GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA

DEPARTMENT OF SCHOOL EDUCATION (PRE-UNIVERSITY)

REVISED QUESTION BANK-2024-25

CLASS: II PUC
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY (36)
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MEMBERS OF THE QUESTION BANK PREPARATION COMMITTEE
II PUC
BIOLOGY (36)

1. Dr. DEVARAJU. R COORDINATOR

Lecturer in Biology
GPU College
KR Puram, Bangalore
South Phone -
9986378365
[email protected]

2. Dr. SAMPATH KUMARA K.K REVIEWER

Lecturer in Biology
GPU College (Boys)
PB Road, PJ Extension,
Davanagere (Dist)
Phone - 9481819845
kumarakkasampath@gmail.
com

3. MRS. SMITHA JOSHMA FERNANDES MEMBER

Lecturer in
Biology GPU
College, Sanoor
Karkala, Udupi
(Dist) Phone -
9886266907
[email protected]

4. Dr. NAGABHUSHAN MEMBER

Lecturer in
Biology GPU
College (Boys)
Krishnarajpet
Mandya (Dist)
Phone - 9964227570
[email protected]
m

5. MRS. VIMALA. R North

Lecturer in Biology Phone -
GPU College, 9880263970
Yelahanka Bangalore vimmygpucylk.
[email protected]
MEMBER
 CHAPTER 1
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. The function of tapetum in microsporangium is
a) It nourishes the developing pollen grains
b) It helps in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen
c) It helps in protection
d) It helps in division
2. Select the correct sequence of anther wall layers.
a) Epidermis → Middle layers → Endothecium → Tapetum
b) Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle layers → Tapetum
c) Epidermis → Tapetum → Middle layers → Endothecium
d) Tapetum → Middle layers → Epidermis → Endothecium
3. Select the correct sequence of events in microsporogenesis.
a) Sporogenous tissue → Microspore mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Microspores
b) Microspores → Microspore mother cell → Microspore tetrad → Sporogenous tissue
c) Sporogenous tissue → Microspore tetrad → Microspores → Microspore mother cell
d) Microspores → Sporogenous tissue → Microspore tetrad → Microspore mother cell
4. The most resistant organic material present on exine of pollen grain is
a) Tapetum b) Pectin c) Sporopollenin d) Cellulose
5. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
a) Pollen kit b) Cellulosic intine c) Oil content d) Sporopollenin
6. Select the incorrect statement with respect to vegetative cell of pollen grain.
a) Bigger than generative cell
b) Has abundant food reserve
c) Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus
d) Floats in the cytoplasm of generative cell
7. Which one of the following statements is not true?
a) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies.
b) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in crop breeding programmes.
c) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.
d) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
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8. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
a) -120°C b) -80°C c) -160°C d) -196°C
9. The functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into an
a) Endosperm b) Embryo sac c) Embryo d) Ovule
10. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis
a) Involve meiosis b) Occur in ovule
c) Occur in anther d) Form gametes without further divisions
11. Function of filiform apparatus is to
a) Recognise the suitable pollen at stigma b) Stimulate division of generative cell
c) Produce nectar d) Guide the entry of pollen tube
12. From the statements given below, choose the option that is true for a typical female
gametophyte of a flowering plant.
A) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
B) It is free-nuclear during the development
C) It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
D) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end
a) A) and D) b) B) and C) c) A) and B) d) B) and D)
13. Identify the correct sequence of arrangement of cells in the mature embryo sac from the
micropylar end.
a) Synergids → Egg Cell → Central cell → Antipodal
b) Antipodals → Central Cell → Egg cell → Synergids
c) Synergids → Central Cell → Egg cell → Antipodals
d) Antipodals → Egg cell → Central Cell → Synergids
14. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
a) Placenta is located outside the ovarian cavity.
b) Central cell develops into PEC after fertilization.
c) Orchids contain more than one ovule in an ovary.
d) Egg apparatus consists of one egg cell and two synergid cells.
15. Even in the absence of pollinating agents, seed setting is assured in
a) Cucurbita b) Papaya c) Commelina d) Maize
16. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma of another flower of the same plant is
known as
a) Autogamy b) Xenogamy c) Cleistogamy d) Geitonogamy

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17. Which pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?
a) Geitonogamy b) Xenogamy c) Autogamy d) Cleistogamy
18. Dioecious plants are
a) Autogamous only b) Both autogamous and geitonogamous
c) Both geitonogamous and xenogamous d) Xenogamous only
19. Statement I: In Viola, both autogamy and geitonogamy is prevented.
Statement II: Geitonogamy is similar to autogamy since pollen grains comes from the
same plant.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
20. Which is not a characteristic feature of wind pollinated flowers?
a) Feathery stigma b) Presence of single ovule in ovary
c) Pollen grains are non-sticky d) Flowers are very colourful
21. Wind pollination is common in
a) Legumes b) Lilies c) Grasses d) Orchids
22. Double fertilization is
a) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs
b) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
c) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
d) Syngamy and triple fusion
23. In a fertilized embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures are-
a) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
b) Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei c) Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote
d) Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
24. Haploid condition is not observed in which of the following cells
a) Synergids and Egg b) Zygote and PEN
c) Antipodal and Egg d) Antipodal and Synergids
25. Endosperm persist in the mature seed in
a) Groundnut b) Castor c) Pea d) Beans
26. Coconut water from a tender coconut is
a) Innermost layers of the seed coat b) Degenerated nucellus
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 c) Immature embryo d) Free nuclear endosperm
27. In a monocot embryo, shoot apex and leaf primordia are enclosed in a hollow foliar
structure called
a) Pericarp b) Coleoptile c) Endosperm d) Coleorrhiza
28. Perisperm differs from endosperm in
a) Being a diploid tissue b) Being a haploid tissue c) Having no reserve food
d) Its formation by fusion of a secondary nucleus with several sperms
29. Non-albuminous seed is produced in
a) Maize b) Castor c) Wheat d) Pea
30. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
a) Jackfruit b) Banana c) Brinjal d) Apple
31. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

a) D-Seed b) A-Mesocarp c) B-endocarp d) C-Thalamus

32. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is seen in
a) Grasses b) Asteraceae c) Citrus d) Both grasses and Asteraceae
33. Statement I: Apomixis is the production of seeds from unfertilized ovules.
Statement II: Embryos produced from apomictic seeds are not generally identical to the
parent plant.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true
c) Statement I and statement II both are true
d) Statement I and statement II both are false
34. Statement I: Formation of fruit without fertilization is called apomixis.
Statement II: In some species of Asteraceae and grasses seeds are formed without
fertilization.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

4
 d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
35. The following picture is an example for

a) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium b) Multicarpellary,syncarpous gynoecium

c) Monocarpellary gynoecium d) Apocarpous gynoecium
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Embryogeny, Amorphophallus, Self-incompatibility, Micropyle, Perisperm, Polyembryony,
Zostera, Tapetum, Strawberry, Microsporogenesis, Lupine, Pollen grain, Scutellum,
Emasculation, Castor)

1. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is
called .
2. is the innermost wall layer of microsporangium.
3. Embryo sac is to ovule as is to an anther.
4. The opening of the angiosperm ovule where the integument is absent is known as
.
5. is an example for water pollinated plant.
6. An example for plant that gives floral reward by providing a safe place to lay insect eggs
is .
7. The genetic mechanism that prevents self-pollen from fertilizing the ovules by inhibiting
pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil is known as .
8. The removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehiscence in bisexual
flower is referred as
9. The early stages of embryo development are called .
10. An example for albuminous seed is .
11. The residual persistent nucellus present in some seeds is called .
12. In the grass family the cotyledon of embryo is called .
13. is an example for false fruit.
14. An example for oldest viable seed is .

5
15. If more than one embryo occurs in a seed then it is known as .
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. Mention four wall layers of microsporangium.
2. Write a note on tapetum.
3. Mention two differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis.
4. Complete the tabular column given below with respect to the male gametophyte of
angiosperms.
Cells of the male gametophyte
Shape of nucleus of the cells

5. Write the significance of sporopollenin.

6. What is filiform apparatus? What is its significance?
7. Differentiate between chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
8. What are cleistogamous flowers? Name a plant showing this.
9. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy.
10. List the characteristic features of wind pollinated flowers.
11. Mention any two floral rewards offered by insect pollinated flowers to their pollinators.
12. “The flowering plants have evolved strategies to prevent self-pollination”. Justify by
giving two reasons.
13. Define: a) Emasculation b) Bagging
14. Define syngamy and triple fusion.
15. Name the four stages in dicotyledonous embryo development.
16. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a typical dicotyledonous embryo.
17. Distinguish between albuminous and non–albuminous seeds.
18. What is perisperm? Give an example.
19. Differentiate between false fruit and true fruit.
20. Why apple is called a false fruit? Which part(s) of the flower forms the fruit?
21. What is parthenocarpy? Give an example.
22. Name the phenomenon of formation of seed without fertilization in angiosperms. Give an
example of a plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
23. Define polyembryony. Mention the plant which exhibits polyembryony.

6
24. How are parthenocarpic fruits produced by some plants and apomictic seeds by some
others?
25. In the T.S. of an anther given below, identify “a” and “b” and mention their function.

PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Draw a labelled diagram of transverse section of a young anther.
2. Describe the structure of microsporangium.
3. Write any two commercial uses of pollen grains and mention the viability period of pollen
grains of Solanaceae members.
4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a typical anatropous ovule.
5. Describe the structure of megasporangium.
6. Explain the structure of a mature female gametophyte in flowering plants.
7. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a mature embryo sac.
8. List the characters of insect pollinated flowers.
9. What is artificial hybridization? Name the techniques that are employed to achieve this?
10. What is triple fusion? Where does it take place in the megasporangium? Name the nuclei
involved in triple fusion.
11. Draw a labelled diagram of the fertilized female gametophyte and mention the ploidy of
any one of the products of double fertilization.
12. Name the product of fertilisation that forms the kernel of coconut. How does the kernel
differ from coconut water?
13. Draw a L.S. of grass embryo and label the following parts:
a) Scutellum b) Coleoptile c) Shoot apex
d) Radicle e) Root cap f) Coleorrhiza
14. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a monocot seed.
15. ‘Fertilization is not an obligatory event for fruit production in certain plants’. Justify the
statement.

7
16. Explain any three advantages the seeds offer to angiosperms.
17. Why are some seeds referred to as apomictic seeds? Mention its advantages to a farmer
who uses them.
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Explain the structure of pollen grain.
2. Schematically represent the development of a female gametophyte in angiosperms.
3. Answer the following:
a) Explain different types of pollination based on the source of pollen. (3)
b) List the characteristic features of water pollinated flowers. (2)
4. How does pollination occur in Vallisneria and Zostera.
5. Pollen-Pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by
promotion or inhibition. Explain.
6. Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and
encourage cross-pollination. Comment.
7. Answer the following:
a) Double fertilization is a unique event in flowering plants. Briefly explain. (3)
b) Arrange the following terms in the correct developmental sequence: Pollen grain,
Sporogenous tissue, Microspore tetrad, Pollen mother cell, Male gametes. (2)
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. A picture of a mature angiosperm embryo sac is given below, answer the question that
follow.

a) Which cells or nuclei of the embryo sac produce zygote and primary endosperm
nucleus? (2)
b) What is the ploidy of antipodal cells and primary endosperm nucleus? (2)
c) Why the endosperm development precedes embryo development? (1)

8
2. Picture related to pollination is given below. Answer the questions that follow:

a) Will this pollination confirms fertilization? (2)

b) What are the floral rewards provided by the plants to the insects to revisit? (1)
c) Mention the characteristics of flower in this pollination other than floral rewards. (2)
3. Answer the following:
a) Plan an experiment and prepare a flow chart of the steps that you would follow to
ensure that the seeds are formed only from the desired sets of pollen grains.
(3)
b) Name the type of experiment that you carried out.
(1)
c) Write the importance of such experiments.
(1)
4. Double fertilization is the unique feature of angiosperms and the products of this double
fertilization are zygote and PEN. In context of this, when a hexaploid plant is pollinated
by a tetraploid plant find out the ploidy of zygote and PEN through a schematic
illustration.
5. Why is the process of fertilization in angiosperms termed as double fertilization? Draw a
diagram of an angiospermic embryo sac where fertilization is just completed and label the
following parts:
a) The part that develops into an embryo. b) The part that develops into an endosperm.
c) The degenerating cells at the chalazal end.
6. Answer the following:
a) Double fertilization is reported in plants of both, castor and groundnut. However, the
mature seed of groundnut is non-albuminous and castor is albuminous. Explain the post
fertilization events that are responsible for it. (3)
b) Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit whereas oranges show polyembryony. How are they
different from each other with res
ect to seeds? (2)
************************

9
 CHAPTER 2

HUMAN REPRODUCTION
PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. Scrotum helps in maintaining the temperature of testes which is A lower than the normal
body temperature. Each of testes has about B compartments and measures C cm in
length. Select the option that fills the blanks correctly.
A B C
a) 1-3°C 250 4-6
b) 2-2.5°C 250 4-5
c) 3-3.5°C 300 2-3
d) 2-2.5°C 250 2-3
2. Spot the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive
system.
a) Rete testis b) Epididymis c) Vasa efferentia d) Isthmus
3. Which of the following is not a male accessory gland?
a) Seminal vesicle b) Ampulla c) Prostate d) Bulbourethral gland
4. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
a) Epididymis b) Ejaculatory duct c) Efferent ductule d) Ureter
5. The function of myometrium layer present in the uterine wall is to
a) Undergo cyclical changes during menstrual cycle.
b) Exhibit strong uterine contraction during parturition.
c) Give protection to the uterus. d) Help in the implantation process.
6. Sertoli cells are found in
a) Ovaries and secrete progesterone b) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
c) Seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
d) Pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin.
7. The cells that secrete testicular hormones (androgens) are .
a) Sertoli celles b) Leydig cells c) Germ cells d) Spermatogonia
8. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
a) Fructose and calcium b) Glucose and calcium
c) DNA and testosterone d) Ribose and potassium

10
9. Statement I: The process of release of sperms from the seminiferous tubule is called
spermatogenesis.
Statement II: The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called
spermiogenesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statements I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
10. In spermatogenesis, if FSH hormone is not secreted from the anterior pituitary gland,
which stage is affected
a) Formation of primary spermatocyte b) Formation of spermatozoa
c) Formation of spermatid d) Formation of secondary spermatocyte
11. To produce 2000 sperm and 400 ova, how many spermatogonia and oogonia are required?
a) 500 spermatogonia and 200 oogonia b) 500 spermatogonia and 400 oogonia
c) 250 spermatogonia and 250 oogonia d) 250 spermatogonia and 400 oogonia
12. Diploid number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte is 46. What is the total
number of chromatids in each of its secondary spermatocyte?
a) 46 b) 23 c) 92 d) 69
13. The secondary spermatocytes undergo the second meiotic division to produce four equal,
haploid
a) Spermatogonium b) Spermatids c) Primary spermatocyte d)Secondary spermatocyte
14. The process of transformation of spermatids into sperm is
a) Spermiation b) Spermatogenesis c) Spermiogenesis d) Insemination
15. The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called .
a) Spermiation b) Spermatogenesis c) Spermiogenesis d) Spermioteliosis
16. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
a) Spermatogonia → spermatozoa →spermatocytes → spermatids
b) Spermatogonia →spermatocytes → spermatids → spermatozoa
c) Spermatids → spermatocytes → spermatogonia → spermatozoa
d) Spermatogonia → spermatocytes → spermatozoa → spermatids
17. In female, oogenesis is initiated during
a) Ovulation b) Puberty c) Childhood d) Embryonic development stage
11
18. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
a) Spermatogonia b) Zygote c) Secondary oocyte d) Oogonia
19. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is a hypothalamic hormone which stimulates
pituitary gland to secrete .
a) LH and FSH b) FSH and Oxytocin c) LH and Oxytocin d) Progestorone
20. Identify the incorrect pair with respect to menstrual cycle.
a) Formation of corpus luteum-15th to 28th day
b) Secretion of progesterone -15th to 28th day
c) Regeneration of endometrium-5th to 13th day
d) Disintegration of endometrium- 5th to 13th day
21. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone, which is essential for
maintenance of
a) Perimetrium b) Myometrium c) Endometrium d) Cervical canal
22. Progesterone hormone is secreted by
a) Testis b) Pituitary gland c) Corpus luteum d) Graafian follicle
23. Which of the following statement is true?
a) LH surge induces menstruation. b) Regression of corpus luteum increases progesterone.
c) Diploid egg is formed after second meiotic division.
d) Embryo differentiates from the inner cell mass of blastocyst.
24. When does the second meiotic division occur in the secondary oocyte?
a) At the time of birth b) At the time of fertilization
c) At the time of puberty d) At the time of ovulation
25. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option
given below:
Column I Column II
A. Proliferative phase (i) Breakdown of endometrial lining
B. Secretory phase (ii) Follicular phase
C. Menstruation (iii) Luteal phase
A B C
a) (iii) (ii) (i)
b) (i) (iii) (ii)
c) (ii) (iii) (i)
d) (iii) (i) (ii)

12
26. The secondary oocyte after ovulation is covered by a non-cellular layer of
a) Cumulus oophorus b) Corona radiata c) Zona pellucida d) Cortical layer
27. Choose the correct option from the table given below for the formation and dissolution of
the labelled part in the given diagram.

