FA24_RE

1. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?

A. Communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment
B. Communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing
C. Analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance
D. Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing

2. The Scrum approach to documentation is:

A. Do no documentation because it is a waste of time
B. Do the necessary documentation to support the development and use of the product
C. Do sufficient documentation to prove you have done a good job
D. Do more documentation than usual, because Agile is risky

3. Which is statement false?

A. In the Observer pattern, one difficulty is that the Subject cannot pass an instance of itself to the Observer being
updated, due to circular dependencies.
B. Observer is an implementation of the Dependency Inversion principle.
C. Strategy Pattern helps maintain the Open/Closed Principle.

4. All of the following are stages in an object-oriented development process EXCЕРТ?

A. Object-oriented analysis
B. Object-oriented design
C. Object-oriented programming
D. Object-oriented evolution

5. Which effective elements of the waterfall model than other ones?

A. Documentation is produced in each phase
B. The product meets the immediate needs of customers
C. The waterfall model can deliver the software product with fast speed
D. All of the others

6. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes?
A. Software development
B. Software dependence
C. Software validation
D. Software specification

7. What is wrong with the following story (select two)?

"As a product owner, I want a list of highly-rated restaurants on the brochure."
A. It doesn't specify the value of the story (the "why" is missing).
B. The user who benefits from this story is missing (the "who" is missing).
C. The story is not small.
D. The story is not negotiable

8. Which is not a core property of Kanban?

A. Daily stand-up
B. Limit work-in-progress
C. Measure & Manage Flow
D. Make Process Policies Explicit
E. Use Models to Recognize Improvement Opportunities

9. What is the Agile Manifesto?

A. A document that describes how to implement agile
B. A document developed during agile planning
C. A document developed for the customer
D. A document that describes four highly valued concepts in agile
10. What is wrong with following user story?
"I want the software to be easy to use."
A. No valid user is identified.
B. It is not testable
C. It does not specify the user this story is written for.
D. The story is not valuable.
E. The story is very big.

11. Which of the following IS NOT the limitations of the waterfall model?
A. It is difficult to respond to changes in the requirement
B. Integration issues may remain undetected until the last phase
C. Misinterpretations of requirement or design can remain undetected until the later phases
D. It is not suitable for big projects

12. All of the following statement about design pattern are true EXCEPT
A. Design patterns are detail-level abstractions that document successful design solutions.
B. They are fundamental to design reuse in object-oriented development
C. A pattern description should include a pattern name, a problem and solution description, and a statement of the
results and trade-offs of using the pattern
D. None of the other choices

13. White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called?

A. Graph Testing
B. Basic path
C. Glass box testing
D. Dataflow

14. Which elements are described in design pattern?

A. Problem description
B. Solution description
C. Consequences
D. All of the others

15. What is difference between throw-away prototyping and exploratory development?

A. The throw-away prototyping starts with poor understand requirement while the other start with well understood
ones
B. The throw-away prototyping starts with well understood requirement while the other start with poor understand
ones
C. The throw-away prototyping get the ideas from the customer's proposal while the other get the ideas from the
developer's prototype
D. None of the others

16. What is agile?

A. A blanket term describing several flexible project management approaches
B. A blanket term describing several rigid project management approaches
C. A blanket term describing several sequential project management approaches
D. A blanket term describing several costly project management approaches

17. In Scrum projects, we plan to "learn as we go" because

A. It creates a better relationship between the developers and customer representatives
B. Many projects are evolutionary, and a better solution emerges this way
C. It is time-consuming to analyze everything at the beginning of a project
D. It prevents late delivery of the project

18. Different pieces of code are activated at the same time. This is an example of what type of cohesion?
A. Coincidental cohesion
B. Procedural cohesion
C. Logical association cohesion
D. Temporal cohesion

19. Which technique or model is declared in "system is thrown away when the system specification has been agreed"
statement?
A. Prototyping
B. Throw-away prototype model
C. Incremental development
D. All of the others

20. In the acceptance test, which technique is applied to test the completed system?
A. Black Box
B. White Box
C. Clear Box
D. Glass Box
E. All of the others

21. Which the software process model is appropriate easy to define of progress milestones?
A. The waterfall model
B. The incremental model
C. The spiral model
D. None of the other choices

22. Which is statement false?

A. Manually created tests can use randomly selected inputs to maximize defect finding.
B. Code coverage includes statement coverage, ensuring all code statements are executed at least once by at least
one test case and all tests pass.
C. Program testing helps find defects, but testing can not prove there are no bugs.
D. The developer of the code is the best person to test that code.

