22-01-2023 Code-E

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone:011-47623456

MM: 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST - 11 Time: 3 Hrs 20 Mins.

(KMD02)

Topics covered:
Physics : Electric Charges and Fields, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry : Ionic Equilibrium, Redox Reactions
Botany : Principles of Inheritance & Variation
Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction-I

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
(viii) Use of Calculator is not allowed.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer: r

2. A charge q is placed at a distance from the
SECTION - A 2
1. Which of these is not the property of charged centre of a neutral hollow iron shell of radius r as
spherical conductor in electrostatic conditions?
(1) Surface of conductor is having uniform shown. What is electric flux through a closed
charge density Imaginary spherical surface of radius 2r, concentric
(2) Field lines are perpendicular to the conductor With the shell?
surface
(3) Electric field lines are parallel to the surface
of conductor
(4) Electric field inside a conductor body is zero

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

q 15F 4F
(1) 0 (2)   (3) (4)
0 16 5

q q 6. There are two very large metal plates arranged

(3)   (4)  =
0 0 parallel to each other. As shown Q1 and Q2are
3. A point charge +q is fixed at the vertex A of a respective charges on these plates. Charge Q on
regular hexagonABCDEF (of side a) as shown. the left surface of left plate in the arrangement is
 1 
Electric field at the centre Ois  K =
 4  0 

Q1 + Q2
(1)
2

Kq Kq (2) Q1 + Q2
(1) 2
(2) 2
2a 3a (3) Zero
Kq Kq (4) Indeterminate, as distance between different
(3) (4)
2a 2
a2
plates are not given
4. A charge q is fixed at the center of a quarter
7. In this figure, electric field lines in a certain region
circular ring (of radius r and linear charge density are shown.
). The space is gravity free and the ring is held
in position by two insulating threads as shown.
 1 
Tension in thread 1 is  K =
 4  0 

The figure suggests that

(1) E x = E y = E z (2) E x  E y  E z

(3) E x  E y  E z (4) E x = E y  E z

8. In a uniformly charged solid sphere of total

K K charge Q and radius R the electric field E is
(1) q (2) q
r 2r plotted as a function of distance from the centre.
The graph which would correspond to the above
2K  2K 
(3) q (4) q will
r r

5. Two equal and opposite charges are placed at a

certain distance. The force between them is F. If
(1) (2)
25% of one charge is transferred to other, then
the force between them will be

9F
(1) F (2)
16

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

2KQ 2
(1) (2) Zero
a

(3) (4) −4KQ 2 −2KQ 2

(3) (4)
a a

9. A charged particle is free to move in an electric 14. As shown in figure,a short electric dipole of dipole
field. It will initially travel moment p is placed at origin.The electric
potential at points (a, 0) will be
(1) Always along a line of force
(2) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
(3) Along a line of force, if it has some initial
velocity in the direction of an acute angle with the
line of force
(4) None of these
10. The distance between two charges 9 C and
Kp − 3 Kp
4 C is 5 m. At which position on line joining the (1) 2
(2)
a 2a 2
charges, electric field intensity will be zero?
(1) 2 m from 9 C charge 3 Kp Kp
(3) (4)
2 a2 2a 2
(2) 3 m from 9 C charge
15. Two charged sphere of radius r1 and r2are having
(3) 4 m from 9 C charge
equal surface charge density. The ratio of their
(4) 1 m from 4 C charge potential at center is
11. A solid sphere is kept in electric field of a point r1 r 
charge Q, which is placed outside the sphere. (1) (2)  2 
r2  r1 
The electric flux through the sphere will be
2
r 
2
Q Q r 
(1) (2) (3)  1  (4)  2 
0 2 0  r2   r1 
2Q 16. Electric potential of earth is conventionally taken
(3) Zero (4)
0 as

12. Due to an electric dipole, electric potential at axial (1) Infinite (2) Zero
point at distance 10 cm is 20 volt. Then electric (3) Positive (4) None of these
potential at axial point in opposite direction at a
distance 5 cm will be 17. Electric potential of any surface is given as
V = –5x + 4y + 3z then magnitude of electric field
(1) 40 V (2) – 40 V
intensity will be
(3) 80 V (4) – 80 V
(1) 3 2 (2) 4 2
13. Three-point charges are kept at vertices of an
equilateral triangle as shown in figure, electric (3) 5 2 (4) 7
potential energy of system will be
18. A uniform electric field of 400 V/m is directed at
45° above x-axis as shown in figure. The
potential difference VA – VB is given by