Formed by Dissolved
a) Primary oocyte before fertilisation
b) Primary oocyte after fertilisation
c) Secondary oocyte before fertilisation
d) Secondary oocyte after fertilisation
28. Which of the following hormones is produced only during pregnancy?
a) hCG b) LH c) Oestrogen d) FSH
29. The hormone is secreted by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy.
a) Androgens b) Oestrogens c) Relaxin d) Progestogens
30. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
a) hCG b) Oestrogen c) Progesterone d) LH
31. Morula is a developmental stage
a) Between the zygote and blastocyst b) Between the blastocyst and gastrula
c) After the implantation d) Between implantation and parturition
32. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta?
a) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
b) Secretes oxytocin during parturition
c) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo d) Secretes estrogen
33. During pregnancy the foetus develops limbs and digits
a) After three weeks b) After eight weeks c) After six weeks d) After nine weeks
34. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed
during which month of pregnancy?
a) Fourth month b) Fifth month c) Sixth month d) Third month
35. During embryonic development embryo’s heart formed at the end of

13
 a) First trimester b) Second trimester c) First month d) Third month
36. Signals for parturition originate from
a) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus b) Placenta only
c) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary d) Fully developed foetus only
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Oxytocin, Menarche, Placenta, Alveoli, Fimbriae, Ovulation, Antrum, Acrosome,
Endometrium, Colostrum, Stem, Fertilization, Competent cells, Parturition, Blastocyst,
Luteinising hormone)
1. The interstitial space in seminiferous tubules consists of immunologically .
2. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like projections called .
3. The cells of secrete milk in the mammary glands.
4. The anterior portion of the sperm head is covered by a cap like structure called .
5. Tertiary follicle is characterized by a fluid filled cavity called .
6. The first menstruation begins at puberty is called .
7. The glandular layer of uterus that undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle is
8. The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called .
9. Ovulation is induced by a hormone called .
10. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen and progesterone are produced by .
11. The fusion of male and female gametes is called .
12. The cells of the inner mass of embryo have the potency to give rise to all the
tissues and organs.
13. Zygote divides to form which is implanted in the uterus.
14. The hormone which helps in parturition is .
15. The process of delivery of the foetus is called .
16. contains several antibodies which is absolutely essential to develop resistance
for the new-born babies.
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks each
1. Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which
they are present.
2. List the accessory ducts of male reproductive system in humans.

14
3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of sectional view of seminiferous tubules.
4. Mention the two functions of Sertoli cells.
5. Name any two accessory ducts of the female reproductive system in humans.
6. What is the number of chromosomes in the following cells of a human female?
a) Primary oocyte b) Secondary oocyte
7. Mention any four parts of the external genitalia in human females.
8. Mention the roles of LH and FSH during spermatogenesis.
9. Name the cells which synthesize the androgen. Mention the hormone which stimulates the
cells to produce androgen.
10. Write the function each for the following:
a) Seminal vesicle b) Acrosome of human sperm
11. “Acrosome and middle piece of the sperm are very essential parts of the sperm without
which fertilization does not occur”. Justify the statement.
12. Differentiate spermiogenesis from spermiation.
13. How is ‘oogenesis’ markedly different from ‘spermatogenesis’ with respect to the growth
till puberty in the humans?
14. List the events of menstrual cycle.
15. Differentiate between Menarche and Menopause.
16. Define ovulation. Mention the hormone that induces ovulation.
17. Mention two events that occur during the luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
18. Mention the fate of corpus luteum and its effect on the uterus in absence of fertilisation of
the ovum in a human female.
19. Define fertilization. In which part of the fallopian tube of the female reproductive system
fertilization occurs?
20. Define: a) Cleavage b) Implantation
21. List any four hormones secreted by placenta.
22. Why is oxytocin necessary for parturition?
23. What is parturition? Name the hormone released by the pituitary which induces
parturition.
24. “Unless foetal ejection reflex is produced, normal parturition does not occur”. Substantiate
the statement.
25. What is colostrum? Mention its benefits.

15
 PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human sperm.
2. Write the schematic representation of spermatogenesis.
3. Name the accessory glands of the male reproductive system in humans.
4. Trace the path of spermatozoa from the testes up to the ejaculatory duct.
5. Explain the organisation of glandular tissue in a breast of human females.
6. Give the schematic representation of oogenesis.
7. Mention the events that occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle.
8. What is placenta? List the functions of human placenta.
9. Parturition is induced by complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Comment.
10. Explain the changes that occur in ovary and uterus during luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
11. In the figure given below, parts A and B show the level of hormones which influence the
menstrual cycle. Study the figure and answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the organs/glands which secrete the hormones represented in labelled parts A &
B. (1)
b) State the role of hormones secreted from part B on the uterus of human female during
menstrual cycle. (2)
12. Briefly explain the process of fertilization in humans.
13. In humans, sex of the baby is determined by the father and not the mother. Justify.
14. When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? State their function.
15. Study the following flow chart. Name the hormones involved at each stage. Explain their
functions. Hypothalamus → Pituitary → Testes → Sperms
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the sectional view human male reproductive system.

16
2. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the sectional view of human female reproductive system.
3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the sectional view of mammary gland.
4. Differentiate between spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
5. Trace the development of oocytes till ovulation in human female reproductive system in
menstrual cycle.
6. Describe the various events that occur during menstrual cycle.
7. Briefly explain the embryonic development in humans.
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubule of a human. Label the following cells in the
seminiferous tubule:
a) Cells that divide by mitosis to increase their number.
b) Cells that undergo Meiosis I. c) Cells that undergo Meiosis II.
d) Cells that help in the process of spermiogenesis.
e) Cells produced due to spermiogenesis.
2. Answer the following:
a) Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian changes during menstrual cycle. Fill in the
spaces with the hormonal factor(s) responsible for the events shown. (3)
b) Women experience two major events in their life time, one at menarche and the second
at menopause. Mention the characteristics of both the events. (2)

3. Answer the following:

a) Why does corpus luteum secrete large amount of progesterone during luteal/secretory
phase of the menstrual cycle? (3)
b) Medically it is advised to all young mothers that breast feeding is the best for their
newborn babies. Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your answer. (2)
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17
 CHAPTER 3

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
PART- A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. According to WHO, reproductive health means a total well being in all aspects of
reproduction like
a) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Social b) Physical, Emotional, Social, Life style
c) Physical, Social, Behavioural, Life style
d) Physical, Emotional, Behavioural, Life style
2. Abbreviate ‘Reproductive and Child Health Care’ programme.
a) RACHC b) RCHC c) RCH d) RC
3. What are the major tasks under reproductive and child health care programs?
a) Create awareness about reproductive health among people.
b) Educate people about reproductive process
c) Establish reproductive health care in hospitals
d) Reproductive and child health.
4. Statement I: Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged.
Statement II: This will encourage children to believe in myths about sex related aspects.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
5. Decreased MMR and IMR and increased people in reproducible age in a population will
result in
a) Increase in growth rate b) Decrease in growth rate
c) No significant change in growth rate d) Stable growth rate
6. Which of the following is an indicator of a reproductively unhealthy society?
a) Increase in infant mortality rate b) Decline in maternal mortality rate
c) Widespread awareness of contraceptive methods
d) Detection and cure of sexually transmitted diseases
7. Statement I: Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination.
Statement II: Amniocentesis was being misused for aborting normal female foetus

18
 a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
8. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure where some of the amniotic fluid of the developing
foetus is drawn to analyse the foetal cells and dissolved substances. It was banned in India
in order to stop female foeticides. Which of the following highlight the importance of
amniocentesis despite the ban?
a) Identification of a decline in sex ratio
b) Prevention of sexually transmitted diseases
c) Determination of biological sex of the unborn baby
d) Detection of genetic disorders
9. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
a) Downs’ syndrome b) Haemophilia c) Sex of the foetus d) Hepatitis
10. CDRI stands for
a) Common Drug Research Institute b) Chandigarh Drug Research Institute
c) Calcutta Drug Research Institute d) Central Drug Research Institute
11. What is true for natural methods of contraception?
a) They increase phagocytosis of sperms
b) They act as barriers to prevent fertilisation
c) They avoid chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
d) They are terminal methods
12. Statement I: Lactational amenorrhea is absence of menstruation during intense lactation
Statement II: This is a highly reliable method of contraception.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
13. Statement I: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy
or space children.
Statement II: IUDs are most widely accepted methods contraception in India.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

19
 c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
14. Statement I: Use of condom is a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases besides
checking pregnancy.
Statement II: Certain contraceptives are planted under the skin of the upper arm to
prevent pregnancy.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
15. Choose the incorrect statement with regard to diaphragm
a) They are reusable b) They block the entry of sperms
c) They are placed to cover the cervix d) They prevent ovulation
16. Which of the following is not a copper-releasing IUD?
a) LNG 20 b) CuT c) Cu7 d) Multiload 375
17. What makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to sperms?
a) Cu7 b) Lippe’s loop c) Multiload 375 d) Progestasert
18. Select the correct statement with respect to IUDs.
a) Once inserted need not be replaced. b) Inserted by user itself
c) Increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus d) Suppress gametogenesis
19. Statement I: IUDs can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain.
Statement II: IUDs can perforate uterus.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
20. Oral contraceptive pills mainly contain
a) Estrogen and luteinising hormone b) Progesterone and estrogen
c) Progesterone and luteinising hormone
d) Progesterone, estrogen and luteinising hormone
21. Select the incorrect statement regarding vasectomy?
a) No sperms in seminal fluid b) No sperm in epididymis
c) Vas deferentia is cut and tied d) No spermatogenesis
20
22. A widely accepted method of contraception in India is
a) IUDs b) Diaphragms c) Tubectomy d) Cervical caps
23. Which of the following contraceptives involve a role of hormones?
a) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Implants b) Pills, IUDs, Vaults
c) Pills, Condoms, CuT d) Pills, Implants, Diaphragms
24. Which of the following does not give the defined action of a contraceptive?
a) Hormonal method prevents or retards the entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and
fertilisation
b) Vasectomy prevents spermatogenesis c) Barrier method prevent fertilisation
d) Intra uterine devices increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and
fertilising capacity of sperms
25. Statement I: All contraceptives have the added advantage of protection against sexually
transmitted diseases.
Statement II: Natural birth control methods have negligible side effects.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
26. Which of the following are not completely curable?
a) Hepatitis B, Chlamydiasis, HIV infection
b) Trichomoniasis, Chlamydiasis, HIV infection
c) Hepatitis B, Trichomoniasis, HIV infection
d) Hepatitis B, Genital herpes, HIV infection
27. The incidences of sexually transmitted infections are reported to be very high among
persons in the age group of years.
a) 05-14 b) 15-24 c) 25-34 d) 35-44
28. A specialised procedure to form a embryo in the laboratory is
a) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer b) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
c) Artificial Insemination d) Intra Uterine Insemination
29. Statement I: GIFT is an in-vitro fertilisation technique.
Statement II : In GIFT, gametes are fertilised outside the female body
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

21
 c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
30. In vivo fertilisation occurs in
a) ZIFT b) GIFT c) ICSI d) IVF
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Family planning, Periodic abstinence, Coitus interrupts, Infertility, ICSI, surgical
intervention, venereal, Saheli, 72, 12, Amniocentesis, Condom)
1. The programs to get total reproductive health as a social goal at the national level are
called
2. A pre-natal diagnostic technique which was misused to illegally determine the sex of the
developing foetus is
3. The collective term given to the diseases which are transmitted through sexual intercourse
is diseases
4. A natural method of contraception in which the couples avoid coitus during the period of
menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected is
5. is a natural method of birth control based on the withdrawal of penis before
ejaculation.
6. The contraceptive that protects the user from contracting STIs and AIDS is
7. methods of contraception blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent
conception.
8. is an oral contraceptive for females, developed by scientists at the Central
Drug Research Institute, Lucknow.
9. Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs are
effective as emergency contraceptives within hours of coitus
10. MTPs are considered relatively safe upto weeks of pregnancy
11. Inability of the couple to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-habitation is

12. An assisted reproductive technology in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum to
ensure conception is
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each

22
1. Mention the major tasks under RCH programmes.
2. Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged. Why?
3. Which days of menstrual cycle are identified as “fertile period” and why?
4. Mention two benefits of condoms which are used as contraceptive devices.
5. What are IUDs? Give any two examples.
6. Parents of one year old child wanted to space their second child. Their doctor suggested
Cu-T. Explain its contraceptive actions.
7. Mention any two events that are inhibited by the intake of oral contraceptive pills to
prevent pregnancy in humans.
8. Why do women use ‘Saheli’, the oral contraceptive pill as a well accepted method?
9. What are emergency contraceptives? Write their hormonal combination.
10. List one contraceptive method each in males and females with poor reversibility.
11. Differentiate between vasectomy and tubectomy.
12. List the possible ill-effects of various contraceptive methods.
13. Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the genital region.
14. What are assisted reproductive technologies? Mention any two assisted reproductive
technologies (ARTs).
15. Suggest any two ARTs that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with
the female partner.
16. Explain the technique that can help a healthy married woman who is unable to produce
viable ova but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further
development and wants to bear a child.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Mention three strategies to promote reproductive health.
2. How is amniocentesis performed? Why it is legally banned in our country?
3. Mention the parameters that indicate improved reproductive health of the society.
4. List the measures taken by the government to check the population growth rate.
5. What are contraceptives? Mention the qualities of an ideal contraceptive.
6. Explain natural methods of contraception.
7. Explain barrier methods of contraception.
8. List the types of intra uterine devices with one example for each.

23
9. Categorise the following into different kinds of IUDs such as non-medicated, copper
releasing or hormone releasing ones:
a) Progestasert b) Lippes loop c) CuT d) LNG-20 e) Cu7
f) Multiload 375
10. Name any two copper releasing intra-uterine devices (IUDs). List two reasons that make
them effective contraceptives.
11. The picture shows the contraceptive device used by women.

a). Identify the contraceptive device shown in the picture. (1)

b). Mention how it prevents fertilization and conception. (2)
12. At the time of independence, the population of India was 350 million which exploded to
over 1 billion by May 2000. List any three reasons for this rise in population and any two
steps taken by the government to check this population explosion.
13. Shown below is the surgical method of contraception in human males.

a) Give the technical term for the process shown above. (1)
b) What is the principle behind it as a contraceptive method? (1)
c) How is the process carried out? (1)
14. Shown below is the surgical method of contraception in human females.

24
 a) Give the technical term for the process shown above. (1)
b) How is the process carried out? (1)
c) What is the principle behind it as a method of contraception? (1)
15. Name the hormonal composition of oral contraception used by human females. Explain
how does it act as contraceptive?
16. List any six reproductive tract infections or sexually transmitted diseases.
17. List three principles through which one could be free of STDs.
18. Define venereal disease. Mention the modes of transmission of HIV / Hepatitis B virus.
19. Suggest any three ARTs that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with
the male partner.
20. Explain the steps involved in In vitro fertilization popularly known as ‘test tube baby’
21. A healthy couple came to know that both of them are unable to produce functional
gametes and should look for an ART (Assisted Reproductive Technique). Name the ART
that can be suggested to help them bear a child and explain the procedure involved in it.
22. A large number of couples all over the world are infertile. Such infertile couples could be
assisted to have children through certain special techniques, commonly called 'Assisted
Reproductive Technologies' (ART).Give the technical term for each of the methods
described below.
a) Transfer of ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female, who
cannot produce functional ova, but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and
embryo development.
b) Semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the
uterus of a woman.
c) An embryo is formed in the laboratory by directly injecting the sperm into the ovum.
PART- D

V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:

5 Marks Each
1. Explain five measures that can be taken to build up a socially responsible and
reproductively healthy society?
2. A wide range of contraceptive methods are presently available. Broadly group them into
different categories.
3. a) What is Medical Termination of Pregnancy? (1)

25
 b) Mention two reasons for a woman to undergo medical termination of pregnancy. (2)
c) Mention any two medical grounds on which pregnancy can be terminated. (2)
4. Medical termination of pregnancy is termination of pregnancy before the foetus become
viable. To reduce the incidence of illegal abortion and consequent maternal mortality,
MTP Amendment Act, 2017 was enacted by the government of India. About 40-50
million MTPs are done in a year all over the world.
a) When was MTP legalized by government of India? (1)
b) When is MTP relatively safe? (1)
c) What is the significance of MTP? (3)
5. What are IUDs? Mention any two types with an example for each. How do IUDs help in
preventing conception?
6. Intrauterine devices are most widely accepted methods of contraception. These are used
by females and are inserted by doctor or nurses in the uterus through vagina. However
these devices are not recommended for those who eventually intend to conceive.
a) How does CuT prevent conception? (2)
b) Which IUDs makes uterus unsuitable for implantation? (1)
c) Name two hormone releasing IUDs (2)
7. Explain how oral contraceptives and sterilization help in contraception.
8. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur
in the genital region. Mention any four complications of STDs if they are not detected
early and treated properly.
9. What are assisted reproductive technologies? How infertility is treated by assisted
reproductive technologies? a) IVF-ET b) GIFT c) ZIFT
10. a) What is infertility? Mention any two causes for infertility. (3)
b) How is infertility treated by ICSI, AI? (2)
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Based on the picture related to contraceptives answer the question given below given
below.

