hormone.
10. Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if intake of
iodine in our diet is low?
 Triiodothyronine (T3) and Tetraiodothyronine.
 Less intake of Iodine leads to Goitre
VII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:
1. (a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in
plants. Ethylene.
Its three different actions in plants.
 Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits.
 Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
 Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.
(b) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
 Abscisic acid. Because it increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress.
 So, it is also called as stress hormone.
2. Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth stimulating hormone is
produced at the tip of coleoptile.
 In First experiment, Went removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles.
 The cut tips did not grow indicating that the tips produced something essential for
growth.
 In his second experiment, he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated coleoptile
tips.
 The coleoptile tips did not show any response.
 In his next experiment, he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks.
 After an hour, it grew straight up indicating that some chemical had diffused from
the cut coleoptile tips into the agar block, which stimulated the growth.
3. Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
 Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation
followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
 Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants
(Cucurbits).
 Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.
 Gibberellins are efficient than auxins in inducing the formation of seedless fruit –
Parthenocarpic fruits e.g. Tomato.
4. Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Functions of estrogens:
 It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
 It initiates the process of oogenesis.
 It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
 It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters
5. What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the
conditions different from one another?
 It Reduces reabsorption of water
 It causes an increase in urine output (polyuria)
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus
Increase in urine output Increase in blood suger level

*******************************************************************************
 LESSON 17 REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. The plant which propagates with the help of its leaves is ___________
a) Onion b) Neem c) Ginger d) Bryophyllum
2. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in ___________ .
a) Amoeba b) Yeast c) Plasmodium d) Bacteria
3. Syngamy results in the formation of _________ .
a) Zoospores b) Conidia c) Zygote d) Chlamydospores
4. The essential parts of a flower are ___________ .
a) Calyx and Corolla b) Calyx and Androecium
c) Corolla and Gynoecium d) Androecium and Gynoecium
5. Anemophilous flowers have __________ .
a) Sessile stigma b) Small smooth stigma c) Colored flower d) Large feathery stigma
6. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of ___________ .
a) Generative cell b) Vegetative cell c) Microspore mother cell d) Microspore
7. What is true of gametes?
a) They are diploid b) They give rise to gonads
c) They produce hormones d) They are formed from gonads
8. A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, get concentrated and
mature is known as
a) Epididymis b) Vasa efferentia c) Vas deferens d) Seminiferous tubules
9. The large elongated cells that provide nutrition to developing sperms are
a) Primary germ cells b) Sertoli cells c) Leydig cells d) Spermatogonia
10. Estrogen is secreted by
a) Anterior pituitary b) Primary follicle c) Graffian follicle d) Corpus luteum
11. Which one of the following is an IUCD?
a) Copper – T b) Oral pills c) Diaphragm d) Tubectomy
II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. The embryo sac in a typical dicot at the time of fertilization is 7 celled.
2. After fertilization the ovary develops into fruit .
3. Planaria reproduces asexually by Regeneration .
4. Fertilization is Internal in humans
5. The implantation of the embryo occurs at about 7th day of fertilization
6. Colostrum is the first secretion from the mammary gland after child birth
7. Prolactin is a hormone produced by pituitary gland .

III (A) MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column 1 Column 2
Fission Spirogyra
Budding Amoeba
Fragmentation Yeast
Answer:
Fission : Amoeba
Budding : Yeast
Fragmentation : Spirogyra
(B) MATCH THE FOLLOWING TERMS WITH THEIR RESPECTIVE MEANINGS
a) Parturition 1) Duration between pregnancy and birth
b) Gestation 2) Attachment of zygote to endometrium
c) Ovulation 3) Delivery of baby from uterus
d) Implantation 4) Release of egg from Graafian follicle
Answer:
a) Parturition - Delivery of baby from uterus
b) Gestation - Duration between pregnancy and birth
c) Ovulation - Release of egg from Graafian follicle
d) Implantation - Attachment of zygote to endometrium

IV. STATE WHETHER THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OR FALSE.

CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENT
1. Stalk of the ovule is called pedicle. - False
Stalk of the ovule is called funicle.
2. Seeds are the product of asexual reproduction. - False
Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction.
3. Yeast reproduces asexually by means of multiple fission. - False
Yeast reproduces asexually by budding.
4. The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called
as style. - False
The part of the pistil which serves as a receptive structure for the pollen is called stigma.
5. Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollen. - False
Wind pollinated flowers are characterized by dry and smooth pollens, (or)
Insect pollinated flowers are characterized by large and spiny pollens.
6. Sex organs produce gametes which are diploid. - False
Sex organs produce gametes which are haploid,
7. LH is secreted by the posterior pituitary. -False
LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
8. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. - True
9. Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation. - False
Surgical methods of contraception prevent fertilization.
10. The increased level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for
menstruation. - False
The decrease in level of estrogen and progesterone is responsible for menstruation.

V. ANSWER IN A WORD OR SENTENCE:

1. If one pollen grain produces two male gametes, how many pollen grains are
needed to fertilize 10 ovules?
 Ten pollen grains are needed to fertilize 10 ovules.
 Because of double fertilization.
2. In which part of the flower germination of pollen grains takes place?
 Stigma surface of the flower.
3. Name two organisms which reproduces through budding.
 Yeast and Bryophyllum.
4. Mention the function of endosperm.
  Nutritive tissue.
 It provides food to the developing embryo.
5. Name the hormone responsible for the vigorous contractions of the uterine
muscles.
 Oxytocin
6. What is the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm?
 Hyaluronidase – helps to enter sperm into developing embryo.
7. When is World Menstrual Hygiene Day observed? May 28.
8. What is the need for contraception ?
 Contraception is one of the best birth control measures.
9. Name the part of the human female reproductive system where the following
occurs. a. Fertilization - Ampulla of fallopian tube
b. Implantation - in the uterus.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION:

1. What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
 If we cut a Planaria into small fragments, over time each piece will regenerate into
a complete worm by the process regeneration.
2. Why is vegetative propagation practiced for growing some type of plants?
 Some plants have reduced power of sexual reproduction.
 Seeds of some plants have long dormant period or poor viability.
 It is a rapid and easier method.
 Good characters can be preserved
3. How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Binary fission Multiple fission
A single parent cell divides into two A single parent cell divides into many
daughter cells daughter cells
It occurs during favourable It occurs during unfavourable
conditions eg: Amoeba conditions eg: Plasmodium