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
(1) Zero (2) 4 V
(3) 6.4 V (4) 2.8 V 24. There are two charged particles of same nature
and they are fixed. The position of equilibrium for
19. Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor is “C”. a third charge will be (on the line joining two
Now area of both plates is increased by 100% charges)
then new capacitance becomes
(1) Near the smaller fixed charge
(1) C (2) 2C
(2) Near the greater fixed charge
(3) 3C (4) 4C
(3) Outside on line joining two charges
20. The breakdown voltage of the system is
(4) None of these
25. The number of electrons in one coulomb of
charge is
(1) 6.25 × 1016 (2) 6.25 × 1017
(3) 6.25 × 1018 (4) 6.25 × 1019
q1
26. If q1 + q2 = q, then value of ratio for which the
q
(1) 10 V (2) 4 V
repulsive force between q1 and q2 is maximum is
(3) 15 V (4) 5 V
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50
21. Two spheres of unequal radius and unequal
charge comes in contact then charge will flow (3) 0.75 (4) 0.84
from one to another till 27. The electric field intensities at a point due to two
(1) Charge becomes equal point charges in x-y plane are ( 3iˆ − 2 ˆj ) N/C and
(2) Potential becomes equal ( −2iˆ + 4 ˆj ) N/C . The magnitude of resultant
(3) Energy becomes equal intensity at that point is
(4) Electric field becomes equal (1) 1.8 N/C (2) 2.24 N/C
22. Which of the following is not a vector? (3) 3.2 N/C (4) 2.8 N/C
(1) Electrostatic force 28. Magnitude of electric field produced by a point
(2) Electric dipole moment charge of 10–9 C, at a distance 1 m from it will be
(3) Electric fields (1) 4 N/C (2) 9 N/C
(4) Electric potential (3) 18 N/C (4) 36 N/C

23. Two concentric spheres Aand B exist in space as 29. Fourpoint charges are situated in space as
shown in the figure. A charge q lies at the shown in the figure. The electric field at the origin
common centre of the spheres. The ratio of is
electric flux through sphere Ato that through
B is

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

34. If the speed of a point charge increases, then

charge on it
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains same (4) Either (1) or (2)
35. An electric dipole, when held at 60° with respect
to a uniform electric field of 104 N/C, experiences
a torque of 3  10 −24 N m . What is dipole
moment of the dipole?

(1) 6 N C–1 (2) 8 N C–1 (1) 3  10 −16 C m (2) 4 × 10–21 C m

(3) 1 N C–1 (4) Zero (3) 2 × 10–8 C m (4) 2 × 10–28 C m
30. If a neutral body is given a positive charge, then SECTION - B
its mass 36. Which of the following is not a property of electric
(1) Slightly decreases charge?
(2) Increases (1) Scalar addition
(3) Remains same (2) Charge is conserved for an isolated body
(4) Either (2) or (3) (3) Charge is quantized
31. A point charge is placed at the centre of a cube of (4) Conversion of charge to mass
side 10 cm. If the charge has a value q, then
electric flux through any one face of the cube will 37. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 4 C.
be The potential difference, through which it should
be accelerated acquire a speed of 10 m/s,
6q q
(1) (2) starting from rest, is
0 4 0
(1) 100 kV (2) 75 kV
q q
(3) (4)
0 6 0 (3) 50 kV (4) 25 kV
32. Electric field (E) due to a uniformly charged non- 38. Sixty four identical drops of water having equal
conducting solid sphere of radius R, as a function amount of charge combine to form a big drop.
of distance (x) from its centre is best represented The factor by which potential of bigger drop
as change in comparison to a small drop is
(1) (2) (1) 64 (2) 32
(3) 16 (4) 8
39. A metallic sphere of radius r have charge q is
distributed over its surface. The electric potential
 1 
at the surface of sphere is k =
(3) (4)  4 0 

kq kq
(1) (2)
2r r
2kq kq
(3) (4)
33. Force between two point charges separated by a r r2
distance r, varies as
40. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a
1 1 square of side length d as shown in figure. The
(1) (2)
r r2 work required to move a charge Q, from the
centre O, of square to the centre P of one side is
1 1
(3) 3
(4)
r r4

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

q
(3) (4) Zero
4 0a 2

44. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight

(1) Remain precisely constant
(2) Increases slightly
(3) Decreases slightly
1 qQ  1 1  (4) May increase slightly or may decrease
(1) Zero (2) −
40 d  2 2  slightly
1 qQ  1 1  45. There are two charges +2 C and − 3 C . The
(3) − (4) − 1 qQ  1 − 1 
 2  40 d  2
 0 d  2 2  ratio of forces acting on them will be
41. Two concentric conducting shells of radius a and (1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
2a are given charges q and –2q respectively. The
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 4 : 9
potential will be zero at point
46. The magnitude of electric field strength E such
that an electron placed in it would experience an
electrical force equal to its weight is given by
[e→ charge on electron]
mg
(1) mge (2)
e
e eg
(3) (4)
mg 2m
(1) P1 (2) P2
47. The figure shows electric field lines. If EA and EB
(3) P3 (4) Both P1 and P3
are electric fields at A and B and distance AB is r
42. In the given diagram a block of mass m having
then
charge Q, collides with the wall elastically. The
time period of motion of the block is

EB
(1) E A  EB (2) E A 
r
EB
(3) E A  EB (4) E A =
4md md r2
(1) (2)
QE 8QE 48. A semi-circular arc of radius a is charged
uniformly and the charge per unit length is. The
8md md
(3) (4) electric field at the centre of this arc is
QE 4QE
 
43. Three equal point charges q each, are placed at (1) (2)
2  0 a 2  0 a 2
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a.
The net electric field at the centroid of triangle is  2
(3) (4)
4 2 0a 2 0 a
3q 2q
(1) (2)
4 0 a 2 4 0 a 2 49. An electron is revolving around an infinite line of
charge having linear charge density , in a

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

circular path of radius r. The magnitude of

momentum of electron is
e e
(1) (2)
2 0 m 4 0 m

me me
(3) (4)
2 0 4 0

50. A proton and an-particle having equal kinetic (1) Proton trajectory is more curved
energy are projected in a uniform transverse (2) -particle trajectory is more curved
electric field as shown in figure.
(3) Both trajectories are equally curved but in
opposite direction
(4) Both trajectories are equally curved and in
same direction.