26
 a) Identify the male and the female contraceptive devices, A and B. (2)
b) How do they prevent conception? (1)
c) Mention two advantages (other than contraception), why they are preferred. (2)
2. Explain natural method and sterilization method of contraception.
3. The picture shows the contraceptive device used by women.
a) Identify the contraceptive device shown in the picture. (1)

b) What does it contain? (1)

c) How is it used? (1)
d) How does it function as a contraceptive? (2)

************************

27
 CHAPTER 4
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION

PART – A

I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. A plant having the genotype AaBb will produce kinds of gametes
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
2. The colour based contrasting traits in seven contrasting pairs, studied by Mendel in pea
plant were
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
3. Which of the following characters was not chosen by Mendel?
a) Pod shape b) Pod colour c) Position of flower d) Position of pod
4. Which of the following is not a pair of opposing characteristics Mendel studied?
a) Axial and terminal flowers b) Full and constricted pods
c) Green and yellow pods d) Pink and white flowers.
5. A cross between two tall plants resulted in tall and dwarf plants. What would be the
genotypes of both the parents?
a) TT and Tt b) Tt and Tt c) TT and TT d) tt and tt
6. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, percentage of pure
homozygous individuals obtained in F1 generation will be
a) 25 % b) 50 % c) 75 % d) 100 %
7. What is the probability of production of dwarf offsprings in a cross betweeen two
heterozygous tall pea plants?
a) Zero b) 50 % c) 25 % d) 100 %
8. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and
genotypes are
a) Phenotypes – 4: Genotypes – 16 b) Phenotypes – 9: Genotypes – 4
c) Phenotypes – 4: Genotypes – 8 d) Phenotypes – 4: Genotypes – 9
9. Which of the following crosses will give tall and dwarf pea plants in same proportions?
a) TT × tt b) Tt × tt c) TT × Tt d) tt × tt
10. Mendel’s work was rediscovered by three scientists in the year
a) 1865 b) 1900 c) 1910 d) 1920
11. Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work?

28
 a) Avery, McLeod, McCarty b) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
c) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges d) De Vries, Correns and Tschemark
12. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), phenotypic ratio in F2 generation for the inheritance of
flower colour would be
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 2 : 1 c) 1 : 1 d) 2 : 1
13. What is the possible blood group of a offspring when both parents have AB blood group?
a) AB only b) A, B and AB c) A, B, AB and O d) A and B only
14. Genes located very close to one another on same chromosome tend to be transmitted
together and are called as
a) Allelomorphs b) Identical genes c) Linked genes d) Recessive genes
15. Chromosome maps or genetic maps were first prepared by
a) Sutton and Boveri b) Bateson and Punnett c) Morgan d) Sturtevant
16. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW – ZZ type of sex determination?
a) It occurs in birds
b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic.
c) Females are heterogametic and males are homogametic.
d) Total number of chromosomes is same in both male and female.
17. A couple has three daughters. What is the possibility of them having a son next time?
a) 0 % b) 25 % c) 50 % d) 100 %
18. Number of autosomes present in a normal human female cell is
a) 21 b) 22 pairs c) 23 d) 23 pairs
19. Haplodiploid sex determination is found in
a) Grasshoppers b) Birds c) Humans d) Honeybees
20. In XO type of sex determination
a) Females produce two different types of gametes
b) Males produce two different types of gametes
c) Females produce gametes with Y chromosome
d) Males produce gametes with Y chromosome.
21. Which of the following techniques may be used to identify an inheritance pattern within a
family?
a) Pedigree analysis b) Chromosome analysis
c) Nuclear analysis d) Cytoplasm analysis
22. When is it possible for a woman to be colorblind?

29
 a) The father has normal vision and the mother is a carrier
b) The father has normal vision and the mother is colorblind
c) The father is colorblind and the mother has a normal vision
d) The father is colorblind and the mother is a carrier.
23. A man marries a woman and both do not show any apparent traits of inherited disease.
Five sons and two daughters are born, and three of their sons suffer from a disease.
However, none of the daughters is affected. The following mode of inheritance for the
disease is
a) Sex-linked recessive b) Sex-linked dominant
c) Autosomal dominant d) Autosomal recessive
24. In sickle cell anaemia Glutamic acid is replaced by
a) Valine b) Histidine c) Glutamate d) Aspartate
25. How many possible sickle cell genotypes are there in the population?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
26. If both parents are unaffected carriers for Thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive
disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
a) 25 % b) 100 % c) 0% d) 50 %
27. Which of the following assertions about alpha-thalassemia is incorrect?
a) Involves the HBA1 and HBA2 genes
b) Is associated with the mutation or deletion of genes on chromosome 11
c) Is associated with the mutation or deletion of genes on chromosome 16
d) Leads to a reduction in the synthesis of globin
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Dominant, Consanguineous, Genotype, Sutton, Linkage, Incomplete dominance, Thomas
Hunt Morgan, Aneuploidy, Phenylketonuria, Factors, Monohybrid cross, Test cross,
Dihybrid cross, Thalassemia, Codominance, Alleles)
1. An individual’s collection of genes is called
2. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as
3. According to Mendel, characters are controlled by discrete units called
4. The characters appear in the first filial generation in heterogygous condition in
pea plants.
5. Mendel formulated the law of dominance on the basis of

30
 6. Law of independent assortment can be explained with the help of
7. To determine the genotype of a tall plant of F1 generation, Mendel crossed this plant with
a dwarf plant. This cross represents a
8. The inheritance of flower colour in dog flower is an example for
9. AB blood group is an example for
10. united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian
principles.
11. Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
12. The physical association of two genes is
13. The diseases caused by mutation in the gene that codes for the enzyme phenyl alanine
hydroxylase is

14. denotes mating

15. An autosome linked recessive blood disease is
16. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division resulting in the gain or loss of
chromosomes is called
PART – B
Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. Differentiate between homozygous and heterozygous conditions.
2. Differentiate between dominant and recessive alleles.
3. What is test cross? Write its significance.
4. State the law of segregation and law of independent assortment.
5. What is incomplete dominance? Give an example.
6. A pea plant with purple flowers was crossed with plant having white flowers. The progeny
produced only purple flowers. On selfing, these plants produced 482 plants with purple
flowers and 162 plants with white flowers. Explain the mechanism that accounts for these
results?
7. Name the respective pattern of inheritance where F1 phenotype
a) Does not resemble either of the two parents and is in between the two
b) Resembles only one of the two parents.
8. What is codominance? Give an example.
9. Distinguish between incomplete dominance and codominance.

31
10. What are multiple alleles? Give an example.
11. A child has blood group O. If the father has blood group A and mother blood group B,
work out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other offspring.
12. What is polygenic inheritance? Give an example.
13. ABO blood grouping in human population exhibits four possible phenotypes from six
different genotypes. Explain different mechanisms of inheritance involved in exhibiting
the possibility of four phenotypes and six genotypes.
14. Define pleiotropy. Give an example.
15. Differentiate between linkage and recombination.
16. List two features of Drosophila melanogaster which make it suitable for genetic experiments.
17. Differentiate male haterogamety from female heterogamety.
18. Define mutation. What are mutations causing agents called?
19. What are mutagens? Give example.
20. What is point mutation? Give an example.
21. What are Mendelian disorders? Give an example.
22. Schematically represent a pedigree chart of myotonic dystrophy.
23. Schematically represent a pedigree chart of sickle cell anaemia.
24. Mention the sixth codon of the beta globin chain in normal haemoglobin and the
haemoglobin of person with sickle celled anaemia.
25. Distinguish between α (Alpha) thalassemia and β (Beta) thalassemia.
26. What is aneuploidy? Give an example.
27. What is polyploidy? Give an example.
28. Distinguish between aneuploidy and polyploidy.
29. Write the genotype of
a) An individual who is carrier of sickle-cell anaemia gene but apparently unaffected (1)
b) An individual affected with the of sickle-cell anaemia disease. (1)
30. Mention a Mendelian disorder and its types where there is reduced synthesis of
haemoglobin.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Schematically represent the inheritance of height in pea plant.
2. Schematically represent the inheritance of colour and shape of seed in pea plant.

32
3. Schematically represent incomplete dominance in Antirrhinum.
4. When a tall Pea plant was selfed, it produced one-fourth of its progeny as dwarf. Explain
with the help of a cross.
5. A tall Pea plant with yellow seeds (heterozygous for both) is crossed with a dwarf Pea
plant with green seeds. Using a Punnet square work out the cross to show the phenotypes
and the genotypes of F1 generation.
6. A woman with blood group O married a man with AB group. Show the possible blood
groups of the progeny. List the alleles involved in this inheritance.
7. Four children with four different blood groups are born to parents where the mother has
blood group ‘A’ and the father has blood group ‘B’. Work out the cross to show the
genotypes of the parents and all four children.
8. “Mendel’s work was not recognized during his time.” Why?
9. Mention the similarities between the behaviours of chromosomes and genes according to
chromosomal theory of inheritance.
10. During his studies on genes in Drosophila that were sex-linked T.H. Morgan found F2
population phenotypic ratios deviated from expected 9:3:3:1. Explain the conclusion he
arrived at.
11. T H Mogan used Drosophila melanogaster for genetical experiments. Why?
12. Study the figures given below and answer the question.
Identify in which of the crosses, the strength of linkage between the genes is higher. Give
reasons in support of your answer.

Cross A Cross B

13. Explain sex determination in humans.

14. Explain sex determination in Drosophila melanogaster.
15. Explain sex determination in birds.
16. Explain sex determination mechanism in grasshopper.
17. Explain sex determination mechanism in honey bees.
18. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its significance.

33
19. The following pedigre e shows a particular trait which is absent in the parents but found in
the subsequent generation irrespective of the sexes. Analyze the pedigree and draw a
conclusion.

20. Mention the cause and symptoms of phenylk etonuria.

21. Mention the cause, karyotype and symptoms of Down’s syndrome.
22. Mention the cause, karyotype and symptoms of Klinefelters’ syndrome.
23. Mention the cause, karyotype and symptoms of Turners’ syndrome.
24. Identify the genetic disorders given below:
) Sterile females, Chromosomal c
a omplement 45 with XO. (1)
) Short statured, furrowed tongue, characteristic palm crease. (1)
b
) Sterile males, Gynaecomastia, Karyotype
c of 47 (1)
PA
T- D
V. nswer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
A
5 Marks Each
1. State law of segregation. Schematically represent it with reference to the inheritance of
height in pea plants.
2. Schematically represent inheritance of colour and shape of seed in pea plant.
3. What is incomplete dominance? Explain it with reference to flower colour in Snapdragon.
4. A colour-blind father has a daughter with normal vision. The daughter marries a man with
a normal vi sion. What is the probability of her children to be colourblind? Explain with
the help of a pedigree chart.
5. Write a note on sickle cell anemia.
6. Write a note on haemophilia.
7. Explain thalassemia as an example for Mendelian disorder.
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Observe the dihybrid cross and answer the questions given below.

34
 a) Write the phenotypic ratio. (1)
b) Identify homozygous dominant genotype in progeny. (1)
c) Identify r n
ecessive ge otype in progeny. (1)
d) Number of parental type progeny. (1)
e) Number
of recombinant type progeny. (1)
2. Given below is the representation of amino acid composition of the relevant translated
portion of B chain of haemoglobin, related to the shape of human red blood cells.

a) Is this representation indicating a normal human or a sufferer fro m certain related

genetic disease? Give r e p
ason in su port of your answer. (2)
b) What difference would be notic
e in the phenotype of t e normal and the suff rer related
h e
t this gene? (1)
o
c) Who are likely to suffer more from the defect related t o the gene represented the males,
t e females or both males and fem
h ales equally? Why? (2)
35
3. A cross between a normal couples resulted in a son who was haemophilic and a normal
daughter. The daughter was married to a normal man. To their surprise, the grandson was
also haemophilic.
a) Represent the cross in the form of a pedigree chart. Give the genotypes of the daughter
and her husband. (3)
b) Write the conclusion you draw of the inheritance pattern of this disease. (2)
4. Identify the genetic disorders given below:
a) Sex-linked recessive disorder occurring in about 8% of males and only about 0.4% of
females leading to defect in cone of eye. (1)
b) Sex-linked recessive disorder affecting a single protein involved in the clotting of
blood. (1)
c) Inborn error of metabolism, autosomal recessive trait, accumulation of phenylalanine.
(1)
d) Autosome linked recessive blood disease, substitution of amino acid in beta globin
chain of haemoglobin. (1)
e) Autosome linked recessive blood disease, reduced rate of synthesis of globin chains of
haemoglobin. (1)

************************

36
 CHAPTER 5

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

PART-A

I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. The two nucleotides of DNA are linked through 3 and 5 carbon of pentose sugar by
a) N- Glycosidic bond b) Phosphodiester bond
c) H bond d) Phosphoester bond
2. In biochemical characterization of transforming principle, which of the following enzymes
affect transformation
a) Protease b) DNase c) Amylase d) Lipase
3. The experiment that proves the semiconservative principle of DNA replication
a) Griffith experiment b) Hershey and Chase experiment
c) O.Avery, MacLeod & M.McCarty experiment
d) M.Meselson & F.Stahl experiment
4. Average rate of polymerization during DNA replication is
a) 200 bp/sec b) 200 bp/min c) 2000 bp/sec d) 2000 bp/min
5. RNA polymerase I Transcribes
a) rRNA b) mRNA c) tRNA d) hnRNA
6. GGU, GGC, GGA and GGG all code for glycine. Which salient feature of the genetic
code does it prove?
a) Unambigous b) Degenerate codons c) Universal code d) Initiator code
7. Aminoacylation of tRNA occurs during
a) Transcription b) Translation c) Regulation of operon d) DNA fingerprinting
8. In a single stranded DNA, if the ratio of A:G is 60:40 then the ratio of T:C is
a) 60:40 b) 40:60 c) 20:80 d) None of the above
9. The components of deoxyguanosine is
a) Guanine + Ribose b) Guanine + Deoxyribose
c) Guanine + Deoxyribose + Phosphate d) Guanine + Ribose + Phosphate
10. The coding sequences present in processed RNA is called
a) Genes b) Exons c) Introns d) Cistron
11. If a processed mRNA of a particular cistron contains 636 bp that codes for a polypeptide
chain, what are the number of amino acids that it codes for

37
 a) 212 b) 211 c) 210 d) 636
12. If a mRNA 3'-AUGUUUUUUUUUUAA-5' undergoes translation, how many types of
amino acids are present
a) 4 types b) 3 types c) 2 types d) 1 type
13. Statement 1: Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate (dNTPs) acts as substrate during DNA
replication
Statement II: Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate (dNTPs) also acts as the source of
energy in the process of DNA replication.
Choose the correct statement
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
14. In pea plants, each character is governed by a gene which is
a) Monocistron b) Polycistron c) Operon d) Intron
15. Which of these are correct:
I. UTR (Untranslated regions are located on DNA)
II.UTR is present both at 5' before the start codon and also at 3' after the stop codon
III.UTR provides stability to mRNA
IV. UTR is required for efficient translation
a) I, II, IV b) I, III, IV c) I, II, III d) II, III, IV
16. During transcription the site of DNA molecule at which DNA polymerase binds is called
a) Promoter b) Regulator c) Enhancer d) Inducer
17. Methyl Guanosine Triphosphate is added at the 5' of hnRNA in a process of
a) Splicing b) Capping c) Tailing d) Coding
18. If the template of a DNA strand is 3'ATGCAATCT5' its complementary DNA strand
would be
a) 3'TACGTTAGA 5' b) 3'ATGCAATCT5'
c) 5'TACGTTAGA 3' d) 5'ATGCAATCT3'
19. Expand YAC
a) Yeast artificial centromere b) Yeast artificial chromosome
c) Yeast automated chromosome d) Yeast annotated chromosome