23. Which of the following IS FALSE about the Story Mapping technique?
A. One story map can only have one user. It is not recommended to have multiple users on same story map.
B. The vertical axis (moving from top to bottom) in a story map represents rough priority.
C. Only the product owner and users attend the story mapping exercise.The horizontal axis (moving from left to right)
in a story map represents time.
D. It is a user-centric approach where we map out the system from a user's perspective.

FA24
24. Where does software design fit in the traditional waterfall software development lifecycle?
A. Between implementation and deployment
B. Between architecture and implementation
C. Between specification and architecture
D. Before requirements

25. All of the followings are main benefits of software reuse EXCEPT
A. Increased dependability
B. Reduced process risk
C. Effective use of specialists
D. Reduce maintenance costs
E. Accelerated development

26. The difference between subsystems and modules are:

A. Subsystems can independently comprise the business logic by itself while modules can't.
B. Subsystems can communicate with other subsystems while modules cannot communicate with other modules.
C. All of the answers.
27. Which of the four aspects of modularity is defined as: How well modules work together?
A. Coupling
B. Cohesion
C. Data Encapsulation
D. Information Hiding

28. What is difference between design pattern and application framework?

A. Application framework can be run immediately without implementing while the design pattern must be
implemented or extended depending the abstraction to run
B. Application framework must be implemented or extending depending the abstraction to run while the design
pattern can be run without implementing
C. All of the others

29. The two types of medium coupling are:

A. Data; Message
B. Message; None
C. Control; Data Structure
D. Content; Common

30. What are system requirements?

A. A structured document setting out detailed descriptions of the system's functions, services and operational
constraints.
B. Statements in natural language plus diagrams of the services the system provides and its operational constraints.
Written for customers
C. Requirements that come from the application domain of the system and that reflect characteristics of that domain
D. None of the other choices

31. In customer's requirement about building the library software, he/she requires the new software must be run on
their PC with CPU Pentium II, RAM 512MB
Choose the correct statement
A. Above statement describes the non-functional requirement of the library software
B. Above statement describes the functional requirement of the library software
C. Above statement describes the domain requirement of the library software
D. All of the others

SU24_TE2
32. Model selection is based on____
A. Requirements
B. Development team & users
C. Project type & associated risk
D. All of the answers

33. The waterfall model of software development is

A. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
B. A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
C. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams
D. An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more

34. Which of the following is also known as Verification and Validation Model?
A. V-Model
B. Waterfall Model
C. Prototype Model
D. Evolutionary Model

35. _____is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements
A. Object-oriented Paradigm
B. Object-oriented Analysis
C. Object-oriented Design
D. None of the other choices

36. The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document them is known as
A. Feasibility Study
B. Requirement Gathering
C. Requirement Engineering
D. System Requirements Specification

37. Waterfall model is not suitable for

A. Small projects
B. Complex projects
C. Accommodating changes
D. Maintenance Projects

SU24_TE1
38. Which of the following statements about security is NOT true?
A. Security engineering focuses on how to develop and maintain software systems that can resist malicious attacks
that are intended to damage a computer-based system or its data
B. Security threats can be threats to the only confidentiality and integrity of a system or its data.
C. Security risk management involves assessing the losses that might ensue from attacks on a system and deriving
security requirements that are aimed at eliminating or reducing these losses.
D. None of the other choices

39. What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model?

A. Higher amount of risk analysis
B. Doesn't work well for smaller projects
C. Additional functionalities are added later on
D. Strong approval and documentation contro

40. Which of the following is NOT the benefits of the Unified Process?
A. Supports quality and reuse by emphasizing on architecture
B. Supports / encourages risk identification and mitigation
C. Easy to understand and implement
D. Flexible for handling change.
E. Supports to incorporate other models in the process for e.g you can use Agile in construction phase.