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. Most acidic compound among the following is (1) H2CO3 (2) CO 32−
(1) HF (2) H2O
(3) CO2 (4) H3O+
(3) NH3 (4) CH4
58. Which one of the following salts is most soluble in
52. The dissociation constant of an acid HA is 10–5. water?
The dissociation constant of its conjugate base
will be (1) CuS (Ksp = 8 × 10–37)
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–9 (2) MnS (Ksp = 7 × 10–16)
(3) 10–2 (4) 10–10 (3) CaCO3 (Ksp = 4.7 × 10–9)
53. With increase in temperature, pOH of pure water (4) CaC2O4 (Ksp = 1.3 × 10–9)
(1) Increases 59. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?
(2) Decreases (1) KOH + KNO3 (2) H2SO4 + Na2SO4
(3) May increase or decrease (3) NH4OH + NaOH (4) HCN + NaCN
(4) Remains constant 60. In which of the following solution, AgCl has
54. The compound that is not a Lewis acid is maximum solubility?
(1) B(OH)3 (2) AlCl3 (1) 0.1 M NH3 (2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) B2H6 (4) NH3 (3) 0.1 M KCl (4) 0.1 M CaCl2
55. Which of the following salts will give lowest pH in 61. The number of hydroxide ions in 1 ml of a
water? solution having pH = 1 at 25°C is
(1) NaCl (2) KCN (1) 10–13 NA (2) 10–4 NA
(3) Na2CO3 (4) NH4Cl (3) 10–10 NA (4) 10–16 NA
56. At t°C, distilled water has [OH–] concentration 62. The pH of mixture of 0.1 M HNO3 and 0.01 M
equal to 5 × 10–7 mole/litre. The value of KW at HCN will be approximately
t°C will be
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 5  10 −14 (2) 2.5 × 10–13 (3) 3 (4) 7
−7
(3) 5  10 (4) 10–14 63. The solubility of AgCl in 0.01 M AgNO3 solution at
25°C is (Ksp of AgCl is 1.6 × 10–10)
57. The conjugate acid of HCO 3− is
(1) 4 × 10–5 M

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

(2) 1.6 × 10–8 M Cr2 O 72 − + SO 32 − + H+ → Cr 3 + + SO 24 − + H2 O

(3) 1.6 × 10–5 M The coefficients of the reactants for the balanced
(4) 4 × 10–8 M equation are
64. The pH of 0.01 M aq. NaA solution is (Ka for HA Cr2 O 72 − SO 32 − H+
is 1 × 10–4)
(1) 1 3 8
(1) 6 (2) 12
(2) 2 3 14
(3) 10 (4) 8
(3) 1 4 14
65. How many times a solution of pH = 3 has higher
acidity than a solution of pH = 5? (4) 1 3 12
(1) 100 (2) 2 75. The correct structure of carbon suboxide is
(3) 200 (4) 10000 (1) HO – CH = C = C = O
66. The pH of an acidic buffer solution when its buffer (2) HO – CH = C = CH – OH
capacity is maximum, is (Given : pKa of acid = 5) (3) O = C = C = C = O
(1) 5 (2) 4 (4) –O – CH = C = CH – O–
(3) 6 (4) 14 76. In which of the following reaction(s) H2O2 acts as
67. The equilibrium constant of the reaction, a reducing agent?
HA + NaOH NaA + H2O at 25°C is given (I) I2 + H2 O 2 + 2OH− → 2I− + 2H2 O + O 2
by (Ka of HA = 10–6)
(II) HOCl + H2 O 2 → H3 O + + Cl− + O 2
(1) 108 (2) 106
(III) H2O2 + PbS → PbSO4 + H2O
(3) 10–8 (4) 10–6
68. pH of 0.02 M aqueous NaOH solution is (1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only
(1) 1.7 (2) 9.2 (3) (II) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
(3) 12.3 (4) 10.5 77. Standard reduction potentials of the half cell
reactions are given below
69. At 298 K, the pH of 10–4 M solution of KOH is
(1) 4 (2) 12 • Pb 2 + + 2e − → Pb; E o = −0.13 V
(3) 8 (4) 10 • Fe 2 + + 2e − → Fe; E o = −0.44 V
70. If the solubility of CaF2 in pure water is y mol/L,
then its solubility product will be • Na + + 1e − → Na; E o = −2.71 V
(1) 2y2 (2) 4y3 • Ca 2 + + 2e − → Ca; E o = −2.87 V
(3) 3y (4) y2
The strongest oxidising and reducing agents
71. If at 25°C, Ka (HX) is 1 × 10–5, the hydrolysis respectively are
constant of NaX will be (1) Na+, Fe2+ (2) Pb2+, Ca
(1) 5 × 10–7 (2) 1 × 10–9
–8
(3) Pb, Ca2+ (4) Ca, Pb2+
(3) 5 × 10 (4) 4 × 10–5
78. Oxidation numbers of A, B and C are +2, –1 and
72. Which of the following will undergo hydrolysis in
+1 respectively. Possible formula of the
water?
compound is
(1) (NH4)2SO4 (2) NaCl
(3) K2SO4 (4) NaNO3 (1) A2(B3C)2 (2) A3(BC2)2