38
20. Expand BAC
a) Bacterial artificial centromere b) Bacterial artificial chromosome
c) Bacterial automated chromosome d) Bacterial annotated chromosome
21. Match the following:
A. Alec Jeffreys
i. Lac operon
B. F. Sanger
ii. Transforming principle
C. Jacob & Monad
iii. Annotated DNA sequencing
D. Griffith
iv. DNA finger print
a) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
b) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-I
d) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
22. If A & B are the DNA of two mothers and C is DNA of child.
On observation of the
banding pattern of the DNA finger printing, it can be concluded that

a) Child C belongs to mother A b) Child C belongs to mother B

c) A & B are sisters d) No conclusions can be drawn.
23. Statement I: In Bio-chemical analysis of the transforming principle only DNAase could
not transform R strain to S strain.
Statement II: This experiment proved that proteins and RNAase not the transforming
principle.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

39
24. During transcription the site of DNA molecule at which DNA polymerase binds is called
a) Promoter b) Regulator c) Enhancer d) Inducer
25. In a DNA strand if there are 100 nucleotides and 30 are adenine the number of thymine,
guanine, cytosines respectively are:
a) 30, 20, 20 b) 30, 20, 30 c) 20, 30, 20 d) 20, 20, 30
26. The Chemical method developed by Har Gobind Khorana was
a) Synthesizing RNA molecules with defined combination of basis
b) Synthesizing RNA without a template. c) Categorization of RNA
d) Cell-free Protein synthesis
27. In a structural gene consisting of 300 base pairs, if 4 nucleotides are added and 1 is
deleted at the end point it leads to :
a) Point mutation b) Frame shift mutation.
c) Unaltered change. d) 101 aminoacids.
28. Human insulin is produced in E.coli cells by rDNA technology. This proves that genetic
code is/a
a) Universal. b) Triplet codon. c) Degenerate. d) Initiator codon
29. Statement I: In Bio-chemical analysis of the transforming principle only DNAase could
not transform R strain to S strain.
Statement II: This experiment proved that proteins and RNAase not the transforming
principle.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Gene, Lysine, Automated DNA sequencer, DNA, Glycosidic, RNA polymerase I, 5'→ 3',
Severo Ochoa, Bioinformatics, Inducer)
1. A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of Carbon of pentose sugar by Bond
2. Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues like .
3. The polarity of the coding strand of a transcription unit is .
4. Template independent enzymatic synthesis of RNA was achieved by using the enzyme
.

40
5. A is defined as a structural unit of inheritance.
6. DNA sequencing is done by using developed by Frederick Sanger.
7. Lactose regulates switching on and off of the lac operon hence it is termed as
8. is branch of Biology that deals with store of DNA sequences in data bases
and data analysis tools.
9. 28S, 18S and 5.8S are all transcribed by the enzyme
10. The radioactive P was used to label of the viral particle in Hershey and
Chase experiment.
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. What is the structural unit of a nucleic acid called? Name the chemical components of the
unit.
2. Mention the four nitrogenous bases present in DNA.
3. Mention the four nitrogenous bases present in RNA.
4. List the nucleosides of DNA.
5. Mention the nucleosides of RNA.
6. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, calculate the percent of adenine.
7. Explain the central dogma of molecular biology with a schematic representation.
8. Draw a labelled diagram of nucleosome.
9. Define the terms transcription and translation.
10. How many base pairs of DNA are present in a typical nucleosome? Mention the types of
proteins present in a nucleosome.
11. Write the conclusion that can be drawn from Griffith’s experiment.
12. Mention any two criteria that a molecule must fulfil to act as genetic material.
13. DNA is a better genetic material than RNA. Justify with two reasons.
14. Mention the functions of DNA polymerase and DNA ligase during replication.
15. Draw a labelled diagram of replication fork.
16. “Both the strands of DNA molecule do not act as templates during transcription”. Justify
with two reasons.
17. Identify the following:
a) Pentose sugar present in DNA b) Pyrimidine present only in DNA
18. If 5'- ATGC - 3' is a template DNA strand, write its complementary strand with polarity.

41
19. If the total length of DNA in an egg is 2.1x106 bp, what is the length of the DNA in
zygote?
20. In a dsDNA of 400 bp, if there are 150 Adenine, find the number of the other bases.
21. If a DNA 34nm in length has 30 Guanine, calculate the number of other nucleotides.
22. Applying Chargaff’s rule, if cytosine content of a DNA sample is 100, calculate the length
of DNA.
23. Differentiate between euchromatin and heterochromatin.
24. In Meselson and Stahl experiment, in 40 min we obtain one light and one hybrid band.
What would be the proportion of the band after 60 mins?
25. Draw a schematic representation of transcription unit.
26. If Template strand of DNA has following sequence:
3' T A C T G T G A G C T A C T C A T T 5'. Write the sequence of mRNA.
27. Write any two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription unit.
28. Differentiate monocistronic transcriptional unit from polycistronic transcriptional.
29. Differentiate between introns and exons.
30. Differentiate template strand from a coding strand in DNA.
31. Write the coding strand and the sequence of base on mRNA synthesized by DNA template
with the sequence 3'-ATGCATAGCAT-5'.
32. Write a note on the role of sigma factor and the rho factor in transcription in prokaryotes.
33. What is heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)? How is it converted into functional
mRNA?
34. Name the two amino acids richly present in histones that impart positive charge
35. If 60% of a DNA is heterochromatinised, what percent of DNA is genetically active?
36. Label X and Y with respect to central dogma:

37. According to Griffith experiment why did the mice die when heat killed s strain and live r
strain was injected into mice.
38. Mention any four properties of a genetic material.
39. In Human cell DNA replication: Whose 2n = 6.6x109 bp takes place at the rate of
polymerization, 2000 bp/sec. How long it would take to complete the process.
40. DNA is more stable than RNA. Substantiate.

42
41. Match the following:
A. DNA ligase 1. Synthesis of rRNA
B. DNA polymerase 2. Synthesis of tRNA
C. RNA polymerase I 3. Joining of Okazaki fragments
D. RNA polymerase III 4. Synthesis of DNA strand
42. In the context of DNA replication, what is the polarity of leading strand and lagging
strands?
43. 5' – 3' strands of DNA are not copied during transcription. Give reason.
44. Differentiate between introns and Exons.
45. List the essential roles of ribosome during translation.
46. Genetic code is said to triplet and universal. Why?
47. AUG has dual function. Justify.
48. There are no tRNAs for stop codons. Substantiate.
49. tRNA is regarded as adapter molecule. Substantiate.
50. Mention the initiator and terminator codons.
51. Name the initiator codon and the amino acid coded by it.
52. If AUG codes for methionine and UAC codes for Tryptophan, write its anticodon on
tRNA.
53. Differentiate point mutation and frame-shift mutation.
54. Mention the four levels in regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes.
55. Mention the role of repressor and inducer in regulation of gene expression.
56. Mention the functions of β-galactosidase and permease in lactose metabolism in E. coli.
57. How does the Lac-operon function in the presence of inducer (lactose) in the medium?
58. How does the Lac-operon function in the absence of inducer (lactose) in the medium?
59. Mention any two goals of Human Genome Project (HGP).
60. Mention two applications of Human Genome Project.
61. Mention two salient features of human genome.
62. Which chromosome in human genome has
a) Highest number of genes b) Least number of genes
63. Mention the two approaches with respect to the methodology of sequencing DNA in
Human Genome Project.
64. Mention two common vectors used for the amplification of DNA fragments during the
sequencing of human genome.

43
65. Name the two commonly used host cell and the vectors in HGP.
66. Which is the largest known human gene? Mention the number of genes in it.
67. Mention any two differences with reference to transcription in prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. What are the components of Thymine monophosphate (TMP)?
2. What are the components of Uridine monophosphate (UMP)?
3. Mention the location of N- glycosidic bond, Hydrogen bond & phosphoester bond present
in DNA?
4. Identify the following : a) Pyrimidine present both in DNA and RNA
b) Purines present in DNA and RNA c) Chemical bond present between 2 nucleotides.
5. Mention the three codons that do not code for any amino acid.
6. Lac operon is a polycistronic gene. Give reason
7. Mention the three structural genes and the proteins they code for in E.coli.
8. RNA polymerase exhibit division of labour. Substantiate
9. The hnRNA undergoes processing to become stable mRNA. List out the processes
involved.
10. Mention one function of each mRNA, rRNA and tRNA.
11. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase I, RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase II
in eukaryotes.
12. With reference to transcription, define: a) Splicing b) Capping c) Tailing
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. What are the functions of
a) i gene b) lac z gene c) lac y gene d) lac a gene e) inducer.
2. a) Mention the three steps involved in transcription in prokaryotes. (3)
b) What is role of σ factor and ρ factor in transcription of prokaryotes? (2)
3. Describe the double helix model of DNA proposed by Watson & Crick.
4. Explain Griffith’s experiment to explain the ‘transforming principle’.
5. Explain the steps involved in DNA replication.

44
6. Explain the experiment that gave the final proof for DNA as the genetic material.
7. Explain the experiment to prove that DNA replicates semiconservatively.
8. Enumerate the characteristics of Genetic code.
9. Explain the process of Transcription in prokaryotes.
10. Explain the operon that is involved in utilization of lactose in E.coli.
11. Mention the goals of HGP.
12. Explain the steps involved in translation process.
13. Mention the salient features of human genome.
14. Mention the steps involved in DNA finger printing technique developed by Alec Jeffreys.

VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. The following sequence of nucleotides 3' AUG UAC UUU AGG GAG UAA 5' in mRNA
codes for a sequence of 5 amino acids. Generate the salient features of genetic code.
2. In context to lac operon, when Jacob & Monad cultured E.coli cell in a media devoid of
lactose, E.coli cells formed colonies and when lactose was added, the E.coli cells
metabolized lactose by synthesizing enzymes. Explain how lac operon switches off &
switches on.
3. Regarding Hershey and Chase experiment
a) Mention the three steps involved. (3)
b) Radioactive Sulphur & radioactive Phosphorus get incorporated in which parts of viral
particle. (2)
4. Name the process involved in the following:
a) One parental DNA strand is conserved by daughter cell.
b) Separation of DNA fragment. c) Removal of introns in hnRNA.
d) Attachment of Rho factor to RNA polymerase during transcription.
e) Polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide on mRNA.
5. A policeman from the crime department approached the forensic science department to
help identify the culprit. DNA samples were collected from the crime site and of the two
suspects.
a) Explain the process involved.
b) If the culprit had monozygotic twin, can this method give results.

************************

45
 CHAPTER 6
EVOLUTION
PART - A

I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. Theory of spontaneous generation was disproved by experiments conducted by
a) Louis Pasteur b) Haldane & Oparin c) S.L. Miller d) Charles Darwin
2. The thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita represents
i. Homology ii. Convergent evolution iii. Divergent evolution iv. Analogy
a) i & ii are correct. b) i & iii are correct
c) ii & iv are correct. d) ii & iii are correct.
3. Statement 1: Man has domesticated dogs & has created different breeds by artificial
breeding
Statement 2: Intensive breeding of dogs signifies divergent evolution.
a) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct.
b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct.
d) Both the statements are incorrect.
4. Statement 1: Antibiotic or drug resistance is due to evolution by anthropogenic action.
Statement 2: Many antibiotic or drugs resistant organisms arise due to over usage of
antibiotics.
a) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct.
b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct.
d) Both the statements are incorrect.
5. Charles Darwin in Galapagos Island found that finches had different forms of beaks. This
is process of evolution is called
a) Natural selection b) Adaptive radiation
c) Darwinian Fitness d) Struggle for existence.
6. A brown billed duck is newly added to a farm of white billed ducks. This indicates
a) Gene flow b) Genetic drift c) Mutation d) Natural selection
7. Change in frequency of genes and alleles is due to
a) Mutation b) Gene flow c) Both a & b d) Neither a or b

46
8. The first amphibians that lived both on land and water evolved from
a) Fishes b) Turtles c) Lobefins d) Frog
9. Arrange in correct sequence of their occurrence on geological time scale.
i. Amphibians ii. Fishes iii. Reptiles iv. Mammals
a) i ii iii iv b) ii iii i iv c) ii i iii iv d) iii ii iv i
10. The biggest land reptiles that existed during Mesozoic era was
a) Ichthyosaurs b) Tyrannosaurs c) Sea cows d) Crocodiles
11. Arrange the following in the order of evolution.
a. Neanderthal man b. Australopithecus c. Ramapithecus
d. Homo habilis e. Homo erectus
a) a → b → c → d → e b) e → d → c → b → a
b) b → c → d → e → a d) c → b → d → e → a
12. Koala, Tasmanian wolf, Kangaroo & Marsupial rat, all of these represent
a) Darwin flinches b) Australian Marsupials
c) Placental mammals d) Non placental mammals
13. Statement 1: Hugo De Vries believed mutation leads to spontaneous evolution.
Statement 2: Mutations are random and direction less & cause saltation.
a) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct. b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct.d) Both the statements are incorrect.
14. Elongation of neck in giraffes, due to inheritance of acquired characters was given by
a) Lamarck b) Thomas Malthus c) Charles Darwin d) Hardy-Weinberg
15. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive
atmosphere of the earth?
a) Water vapour b) Oxygen c) Methane d) Hydrogen
16. Single step large mutation leading to speciation is also called
a) Natural selection b) Branching descent
c) Founder’s effect d) Saltation
17. Which of the following theories attempts to explain origin of universe?
a) Panspermia theory b) Big Bang theory
c) Chemical evolution theory d) Darwin’s theory
18. In Miller’s experiment, the environment of primitive earth was created & temperature was
a) 400°C b) 450°C c) 800°C d) 850°C
19. The organic compounds formed in Miller’s experiment is/are
47
 i. Amino acids ii. Nitrogen bases iii. Pigment iv. Fats
a) i only b) i & ii only c) i, ii & iii only d) i, ii, ii & iv.
20. The paleontological evidence for evolution is obtained from
a) Fossils b) Embryos c) Homologous organs d) Analogous organs
21. Fossils are hard remains of life forms and are found in
a) Igneous rocks b) Metamorphic rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks d) Any type of rocks
22. Statement 1: The study of fossils in various sedimentary layers indicates the geological
period in which they exit.
Statement 2: Ages of the Fossil can be determined by radioactive dating.
a) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct. b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct.d) Both the statements are incorrect.
23. Embryological evidence for evolution was disapproved by
a) Ernst Heckel b) Karl Ernst Von Baer
c) Charles Darwin d) Alferd Wallace
24. Epochs, periods and eras depict
a) Geological history b) Biological history
c) Physiological history d) Embryological history
25. Arrange the following plants as appeared on different geological periods
a) Conifers, Gnetales, Dicotyledons, Monocotyledons
b) Gnetales,Dicotyledons,Monocotyledons,Conifers
c) Conifers,Monocotyledons,Dicotyledons,Gnetales
d) Conifers, Gnetales,Monocotyledons,Dicotyledons
26. Potato is respectively homologous & analogous to
a) Sweet potato & tendrils of Cucurbita
b) Tendrils of Cucurbita & sweet potato
c) Thorns of Bougainvillea & tendrils of Cucurbita
d) Sweet potato & wings of butterfly
27. Statement 1: Pouched mammals of Australia survived because of lack of competition
Statement 2: Continental drift has both positive & negative effect on population.
a) Both statement 1 & 2 are correct. b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct. d) Both the statements are incorrect.

48
28. Observe the following diagrammatic representation of operation of natural selection on
different traits. Here, Natural selection depicts

a) Stabilisation b) Directional c) Disruptive d) Cannot be depicted

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Conifers, Panspermia, Homo habilis, Divergent evolution, Chemical, Ichthyosaurs, Founder
effect, Analogy, Embryological, Neanderthal)

1. Convergent evolution is indicated by

2. Adaptive radiation of marsupials of Australia indicate
3. If the allele frequency is very different in the new sample of population they become
different species. This is called
4. were group of plants that pre-dominated earth during Mesozoic era.
5. was a land reptile that went back into water to evolve into fish-like reptiles.
6. was believed to come from outer space that created life on earth.
7. Inorganic chemicals formed organic molecules which lead to first form of life. This was
supported by evolution.
8. Karl Ernst Von Baer disapproved evidence for evolution.
9. stage in human evolution used hides to protect their body and buried their
dead.
10. The first Human - like being was .
PA T – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. Name any two theories that explain the origin of life.
2. Write a short note on Big bang theory.
3. How could the experiment of Louis Pasteur dismiss theory of spontaneous generation of
life?
4. How does Miller's experiment support the theory of chemical evolution?