4. Define triple fusion.

 The fusion of second sperm (n) with secondary nucleus (2n) is known as triple
fusion. As the result of triple fusion endosperm nucleus is formed.
 Second sperm (n) + Secondary nucleus (2n) = Endosperm nucleus (3n).
5. Write the characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.
 To attract insects these flowers are brightly coloured, have smell and nectar.
 The pollen grains are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny etc., so they can be
adhered firmly on the sticky stigma.
6. Name the secondary sex organs in male
 Penis.
 Prostate gland.
 Vas deferens, etc.
7. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?
 The first fluid which is released from the mammary gland after child birth is called
as colostrum.
 Milk production is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.
 The ejection of milk is stimulated by posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin.
8. How can menstrual hygiene be maintained during menstrual days?
 Sanitary pads should be changed regularly.
 Use of warm water to clean genitals helps to get rid of menstrual cramps.
 Wearing of loose clothing.
9. How does developing embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother's body?
 The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of special tissue
called placenta.
 Umbilical cord connects the placenta and foetus.
10. Write the events involved in the sexual reproduction of a flowering plant
a. Discuss the first event and write the types:
Pollination. 1. Self-pollination 2. Cross pollination
b. Mention the advantages and the disadvantages of that event.
Advantages:
 Self-pollination is possible in certain bisexual flowers.
 Flowers do not depend on agents for pollination.
 More viable seeds are produced.
Disadvantages:
 More wastage of pollen grains.
 The seeds are less in numbers.
 It may introduce some unwanted characters.
12. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch
in which they are present.
 Because spermatogenesis need slightly lower than the normal temperature.
 Testes are present in the scrotum.
13. Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is also called the secretory phase. Give
reason.
 Female hormones like Estrogen and progesterone secrete in this phase. So it is
called secretory phase.

VIII. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. With a neat labelled diagram describe the parts of a typical angiospermic ovule.
Structure of the Ovule :
 Nucleus is enclosed by two
integuments leaving an opening
called as micropyle.
 The ovule is attached to the ovary
wall by a stalk known as funiculus.
 Chalaza is the basal part.
 The embryo sac contains seven cells
and the eighth nuclei located within
the nucelus.
 Three cells at the micropylar end
form the egg apparatus
 The three cells at the chalaza end are
the antipodal cells.
2. What are the phases of menstrual cycle? Indicate the changes in the ovary and
uterus.

Phase Days Changes in Ovary Changes in Uterus

Menstrual 4–5 days Development of primary Breakdown of uterine endometrial
phase follicles lining leads to bleeding
Follicular 6th–13th Primary follicles grow Endometrium regenerates through
phase day into mature Graafian proliferation
follicle
Ovulatory 14th day The Graafian follicle Increase in endometrial thickness
phase ruptures, and releases
the ovum(egg)
Luteal 15th– Emptied Graafian follicle If fertilization take place –
phase 28th day develops into corpus Endometrium prepared for
luteum implantation.
If fertilization does not take place –
corpus luteum regenerate.

**************************************************************************************
LESSON - 18 GENETICS
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. According to Mendel alleles have the following character
a) Pair of genes b) Responsible for character
c) Production of gametes d) Recessive factors
2. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to
a) Segregation b) Crossing over c) Independent assortment d) Recessiveness
3. The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell
division
a) Chromomere b) Centrosome c) Centromere d) Chromonema
4. The centromere is found at the centre of the ________________ chromosome.
a) Telocentric b) Metacentric c) Sub-metacentric d) Acrocentric
5. The _____________ units form the backbone of the DNA.
a) 5 carbon sugar b) Phosphate c) Nitrogenous bases d) Sugar phosphate
6. Okasaki fragments are joined together by ___________________.
a) Helicase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA primer d) DNA ligase
7. The number of chromosomes found in human beings are __________________.
a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome c) 46 autosomes
d) 46 pairs autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
8. The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called ___________.
a) Tetraploidy b) Aneuploidy c) Euploidy d) polyploidy

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called alleles.
2. Physical expression of a gene is called phenotype
3. The thin thread like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are
called chromosomes.
4. DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains
5. An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is
called mutation.

III. IDENTIFY WHETHER THE STATEMENT ARE TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT

THE FALSE STATEMENT:
1. A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 3:1. - False
A typical mendelian dihybrid ratio of F2 generation is 9:3:3:1.
2. A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor. - False
The expression of a recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
3. Each gamete has only one allele of a gene. - True
4. Hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent. - True
5. Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendages known as
telomere. - False
Some of the chromosome have an elongated knob-like appendage known as satellite.
6. New nucleotides are added and new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the
help of enzyme DNA polymerase. - True
7. Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 45 chromosomes. - False
Down's syndrome is the genetic condition with 47 chromosmes.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Autosomes Trisomy 21
2. Diploid condition 9:3:3:1
3. Allosome 22 pair of chromosome
4. Down’s syndrome 2n
5. Dihybrid ratio 23rd pair of chromosome
Answer:
1. Autosomes - 22 pairs of chromosome
2. Diploid condition - 2n
3. Allosome - 23rd pair of chromosome
4. Downs syndrome - Trisomy 21
5. Dihybrid ratio - 9:3:3:1