73. Which of the following species does not (3) A2(BC2)2 (4) A2(B2C)2
undergoes disproportionation reaction? 79. Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is

(1) MnO 24 − (2) NO2 (1)

8
(2)
2
3 3
(3) ClO– (4) PO 34 −
3 2
74. For the redox reaction, (3) (4)
8 5

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

80. Which of the following species do not show (1) MnO 2 (2) Al
disproportionation reaction?
(3) Mn (4) Al2O3
(1) ClO − (2) ClO2−
87. Oxidation state of Mn in MnO 24 − ion is
(3) ClO3− (4) ClO−4 (1) +4 (2) +7
81. The oxidation states of Br in Br3O8 are (3) +6 (4) +5
(1) +4, +2 (2) +4, +6 88. Which among the following species cannot
(3) +6, +7 (4) +3, +6 undergo disproportionation reaction?
82. Which of the following is not a disproportionation (1) ClO −4 (2) ClO 3−
reaction?
(3) ClO 2− (4) ClO −
(1) Cl2 + OH− ⎯⎯→ ClO − + Cl− + H2O 89. The metal which will not liberate H2 gas when
treated with dilute HCl solution is
(2) S8 + OH ⎯⎯→ S2− + S2O32− + H2O
(1) Zn (2) Mg
−
(3) P4 + OH + H2O ⎯⎯→ PH3 + H2PO2− (3) Cu (4) Al
90. In which of the following species sulphur exhibits
(4) F2 + OH− ⎯⎯→ F − + OF2 highest oxidation state?
83. For the given redox reaction, (1) H2S (2) SO2
(3) H2SO4 (4) H2SO3
MnO−4 + Br − + H2O ⎯⎯→ MnO2 + BrO3− + OH−
91. Consider the following redox reaction
The coefficients of the reactants for the balanced S 2 − + MnO −4 + H+ → Mn2 + + S + H2O
equation are
Mole(s) of S2– required per mole of MnO −4 for
MnO−4 Br − H2 O
complete reaction is
(1) 1 2 1 3 5
(1) (2)
2 2
(2) 2 1 1
1 5
(3) 1 2 2 (3) (4)
2 3
(4) 2 3 1 92. Standard electrode potential for Ca2+/Ca
84. Given the standard electrode potentials, couple is – 2.87 V and that of Zn2+/Zn couple is
2+ 2+
– 0.76 V. These two couples in their standard
Pb /Pb = −0.13 V, Sn /Sn = −0.14 V, state are connected to make a cell. The cell
Zn2+ /Zn = −0.76 V, Mg2+ /Mg = −2.36 V potential will be
(1) – 3.63 V (2) + 3.63 V
The metal which has the strongest reducing
power is (3) + 2.11 V (4) +1.51 V
(1) Pb (2) Sn 93. In the titration of I2 with Na2S2O3 solution, the
indicator used to detect end point of the reaction
(3) Zn (4) Mg is
85. The oxidation state of O in H2O, H2O2 and KO2 (1) Phenolphthalein (2) Diphenylamine
respectively are
(3) Methyl red (4) Starch
1 1
(1) –2, –2, – (2) –2, –1, – 94. Which among the following is not a
2 2 disproportionation reaction?
1 (1) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
(3) –1, –2, – (4) –2, –1, –1
2 −

SECTION - B (2) 2F2 + 2OH → 2F− + OF2 + H2O

−
86. The reducing agent in the following reaction is (3) Cl2 + 2OH → ClO− + Cl− + H2O
MnO2 + Al ⎯⎯→ Mn + Al2O3 (4) 4H3PO3 → 3H3PO4 + PH3

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

95. If the standard reduction potential of three redox 98. Buffer solution is prepared by mixing
couples A2+/A, B2+/B and C2+/C are –2.1 V, 1.5 V (1) NaCl (0.01 M, 100 mL) + KCl (0.1 M, 100 mL)
and –0.5 V respectively, then the reducing power (2) K2SO4(0.1 M, 300 mL) + H2SO4(0.2 M,100 mL)
of A, B and C will be in order of
(3) CH3COOH (0.2 M, 200 mL) + NaOH (0.2 M,
(1) B > A > C (2) C > A > B
50 mL)
(3) B > C > A (4) A > C > B
(4) NaCl (0.1 M, 300 mL) + HCl (0.2 M, 100 mL)
96. Which among the following will not act as an
99. Which of the following is not acid-base conjugate
oxidising agent?
pair?
(1) NO2 (2) NH3
(1) HNO 3 , NO 3−
(3) NO3− (4) N2O
(2) NH+4 , NH2−
97. Consider the following redox reaction
− (3) CH3COOH, CH3COO–
I− (aq) + MnO−4 (aq) + H2O(l) → IO3− (aq) + MnO2 (s) + OH(aq)
(4) Cl–, HCl
Equivalent weight of MnO −4 will be (consider
100. If an aqueous solution of 0.2 M NH4OH and
molar mass of MnO −4 to be M g mol–1) 0.2 M NH4Cl has pOH 4.7 then pKb of NH4OH at
M M 25°C is
(1) (2)
2 6 (1) 8.3 (2) 3.8
M M (3) 4.7 (4) 5.2
(3) (4)
3 7