49
6. What are fossils? How do they support evolution?
7. What are homologous organs? Give an example.
8. What are analogous organs? Give an example.
9. What is convergent evolution? Give an example.
10. What is divergent evolution? Give an example.
11. Comment on the similarity between the thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
with reference to evolution.
12. Analyze the evolutionary relationship between forelimbs of whales and human.
13. Differentiate between homology and analogy.
14. What is convergent evolution? Give an example of convergent evolution in plants and
animals.
15. Explain with the help of an example the type of evolution which is based on analogy.
16. State the evolutionary relationship giving reasons between sweet potato and potato.
17. Mention the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution.
18. Genetic drift is a chance while gene flow is constant. Substantiate.
19. Define the terms a) Genetic drift b) Founder effect
20. What is adaptive radiation? Give an example.
21. When more than one adaptive radiation occurs in an isolated geographical area it leads to
convergent evolution. Give two examples.
22. Give any two examples of natural selection by anthropogenic action.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. What are homologous organs? Mention one example of homologous organs in plants and
one in animals.
2. What are analogous organs? Give one example of analogous organs in plants and one in
animals.
3. Differentiate between homologous and analogous structures. Give one plant and one
animal example for each.
4. Differentiate between divergent evolution and convergent evolution. Give one plant and
one animal example for each.
5. Draw a labelled diagram of Miller’s experimental set-up.

50
6. a) What were the different gases used by S.L.Miller in his experimental setup?
b) What conditions of primitive earth was recreated in the flask?
c) Write the conclusion drawn from this experiment.
7. After industrialization in England, it was observed that white winged moth did not
survive.
a) What is the cause?
b) What was the change and why it had happened?
c) Which organism is known as natural indicator to air pollution?
8. “Darwin finches of Galapagos Islands represent on the best example for adaptive
radiation. Substantiate”.
9. “Australian marsupials and Australian placental mammals explain convergent evolution
and adaptive radiation”. Justify the statement.
10. How is Darwin's concept of evolution different from that of Hugo deVries concept of
mutation?
11. State Hardy-Weinberg law. List four factors which disturb genetic equilibrium.
12. a) State Hardy-Weinberg principle.
b) Define the terms: i) Gene pool ii) Genetic equilibrium
13. Define the terms a) Saltation b) Gene flow c) Natural selection
14. Arrange the following ancestral forms of man in the order of their evolution:
a) Homo habilis b) Homo erectus c) Neanderthal man
d) Dryopithecus e) Ramapithecus f) Australopithecines
15. A gene locus has two alleles A & a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous dominant and recessive
individuals in the population?
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Represent Miller's experiment with the help of a neat labelled diagram. Write the
conclusion that can be drawn from the experiment.
2. Explain evolution by natural selection by taking an example of white-winged moths and
dark-winged moths of England in pre and post-industrialization period.
3. How does comparative anatomy and morphology act as an evidence for evolution?
Explain with the help of suitable examples.

51
4. a) State Hardy-Weinberg principle.
b) Explain any four factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
5. Mention the various stages of human evolution with brain capacity.

VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Classify the following examples as homologous or analogous
a) Eyes of Octopus & mammals
b) Wings of Birds & Butterfly
c) Forelimb of Cheetah & Bat
d) Flippers of Penguins & Dolphins
e) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

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52
 CHAPTER 7
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

PART – A

I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. Which of the following pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious disease
respectively?
a) Typhoid and AIDS b) AIDS and cancer
c) Pneumonia and malaria d) Cancer and malaria
2. Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in humans?
a) Pneumonia b) Malaria c) Plague d) Diptheria
3. One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm.
a) Microsporum b) Trichophyton c) Epidermophyton d) Macrosporum
4. An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the intestinal passage and whose eggs are
excreted along with the faeces of infected person is .
a) Wuchereria bancrofti b) Ascaris c) Epidermophyton d) Microsporum
5. Elephantiasis, a chronic inflammation that results in gross deformities is caused by
a) Ascaris b) E.coli c) Wuchereria d) Trichophyton
6. Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?
a) Lymphatic vessels b) Respiratory system
c) Nervous system d) Blood circulation
7. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of the female mosquito vector?
a) Filariasis b) Amoebiasis c) Typhoid d) Pneumonia
8. Which of the following pairs correctly matches a disease and a pathogen causing it?
a) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi b) Pneumonia – Haemophilus pneumoniae
c) Malaria – Ascaris lumbricoides d) Ringworm – Entamoeba histolytica
9. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the
symptoms of
a) Elephantiasis b) Ringworm c) Ascariasis d) Amoebiasis
10. Haemozoin is a
a) Precursor of haemoglobin b) Toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
c) Toxin released from Plasmodium infected cells
d) Toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells.

53
11. A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four
days in malarial fever, is
a) Interferon b) Haemozoin c) Hirudin d) Colostrum
12. During the life cycle of Plasmodium, gametocytes develop in
a) Human RBC b) Human liver
c) Salivary glands of mosquito d) Gut of mosquito
13. Which of the following is a viral disease?
a) Pneumonia b) Typhoid c) Common cold d) Malaria
14. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily attacks and destroys:
a) Red blood cells b) T lymphocytes c) Platelets d) Neurons
15. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Tuberculosis c) Malaria d) AIDS
16. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further
infection is
a) Serotonin b) Colostrum c) Interferon d) Histamine
17. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is
a) Ig G b) Ig A c) Ig D d) Ig E
18. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue?
a) Spleen b) Tonsils c) Pancreas d) Thymus
19. The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens and proliferate to become effector cells
are
a) Thymus and lymph nodes b) Bone marrow and thymus
c) Peyer’s patches and tonsils d) Bone marrow and spleen
20. Antivenom against snake poison contains
a) Antigens b) Antigen-antibody complexes c) Antibodies d) Enzymes
21. Vaccines work by
a) Stimulating the production of antibodies b) Killing the pathogen directly
c) Reducing inflammation
d) Blocking the entry of pathogens into the body
22. Which form of pathogen is used in vaccination?
a) Activated and strong pathogenic antigens b) Preformed antigens
c) Inactivated and weakened pathogen d) Hyperactive and strong pathogen
23. Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type of immunisation?

54
 a) Active immunisation b) Passive immunisation
c) Auto-immunisation d) Humoral immunisation
24. Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
a) Inactivated viruses b) Yeast
c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Salmonella typhimurium.
25. The most abundant antibody produced against allergens is
a) IgE b) IgA c) IgG d) IgM.
26. Which of the following cells actively participate during allergy?
a) B-lymphocytes b) Liver cells c) Mast cells d) Red blood cells
27. A chemical carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is responsible for
a) Skin cancer b) Pancreatic cancer c) Stomach cancer d) Lung cancer.
28. Which of the following approaches is not used for the treatment of cancer?
a) Immunotherapy b) Surgery c) Radiotherapy d) Anti Retroviral therapy
29. Smack’ is a drug obtained from the
a) Latex of Papaver somniferum b) Leaves of Cannabis sativa
c) Flowers of Datura d) Fruits of Erythroxylum cocao.
30. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.
The component causing this could be
a) Nicotine b) Tannic acid c) Curcumin d) Catechin
31. Heroin formed by acetylation of morphine is commonly called as
a) Coke b) Crack c) Smack d) Charas.
32. Marijuana is extracted from.
a) Resin, leaves and flowers of Cannabis plant b) Ergot fungus
c) Roots of hemp plant d) Cocoa plant.
33. Charas and ganja are the drugs which affect
a) Respiratory system b) Cardiovascular system
c) Digestive system d) Nervous system.
34. Cocaine is obtained from
a) Erythroxylun coca b) Papaver somniferum
c) Atropa belladonna d) Dature stramonium
35. Cocaine is commonly called as
a) Smack b) Coke c) Heroin d) Cola

55
36. Cocaine is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter

a) acetylcoline b) Glutamate c) Dopamine d) Glycine

37. Which of the following plants does not possess hallucinogenic properties?
a) Erythroxylum coca b) Atropa belladonna c) Datura d) Papaver somniferum
38. Which drug is being excessively taken by some sports persons nowadays?
a) Opioids b) Barbiturates c) Cannabinoids d) LSD
39. Which drug is used as medicine to help patients cope with depression and insomnia?
a) Morphine b) Amphetamines c) Cannabinoids d) Cocaine
40. A chemical structure is given below. Identify its plant source.

a) Atropa belladonna b) Cannabis sativa

c) Papaver somniferum d) Erythroxylum coca
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket. 1 Mark Each
(Aedes, Typhoid, Masculination, Smack, Yeast, Metastasis, Lymph nodes, Crack, Memory,
Host, Allergens, MALT, Morphine, Houseflies, Pathogens)
1. Disease causing organisms are called
2. Pathogens adapt to life within the environment of the .
3. Mary Mallon is associated with
4. act as mechanical carriers and serve to transmit Entamoeba histolytica from
faeces of infected person to food and food products.
5. Dengue and chikungunya are spread through
6. The principle of immunisation is based on the property of of the immune system.
7. Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from
8. Mites in dust, pollens, animal dander are common examples of

56
9. The are small solid structures located at different points along the lymphatic
system.
10. constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
11. is the most feared property of malignant tumors.
12. is a very effective sedative and painkiller.
13. when snorted produces a sense of euphoria and increased energy.
14. The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include
15. is a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound which acts as a depressant.
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. What are infectious diseases? Give an example.
2. What are non-infectious diseases? Give an example.
3. Differentiate infectious diseases from non-infectious diseases.
4. Mention any four means by which good health can be achieved.
5. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of typhoid.
6. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of pneumonia.
7. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of common cold.
8. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of amoebiasis.
9. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of ascariasis..
10. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of elephantiasis.
11. Write the scientific name of the pathogen and any two symptoms of ringworm disease.
12. Name the host and the site where the following occur in the life cycle of a malarial
parasite (a) Formation of gametocytes. (b) Fusion of gametes.
13. What is immunity? Mention its types.
14. Mention the types of innate barriers of innate immunity.
15. Differentiate between innate and acquired immunity.
16. Mention the roles of B and T lymphocytes.
17. Draw a labelled diagram of an antibody molecule.
18. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity.
19. Differentiate between primary and secondary immune responses.
20. What are primary lymphoid organs? Give two examples.
21. What are secondary lymphoid organs? Give two examples.
57
22. Differentiate between primary and secondary lymphoid organs.
23. State the functions of primary and secondary lymphoid organs in humans.
24. Name the two special types of lymphocytes present in our blood which are responsible for
primary and secondary responses.
25. What is colostrum? Mention its significance.
26. What is passive immunisation? Give an example.
27. What is allergy? Mention its symptoms.
28. Name two chemicals released by the mast cells during an allergic reaction.
29. What is auto-immune disease? Give an example.
30. Distinguish between benign and malignant tumors.
31. Metastasis is the most feared property of malignant tumors. Justify.
32. Mention any two characteristics of cancer cell.
33. What are carcinogens? Give an example.
34. Write a note on oncogenic viruses.
35. Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases. Explain 'Contact inhibition' and 'Metastasis'
with respect to the disease.
36. List the modes of transmission of HIV in humans.
37. What is drug abuse? Name any three drugs that are commonly abused.
38. List any four common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse in youth.
39. Name an opioid drug and its source plant (scientific name). How does it affect human
body?
40. Name the plant (scientific name) from which cocaine is obtained. What is the effect of
cocaine in humans?
41. Name the plant (scientific name) from which cannabinoid is obtained. What is the effect
of cannabinoids in humans?
42. Name of any two drugs which are commonly abused and write the binomial name of the
plants from which these drugs are extracted.
43. Write the source and effect of the following drugs on the human body.
a) Morphine b) Marijuana c) Cocaine
44. Name a drug used:
a) As an effective sedative and pain killer
b) For helping patients cope with mental illness like depression but often misuse.
45. List any four effects of smoking.

58
46. Differentiate between addiction and dependence with reference to alcohol and drugs.
47. List any four withdrawal symptoms exhibited by an alcohol or drug addict.
48. List the most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth.
49. List any four adverse effects of drug and alcohol abuse.
50. Mention four side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males.
51. Mention four side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Define the term ‘health’. Mention any four means by which good health can be achieved.
2. Write the scientific name of the pathogen, mode of transmission and any two symptoms of
typhoid.
3. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes, mention its mode of transmission
and any two symptoms of pneumonia.
4. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes, mention its mode of transmission
and any two symptoms of common cold.
5. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes, mention its mode of transmission
and any two symptoms of amoebiasis.
6. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes, mention its mode of transmission
and any two symptoms of ascariasis..
7. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes, mention its mode of transmission
and any two symptoms of elephantiasis.
8. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes, mention its mode of transmission
and any two symptoms of ringworm disease.
9. a) Name the infective stages of Plasmodium which Anopheles mosquito takes in along the
blood meal from an infected person. (1)
b) Why does the infection cause chill and fever in humans? (1)
c) At what stage does Plasmodium enter into human body? (1)
10. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity. Give an example for each.
11. Differentiate between primary and secondary lymphoid organs. Give an example for each.
12. What are allergens? Give examples. Name the type of antibody produced to the allergens.
13. Mention any three characteristics of cancer cell.
14. What are carcinogens? Mention any two groups of carcinogens with an example for each.

59
15. When the ELISA test was conducted on an immune-suppressed person, he tested positive
for a pathogen.
a) Identify the disease the patient is suffering from.
b) Name the causative entity.
c) Mention the cells of the body that are attacked by the pathogen.
16. Mention the names of three drugs which are commonly abused and write the binomial
name of the plants from which these drugs are extracted.
17. Tobacco smoking associated with rise in blood pressure and emphysema (oxygen
deficiency in body). Substantiate.
18. Briefly explain any three prevention and control measures of drug and alcohol abuse.
19. The skeletal structure of a drug is shown below. Answer the questions given below.

a) Identify the drug

b) Name the plant source of this drug
c) How is this drug generally taken?
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. What is innate immunity? Explain the four types of barriers of innate immunity with
suitable examples.
2. Define immunity. Explain active immunity and passive immunity with examples.
3. What are lymphoid organs? List different lymphoid organs and tissues and explain their
role in immunity.
4. Explain the life cycle of Plasmodium.
5. Schematically represent the life cycle of HIV (retroviruses) in human body.
6. Mention any five methods and techniques of cancer detection and diagnosis.
7. Mention any five common approaches of treatment of cancer.
8. What is addiction? List four warning signals and four harmful effects caused by drug
abuse.

60
9. Explain prevention and control measures of alcohol and drug abuse.

VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Fill the mis sing data in the table depicting diseases, their causatives and symptoms:
Name of the disease Causative Symptoms
organi m s
a) Ascariasis scaris
A
b) Trichophyton Appear ncea of scaly lesio s non
various parts of the body
c) Typhoid _ High fever , weakness, hea ache,
d
stomach pain , con tipation
s
d) Pneumonia Streptococcus
pneumoniae
e) Rhino virus Nasal congestion and discharge,
sore throat, cough eadache
h

2. A person has been diagnosed as HIV positive.

a) Name the diagnostic test which the person underwent. (1)
b) Write full name of pathogen involved. (1)
c) Name the genome of the pathogen (1)
d) Which particular cells of this person are likely to get destroyed? (1)
e) Suggest the partially effective treatment to him. (1)
3. a) Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to
cancer.
(1)
b) Name the techniques that are useful in detecting cancers of internal organs.
(3)
c) Why are cancer patients often given α-interferon as part of the treatment?
(1)
4. a) Stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium is given below. Identify A, B, C, D.
(4)
b) Name the toxin responsible for the appearance of symptoms of malaria in humans. (1)

61
5. The flowchart shows replication of the retrovirus in the host. Answer the questions given
below.

a) Fill in th e missing data in boxes labelled 1 & 2. (2)

b) Give an example for retrovirus? (1)
c) Name the disease caused by this retrovirus. (1)
) Name th e
d diagnostic test for this disease. (1)
6. Observe the diagram and answer the questions given below:

a) Identify A and write its function.