41. Which of the following models is best suited for a system that includes much functionality which would not
necessarily need to have much interaction from a centralized service?
A. blackboard
B. client-server
C. pipe-and-filter
D. layered
E. event-based

42. Which of the following is most preferred?

A. Allowing one module to affect the program flow of another via the use of a flag (control coupling)
B. Having more than one module rely on the same version of the RSS standard (external coupling)
C. Allowing one module to affect the program flow of another via the use of a state message (messagecoupling)
D. Having two modules rely on the same global information structure (common coupling)

43. Choose the most accurate answer: Cohesion describes...

A. how well everything within a module fits together.
B. decomposability.
C. how changes do not cross boundaries of modules.
D. loose coupling.
SP24_RE
44. Which is the right description about the requirement specification process?
A. Requirement specification is a process that identifies and specifies the problem and possible solutions to the
problem.
B. Requirement specification is a process to design the solution to the problem.
C. Requirement specification is a process of solving the requirements.
D. Requirement specification is a process to identify and specify the problem to solve.

45. Which of the following does NOT belong to important principles of agile methods?
A. Customer involvement
B. Incremental delivery
C. Process not people
D. Embrace change
E. Maintain simplicity

46. Which of the following statement is a functional requirement in ATM system?

A. Check balance of the valid customer
B. The balance of customer must be reliability
C. Display balance of customer on the screen with 600 x 800 resolution
D. All of the others

SP24
47. User requirements should be describe______ and_______ requirements
A. functional/non-functional
B. organization/domain
C. functional/software
D. product/external

48. What is the problem that cannot arise when requirements are written in natural language?
A. Lack of clarity
B. Requirement confusion
C. Lack of user's understandability
D. Requirement amalgamation

49. Which of the following models is best suited for a system that has a very complex set of con widely used across
functionality sets?
A. client-server
B. layered
C. event-based
D. blackboard
E. pipe-and-filter

50. Which of the following models is best suited for a system that includes much functionality wh necessarily need to
have much interaction from a centralized service?
A. blackboard
B. client-server
C. pipe-and-filter
D. layered
E. event-based

51. What is the recommended amount of time to spend on the requirements stage?
A. 0%
B. 3-5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
SP23
52. Which of the two is the software development model that can better respond to changes in the requirements?
A. Agile model
B. Waterfall model
C. Spiral model
D. None of the answers

53. If a new requirement emerges once a Scrum project is running, it should be:
A. Automatically included in the work of the project
B. Automatically excluded and left until a later project or increment
C. Assessed for importance and, if sufficiently important to the business, included in the project, possibly displacing
less important requirements
D. Put on the backlog for consideration by the wider group of stakeholders after the project has been completed

54. Which is statement true?

A. Since the goal is for every test to pass, tests should only include inputs which will result in successful
operation/behavior when executed on correct code.
B. The developer should first run the tests before adding anything new, to ensure that all tests passed before adding
any new tests or code.
C. Continuous Delivery is an update to the Blue-Green Deployment paradigm.
D. Statement coverage is the strongest form of code coverage, which is why it is required for many FAA and FDA
regulated software projects.

FA23_RE
55. When all of the responsibilities of a module are easily classified as being strongly related, thi high what?
A. Cohesion
B. Information hiding
C. Coupling
D. Modularity

56. Select the false statement:

A. Continuous Integration is a subset of the capabilities in a Continuous Delivery pipeline.
B. Continuous Integration alerts to submitting developer of build or test failure, but cannot remove the code
committed.
C. New processes/reports are able to be added to the Jenkins Pipeline through plug-ins
D. Tests which meet the code coverage criteria can still be poor tests.

57. Which one of the following best describes a ScrumMaster?

A. Task focused
B. Process oriented
C. Supportive
D. Disengaged