BOTANY
SECTION - A (4) UV radiations cannot cause mutations in
101. Which of the following features is not true for the organisms
persons suffering with Down’s syndrome? 104. Genetic map for Drosophila was first prepared by
(1) Short stature (1) Arthur D. Korenberg (2) Watson and Crick
(2) Many ‘loops’ on finger tips (3) A. H. Sturtevant (4) George Gamow
(3) Trisomy of sex chromosome 105. Presence of more than two sets of chromosomes
(4) Furrowed tongue in any cell is called
102. Find the odd one out w.r.t. ‘Thalassemia’ (1) Haploidy (2) Diploidy
(1) This defect could be due to mutation or (3) Trisomy (4) Polyploidy
deletion 106. Male heterogamety is found in
(2) Alpha () and Beta ()different type of (1) Grasshopper and Drosophila
thalassemia
(2) Birds and Drosophila
(3) RBC shape changes and become ‘sickle-
(3) Birds and Mammals
shaped’
(4) Drosophila, Grasshopper and Birds
(4) It is an autosomal recessive disorder
107. How many gametes are possible from genotype
103. Select the incorrect about mutations
AaBBCcDd?
(1) Results in alteration of DNA sequences
(1) 3 (2) 16
(2) Leads to variation in DNA
(3) 8 (4) 4
(3) Mutations also arise due to change in a
108. Skin colour in human, an example of ‘polygenic
single base pair of DNA inheritance’ is controlled by
(1) 7 pairs of genes (2) 3 pairs of genes

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

(3) 12 pairs of genes (4) 8 pairs of genes (4) A, B and O blood groups
109. Which of the given chromosomal aberrations 114. Read the given statements and select the
leads to chronic myelogenous leukemia? correct option.
(1) Duplication (2) Translocation a. Turner’s syndrome is an example of
monosomy.
(3) Deletion (4) Inversion
b. -Thallassemia is due to mutations in HBB
110. According to ‘Law of Segregation’ gene on chromosome 11.
(1) Two factors of a character get mixed up in F2 c. Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused due to the
generation presence of an additional copy of 21st
chromosome.
(2) During gamete formation, factors of a
character get mixed up (1) All a, b and c are correct
(2) Only a and c are correct
(3) Factors of a character separate from each
other during gamete formation (3) Only a and b are correct

(4) Out of two factors for each character, (4) Only b and c are correct
dominant will be able to express in F1 115. Substitution of purine by pyrimidine or vice versa
generation is known as
111. Which of the following statements is wrong (1) Frame-shift mutation (2) Transition
about chromosomal theory of inheritance given (3) Transversion (4) Duplication
by Sutton and Boveri? 116. Which of the following is autosomal dominant
(1) Chromosomes retain their number, structure Mendelian disorder?
and individuality throughout the life of an (1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Thalassemia
organism
(3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Sickle cell anaemia
(2) A gamete contains only one set of
117. How many contrasting characters were studied
chromosomes
by Mendel in pea plant in experiment?
(3) The paired condition of both chromosomes
(1) Fourteen (2) Seven
as well as Mendelian factors is restored
during fertilization (3) Two (4) Four

(4) Both chromosomes as well as genes occur in 118. Mendel adopted garden pea for his experiments
pairs in gamete cells due to some reasons. Which one of the following
is not amongst them?
112. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. (1) Pea has many clear contrasting traits

A : Presence of only two alleles of a gene is (2) Flower show self-pollination

called multiple allelism. (3) It is easy to manually cross pollinate the
B : AB blood group in human is a good example flower
of co-dominance. (4) Pea produces small number of seeds and
(1) BothA and B are incorrect completes its life cycle in two seasons

(2) Only A is correct 119. How many genetically different types of gametes
are possible from a heterozygous plant having
(3) Only B is correct
the genotype AabbccDdee?
(4) Both A and B are correct (1) Eight (2) Sixteen
113. If a male and a female with ‘A’ and ‘AB’ blood
(3) Four (4) Two
group respectively marry, their children may have
120. A couple has two daughters. What is the
(1) A, AB and O blood groups
probability of having the next child a son?
(2) A, AB and B blood groups
1 1
(3) A and AB blood groups only (1) (2)
8 4

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

1 1 (1) The F1 progeny does not resemble either of

(3) (4)
2 32 the parents
121. Henking traced a specific nuclear structure all (2) Genotypic and phenotypic ratios in F2
through spermatogenesis in a few A . He generation are different
(3) Test cross does not give red coloured flower
named this structure as B .
(4) The ratio of pink coloured flower to white
Select the correct option for A and B. coloured flower plants in F2 generation is 2 : 1
A B 126. ABO blood group system of human being is a
(1) Grasshopper Y-chromosome good example of
(2) Insects X-body (1) Incomplete dominance
(3) Butterfly Y-body (2) Pleiotropy
(4) Human X-chromosome (3) Polygenic inheritance
122. If a plant of F1 generation with genotype (4) Multiple allelism
AABbCC is selfed, the genotypic ratio of the 127. Consider the following statements and select the
individuals in F2 generation will be correct option w.r.t. Mendelian disorder.
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 A. Determined by alteration or mutation in single
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 gene.
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 :2 : 1 : 2 : 1 B. These disorders are transmitted to the
(4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1 offsprings as per Mendel’s principle of
123. Consider the following traits studied by Mendel in inheritance.
Pisum sativum. C. The pattern of inheritance of such disorders
can be traced in a family by pedigree
Axial flower position, Dwarf stem, Yellow pod
analysis.
colour, Violet flower colour, Wrinkled seed
shaped, Terminal flower position, Green seed (1) Only A and B are incorrect
colour (2) Only A and C are incorrect