(2)
b) Identify B and write its function.
(2)
c) Identify C.
(1)

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62
 CHAPTER 8
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

PART-A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices below: 1 Mark Each
1. ‘Propionibacterium shermanii’ is used in the production of .
a) Roquefort cheese b) Swiss cheese
c) Bamboo shoots d) Ferment fish
2. Penicillium notatum is a
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Blue green algae d) Mould
3. Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin while working on
a) Staphylococci b) Streptococcus c) E. coli d) Salmonella
4. Which one of the following alcoholic drinks is produced without distillation?
a) Wine b) Whisky c) Rum d) Brandy
5. Because of the presence of which of the following vitamin, curd is considered as
nutritionally rich than milk?
a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2 c) Vitamin B9 d) Vitamin B12
6. Bioactive molecules Cyclosporin- A is produced by
a) Fungus b) Bacteria c) Virus d) Protozoa
7. Which micro-organism is useful in production of citric acid?
a) Acetobacter aceti b) Penicillium notatum
c) Aspergillus niger d) Clostridium butylicum
8. Activated sludge is the sediment deposited in
a) Settling tank b) Sedimentation tank
c) Aerobic tank d) Anaerobic sludge digester
9. Yeast is used in the production of
a) Bread and beer b) Cheese and butter
c) Citric acid and lactic acid d) Lipase and pectinase
10. Biogas is the mixture of
a) CH4, CO2, H2 b) CH4, SO2, CO2
c) CH4, NO2, H2 d) CH4, SO2, H2
11. Mesh like structure consisting of bacteria associated with fungal filaments is
a) Primary sludge b) Activated sludge c) Floc d) Anaerobic sludge

63
12. Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.
Column -I Column –II
a. Citric acid i) Trichoderma
b. Cyclosporin A ii) Clostridium
c. Statins iii) Aspergillus
d. Butyric acid iv) Monascus
a) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv) b) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
c) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii) d) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
13. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspend solids?
a) Secondary treatment b) Primary treatment
c) Sludge treatment d) Tertiary treatment
14. The primary treatment of sewage water involves
a) Anaerobic bacterial activity b) Sludge digestion
c) Filtration and sedimentation d) Aerobic bacterial activity
15. During sewage treatment, the gas produced in anaerobic sludge digester includes
a) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane b) Methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
c) Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur oxide
16. Mycorrhiza is involved in absorption of from soil and passes it to the plant.
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) Magnesium
17. Which of the following is not an advantage provided by mycorrhiza to plants?
a) Resistance to root-borne pathogens b) Increase in yield quality
c) Tolerance to salinity and drought
d) Overall increase in plant growth and development
18. The microbial biocontrol agent for butterfly caterpillar is
a) Bacillus thuringiensis b) Saccharomyces c) Cyanobacteria d) Staphylococcus
19. Which of the following is a bacterial biofertilizer?
a) Anabaena b) Nostoc c) Rhizobium d) Oscillatoria
20. Which of the following is not a biofertilizer?
a) Agrobacterium b) Rhizobium c) Nostoc d) Mycorrhiza
21. Which of the following statements regarding flocs is incorrect?
a) They are the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
b) Produced in aeration tank. c) They consume major part of organic matter.
64
 d) Formed by useful anaerobic microbes.
22. Compare the statements I and II:
Statement I: Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association of algae and fungi.
Statement II: They absorb nitrogen from soil and pass it to the plant.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false. b) Statement I is false, statement II is true.
c) Both the statements I and II are true. d) Both the statements I and II are false.
23. Select the correct statement from the following.
a) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste.
b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle.
c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane.
d) Activated sludge in settlement tanks of STPs is a rich source of aerobic bacteria.
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/ words from those given below:
1 Mark Each
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Immunosuppressive agent, Clostridium butylicum, CO2,
Nucleopolyhedrovirus, methanogens, fermentors, Toddy, municipal waste water, clot
buster, antibiotics, Rhizobium, mycorrhiza, activated sludge, effluent, Glomus)
1. Large vessels used in industry for growing microbes are called .
2. Sediments of flocs in the settling tank are called .
3. are chemical substances, produced by some microbes and can kill or retard
the growth of other microbes.
4. Baculoviruses used as biocontrol agents are belongs to the genus .
5. The symbiotic association of fungi in roots of plants are known as .
6. Many members of the genus form mycorrhiza.
7. Root nodules in leguminous plants are formed by symbiotic association of
8. are the bacteria found in rumen of cattle.
9. Cyclosporin A, used as are produced by Trichoderma polysporum.
10. is a traditional drink of some parts of southern India is made by fermenting
sap from palms.
11. The puffed appearance of dough is due to the production of .
12. Baker’s yeast is used for making bread.
13. Streptokinase is used as for patients with myocardial infarction.
14. is also called sewage.
15. is a producer of butyric acid.

65
 PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. Presence of microbes in water is an indication of pollution in water. At the same time,
microbes also reduce pollution in water. Justify the statement.
2. Discuss the importance of aeration tank and anaerobic sludge digester in sewage
treatment.
3. Discuss the role of fungi as biofertilizers.
4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of Biogas plant.
5. Define BOD. Mention its significance.
6. Name the microbes responsible for the production of
a) Large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ b) Acetic acid
7. Mention any two significant roles of LAB.
8. List any two bioactive molecules of fungal origin and explain how those molecules help in
restoring good health in humans.
9. Name any two bacteria used in the production of organic acids.
10. Mention the scientific names of the organisms used in the production of cyclosporine A
and statins.
11. Give any two examples for cyanobacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
12. How cyanobacteria do acts as biofertilizers?
13. What are flocs? Write their significance in sewage treatment.
14. What is BOD? Write its significance.
15. Name any two gases produced during sludge digestion in sewage treatment.
16. Name the processes that help in physical removal of particles during sewage treatment.
17. Mention any two benefits offered by mycorrhiza other than as biofertilizer.
18. Biocontrol of insects and pests is desirable and beneficial compared to the use of
insecticides and pesticides. Justify this with two reasons.
19. Mention the source and use of penicillin.
20. Name any two distilled and non-distilled alcoholic beverages.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Mention the product and its use for the following:

66
 a) Acid produced by Aspergillus niger b) Enzyme produced by Streptococcus
c) Bioactive molecule produced by Trichoderma polysporum
2. Draw a neat labelled diagram of typical Biogas plant.
a) The use of biofertilizers is encouraged in agriculture to reduce the use of chemical
fertilizers. Why? (1)
b) Write the role of mycorrhiza as biofertilizer. (2)
3. Name the microbes that help in the production of the following products commercially.
a) Cyclosporin A b) Citric acid c) Statins
4. List any three benefits of mycorrhiza as biofertilizer.
5. Mention one use each for the following enzymes:
a) Lipase b) Pectinase c) Streptokinase
6. Briefly explain the contribution of Alexander Fleming.
7. Mention any three cyanobacteria that are used as biofertilizers.
8. Substantiate the following:
a) Methanogens are found in the rumen of cattle.
b) Nucleopolyhedroviruses (NPV) are species-specific.
c) BOD is an index of water pollution.
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Discuss the role of microbes in house-hold products.
2. Explain the role of microbes in ‘Industrial Products’.
3. Explain the process of sewage treatment.
4. Describe the role of microbes as a) Biocontrol agents b) Biofertilizers.
5. a) Describe the role of microbes in sewage treatment. (3)
b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of typical Biogas plant. (2)
6. a) Explain the role of three organisms as biocontrol agents. (3)
b) What is the significance of BOD? (1)
c) Give an examples for a fungus found in Mycorrhiza. (1)
7. a) Name the bioactive molecule for the following: (3)
i) A clot buster agent ii) An immunosuppressive agent
ii) A Blood cholesterol lowering agent
b) What are biofertilizers? Give one example. (2)

67
8. a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of biogas plant. (3)
b) What are flocs? Write their significance in sewage treatment. (2)
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Complete the below given tabular column with appropriate answers.
Microbe Product Uses
A Swiss cheese B
Penicillum notatum C Antibiotic
Monascus purpureus D E

2. The biological method used for controlling plant diseases and pests is also a process of
natural predation. Justify the statement with appropriate examples.
3. The chemical composition of agricultural land can be improved by two methods: the use
of chemical fertilizers and the use of microbes. Although both are fertilization methods,
the former is considered to increase pollution, while the latter is considered to increase
fertility. Discuss.
4. With the help of clue given in the brackets, complete the passage with appropriate
answers.
While working on A (bacteria), B (scientist) observed the growth of a mould
C (fungus) which does not allowed the bacteria to grow. He found out that it was due
to a chemical D (antibiotic) produced by the mould. This antibiotic was used to treat
soldiers of E (country) wounded in World War II. F , G and H
(Scientists) were awarded I prize in J (year) for this discovery.
5. A person planned to start a biotechnology based industry in the interest of producing some
products for human use. Suggest him some names of microorganisms which are
commercially useful and guide him regarding the products and their uses produced by
those organisms.
6. Assign the role of the following microbes:
a) Lactobacillus in milk. b) Methanogens in rumen of cattle.
c) Rhizobium in the nodules of legumes. d) Glomus in mycorrhiza.
e) Trichoderma in root ecosystems.

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68
 CHAPTER 9

BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 1 Mark Each
1. Which of the following is not a feature of plasmids?
a) Extra chromosomal b) Circular structure
c) Single stranded d) Independent replication
2. The procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced into a host bacterium is
a) Amplification b) Cloning c) Transformation d) Restriction
3. Autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA is called
a) Vector b) Restriction enzyme c) Marker d) Plasmid
4. Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or Tungsten coated
with DNA in a method known as
a) Microinjection d) Biolistics c) Heat shock d) Vector mediated
5. The commonly used vector for cloning genes in animals is
a) Rhino viruses b) Disarmed retrovirus
c) Disarmed Ti plasmid d) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
6. Enzymes which remove nucleotides from the ends of the D.N.A. are
a) Endonucleases b) Exonucleases
c) DNA Ligase d) DNA polymerase
7. Restriction site of EcoR1 enzyme is
a) 5'-GAATTC-3' b) 3'-GAATTC-5' c) GAATTC d) 5'-CTTAAG-3'
8. The technique used to separate DNA in recombinant DNA technology is
a) Gel electrophoresis b) PCR
c) Autoradiography d) Downstream processing
9. Which of the following is the stain used to visualize DNA fragments in gel
electrophoresis?
a) Cotton blue b) Ethidium bromide c) Acetocarmine d) Saffranine
10. The extraction of separated bands of DNA by cutting out them from the agarose gel is
a) Denaturation b) Fragmentation c) Elution d) Separation
11. The thermostable enzyme DNA polymerase is obtained from
a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens b) Thermus aquaticus

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 c) Escherichia coli d) Meloidogyne incognitia
12. In the naming of restriction enzymes, the first letter of the name is derived from
a) Species
b) Genus c) Strain d) Family
13. Restriction enzymes belongs to the class
a) Oxidoreductases
b) Ligases c) Isomerases d) Nucleases
14. Agrobacterium tumifaciens transform normal cells into a tumor by delivering a piece of
DNA known as
a) Z-DNA b) C-DNA c) T-DNA d) R-DNA
15. Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell by
a) Micro injection
b) Gene gun c) Insertion d) Biolistics
16. Agrobacterium tumifaciens is used as a vector for cloning genes in
a) Plants
b) Animals c) Bacteria d) Viruses
17. Any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host is called as
a) Recombinant DNA
b) Recombinant RNA
c) Recombinant Protein
d) Recombinant polysaccharide
18. HindII cuts DNA molecule at a specific point by recognizing a specific sequence of
a) 4 base pairs b) 6 base pairs
c) 5 base pairs d) 8 base pairs
19. Which of the following is the correct order of processing of PCR?
a) Annealing, denaturation, extension b) Denaturation, extension, annealing
c) Denaturation, annealing, extension d) Extension, annealing, denaturation
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20. In the given diagram of pBR vector, identify the restriction sites A, B, C and D.

a) A- tetR, B- HindIII, C- Ori, D- ampR

b) A- Ori, B- ampR, C- tetR, D- HindIII
c) A- HindIII, B- tetR, C- ampR, D- Ori

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d) A- ampR, B- tetR, C- HindIII, D- Ori

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21. Statement I: Sticky ends are resulted due to the action of restriction enzymes.
Statement II: Stickiness facilitates the action of DNA polymerase.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true.
c) Both the statements I and II are true. d) Both the statements I and II are false.
22. The purpose of stirred tank bioreactor is
a) Providing anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.
b) Purification of the product.
c) Addition and proper mixing of the preservative.
d) Availability of oxygen throughout the process.
23. Identify the correct statement.
a) Hind II cut the DNA at a specific sequence of 6 base pairs.
b) Micro-injection is the technique of introduction of rDNA into plant cells.
c) Biolistics is the technique of introduction of rDNA into animal cells.
d) Retroviruses are commonly used cloning vectors in plants.
24. Statement I: Plasmid DNA acts as vectors to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
Statement II: Vector DNA acts as plasmids to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true.
c) Both the statements I and II are true.
d) Both the statements I and II are false.
25. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
a) Vector b) Marker c) Plasmid d) Probe
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Agrobacterium, Cancerous cells, Sticky ends, DNA, DNA Ligase, Heat shock, Cellulose,
Vector, Restriction endonuclease, Primers, Elution, EcoRI, Tansformation, Polymerase Chain
Reaction, Palindrome)

1. The tumor inducing plasmid of has been modified into a cloning vector.
2. When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same
kind of .
3. The plasmid DNA act as to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.

72
4. functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
5. Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of
DNA are .
6. The extraction of DNA bands from agarose gel is known as .
7. The technique that serves the purpose of early diagnosis is
8. the enzyme used to break cells to release DNA along with other
macromolecules in plants.
9. Retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into .
10. Stickiness of the cut ends of DNA facilitates the action of the enzyme .
11. is the sequence of base pairs of DNA that reads same on the two strands
when orientation of reading is kept same.
12. is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host
bacterium.
13. is a method of making a competent host by placing cells in alternate
temperature.
14. is negatively charged, hence moves towards anode.
15. GAATTC is the restriction site of .

PART - B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. What is biotechnology? Mention any two uses of it to mankind.
2. Mention two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology.
3. Name two bacteria that were used for developing recombinant DNA by Stanley Cohen
and Herbert Boyer.
4. Mention any four tools used in recombinant DNA technology.
5. What are restriction enzymes? Mention their types.
6. Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease.
7. Explain the convention for naming restriction endonucleases scientifically.
8. Mention the roles of restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase in genetic engineering.
9. Name the technique involved in separation and isolation of DNA fragment. Which dye is
used to stain gel to make the DNA visible under UV light?
10. Draw a neat labelled diagram of a typical agarose gel electrophoresis.

73
11. With reference to rDNA technology, what do you mean by ‘insertional inactivation’ and
write the significance of it.
12. What are selectable markers? Mention their significance in genetic engineering?
13. Draw a neat labelled diagram of stirred tank bioreactor.
14. Draw a neat labelled diagram of sparged stirred tank bioreactor.
15. How bacteria like Escherichia coli are made competent to take up recombinant DNA?
16. Define polymerase chain reaction. Name the enzyme used in it.
17. Mention any four techniques available for the introduction of Alien DNA into host cells.
18. What are palindromic nucleotide sequences? Write the restriction site for EcoRI enzyme.
19. Explain the method of preparing a competent host by heat shock method.
20. Define the terms: a) Microinjection b) Biolistcs
21. Name the bacterium from which Taq polymerase is obtained. What is the unique feature
of Taq polymerase?
22. Name the vectors for cloning genes in plants and animal cells respectively.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. What is biotechnology? Mention two core techniques that enabled the birth of modern
biotechnology.
2. Explain three basic steps of gene cloning.
3. Mention the three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism.
4. Discuss the mechanism of action of restriction enzymes with a schematic representation.
5. Schematically represent the steps in recombinant DNA technology.
6. What is plasmid? Describe any two features of an ideal plasmid.
7. Mention the significance of the following in plasmid:
a) Ori site b) Selectable markers c) Cloning sites
8. Explain the procedure of making bacterial cells competent to take up recombinant DNA.
9. Draw a labelled diagram of plasmid pBR322.
10. Sketch and label three steps of PCR.
11. What is polymerase chain reaction? List three steps of PCR technique. Mention the
polymerase enzyme used in PCR.