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are
studied?
A cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters are studied is
called Dihybrid cross.
2. Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical?
Homozygous - the conditions when both the alleles are identical ( TT or tt)
3. A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species
produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant trait?
The dominant trait is axial white flower.
4. What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the
inheritance of a particular character?
Gene is the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a
particular character
5. Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
Hydrogen bond binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
VI. SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS:
1. Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
 The flowers are bisexual.
 It is easy to cross–pollinate.
 It has a short life span.
 It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
2. What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
 Phenotype : External expression of a particular trait.
 Genotype : Genetic expression of an organism.
3. What are allosomes?
 Sex chromosomes.
 Responsible for sex determination.
 A male has XY chromosome.
 A female has XX chromosome.
4. What are Okazaki fragments?
Okazaki fragments are short sequences of DNA nucleotides which are synthesized
discontinuously and later linked together by enzyme DNA ligase to create the lagging
strand during DNA replication.
5. Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
 Organisms with multiples of the basic chromosome set are called euploid.
 Plants with euploidy condition have increased fruit and flower size.
 Plants and animals with euploidy condition are typically sterile.
6. A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F1
and F2 generations? Explain.
 F1 plants are Hybrid tall (Tt)
 In the F2 generation 3 different type were obtained.
 Tall Homozygous - TT - pure - 1
 Tall Heterozygous - Tt - 2
 Dwarf Homozygous - tt – F1 plants are Hybrid tall (Tt)
7. Explain the structure of a chromosome.
 Chromosome made up of two sister chromatids.
 Joined together by centromere.
 The chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA,
chromosomal proteins (Histones and non–
histones) and certain metallic ions.
 These proteins provide structural support to the
chromosome.
 Some chromosomes has a knob like structure
called satellite.
 Chromosomes with satellite called SAT
chromosome.
8. Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given
below. Explain the structure briefly.
 A sugar molecules – Deoxyribose sugar.
 A nitrogenous base. There are two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA.
 They are; Purines (Adenine and Guanine).
 Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine).
  A phosphate group.

VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. Explain with an example the inheritance of dihybrid cross. How is it different from
monohybrid cross?
Monohybrid cross Dihybrid cross
The inheritance of one pair of The inheritance of two pairs of
contrasting characteristics contrasting characteristics
The phenotypic ratio is 3:1 The phenotypic ratio is 9:3:3:1
 Dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of
two pairs of contrasting characteristics (or
contrasting traits) at the same time.
 Characters (a) Yellow Round and (b) Green
wrinkled.
 The parental gametes are RY and ry.
 The F1 generation were RrYy.
 The F1 hybrids are self fertilized for F2
generation.
 The ratio of each phenotype (or appearance)
of seeds in the F2 generation is 9:3:3:1.
 This is known as the Dihybrid ratio.
2. How is the structure of DNA organised?
What is the biological significance of DNA?
Structure of DNA:
 DNA – Deoxy Ribose Nucleic Acid.
 Proposed by Watson and Crick in 1959.
 DNA is made up of 4 Base pairs of Nucleotides.
 Adenine always pairs with Thymine with two hydrogen bond.
 Guanine always pairs with Cytosine with three hydrogen bond.
 Each turn of the double helix is 34 A°
Significance:
 It is responsible for the transmission of hereditary information from one
generation to next generation.
 It contains information required for the formation of proteins.
 It controls the developmental process and life
activities of an organism.
3. The sex of the new born child is a matter of
chance and neither of the parents may be considered
responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion
of gametes to determine the sex of the child?
 Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.
 22 pairs are called Autosomes.
 23rd pair called Allosomes.
 Males are heterogametic (44 XX+ XY)
 Females are homogametic (44XX + XX)
 Father determines the sex of the child.
 LESSON 19 ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. Biogenetic law states that ______________
a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
2. The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by ______________.
a) Charles Darwin b) Ernst Haeckel c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck d) Gregor Mendel
3. Paleontologists deal with
a) Embryological evidences b) Fossil evidences
c) Vestigial organ evidences d) All the above
4. The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by
a) Radio-carbon method b) Uranium lead method
c) Potassium-argon method d) Both (a) and (c)
5. The term Ethnobotany was coined by
a) Khorana b) J.W. Harsbberger c) Ronald Ross d) Hugo de Vries

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the
environmental changes are called adaptation.
2. The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called vestigial
organs.
3. The forelimbs of bat and human are examples of homologous organs.
4. The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by Charles Darwin.

III. STATE TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT THE FALSE STATEMENTS

1. The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin. - False
The Use and Disuse theory of organs was postulated by Lamarck.
2. The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have
different origin and developmental pattern. - False
The homologous organs look dissimilar and perform different functions but they
have similar origin and developmental pattern.
3. Birds have evolved from reptiles. - True

IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING

Column A Column B
a) Atavism caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
b) Vestigial organs a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
c) Analogous organs rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
d) Homologous organs a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
e) Wood park radiocarbon dating
f) W.F. Libby Thiruvakkarai
Column A : Column B
(a) Atavism : rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
(b) Vestigial organs : caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
(c) Analogous organs : a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
(d) Homologous organs : a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
(e) Wood park : Thiruvakkarai
(f) W. F. Libby : radiocarbon dating

V. ANSWER IN A WORD OR SENTENCE

1. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look
dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these
organs? Homologous organs.
2. Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Archaeopteryx is considered to be the fossil bird.
3. What is the study of fossils called?
The study of fossils is called Palaeontology.

VI. SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS:

1. The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired
character?
 The kiwi was flying bird in New Zealand.
 They did not attempt to fly because of no enemies on the land.
 Generation after generation resulting degeneration of wings and loss flight.
 This character is acquired due to environmental changes.
 So the degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character.
2. Why is Archaeopteryx considered to be a connecting link?
 Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird.
 It is considered as a connecting link between birds and reptiles.
 It had wings and feathers like birds.
 It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptiles.
3. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
 Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the
traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:
 It provides traditional uses of plant.
 It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
 The ethnomedicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for the
chemists,
 pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.
 Tribal communities utilize ethnomedicinal plant parts like bark, stem, roots,
leaves, flower bud, flowers, fruits, seeds, oils, resins, dyes, gum for the treatment
of diseases like diarrhoea, fever, headache, diabetes, jaundice, snakebites, leprosy,
etc.
4. How can you determine the age of the fossils?
 The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. They may be
carbon, uranium, lead or potassium.
Radioactive carbon (C14) dating method :
 This method was discovered by W.F. Libby (1956).
 Carbon consumption of animals and plants stops after death and since then, only
the decaying process of C14 occurs continuously. The time passed since death of a
 plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of C14 present in their
body.
5. How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Homologous organs Analogous organs
They have inherited from common They have different origin with different
ancestors with similar developmental development pattern
pattern in embryos

Homologous organs look dissimilar The analogous organs look similar and
and adapted for different functions. perform similar functions.