How many of them will not express in (3) Only A is correct

heterozygous condition? (4) All statements are correct
(1) Five (2) Four 128. In a dihybrid cross performed by Mendel between
(3) Three (4) Two round-yellow and wrinkled-green seeded pea
plants, 2000 seeds were collected after selfing of
124. What will be the probability of obtaining a plant
F1 generation. What would be number of seeds
with genotype CcppRr, if a cross is performed
which are heterozygousfor both the characters?
between the parental genotypes CcPpRr and
ccpprr? Also identify the type of cross (1) 563 (2) 750
performed? (3) 500 (4) 1500
1 129. How many phenotypes are possible for skin
(1) ; test cross
8 colour in children when mother and father both
1 are mulatto?
(2) ; monohybrid cross
8 (1) 16 (2) 15
1 (3) 7 (4) 20
(3) ; dihybrid cross
8 130. Haemophilia is
1 (1) Autosomal recessive disorder
(4) ; test cross
16
(2) Sex linked recessive disorder
125. Select the incorrect option regarding
(3) Autosomal dominant disorder
monohybrid cross w.r.t. inheritance of flower
colour in the dog flower, Antirrhinum majus? (4) Sex linked dominant disorder

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

131. In which of the following disorders, affected (1) Shows both multiple allelism and co-
individual possesses 45 chromosomes? dominance
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Total six genotypes and four phenotypes are
(2) Down’s syndrome possible

(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome (3) Individual with IBIo genotype will show O
blood group
(4) Hemophilia
(4) IA, IB and Io are three types of alleles
132. Change in linear order of genes by rotation
without involving centromere is 138. Down’s syndrome is caused due to
(1) Pericentric (2) Paracentric (1) Trisomy of chromosome number 22
(3) Transition (4) Transversion (2) Tetrasomy of chromosome number 22
133. Select the correct option w.r.t. sex linked (3) Trisomy of chromosome number 21
Mendelian disorder (4) Monosomy of chromosome number 21
(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Thalassemia 139. Exception to Mendelian principles is/are
(3) Colour blindness (4) Phenylketonuria A. Incomplete dominance
134. Which of the given diseases is caused by B. Multiple allelism
transversion of the gene controlling -chain of
C. Co-dominance
haemoglobin?
(1) Only B (2) Only A and C
(1) Colour blindness (2) Sickle-cell anaemia
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Myotonic dystrophy (3) All A, B and C (4) Only A
140. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the
135. Study the pedigree chart given below.
transformation experiment conducted by Fredrick
griffith
(1) He selected two strains of bacterium
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
The trait traced in above pedigree chart is (2) S-III or capsulated type bacteria were non-
(1) X-linked dominant virulent
(2) Y-linked (3) R-II strain bacteria do not cause pneumonia
(3) Autosomal dominant (4) When heat-killed S-strain was injected into
(4) Autosomal recessive mice, mice did not die

SECTION - B 141. Lac z, lac y and lac a gene in Lac operon are
136. Select the incorrect statement from the following (1) Structural genes (2) Regulator genes
(1) Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of (3) Promoter genes (4) Operator gene
metabolism 142. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
(2) Test cross involves crossing between F1 genome
hybrid and recessive parent. (1) Chromosome 1 has most genes
(3) Genetic variation in a population arises due (2) More than 20 percent of the genome codes
to mutation only for proteins
(4) Phenotype of an organism is the result of (3) Repeated sequences make up very large
genotype and environment interaction. portion of human genome
137. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. ABO blood (4) Dystrophin is the largest known human gene
groups in humans

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

143. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic 147. Characteristics of sexual reproduction are all,
material came from the experiment of which of except
the following scientists? (1) Meiosis and syngamy
(1) Frederick griffith (2) Slow, elaborate process
(2) Oswald Avery, Macleod, McCarty (3) Always biparental
(3) Meselson and Stahl (4) Complex process
(4) Hershey and Chase 148. Structural and functional deterioration of body
144. Select the correct match occurs in which phase of the life cycle of
(1) RNA polymerase II – 18S, 28S rRNA organism?
synthesis (1) Recovery phase
(2) RNA polymerase III – hnRNA synthesis (2) Juvenile phase
(3) Helicase – Unwinding of double helical (3) Reproductive phase
parental DNA strands (4) Senescent phase
(4) RNA polymerase II – tRNA, SnRNA 149. Pre-fertilization event consists of
synthesis
(a) Gametogenesis
145. Clone formed by asexual reproduction is group of
(b) Gamete transfer
(1) Morphologically similar individuals
(c) Fusion of gametes
(2) Genetically similar individuals
(1) Only (b)
(3) Morphologically similar but genetically distinct
(2) Only (c)
individuals
(3) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only (a) and (b)
146. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual
reproduction. 150. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. multiple
(1) Involves only a single parent allelism.