74
12. Briefly explain the separation and isolation of DNA fragments.
13. Write the importance of the following in r-DNA technology:
a) PCR b) Ethidium bromide c) Bioreactor
14. Explain the feature of cloning vectors.
15. Define the following with reference to recombinant DNA technology:
a) Cloning b) Elution c) Transformation
16. Mention the importance of the following with respect to genetic engineering.
a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens b) Salmonella typhimurium c) Thermus aquaticus
17. Briefly explain the process of isolation of DNA from a plant cell.
18. Mention six optimum conditions which are maintained in bioreactor.
19. Mention sequential steps involved in rDNA technology.
20. What is downstream processing? Write a note on downstream processing.
21. a) What is recombinant protein?
b) Name the thermostable enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction.
c) Name the bacterium from which thermostable Taq polymerase is obtained.
PART – D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. a) Write any four tools used in recombinant DNA technology. (2)
b) Mention any two methods of introducing alien DNA into host cells. (2)
c) Name the stains used to visualize DNA fragments in Gel electrophoresis. (1)
2. Write the convention for naming the restriction enzymes with suitable example.
3. a) Show diagrammatic representation of recombinant DNA technology. (3)
b) Write note on down streaming processing. (2)
4. Describe the characteristics that a plasmid should possess to be used as a cloning vector in
genetic engineering.
5. Briefly explain the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology.
6. Explain the process of amplification of gene using PCR.
7. What is polymerase chain reaction? Name the bacterium from which the polymerase
enzyme used in this technique is obtained. Write the schematic representation of this
technique.
8. Describe the process of separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis.
9. a) Define polymerase chain reaction. Mention its significance in genetic engineering. (2)
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 b) Write the diagrammatic representation of steps involved in PCR. (3)
10. What are bioreactors? Mention the control systems of stirred tank bioreactor and write
their functions.
11. What is insertional inactivation? Explain with respect to β-galactosidase enzyme? How
are recombinants and non-recombinants identified?
12. Give reason for the following:
a) Alien DNA is linked with ‘ori’site of a vector in gene cloning.
b) Restriction enzymes are called ‘molecular scissors’.
c) DNA ligase is used in genetic engineering.
d) Gel electrophoresis is considered as a very important technique in recombinant DNA
technology.
e) DNA fragments move towards anode under electric field through a medium in gel
electrophoresis.
13. Give reasons for the following:
a) Origin of replication in vector is an essential site required for gene cloning.
b) Selectable marker in a vector is essential site without which identifying recombinant
DNA becomes difficult.
c) Vectors in rDNA technique needs to have very few, preferably single recognition site.
d) Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure.
e) Chilled ethanol is used in DNA isolation.
14. Given below are the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology. These steps have to
be conducted in a definite order. Arrange them in a correct order.
i) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host
ii) Culturing the host cells in a medium at large scale
iii) Extraction of the desired product. iv) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector
v) Isolation of DNA vi) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases
vii) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
15. What are selectable markers? Give any two examples. Mention the significance of
selectable markers in genetic engineering.
16. a) Define plasmid. Give an example. (2)
b) Insertion of rDNA into the host is an important step in genetic engineering. An
ampicillin resistant gene transferred to E. coli acts as selectable marker. Explain. (3)

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17. A person working in a laboratory was thinking to use fermentor instead of bioreactor. He
was unaware of the systems which one is suitable for aerobic and which one for anaerobic
processes. In this respect, guide him by comparing the both.
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Genetic engineering is a complex technology which comprises various techniques. Each
technique uses number of chemicals for different purposes. Complete the following table
which is framed in this background.
Gel electrophoresis A Visualization of DNA fragments
B DNA polymerase C
Gene gun D Transfer of recombinant DNA
Isolation of DNA E Precipitation of DNA

2. Mention the importance of the following with respect to genetic engineering:

a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
b) Thermus aquaticus
c) E.coRI
d) DNA Ligase
e) Disarmed retroviruses

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77
 CHAPTER 10
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
PART-A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. In human insulin, the two polypeptide chains are linked together by
a) Covalent bonds b) Glycosidic bonds
c) Phosphodiester bonds d) Disulphide bonds
2. ADA deficiency in humans could be permanently cured by
a) Bone marrow transplantation
b) Introduction of functional ADA through injection
c) Introduction of gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA into embryonic cells
d) Enzyme replacement therapy
3. A novel strategy adapted to prevent the infection of Meloidegyne incognitia is based on
a) Molecular diagnosis b) RNA interference
c) Electrophoresis d) Micro-injection
4. The plants developed by the fusion of protoplasts of two different plants are called
a) Somaclones b) Somatic hybrids c) Transgenic plants d) GM plants
5. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to synthesis of insulin?
a) Synthesized as pro-enzyme and needs to be processed to become functional enzyme.
b) Synthesized as pro-hormone and needs to be processed to become functional hormone
c) Synthesized as pro-enzyme and needs to be processed to become functional pro-
hormone.
d) Synthesized as pro-hormone and needs to be processed to become functional
proenzyme.
6. Bt- toxin is produced by the bacterium
a) Bacillus subtilis b) Bacillus thuringiensis
c) Escherichia coli d) Salmonella typhi
7. Corn borers are controlled by the protein encoded by the gene
a) cryIAc b) cryIIAb c) cryIVAb d) cryIAb
8. The silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to
a) White rusts b) Bacterial blights c) Bollworms d) Nematodes
9. Meloidogyne incognitia is a
a) Protozoa b) Nematode c) Fungi d) Algae

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10. The name given to the first transgenic cow is
a) Dolly b) Rosie c) Marie d) Lilly
11. Crystals of BT toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves
because
a) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin b) Toxin is immature
c) Toxin is inactive d) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac
12. Crystalline protein synthesized by Bacillus thuringiensis is activated by
a) Acidic pH in insect fore-gut
b) Acidic pH in insect mid-gut
c) Alkaline pH in insect fore-gut
d) Alkaline pH in insect mid-gut
13. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organizations without
proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment is called
a) Bioethics b) Bio war c) Biopiracy d) Bio remedy
14. The mobile genetic elements are called
a) Transcripts b) Transposons c) Transforms D) Transgenes
15. Identify the incorrect statement.
a) The transgenic cow Rosie produced milk enriched with α-lactalbumin.
b) Bt toxin genes cryIAc controls corn borer.
c) Human protein α-1-antitrypsin is used to treat emphysema.
d) The commercial production of human insulin was made possible by the transgenic
species of E. coli.
16. Insect tolerant gene from Bacillus thuringiencis is introduced using Ti plasmid of
a) Agrobacterium tumifaciens b) Escherichia coli
c) Meloidogyne incognitia d) Salmonella typhi
17. Statement I: The plants genetically identical to the original plants are called somaclones.
Statement II: Somaclones can be obtained through micro-propagation.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true.
c) Both the statements I and II are true
d) Both the statements I and II are false.

79
18. Pollen grains of a plant whose 2n=48 are cultured to get callus by tissue culture method.
What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the callus?
a) 48 b) 24 c) 36 d) 12
19. In tissue culture, to get virus free plants from a diseased one, which part has to be
choosen.
a) Intercalary meristem b) Apical meristem c) Lateral meristem d) Anther
20. Identify the correct statement
a) Bacillus thuringiensis produces an insecticidal protein that can kill Meoidogyne
incognitia.
b) The gene cryIAc can control corn borer.
c) Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host
plant.
d) Bt toxin exists as protein that converts into protoxin in insect gut.
21. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals are
a) Mice b) Rats c) Rabbits d) Cows
22. The therapy given to cure adenosine deaminase deficiency comes under the category of
a) Chemotherapy b) Gene therapy c) Radiation therapy d) Immunotherapy
23. Which among the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into plants?
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
b) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
c) Meloidogyne incognitia
d) Escherichia coli
24. Statement I: Bacillus thuringiensis produces insecticidal protein crystals called Bt toxin
Statement II: These toxins exist as pro-hormones before entering into insect gut.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false.
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true.
c) Both the statements I and II are true.
d) Both the statements I and II are false.
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Transposons, Corn borer, ELISA, Polypeptide, Meristem, Pro-hormone, Agrobacterium,
Adenosine deaminase, Cotton bollworm, Somaclones, Totipotency, Eli Lilly, Alpha-
lactalbumin, Emphysema)

80
1. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell or explants is called .
2. Although the plant is infected with a virus, is free of virus.
3. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a girl with deficiency.
4. is based on the principle of antigen- antibody interaction.
5. In mammals insulin is synthesized as a .
6. The protein encoded by the genes cryIAb controls .
7. The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb controls the .
8. Using vectors nematode specific genes were introduced into host plants.
9. The artificial human protein α-1-antitrypsin is used to treat .
10. The transgenic cow Rosie produces milk rich in protein.
11. is an American company responsible for commercial production of human
insulin.
12. Human insulin consists of two chains.
13. are the mobile genetic elements.
14. The plants genetically identical to the original plants from which they were grown are
known as .
PART - B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. What are genetically modified organisms? Give any two examples.
2. Mention any two benefits of genetically modified plants.
3. What are cry genes? Give two examples.
4. Mention two genes that are responsible for producing cry protein to control cotton
bollworms.
5. Mention any two problems associated with conventional breeding that were solved
through GM crops. Mention one problem associated with its use.
6. Mention the genes of Bacillus thuringiensis that gives resistance against
a) Cotton bollworms b) Corn borer
7. Differentiate between somatic hybrids and somaclones.
8. What is meristem culture? Mention its significance.
9. Differentiate between pro-insulin and a mature insulin.
10. Mention any two biological products produced by transgenic animals with their
applications.

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11. What is gene therapy? Mention a disease which has been treated using this technique.
12. Transgenic animals can be used to produce biological products. Justify with two
examples.
13. Mention any two biological products obtained from transgenic animals.
14. Mention any two roles of Genetic Engineering Approval Committee.
15. Name any two modern diagnosis tools which help in early detection of disease.
16. Write any two application of PCR as a molecular diagnostic tool.
17. Give the diagrammatic representation of maturation of pro-insulin into insulin.
18. PCR and ELISA are the tools for early detection of diseases. Justify the statement by
giving the principles behind the techniques.
19. How insulin was produced before its production through genetically modified E. coli?
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Mention the three critical areas of biotechnology.
2. Name any three options that can be thought for increasing food production in agriculture.
3. In which way genetically modified plants are useful?
4. What is Bt toxin? How does it kill cotton boll worms?
5. Mention the three groups of insects that are susceptible to Bt toxins.
6. Explain how the development of Bt cotton has reduced the use of insecticides.
7. Write a note on production of human insulin by genetic engineering.
8. What is RNA interference? Explain the procedure of developing nematode resistant
tobacco plant by RNA interference.
9. Briefly explain the steps involved in PCR based molecular diagnosis of mutations in
cancer patients.
10. What is gene therapy? Explain the steps involved in curing ADA deficiency by gene
therapy.
11. What is gene therapy? Give an example
12. Write a note on gene therapy.
13. Mention three applications of PCR as a tool of molecular diagnosis.
14. What is biopiracy? Explain it with reference to Basmati Rice.
15. Briefly explain the process of somatic hybridization with an example.
16. Mention significances of the following in early diagnosis.

82
 a) PCR (2)
b) ELISA (1)
PART – D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. “One of the applications of biotechnology is the production of insect resistant crop plant”.
Justify the statement with reference to Bt cotton.
2. a) What are genetically modified crops? Give example. (2)
b) What is Biopiracy? Comment on the Biopiracy of Basmati rice. (3)
3. What is Bt cotton. The development of Bt cotton has greatly reduced the reliance on
chemical pesticides. Justify.
4. Briefly explain the uses of transgenic animals.
5. What is RNA interference? How does RNA interference helps to develop resistance in
tobacco plant against Nematode infection?
6. With reference to tissue culture, define the following terms:
a) Explants b) Micropropagation c) Totipotency
d) Somatic hybridization e) Somaclones
7. What is tissue culture? Explain any four applications.
8. Explain the applications of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
9. In agriculture use of genetically modified crops is more advantageous over conventional
method. Justify the statement giving five reasons.
10. In tissue culture, the technique of somatic hybridization is one of the superior thinking of
scientists. Substantiate the statement with appropriate example.
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Biotechnology has its own applications in many ways as it comprises number of
techniques. Given below are the few applications created by biotechnology. Name the
technique behind the applications.
a) Detection of pathogen using antigen-antibody interaction.
b) Identification of mutation in a gene.
c) Detection of the pathogen before the development of disease symptoms.
d) Control of Meloidogyne infection in tobacco plants.
e) Production of thousands of plants in short duration using tissue culture.

83
2. Genetic engineering is a technique of altering the chemistry of genetic material to
introduce into host organism to create change in phenotype of the host. In light of this,
answer the following:
a) Which is the source organism of cry gene? (1)
b) Name the host plant to which cry gene was inserted? (1)
c) Give any two examples for the cry gene. (1)
d) Explain the mode of action of the protein produced by the cry gene. (2)
3. RNA interference is a novel strategy to control Meloidogyne incognitia infection in
tobacco plants. Given below are the steps involved in this technique. Arrange them in a
definite sequence.
a) Being complementary, the two RNAs forms double stranded.
b) Nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plants.
c) DNA produces both sense and anti-sense RNA.
d) Silences the specific mRNA in the nematode.
e) Initiates RNAi.
4. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Even though Bt toxin can kill many insects, it will not kill the bacteria that produces it.
(2)
(b) Even though Bt toxin is inactive, it kills the insect when enters its midgut. (2)
(c) The gene encoding ‘cry’ protein inserted into a crop plant. (1)

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84
 CHAPTER 11
ORGANISIMS AND POPULATIONS
PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. The correct order of various levels of biological organization in an eco-system is:
a) Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome.
b) Organism → Population → Biome → Ecosystem → Community
c) Biome → Ecosystem → Population → Organism → Community.
d) Biome → Community → Ecosystem → Population → Organism.
2. In a pond if there were 20 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 16 are added.
Calculate the birth rate:
a) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year. b) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year.
c) 0.8 offspring per year. d) 1.25 offspring per year.
3. In an aquarium if there are 8 fishes and in a week 2 fishes die. Calculate the death rate:
a) 0.25 individual per fish per week. b) 3.0 individual per fish per week.
c) 0.25 individual fish per week. d) 3.0 individual fish per week.
4. The shape of the age pyramid reflects the population's growth status. In this context, the
given age pyramid indicates that the population is

a) Expanding b) Stable c) Declining d) Cannot be depicted

5. Statement 1: Population size is determined by population density.
Statement 2: Population density is not the meaningful measure of the population
a) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct d) Both the statements are incorrect.
6. In a population with a large number of older individuals than younger ones it can be
predicted to:
a) Decline b) Standard. c) Grow d) Does not effect.
7. The change in population size can be used to evaluate :
a) Impact of predator b) Effect of pesticide.
c) Introduction of exotic species d) All the above.

85
8. Statement 1: If the predator is too efficient and over exploits its prey then the predator
itself becomes extinct.
Statement 2: Prey species have evolved various defense s to lessen the impact of the
predation.
a) Both statements 1 & 2 are correct b) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect.
c) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct d) Both the statements are incorrect.
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Exponential, Resource partitioning, 0.0205, Commensalism, Logistic growth)
1. The r value for human population in India in 1981 was .
2. The population growth is called when it finally reaches an asymptote.
3. The population interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither
benefitted nor harmed is called .
4. Closely related species of Warblers living on the same tree avoid competition by the
mechanism called .
5. When resource availability in a habitat is unlimited it leads to growth.
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each

1. Mention the four basic levels of biological organization that ecology is concerned with?
2. Mention any two population attributes.
3. Name the four basic processes that fluctuates population density.
4. Mention the two patterns of population growth in organisms.
5. Differentiate between exponential growth and logistic growth.
6. Give two examples or organisms that breed only once in their life time.
7. Show diagrammatic representation of exponential and logistic growth curves of
population growth in a combined diagram.
8. Mention any four types of interspecific interactions in organisms.
9. Mention two examples for defense of prey against predators in plants.
10. Define predation. Give any two examples.
11. Mention two adaptations in plants to escape from grazers and browsers.
12. Give an example each for a) Morphological defense