**************************************************************************************
LESSON 20 PLANT BREEDING AND BIOTECHNOLOGY
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
1. Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is
inexperienced?
a. clonal selection b. mass selection
c. pureline selection d. hybridisation
2. Pusa Komal is a disease resistant variety of _________.
a. sugarcane b. rice c. cow pea d. maize
3. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against
rust pathogens is a variety of __________.
a. chilli b. maize c. sugarcane d. wheat
4. The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is
_______ a. IR 8 b. IR 24 c. Atomita 2 d. Ponni
5. Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by
biotechnology techniques?
a. enzyme from organism b. live organism c. vitamins d. both (a) and (b)
6. We can cut the DNA with the help of
a. scissors b. restriction endonucleases c. knife d. RNAase
7. rDNA is a
a. vector DNA b. circular DNA
c. recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA d. satellite DNA
8. DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying ________
sequences of DNA
a. single stranded b. mutated c. polymorphic d. repetitive
9. Organisms with modified endogenous gene or a foregin gene are also known as
a. transgenic organisms b. genetically modified c. mutated d. both a and b
10. In a hexaploid wheat( 2n = 6 x = 42 ) the haploid (n) and the basic(x) number of
chromosomes respectively are
a. n = 7 and x = 21 b. n = 21 and x = 21 c. n = 7 and x = 7 d. n = 21 and x = 7

II. FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by plant breeding.
2. A protein rich wheat variety is Atlas 66.
3. Colchicine is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
4. The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients is
called fortification.
5. Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but atomita 2 is a rice variety produced by
mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
6. Gene therapy technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
7. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known
as restriction site.
8. Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for identical twins.
9. Callus cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
10. In gene cloning the DNA of interest is integrated in a vector.

III. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE. IF FALSE, WRITE THE CORRECT

STATEMENT
1. Raphano brassica is a man-made tetraploid produced by colchicine treatment. -
True
2. The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is
called mutation. - False
The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is
called polyploidy.
3. A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual
reproduction are called a pureline. - False
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual
reproduction are called a Clone.
4. Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant -
False
Amino acid rich fortified rice variety containing more amino acids determines
the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
5. Golden rice is a hybrid. - False
Golden rice is a genetically modified plant.
6. Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects. - False
Bt gene from bacteria produces a toxin that can kill insects.
7. In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body. - False
In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation taking place outside the body by
artificial means.
8. DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey. - True
9. Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases. - False
Molecular scissors refers to restriction endonucleases.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
Column A Column B
1. Sonalika Phaseolus mungo
2. IR 8 Sugarcane
3. Saccharum Semi-dwarf wheat
4. Mung No. 1 Ground nut
5. TMV– 2 Semi-dwarf Rice
6. Insulin Bacillus thuringienesis
7. Bt toxin Beta carotene
8. Golden rice first hormone produced using rDNA technique
Answer
1. Sonalika - Semi-dwarf wheat
2. IR8 - Semi-dwarf Rice
3. Saccharum - Sugarcane
4. Mung No. 1 - Phaseolus mungo
5. TMV-2 - Ground nut
6. Insulin - first hormone produced using rDNA technique
7. Bt toxin - Bacillus thuringienesis
8. Golden rice - Beta carotene

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Atlas 66
2. Define genetic engineering.
 It is technique of transfer of genes from one organism to another organism to
create a new DNA called r DNA.
 It is also called recombinant DNA technology.
3. Name the types of stem cells.
 Somatic stem cell.
 Embryonic stem cell.
4. What are transgenic organisms?
 Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene is
known as transgenic organisms.
5. State the importance of biofertiliser.
 It is used to develop the crop plants enriched with high level of desirable nutrients
like vitamins, proteins and minerals.

VII. SHORT ANSWERS QUESTIONS:

1. Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
 Plant diseases are caused by pathogens like viruses, bacteria and fungi.
 This affects crop yield. Hence, it is important to develop disease resistant varieties
of crops, that would increase the yield and reduce the use of fungicides and
bactericides.
2. Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high
productivity.
 Higher yield with better quality. eg: Protein Rich Atlas 66
 Resistance to diseases. eg: Himgiri
 Shorter duration / Semidwarf. eg: Sonalika and Kalyan Sona.
3. Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Lysine (Amino acid ) rich maize hybrids are; Protina, Shakti and Rathna.
4. Distinguish between a. somatic gene therapy and germ line gene therapy
Somatic Gene Therapy Germ line Gene Therapy
It is the replacement of defective It is the replacement of defective
gene in somatic cell. gene in germ cell (sperm and egg)
 Correction of genetic defects is It may not be carried to next
beneficial to patient. It may not be generation and will be beneficial to
carried to next generation next generation.

B. Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells

Undifferentiated cells Differentiated cells
They are unspecialized mass of cells. They become specialized cells for doing
certain jobs
Example: Cells in early embryos are Example: These cells become a liver cell, a
undifferentiated. blood cell, or a neuron, muscle cells, skin
cells, etc.

5. State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.

 It is used in forensic lab to identify the culprit.
 It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
 It is also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and
speciation.
6. How are stem cells useful in regenerative process?
 In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s
disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.
7. Differentiate between out breeding and inbreeding.
Out breeding In breeding
It is the breeding of unrelated It is the breeding of closely related
animals. animals.
Cross between two different species Superior males and superior females
with desirable features of economic of the same breed and identified and
value are mated. mated in pairs.

VIII. LONG ANSWERS QUESTIONS:

1. What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.
 Increased production of milk by cattle.
 Increased production of egg by poultry.
 High quality of meat is produced.
 Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.
2. Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Mutation Breeding is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide
sequence of DNA in an organism.
Achievements of Mutation breeding
 Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora 64 by using gamma rays.
 Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
 Groundnut with thick shells
3. Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
 It is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of
desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.
 Bio fortification is effective in removing hidden hunger and improving the
nutritional value.
 Iron rich fortified rice variety.
  Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
 Vitamins enrich carrots, pumpkin and spinach.
4. With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
 Cloning – making of an identical copies.
 Isolate the gene of interest.
 Cut by using restriction enzymes.
 Insert in bacteria with plasmid.
 Transfer r DNA into a bacterial cell.
 Selection and multiplication.