(2) Can occur through specialised or (1) Presence of more than two alleles for a gene
unspecialised part of parent (2) Can be exemplified with ABO blood grouping
(3) Gamete formation is absent in human beings
(4) Simple and quick method (3) Shows exception to Mendelian principles
(4) Can only be detected in an individual
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 154. An organism that does not exhibit sporulation is
151. Hard calcareous shell is found outside the egg in (1) Plasmodium (2) Paramoecium
all of the given organism except
(3) Monocystis (4) Amoeba
(1) Pteropus (2) Pavo
155. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. clones.
(3) Chameleon (4) Naja
(1) Genetically and morphologically similar to
152. Number of chromosomes in meiocyte of housefly their parents
is
(2) Formed as a result of somatogenic
(1) 8 (2) 12 reproduction
(3) 6 (4) 19 (3) Each individual of a clone is referred to as a
153. Life span of crocodile is about ramet.
(1) 60 years (2) 70 years (4) Can form as a result of asexual or sexual
reproduction
(3) 80 years (4) 30 years
156. Choose the odd one w.r.t. hermaphrodites.
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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

(1) Tapeworm (2) Earthworm (3) Macaca (4) Equus

(3) Leech (4) Cockroach 163. If a single organism has both male and female
157. Read the following statements carefully. reproductive organs, then the organism is known
as follows except
(A) Death of every organism is inevitable
because all organisms are mortal. (1) Monoecious (2) Unisexual
(3) Hermaphrodite (4) Bisexual
(B) A variety of plant and animal species are well
maintained on earth through the process of 164. Choose the correct sequence of events that
reproduction. occurs during sexual reproduction in humans.
(C) Life expectancy is the characteristic of a A. Gestation
population.
B. Fertilisation
(D) Only the organism’s internal physiology is
C. Insemination
responsible for how it reproduces.
D. Gametogenesis
From the above statements, how many are
correct? E. Parturition
(1) One (2) Two F. Implantation
(3) Three (4) Four (1) D → C → B → F → E → A
158. Read thefollowingstatements and select the (2) C → D → B → F → A → E
correct option.
(3) B → D → F → A → C → E
Statement (X): In asexual mode of reproduction,
somatic cells undergo mitosis during the (4) D → C → B → F → A → E
formation of a new individual. 165. Read the following statements and select the
Statement (Y): There is no mixing of genetic correct one w.r.t. human male reproductive
material, so no new combination or variation system.
takes place in agamogenesis. (1) Male reproductive system is located in the
(1) Only statement X is correct pelvic region.
(2) Only statement Y is correct (2) Each testis is oval in shape with 2-3 cm in
length and 5-6 cm in width.
(3) Both statements X and Y are correct
(3) Each testis has about 350 testicular lobules.
(4) Both statements X and Y are incorrect
(4) Scrotum helps in maintaining the low
159. Gemmule formation occurs in
temperature of testes, that is 4°-5°C lower
(1) Obelia (2) Physalia than normal body temperature necessary for
(3) Spongilla (4) Hydra spermatogenesis.
160. All of the following are advantages of asexual 166. In ovary of an adult human female, ovarian
reproduction except stroma is enclosed by
(1) Rapid mode of reproduction (1) Germinal epithelium which produces female
(2) Uniparental germ cells
(2) Germinal epithelium which does not produce
(3) No formation of new adoptive variations
germ cells
(4) Simpler than sexual reproduction
(3) Thick epithelium which produces hormones
161. Select the organism that has the shortest life (4) Peripheral cortex which contains developing
span. follicles
(1) Crow (2) Dog 167. How many of the cells given in the box below are
(3) Butterfly (4) Cow haploid?
162. All are seasonal breeders except Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocyte,
Secondary spermatocyte, Spermatid, Sperm,
(1) Panthera (2) Canis
Oogonia, Primary oocyte, Secondary oocyte,

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

Ootid (2) Both statements are incorrect.

(1) Four (2) Six (3) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Seven (4) Five (4) Only statement B is correct.
168. If sperms per ejaculate are 300 million in a 173. Life span of crow is
healthy adult man, then at least how may sperms
(1) 15 years (2) 60 years
must show vigorous motility per ejaculate for
normal fertility? (3) 20-25 years (4) 140 years
(1) 24 million (2) 72 million 174. Choose the odd one with respect to ploidy.
(3) 68 million (4) 10 million (1) Ootid
169. Read the statements carefully and select the (2) Secondary oocyte
correct option. (3) Spermatid
Statement A: The enlarged end of penis is called (4) Primary spermatocyte
glans penis.
175. Read the following statements and choose the
Statement B: Skene's glands are present at the correct option.
base of penis. Statement A - The period from birth to the
(1) Both statements A and B are correct. natural death of an organism is called life span.
(2) Only statement A is correct Statement B - Maximum life span is the
(3) Only statement B is correct characteristic feature of species.
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(2) Both statements are correct
170. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
milk flow in mammary glands during ejection of
milk? (4) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
A. Alveoli B. Mammary ampulla 176. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view
of female pelvis showing the reproductive
C. Mammary duct D. Lactiferous duct
system.
E. Mammary tubules
(1) A → C → E → B → D
(2) A → B → E → C → D
(3) E → A → C → B → D
(4) A → E → C → B → D
171. If we take a transverse section of middle piece of
sperm, which of the following structures can be
seen?
Select the option with correct labelling.
(1) Nucleus and centrioles
(1) a – Urethra, b – Clitoris, c – Labia minora,
(2) Centrioles and mitochondria
d –Labia majora
(3) Acrosome and nucleus
(2) a – Vestibule, b – Urethra, c – Labia minora,
(4) Axial filament and mitochondria d – Labia majora
172. Read the given statements and select the correct (3) a – Urethra, b – Clitoris, c – Vagina,
option. d – Labia minora
Statement A: Reproduction is a biological (4) a – Vestibule, b – Vagina, c – Clitoris, d –
process in which an organism gives rise to young Labia minora
ones. 177. Complete the analogy w.r.t. life span.
Statement B: Reproduction enables continuity of Butterfly: 1-2 weeks : : Tortoise :
the species generation after generation.
(1) 50-80 years (2) 80-90 years
(1) Both statements are correct.