86
 b) Chemical defense in plants against grazing animals.
13. Give an example for following defense mechanism.
a) Camouflage b) Distasteful for the predator
14. Explain interference competition with an example.
15. Explain competitive release with an example.
16. Write short note on resource partitioning with a suitable example.
17. Mention two adaptations in organisms for parasitic mode of life.
18. What are ectoparasites? Give example
19. What are endoparasites? Give an example.
20. Define commensalism. Give examples.
21. Define mutualism. Give an example.
22. What is brood parasitism? Give an example.
23. State Gause’s competitive exclusion principle.
24. Female mosquito is not considered as parasite although it feeds on human blood. Why?
25. Differentiate between ectoparasite and endoparasite with examples.
26. Cattle egret and grazing cattle is a classical example of commensalism. Comment.
27. Fig species and pollinator wasp is an example of evolution of mutualists. Justify.
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. If N is population density at time t, B is natality, D is mortality, I is immigration, E is
emigration.
a) Give the equation to determine density at time t + 1.
b) Which of the above determinants contribute to an increase in population density?
c) Which of the above determinants contribute to a decrease in population density?
2. List out the three attributes of a population.
3. Write a note on brood parasitism.
4. If a plot of N in relation to time (t) results in a sigmoid curve and dN/dt=rN((K-N)/K)
a) Name the type of population growth.
b) What does K represent in the equation?
c) On what condition does the curve become stationary?
5. What is resource partitioning? Describe with an example.
6. What is parasitism? Mention the types of parasites with an example for each.
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7. What is parasitism? Write a note on brood parasitism.
8. What is parasitism? Mention two adaptations in organisms for parasitic mode of life.
9. What is mutualism? Why plant – animal interaction often involves co - evolution of
mutualists?
10. Explain how Mediterranean orchid ‘Ophrys’ employs sexual deceit to ensure pollination?
11. Name the type of interactions seen in each of the following examples:
a) A sparrow eating on a seed.
b) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos Island.
c) A Cascuta growing on a hedge plant.
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Explain Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth with a diagram and write its mathematical
expression.
2. Graphically represent exponential growth and give its mathematical equation.
3. Mention any five population interactions with an example for each.
4. Define competition. Explain interference competition and competitive release with
suitable examples.
5. Explain the role of predation in an ecosystem with suitable examples. Add a note on
morphological and chemical defensive adaptations in plant and animal preys against their
predators?
6. What is mutualism? Explain any four examples of mutualism.
7. What is mutualism? Why does plant - animal interaction often involves co - evolution of
mutualists? Justify your answer with an example.
8. ‘Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and free meals’. Justify the statement by
listing the special adaptations developed by parasites.
9. Name the type of interactions seen in each of the following examples:
a) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone
b) Koel and cuckoo bird during the breeding season.
c) Barnacles growing on back of a whale.
d) Marine fish and copepods.
e) Sexual deceit in Mediterranean orchid Ophrys

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VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. Refer to the graphs given below regarding growth patterns in organisms and answer the
questions that follow.

a) Curve ‘a’ represents which type of growth?

b) Curve ‘b’ represents which type of growth?
c) Which growth model is considered more realistic one in nature?
d) When bacteria are cultured under controlled optimum environmental conditions. Which
curve is obtained?
e) The interactions such as Predation, Competition and Parasitism can be represented by
which curve. How?
2. Fill out the tabular column with the appropriate terms describing biological interactions
among species.
Species A Species B Name of interaction
Phytophagous insects - Predation
Balanus Chathamalus -
Marine fish Copepods -
- Orchid Commensalism
Fig - Mutualism

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 CHAPTER 12
ECOSYSTEM
PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. The functional unit of nature is called
a) Community b) Population c) Biome d) Ecosystem
2. The rate of biomass production is called
a) Productivity b) Primary productivity
c) Secondary productivity d) Gross primary productivity
3. The amount of organic matter or biomass produced per unit area over a time period by
producers during photosynthesis is
a) Productivity b) Primary productivity
c) Secondary productivity d) Gross primary productivity
4. The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is
a) Productivity b) Primary productivity
c) Secondary productivity d) Gross primary productivity
5. GPP-R is
a) Primary productivity b) Net primary productivity
c) Secondary productivity d) Gross primary productivity
6. NPP is represented as
a) GPP-PP b) GPP-SP c) GPP-R d) GPP-P
d) Gross primary productivity
7. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is estimated approximately
a) 170 billion tons b) 55 billion tons c) 120 billion tons d) 70 billion tons
8. The annual net primary productivity of oceans is
a) 170 billion tons b) 55 billion tons c) 120 billion tons d) 70 billion tons
9. in GPP-R, the letter ‘R’ represents
a) Respiratory loss b) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
c) Respiratory quotient d) Reproductive loss
10. The rate of formation of new organic matter by producers is
a) Net primary productivity b) Primary productivity
c) Secondary productivity d) Gross primary productivity

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11. The productivity available as biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs is
a) GPP c) NPP c) PP d) SP
12. The percent of energy that flows to each trophic level in a food chain is
a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%
13. In which of the following ecosystem the pyramid of biomass is generally inverted?
a) Grassland b) Tree c) sea d) Forest
14. Identify the he correct sequence of steps in the process of decomposition is
a) Fragmentation → leaching → catabolism → humification → mineralization
b) Leaching → fragmentation → catabolism → humification → mineralization
c) Humification → fragmentation → leaching → catabolism → mineralization
d) Catabolism → fragmentation → leaching → humification → mineralization
15. Identify the decomposers among the following in the pond ecosystem.
A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Flagellates D) Phytoplankton
a) A only b) A & B only c) A,B & C d) A, B, C & D
16. Which of the following statement is not true about ecological pyramids?
a) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
b) It assumes a simple food chain something that almost never exists in nature.
c) It does not accommodate a food web
d) Saprophytes are given a place in ecological pyramids as they play a vital role in the
ecosystem.
17. A food chain with 1000 kcal of energy at the first tropic level is expected to transfer what
amount of the energy at the third tropic level
a) 100 kcal b) 500 kcal c) 10 kcal d) 1kcal
18. If the energy produced at the level of the producers is 1000 J, the energy available for the
secondary consumers is
a) 1000 J b) 100 J c) 10 J d) 1 J
19. The process of breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances is
a) Fragmentation b) catabolism c) decomposition d) Leaching
20. Which of the following steps in decomposition does not occur on the detritus?
a) Fragmentation b) Leaching c) Humification d) Catabolism
21. The rate of decomposition is slower if detritus is rich in
a) Chitin b) Nitrogen c) Water soluble sugars d) Water insoluble sugars

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22. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time and is called
a) Standing state b) standing crop c) Organic matter d) Biomass
23. Statement I: Pyramid of energy maybe upright or inverted.
Statement II: Only 10% of energy goes to next trophic level.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
24. Statement I: The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
Statement II: The biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Fragmentation, 10% law, Leaching, Oxygen, Inhibit, Favour, Detritus, GFC, DFC, Food
web, Stratification, Earthworm, Catabolism, Soil, Trophic level, Producers, Decline,
Terrestrial ecosystem)
1. The vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called
2. The dead plant and animal remains including faecal matter constitutes
3. is the process of breakdown of detritus into smaller particles.
4. is an example for detrivore.
5. The process of degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic substances by bacterial and
fungal enzymes is
6. Humification and minimization occur during decomposition in the
7. Decomposition is largely a a requiring process.
8. Low temperature and anaerobiosis decomposition.
9. Warm temperature and moist environments decomposition.
10. The food chain that begins with dead organic matter is
11. In aquatic ecosystems is the major conduit for energy flow.
12. The natural interconnections of many food chains are called

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13. The specific place of organisms in the food chain based on the source of their nutrition is
called
14. The base of each ecological pyramid represents
15. Pyramid of biomass shows a sharp in biomass at higher trophic levels
16. In greater fraction of energy flows through DFC than GFC.
17. According to the only 10% of energy flows to the each trophic level from
the lower trophic level.
PART – B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each
1. Define ecosystem. Why is biosphere regarded as global ecosystem by ecologists?
2. List the basic or fundamental categories of ecosystems on earth with an example for each.
3. List the four primary functions of an ecosystem.
4. Define productivity and mention its types.
5. Define a) Primary productivity b) Secondary productivity
6. Distinguish between primary productivity and secondary productivity.
7. Define a) Gross primary productivity b) Net primary productivity
8. Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity.
9. Mention two conditions which increase the rate of decomposition in ecosystem.
10. Mention two conditions which decrease the rate of decomposition in ecosystem.
11. Define food chain. Mention the types of food chain.
12. Distinguish between food chain and food web.
13. Schematically represent a grazing food chain.
14. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with two reasons.
15. a) Why is the pyramid of biomass in sea generally inverted?
b) Pyramid of energy is always upright and can never be inverted. Why?

PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Describe the components of an aquatic ecosystem taking pond as an example.

93
2. Define the terms a) Detritus. b) Decomposition c) Detrivores

3. Explain the factors that regulate decomposition.

4. Schematically represent pyramid of numbers with appropriate units.

5. Schematically represent pyramid of biomass with appropriate units.
6. Schematically represent pyramid of energy with appropriate units.

7. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with three reasons.

PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. What is productivity? Mention the types of primary productivity. Compare primary
productivity and secondary productivity in an ecosystem.
2. Define the terms: a) Food chain b) Food web c) Trophic level
d) Stratification e) Standing crop
3. Describe the various steps involved in the process of decomposition.
4. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify.
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each
1. a) Fill in the blanks with suitable options that correctly identifies A, B and C in the given
table. (3)

Organism Trophic level Food chain

Eagle A Grazing
Earthworm Primary consumer B
Frog C Grazing

2. b) Construct a pyramid of energy showing different trophic levels and energy content,
given that 600Kcal at the second trophic level. (2)

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 CHAPTER 13

BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

PART-A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given: 1 Mark Each
1. The term biodiversity was popularized by
a) Edward Wilson b) Robert May
c) Alexander Von Humboldt d) Paul Ehrlich
2. Robert May places global species diversity at about
a) 2 million b) 1.5 million c) 2.5 million d) 7 million
3. As per species inventories 70% of species recorded are
a) Plants b) Fungi c) Bryophytes d) Animals
4. The most species-rich taxonomic group among invertebrates is
a) Birds b) Insects c) Mammals d) Fishes
5. The most species-rich taxonomic group among vertebrates is
a) Birds b) Insects c) Mammals d) Fishes
6. The most species-rich taxonomic group among plants is
a) Algae b) Fungi c) Angiosperms d) Ferns
7. The share of global species diversity of India is
a) 8.1% b) 8.5% c) 9% d) 2.4%
8. The species-area relationship was given by
a) Edward Wilson b) Robert May
c) Alexander Von Humboldt d) Paul Ehrlich
9. In the given species-area equation, log S= log C + Z log A, the letter ‘Z’ represents
a) Area b) Species richness c) Regression coefficient d) Y-intercept
10. According to ecologists the value of ‘Z’ lies in the range of
a) 0.1-0.5 b) 0.2-0.6 c) 0.6-1.2 d) 0.1-0.2
11. The species-area relationship among large areas like the entire content has the ‘Z’ values
in the range of
a) 0.1-0.5 b) 0.2-0.6 c) 0.6-1.2 d) 0.1-0.2
12. The slope of the line (regression coefficient) for fruit-eating birds and mammals in the
tropical forests of different continents is found in the range of
a) 0.1-2.5 b) 1-1.5 c) 0.6-1.2 d) 0.1-0.2

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13. The rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by
a) Paul Ehrlich b) Alexander Von Humboldt c) Edward Wilson d) Mac Arthur
14. Which of the following species introduced for aquaculture purposes is posing serious
threats to the indigenous catfishes in our country?
a) Clarias gariepinus b) Eichhirnia c) Parthenium d) Lantana
15. The narrow utilitarian arguments for conserving biodiversity are
a) Cereals & Fruits b) Ecosystem services
c) Intrinsic values d) Aesthetic pleasures
16. The following are the in-situ conservation approaches except
a) National parks b) Wildlife sanctuaries
c) Biosphere reserves d) Botanical gardens
17. The following are the ex-situ conservation approaches except
a) Zoological parks b) Seed banks c) Sacred groves d)Botanical gardens
18. Chanda and Bastar areas known for sacred groves are found in
a) Meghalaya b) Madhya Pradesh c) Karnataka d) Rajasthan
19. The earth summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in
a) 1991 b) 1992 c) 2010 d) 2002
20. The world summit on sustainable development was held in 2002 in
a) Canada b) Johannesburg c) Brazil d) Tokyo
21. Statement I: There are 32 biodiversity hotspots in the world.
Statement II: High level of species richness and high degree of endemism are criteria for
selection of a biodiversity hotspot.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
22. Statement I: Tropical regions have got a long evolutionary time for species
diversification as compared to temperate regions.
Statement II: Temperate regions have undergone frequent glaciations in the past whereas
tropical regions have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
a) Both statement I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

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 d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/words from those given in the
bracket: 1 Mark Each
(Overexploitation, Decreases, Cryopreservation, Cichlid, 2.4%, Reserpine, Lungs, Increases,
Amazon rain forest, In-situ, Ex-situ, 2%, sacred grooves, Biodiversity hotspot, Seed bank,
Endemism)
1. The genetic diversity shown by Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in Himalayan produces an
active chemical called………………
2. The extinction of Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon was due to…………….
3. The introduction of Nile perch into Lake Victoria in east Africa led to the extinction of
ecologically unique assemblages of.................fish in the lake
4. The land area of India is ………..
5. In general species diversity …………. as we move away from the equator towards the
poles
6.............................in south America has the greatest biodiversity on earth
7. The Amazonian rain forest is called................of the planet
8. The protection of endangered or threatened species away from their natural habitat
is…………………..
9. The protection of the entire forest to save the tiger is an example for..............conservation
10. Biodiversity hotspots account for...................of the earth’s land area
11. Tracts of forests that are set aside and all the trees and wildlife within were venerated and
given full protection constitute……………
12. The regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism are called
biodiversity...........
13. The phenomenon of species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is
called……..
14. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be kept for long
periods in………………
15. Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile conditions for long
periods using……………
PART-B
III. Answer the following questions in 3-5 sentences each, wherever applicable:
2 Marks Each

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1. Define biodiversity. Who popularized the term ‘biodiversity?
2. Write any two levels of biodiversity.
3. What is genetic diversity? India has more than 50,000 different strains of rice. Mention
the level of biodiversity it represents.
4. “India is rich in genetic diversity”. Justify the statement by giving two examples.
5. Give an example for genetic diversity. Name an active chemical produced by medicinal
plant Rauwolfia vomitoria.
6. What is species diversity? Give an example.
7. What is ecological or ecosystem diversity? Give an example.
8. Differentiate genetic diversity and species diversity.
9. Differentiate genetic diversity and ecological diversity.
10. Differentiate species diversity and ecological diversity.
11. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.
12. Mention any two effects of biodiversity loss.
13. Mention David Tilman’s observation with respect to species richness in a community.
14. Mention “The Evil Quartet” of biodiversity losses in a given habitat.
15. Give any two examples for species which has become extinct due to overexploitation.
16. “Alien species invasion leads to extinction of indigenous species”. Justify the statement by
giving two appropriate examples.
17. What is co-extinction? Give an example.
18. Define the terms: a) Endemism b) Bioprospecting
19. What are ‘biodiversity hotspots’? Name any two biodiversity hotspot in India.
20. What is in situ conservation? Mention any two examples for in situ conservation.
21. What is ex situ conservation? Mention any two examples for ex situ conservation.
22. Differentiate in situ conservation and ex situ conservation.
23. What are sacred grooves? Give an example.
24. How are sacred grooves important in conserving biodiversity?
25. How cryopreservation helps in the conservation of biodiversity?
26. List any two ecosystem services provided by biodiversity.
27. Write any two advanced techniques used in ex situ conservation.
28. a) What are endemic species?
b) Who proposed the ‘rivet popper” hypotheses?

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29. a) Among vertebrates, which group of animals has the highest number in global
biodiversity?
b) Name the forest which is referred to as the ‘lungs of the planet’?
PART – C
IV. Answer the following questions in 40-80 words each, wherever applicable:
3 Marks Each
1. Briefly explain the three levels of biodiversity with suitable examples.
2. “Tropical rain forests have greater biodiversity compared to temperate forest”. Justify
with three reasons.
3. Draw a graphical representation of species area relationship.
4. Explain the species-area relationship of biodiversity as explained by Alexander Von
Humboldt.
5. In the formula Log S=Log C- Z log A to find out species-area relationship, what does ‘S’,
‘A’ and ‘Z’ represent?
6. Write the salient features of stable community with reference to biodiversity.
7. Comment on David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments and its signicance.
8. Describe the “rivet popper” hypothesis as explained by Stanford ecologist Paul Ehrlich.
Mention its significance.
9. List out the three general effects of loss of biodiversity.
10. “Introduction of alien species causes biodiversity loss”. Justify this statement with any
three appropriate examples.
11. Why should we conserve biodiversity? Explain.
12. Briefly explain narrowly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity.
13. Briefly explain broadly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity.
14. “Biodiversity plays a major role in providing many ecosystem services”. Justify the
statement with three reasons.
15. Name the biodiversity hotspots of India.
16. a) What is India’s share (in percentage) in global species diversity?
b) How many mega diversity countries are present in the world?
c) Why Western Ghats range is considered as one of the biodiversity hotspots?
PART- D
V. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks Each

99
1. Define biodiversity. Explain the major causes of biodiversity loss.
2. What are endemic species? Differentiate in situ conservation and ex situ conservation with
suitable examples.
3. Explain species area relationship with graphical representation.
4. Describe different ecosystem services provided by biodiversity.
5. Describe different strategies as a measure for conservation of biodiversity.
VI. Answer the following questions in 200-250 words each, wherever applicable:
5 Marks each
1. Refer to the graph showing species-area relationship and answer the questions that follow:
a) Write the equation of the curve ‘a’ and ‘b’.
(2)
b) Explain how does the value of Z varies.
(3)

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