5. Discuss the importance of biotechnology

in the field of medicine.
 Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
 HGH for growth deficiencies.
 Blood clotting factors for haemophilia.
 Tissue plasminogen activator to dissolve blood clot and to prevent heart attack.
 Vaccines for hepatitis B and Vaccines for rabies.

*******************************************************************************
LESSON 21 - HEALTH AND DISEASE
I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER :
1. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline. The
component causing this could be
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Leptin
2. World 'No Tobacco Day' is observed on
a) May 31 b) June 6 c) April 22 d) October 2
3. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because
they are
a) Different in structure b) Non-dividing
c) Mutated Cells d) Undergoing rapid division
4. Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
a) Carcinoma b) Sarcoma c) Leukemia d) Lymphoma
5. Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to
a) Loss of memory b) Cirrhosis of liver
c) State of hallucination d) Supression of brain function
6. Coronary heart disease is due to
a) Streptococci bacteria b) Inflammation of pericardium
c) Weakening of heart valves d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
7. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called
a) Leukemia b) Sarcoma c) Carcinoma d) Lipoma
8. Metastasis is associated with
a) Malignant tumour b) Benign tumour
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Crown gall tumour
9. Polyphagia is a condition seen in
a) Obesity b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Diabetes insipidus d) AIDS
10. Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
a) Eyes b) Auditory region c) Liver d) Central nervous system

II. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE, IF FALSE WRITE THE CORRECT

STATEMENT
1. AIDS is an epidemic disease. - True
2. Cancer causing genes are called Oncogenes. - True
3. Obesity is characterized by tumour formation. - False
Cancer is characterized by tumour formation.
4. In leukemia both WBCs and RBCs increase in number. - False
In Leukemia WBC increases in number.
5. Study of cause of disease is called etiology. - True
6. AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes. - True
7. Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency. - False
Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to low activity by Insulin.
8. Carcinogens are cancer causing agents. - True
9. Nicotine is a narcotic drug. - True
10. Cirrhosis is associated with brain disorder. - False
Cirrhosis is associated with liver disorder.

III. EXPAND THE FOLLOWING ABBREVIATIONS:

1. IDDM - Insulin Dependent Diabetes mellitus.
2. HIV - Human Immuno-deficiency Virus
3. BMI - Body Mass Index.
4. AIDS - Acquired Immuno deficiency Syndrome.
5. CHD - Coronary Heart Disease.
6. NIDDM - Non Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus.
IV. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Sarcoma Stomach cancer
2. Carcinoma Excessive thirst
3. Polydipsia Excessive hunger
4. Polyphagia Lack of blood flow to heart muscle
5. Myocardial Infarction -Connective tissue cancer
Answer:
1. Sarcoma - Connective tissue cancer
2. Carcinoma - Stomach cancer
3. Polydipsia - Excessive thirst
4. Polyphagia - Excessive hunger
5. Myocardial Infarction - Lack of blood flow to heart muscle

V. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Cirrhosis is caused in liver due to excessive use of Alcohol
2. A highly poisonous chemicals derived from tobacco is Nicotine
3. Blood cancer is called Leukemia.
4. Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called tolerance
5. Insulin resistance is a condition in Type II diabetes mellitus
 VI. ANALOGY TYPE QUESTIONS. IDENTIFY THE FIRST WORDS AND THEIR
RELATIONSHIP AND SUGGEST A SUITABLE WORD FOR THE FOURTH BLANK
1. Communicable: AIDS: Non communicable: Diabetes mellitus
2. Chemotherapy: Chemicals: Radiation therapy: Radiation
3. Hypertension:Hypercholesterolomia: Glycosuria: Hyperglycemia

VII. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:

1. What are psychotropic drugs?
 Psychotropic drugs - which acts on the brain and alter the behavior,
consciousness, power of thinking and perception.
 They are referred as mood altering drugs.
2. Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
 Lung cancer
 Bronchitis
 Pulmonary tuberculosis
 Emphysema, etc.
3. What are the contributing factors for Obesity?
 Obesity is due to genetic factors, physical inactivity, eating habits (overeating) and
endocrine factors.
4. What is adult onset diabetes?
Non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
5. What is metastasis?
The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues.
This process is called metastasis.
6. How does insulin deficiency occur?
Insulin deficiency occurs due destruction of β-cells of the pancreas.

VIII. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:

1. What are the various routes by which transmission of human immuno deficiency
virus takes place?
 Sexual contact with infected person.
 Use of contaminated needles or syringe.
 Transfusion of affected blood and blood products.
 From infected mother to child through placenta
2. How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Cancer cell Normal cell
The size of the nucleus is large. Normal, small size of nucleus is present.
Multiply indefinitely. The cells are normally divide.
They are less differentiated. They are will differentiated.
3. Differentiate between Type-I and Type-II Diabetes mellitus.
Factors Type I - Insulin dependent Type II - Non-insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus (IDDM) diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)

Prevalence 10 - 20% 80 - 90%

Age of Onset Juvenile onset (< 20 years) Maturity onset(> 30 years)

Body weight Normal or Underweight Obese

Defect Insulin deficiency due to destruction Target cells do respond to insulin
of β-cells
Treatment Insulin administration is necessary Can be controlled by diet,
exercise and medicine.

IX. ANSWER IN DETAIL:

1. Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
 Education and counseling:
 Counseling the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept
failures in their life.
 Physical activity:
 Activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
 Seeking help:
 The affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and
peers.
 This will help them to share their wrong doing and get rid of the habit.
 Medical assistance:
 Seek the help from psychologists and psychiatrists to lead a peaceful life.
 Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful to the
individual to live a normal and healthy life.
2. Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can
it be modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
 Diet Management:
 Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol rich
food, low
 carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications.
 Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential.
 Physical activity:
 Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for body weight
maintenance.
 Addictive substance avoidance:
 Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided