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E)

(3) 100-150years (4) 180-200years (1) Fallopian tube – 10 to 12 cm long

178. The narrow part of the fallopian tube closest and
(2) Ovary – 2 to 4 cm in length
linked to the uterus is
(1) Infundibulum (2) Fimbriae (3) Testis – 8 to 9 cm in length

(3) Ampulla (4) Isthmus (4) Testis – 2 to 3 cm in width

179. The function of Leydig cells is to 185. Mitochondria is present in which part of human
(1) Produce androgens sperm?
(2) Provide nutrition to developing sperms (1) Tail (2) Neck
(3) Lubricate penis (3) Head (4) Middle piece
(4) Provide immunity to testes SECTION - B
180. Read the following statements. 186. Read the following statements and choose the
Statement A:Vasa efferentia leave each testis correct option.
and open into the epididymis located behindeach Statement A: Penis in male is homologous to
testis. female clitoris.
Statement B :The epididymis leads to vas Statement B: Labia minora in female is
deferens that loops over the urinary bladder. homologous to male scrotum.
Choose the correct option from the following. (1) Both statements are correct.
(1) Only statement A is correct. (2) Both statements are incorrect.
(2) Only statement B is correct. (3) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Both statements A and B are correct. (4) Only statement B is correct.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect 187. The primary female sex organ is
181. Match column I with column II and choose the (1) Uterus (2) Ovary
correct option. (3) Oviduct (4) Vagina

Column I Column II 188. In which part of mammary gland some milk can
be temporarily stored before going to lactiferous
a. Clitoris (i) 250 lobules duct?
b. Mammary glands (ii) 15 to 20 mammary (1) Mammary duct
lobes per breast (2) Mammary ampullae
c. Testis (iii) Erectile tissue (3) Mammary tubules
(4) Areola
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
189. Ovarian follicles are present in
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) Ovarian capsule
182. Which among the following structures is
unpaired? (2) Cortex of ovarian stroma
(3) Medulla of ovarian stroma
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Bulbourethral gland
(4) Ovarian ligament
(3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Prostate gland
190. The rupture of the Graafian follicle under the
183. Seminal plasma is rich in
influence of LH leads to the formation of yellowish
(1) Fructose only body, corpus luteum, which secretes
(2) Fructose and calcium only (1) Progesterone and estrogen
(3) Fructose, calcium and prostaglandins (2) hCG and cortisol
(4) Calcium and prostaglandins only (3) Estrogen and FSH
184. Select the incorrect match among the following (4) hCG and FSH
for an adult human.

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Fortnightly Test-11 (Code-E) Regular Medical -2023

191. Read the given statements and choose the Choose the correctoption from the following.
correct option. (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
Statement A : In females, oogenesis is initiated (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
during the embryonic development stage.
194. A cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and
Statement B : At puberty total 60,000-80,000 pubic hair in female external genitalia is known as
primary follicles are left in both the ovaries.
(1) Mons pubis (2) Hymen
(1) Only statement A is correct.
(3) Labia minora (4) Clitoris
(2) Only statement B is correct.
195. How many spermatozoa are produced by two
(3) Both statement A and statement B are primary spermatocytes and how many ova are
correct. produced by two primary oocytes respectively?
(4) Both statement A and statement B are (1) Two, two (2) Four, two
incorrect.
(3) Eight, four (4) Eight, two
192. The wall of uterus is made up of (a) layers,
196. Enzymes which facilitate the fertilisation of ovum
(b) is the site of implantation and (c) are secreted from which part of the sperm?
undergoes contractions during delivery of baby. (1) Head (2) Neck
Select the option that fills the blanks correctly. (3) Middle piece (4) Tail
(1) (a) Two, (b) Myometrium, 197. Sertoli cells function under the influence of which
(c) Perimetrium pituitary hormone?
(2) (a) Three, (b) Myometrium, (1) GnRH (2) FSH
(c) Endometrium (3) LH (4) ICSH
(3) (a) Three, (b) Endometrium, 198. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. life span.
(c) Myometrium (1) Crocodile - 180 years
(4) (a) Three, (b) Endometrium, (2) Crow - 15 years
(c) Perimetrium (3) Parrot - 140 years
193. Match the following columns and select the (4) Tortoise - 100 to 150 years
correct option. 199. Life expectancy is the characteristic of
Column I Column II (1) Population (2) Individual
a. Primary oocyte (i) Arrested at (3) Species (4) Genus
prophase - I 200. During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes
b. Zona pellucida (ii) Granulosa cells (1) Mitosis only
c. Corona radiata (iii) Glycoproteinaceous (2) Meiosis only
acellular layer (3) Cell differentiation only
d. Secondary oocyte (iv) Arrested at (4) Mitosis and cell differentiation
metaphase-II

❑ ❑ ❑

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