*********************************************************************************
LESSON - 22 - ENVIRONMENTAL MANAGEMENT

I. FILL IN THE BLANKS:

1. Deforestation leads to decrease in rainfall.
2. Removal of soil particles from the land is called soil erosion.
3. Chipko movement is initiated against deforestation.
4. Nilgiris is a biosphere reserve in Tamilnadu.
5. Tidal energy is renewable type of energy.
6. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are called fossil fuels.
7. Coal is the most commonly used fuel for the production of electricity.
II. STATE WHETHER TRUE OR FALSE. CORRECT THE STATEMENTS WHICH
ARE FALSE:
1. Biogas is a fossil fuel. - True
2. Planting trees increases the groundwater level. - True
3. Habitat destruction cause loss of wild life. - True
4. Nuclear energy is a renewable energy. - False
Nuclear energy is a non renewable source of energy.
5. Overgrazing prevents soil erosion. - False
Overgrazing can lead to soil erosion.
6. Poaching of wild animals is a legal act. - False
Poaching of wild animals is illegal.
7. National park is a protected park. - True
8. Wild life protection act was established in 1972. - True

III MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

1. Soil erosion energy saving
2. Bio gas acid rain
3. Natural gas removal of vegetation
4. Green house gas renewable energy
5. CFL bulbs CO2
6. Wind non-renewable energy
7. Solid waste lead and heavy metals
Answer:
1. Soil erosion - removal of vegetation
2. Bio gas - CO2
3. Natural gas - non - renewable energy
4. Green house gas - acid rain
5. CFL bulbs - energy saving
6. Wind - renewable energy
7. Solid waste - Lead and heavy metals

IV. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:

1. Which of the following is / are a fossil fuel? i. Tar ii. Coal iii. Petroleum
a) i only b) i and ii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
2. What are the steps will you adopt for better waste management?
a) reduce the amount of waste formed b) reuse the waste
c) recycle the waste d) all of the above
3. The gas released from vehicles exhaust are
i. carbon monoxide ii. Sulphur dioxide iii. Oxides of nitrogen
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii and iii d) i, ii and iii
4. Soil erosion can be prevented by
a) deforestation b) afforestion c) over growing d) removal of vegetation
5. A renewable source of energy is
a) petroleum b) coal c) nuclear fuel d) trees
6. Soil erosion is more where there is
a) no rain fall b) low rainfall c) rain fall is high d) none of these
7. An inexhaustible resources is
 a) wind power b) soil fertility c) wild life d) all of the above
8. Common energy source in village is
a) electricity b) coal c) biogas d) wood and animal dung
9. Green house effect refers to
a) cooling of earth b) trapping of UV rays
c) cultivation of plants d) warming of earth
10. A cheap, conventional, commercial and inexhaustible source of energy is
a) hydropower b) solar energy c) wind energy d) thermal energy
11. Global warming will cause
a) raise in level of oceans b) melting of glaciers
c) sinking of islands d) all of these
12. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to wind energy
a) wind energy is a renewable energy
b) the blades of wind mill are operated with the help of electric motor
c) production of wind energy is pollution free
d) usage of wind energy can reduce the consumption of fossil fuels

V. ANSWER IN A SENTENCE:
1. What will happen if trees are cut down?
 Ecological problems like floods and drought
 Soil erosion
 Loss of wild life
 Extinction of species
 Imbalance of Biogeochemical cycles.
 Desertification.
2. What would happen if the habitat of wild animals is disturbed?
The habitat provides food, shelter and protection to the animals. If the habitat is
disturbed then the animals become unprotected and may decline in numbers and
become endangered.
3. What are the agents of soil erosion?
 High velocity of wind
 Air currents
 Flowing water
 Landslide
 Human activities (deforestation, farming and mining) and
 Overgrazing by cattle.
4. Why fossil fuels are to be conserved?
 They are limited. Once they are exhausted there will be none.
 There are no ideal alternative for fossil fuels.
 We have to use in a control way to control global warming.
5. Solar energy is a renewable energy. How?
 Solar energy is the energy obtained from the sun.
 It is a renewable free source of energy that is sustainable and totally
inexhaustible, unlike fossil fuels which are finite.
6. How are e-wastes generated?
 E-wastes are generally called as electronic wastes.
  They are generated from the spoiled, outdated, non repairable electrical and
electronic devices.

VI. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. What is the importance of rainwater harvesting?
 Reduces flood and soil erosion.
 Overcome the rapid depletion of ground water levels.
 To meet the increase demand of water.
 Water stored in ground is not contaminated by human and animal wastes
and hence can be used for drinking purpose.
2. What are the advantages of using biogas?
 It is safe and convenient to use.
 It burns without smoke and less pollution.
 It can reduce the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.
3. What are the environmental effect caused by sewage?
 Untreated sewage or wastewater generated from domestic and industrial
process is the leading polluter of water sources in India.
 Sewage water results in agricultural contamination and environmental
degradation.
4. What are the consequences of deforestation?
 Ecological problems like floods and drought
 Soil erosion
 Loss of wild life
 Extinction of species
 Imbalance of Biogeochemical cycles.
 Desertification.

VII. LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. How does rainwater harvesting structures recharge ground water?
 Rainwater harvesting is a technique of collecting and storing rainwater for
future use.
 It is a traditional method of storing rain water.
 Purpose - to recharge ‘groundwater level’.
Methods of rainwater harvesting :
 Roof top rainwater harvesting: Roof-tops are excellent rain catchers.
 The rain water that falls on the roof of the houses is collected and stored in
the surface tank and can be used for domestic purpose.
Recharge pit:
 In this method, the rainwater is first collected from the roof tops or open
spaces and is directed into the percolation pits through pipes for filtration.
 After filtration the rainwater enters the recharge pits or ground wells
2. How will you prevent soil erosion?
 Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
 Cattle grazing should be controlled.
 Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
 Runoff water should be stored in the catchment.
 Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
  Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in form of a shelter belt.
3. What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
 Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes
and e - wastes etc.
Methods of solid wastes disposal
a) Segregation:
 It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable
and non-bio degradable wastes.
b) Sanitary landfill:
 Solid wastes are dumped into low-lying areas. The layers are compacted by
trucks to allow settlement.
 The waste materials get stabilized in about 2-12 months. The organic
matter under goes decomposition.
c) Incineration:
 It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in
properly constructed furnace at high temperature.
d) Composting:
 Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earth
worms and converted into humus
4. Enumerate the importance of forest.
 Forests are vital for human life
 it is a source for a wide range of renewable natural resource.
 They provide wood, food, fodder, fibre and medicine.
 They act as carbon sink, regulate climatic conditions, increase rainfall, reduce
global warming, protect wildlife.
 They also play a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance.
5. What are the consequences of soil erosion?
 Soil erosion causes a significant loss of humus, nutrients and decrease the fertility
of soil.
 It affects the fertility of the soil.
 It affects the ground water level.
 Vegetation cover cannot be recovered
**************************************************************************************

LESSON 23 VISUAL COMMUNICATION

I. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:

1. Which software is used to create animation ?
a) Paint b) PDF c) MS Word d) Scratch
2. All files are stored in the ______________
a) Folder b) box c) Paint d) scanner
3. Which is used to build scripts?
a) Script area b) Block palette c) stage d) sprite
4. Which is used to edit programs?
a) Inkscape b) script editor c) stage d) sprite
5. Where you will create category of blocks?
a) Block palette b) Block menu c) Script area d) sprite
II. MATCH THE FOLLOWING:
1. Script Area Type notes
2. Folder Animation software
3. Scratch Edit programs
4. Costume editor Store files
5. Notepad Build Scripts
Answer:
(1) Script area - Build scripts
(2) Folder - Store files
(3) Scratch - Animation software
(4) Costume editor - Edit programs
(5) Notepad - Type notes
I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:
1. What is Scratch?
 ‘Scratch’ is a software used to create animations, cartoons and games easily.
 It is a visual programming language.
2. Write a short note on editor and its types?
 Script editor / costume editor: Where you edit your programs or your sprite’s
pictures.
 The script editor has three main parts:
 Script area
 Block menu
 Block palette
3. What is Stage?
 Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window.
 The background will most often be white.
 We can change the background colour as you like.
4. What is Sprite?
 The characters on the background of a Scratch window are known as Sprite.
 Usually a Cat appears as a sprite.
 PUBLIC EXAMINATION APRIL – 2024
SCIENCE ANSWER KEY
Time Allowed : 3.00 Hours Maximum Marks: 75

PART - I
Note: (i) Answer all the questions. (12 x 1 = 12)
(ii) Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternatives and write
the option code and the corresponding answer.
1. The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of ______.
(a) root (b) stem (c) leaves (d) flower
2. TFM in soaps represents _____ content in soap.
(a) mineral (b) vitamin (c) fatty acid (d) carbohydrate.
3. The value of universal gas constant:
(a) 3.81 mol-1 K-1 (b) 8.03 mol-1 K-1 (c) 1.38 mol-1 K-1 (d) 8.31 mol-1 K-1
4. Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity (c) electrical energy (d) electrical power
5. An enzyme which cuts DNA is :
(a) Protease (b) Restriction endonuclease (c) DNA Ligase (d) RNAase
6. One mole of any substance contains molecules.
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 10-23 (c) 3.0115 × 1023 (d) 12.046 × 1023
7. Which one is referred to as “Master Gland”?
(a) Pineal gland (b) Pituitary gland (c) Thyroid gland (d) Adrenal gland
8. Which among the following is not the characteristic of anemophilous plants?
(a) the flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains.
(b) the stigmas are large and protruding.
(c) the flowers are brightly coloured, have smell and nectar.
(d) pollen grains are small and dry
9. Inertia of a body depends on:
(a) Weight of the object (b) Acceleration due to gravity of planet
(c) Mass of the object (d) Both (a) and (b)
10. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow?
(a) Ventricle → Atrium → Vein → Arteries
(b) Atrium → Ventricle → Vein → Arteries
(c) Atrium → Ventricle → Arteries → Vein
(d) Ventricle → Vein → Atrium → Arteries
11. Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?

(a) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (b) 2K(s) + Br2(l) → 2KBr(s)

 (c) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) (d) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
12. Cancer of the epithelial cells is called:
(a) Leukemia (b) Sarcoma (c) Carcinoma (d) Lipoma
PART – II
Note: Answer any seven questions. Question No. 22 is compulsory. (7 x 2 = 14)

13. What is coefficient of apparent expansion?

(i) The ratio of the apparent rise in the volume of the liquid per degree rise in
temperature to its unit volume.
(ii) It's SI unit is K–1
14. Why is tungsten metal used in bulbs but not used as fuse wires?
 Tungsten has a very high melting point.
 It will not melt when a large amount of current is passed through it and the
appliance will be damaged.
15. What is rust? Give the equation for the formationof rust.
When iron is exposed to moist air, it forms a layer of brown hydrated ferric oxide
on its surface. This compound is known as rust and the phenomenon of formation of
rust is known as rusting.
4Fe + 3O2 + x H2O → 2Fe2O3.xH2O (rust)
16. What is stage?
 Stage is the background appearing when we open the scratch window.
 The background will most often be white.
 We can change the background colour as you like.
17. Why is sinoatrial node called as pacemaker of heart?
 SA node acts as the pace maker of the heart
 It is capable of initiating impulse which can simulate the heart muscles to contract.
18. What are the parts of the hind brain?
(i) cerebellum (ii) pons (iii) medulla oblongata
19. Identify the parts A, B, C, and D in the given Figure.

20. What is colostrum? How is milk production hormonally regulated?

 The first fluid which is released from the mammary gland after child birth is called
as colostrum.
 Milk production is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary.
 The ejection of milk is stimulated by posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin
21. What is metastasis?
 The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues.
 This process is called metastasis
22. If the pH of a solution is 4.5, Find the value of its pOH.
Solution:
pH + pOH = 14  pOH = 14 – 4.5 = 9.5
pOH =9.5

PART – III
Note: Answer any seven questions. Question No. 32 is compulsory (7 x 4 = 28)
23. Explain the various types of inertia with examples.
Types of Inertia 1. Inertia of rest 2. Inertia of motion 3. Inertia of direction
a) Inertia of rest: To resist a body to change its state of rest
Ex: Shaking the trees leaves fall down
b) Inertia of motion: To resist a body to change its state of Motion
Ex: An athlete runs for long jumping
c) Inertia of direction To resist a body to change its direction.
Ex: Sharp turn while driving a car

24. (a) Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Natural radioactivity Artificial radioactivity
It cannot be controlled It can be controlled
Spontaneous process Induced process
Alpha, beta and gamma Elementary particles-neutron Positron
Z > 83 Z < 83

(b) Name any two devices, which are working on the heating effect of current.
Electric iron box, electric toaster

25. a) What happens when MgSO4.7H2O is heated? Write the appropriate equation
When magnesium sulphate heptahydrate crystals are gently heated, it loses seven
water molecules and becomes anhydrous magnesium sulphate.

b) Define solubility
Solubility is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in
100g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.
Solubility = × 100

26. (a) What is Respiratory Quotient?

It is the ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberates and the volume of oxygen
consumed during respiration.
(b) Why should the light dependent reaction occur before light independent reaction
during photosynthesis?
 During light independent reactions, CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the
help of ATP and NADPH2.
 So light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction.

27. Write the dental formula of rabbit.

Dental formula is (I , C , PM. , M ) in rabbit which is written as

28. (a) Why is Euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
 Euploid plants often result in increased fruit and flower size. Therefore it is
advantageous for them.
 The euploid animals are sterile

(b) Classify Neurons based on its structure.

Based on structure the neurons classified as follows:
i) Unipolar neurons:
 Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon
and dendron.
 They found in early embryos but not in adult.
ii) Bipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an
axon while another as a dendron.
 They found in retina of eye and olfactory epithelium of nasal
chambers.
iii) Multipolar neurons:
 The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon.
 They found in cerebral cortex of brain

29. How are Arteries and Veins structurally different from one another?
Artery Vein
Distributing vessels Collecting vessel
Deep location Superficial in location
Blood flow with high pressure Blood flow with low pressure
Wall of artery is strong thick and Wall of vein is weak thin and non-
elastic elastic
All arteries carry oxygenated blood All veins carry deoxygenated blood
except pulmonary arteries except pulmonary veins
30. Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
 Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the
traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:
 It provides traditional uses of plant.
 It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
 The ethnomedicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for the
chemists,
 Pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.
31. (a) What are the consequences of deforestation?
 Flood, Drought, Soil erosion
 Loss of wild life
 Extinction of species
 Imbalance of biogeochemical cycles
 Alteration of climate condition.
 Desertification
(b) State the applications of DNA finger printing technique.
 It is used in forensic lab to identify the culprit.
 It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
 It is also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and
speciation.

32. (a) Name the acid that renders Aluminium passive. Why?
 The acid that renders aluminium passive is dilute orconcentrated nitric acid.
 Aluminium becomes passive due to the formation of anoxide film on its surface.

(b) Calculate the number of moles in 1.51 × 1023 molecules of NH4Cl.

. . ×
No. of moles = = = 0.25 mole
. ×

PART – IV
Note : Answer all the questions. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. (3 x 7 = 21)
33. (a) (i) What are the uses of convex lens?
 Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
 Used as magnifying lenses.
 Used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
 Used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.
(ii) Define dispersion of light.
 When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any
transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component
colours.
 This phenomenon is called as dispersion of light
(iii) Why are traffic signals red in colour?
 As the red light has highest wavelength among all thecolours, it is scattered
least.
 It travels a longer distance in the atmosphere.
 (iv) What is the least count of travelling microscope?
Least count of travelling microscope : 0.01 mm

(OR)
(b) (i) What is an echo?
An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound
ii) Two conditions necessary for hearing an echo:
1. The minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.
2. The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.
iii) The medical applications of echo:
Echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography
To create real-time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s
uterus
iv) Calculation speed of sound :
Speed of Sound = 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐝 / 𝐓𝐢𝐦𝐞 𝐭𝐚𝐤𝐞𝐧 = 𝟐𝐝/t

34. (a) (i) Under same conditions of temperature and pressure, if youcollect 3 litre
O2, 5 litre of Cl2 and 6 litre of H2.
(A) Which has the highest number of molecules? 6 litre of H2
(B) Which has the lowest number of molecules? 3 litre of O2
(ii) Give the salient features of 'Modern Atomic theory'.
 An atom is no longer indivisible.
 Atoms of the same element may have different atomic mass.
Ex – isotopes l7Cl35 , l7Cl37.
 Atoms of different elements may have same atomic masses.
Ex – Isobars 18Ar40, 20Ca40.
 Atoms of one element can be transmuted into atoms of other elements.
 Atoms may not always combine in a simple whole number ratio.
Eg: Glucose C6H12O6
 Atom is the smallest particle that take part in a chemical reaction.
 Mass of an atom can be converted into energy. E = mc2.
(OR)
(b) (i) How do detergents cause water pollution?
Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable
by microorganisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
(ii) An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular
formula C2H4O2. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet smelling
compound ‘B’.
(i) Identify the compound ‘A’. Ethanoic acid (acetic acid).
(ii) Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form
compound ‘B’.

(iii) Name the process. - Esterification.

35. (a) (i) What are synthetic auxins? Give an example.
 Artifically synthesized auxin that have properties like auxinsare called synthetic
auxins.
 Eg : 2-4-D

(ii) With a neat labelled diagram, describe the parts of the typical angiospermic
ovule.
 Nucleus is enclosed by two
integuments leaving an opening
called as micropyle.
 The ovule is attached to ovary wall by
a stalk known as funiculus.
 Chalaza is the basal part
 The embryo sac contains seven cells
and the eighth nuclei located within
the nucleus
 Three cells at the micropylar end
form the egg apparatus.
 The three cells at the chalaza end are
the antipodal cells.

(OR)
(b) (i) Who is called the "Father of Indian Green Revolution"?
Dr.M.S.Swaminathan

(ii) Differentiate between out-breeding and in-breeding.

Out breeding In breeding
It is the breeding of unrelated It is the breeding of closely related
animals. animals.
Cross between two different species Superior males and superior females
with desirable features of economic of the same breed and identified and
value are mated. mated in pairs.
Ex. Mule Ex: Sheep Hissardale

(iii) Differentiate between Type-I and Type-II Diabetes mellitus.

Factors Type I - Insulin dependent Type II - Non-insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus (IDDM) diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)

Prevalence 10 - 20% 80 - 90%

Age of Onset Juvenile onset (< 20 years) Maturity onset(> 30 years)

Body weight Normal or Underweight Obese

Defect Insulin deficiency due to destruction Target cells do respond to insulin
of β-cells
Treatment Insulin administration is necessary Can be controlled by diet,
exercise and medicine.