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TECH *

Final Coaching
CLUSTER 5
April 2021 Philippine Radiologic Technology Licensure Examination Review
Prepared by: Prof. Isabelle Ramirez, RRT
NAME: DATE: SCORE: _____

Radiographic Pathology (100) 12. Which of the following definitions applies to pectus
1. Which of the following is characteristic of emphysema? excavatum?
A. Mucous plugs containing eosinophils A. Multiple fractures of the sternum with fragments in the
B. Increased number of goblet cells pericardium
C. Destruction of alveolar walls B. Abnormally prominent lower aspect of sternum
D. Chronic necrotizing inflammation C. Depressed sternum due to congenital defect
2. A noninfectious arthritis characterized by osteoporosis, soft D. Separation between ribs and sternum due to trauma
tissue swelling and erosion of metacarpophalangeal joints
and ulnar styloid processes is referred to as __. 13. The type of microorganism that leads to the production of
A. Psoriatic thick, yellow called pus, which contains dead white blood
B. Reiter’s cells, inflammatory exudate and bacteria is __.
C. Rheumatoid A. Pyogenic bacteria
D. Osteoarthritis B. A virus
3. The main pathologic problem brought about by embolism is C. Phagocytes
__. D. A fungus
A. Obstruction 14. A localized area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or organ
B. Infection produced by occlusion of the arterial supply or venous
C. Edema drainage is __.
D. Inflammation A. Hematoma
4. Which of the following terms refers to a localized bulging or B. Filariasis
dilatation of an artery? C. Edema
A. Effusion D. An infarct
B. Ischemia 15. A berry aneurysm rupture is the major cause of a/n __
C. Atherosclerosis hemorrhage.
D. Aneurysm A. Intracerebral
5. Presence of large amounts of gas and fluid in uniformly B. Subdural
dilated loops of small and large bowel, often seen after C. Epidural
abdominal surgery is __. D. Subarachnoid
A. Adynamic ileus 16. What disease caused by chronic destruction of liver cells and
B. Localized ileus structure, usually caused by chronic alcoholism?
C. Colonic ileus A. Ascites
D. Ileus B. Cirrhosis
6. Which of the following is an injury caused by a blunt force C. Gallstones
that damages small blood vessels without disruption of the D. Pneumoperitoneum
continuity of tissues? 17. What term is used to describe the free air in the abdominal
A. Contusion cavity as it outlines the ligament by gas on both sides of
B. Abrasion falciform?
C. Laceration A. Copula’s Sign
D. Incision B. Rigler’s sign
7. What is the term for benign epithelial neoplasm that grows C. Falciform ligament sign
in gland-like pattern? D. Morrison’s pouch
A. Angiomas 18. What is the modality of choice for diagnosing Hepatocellular
B. Myomas carcinoma?
C. Adenoma A. Ultrasound
D. Cystadenomas B. Computed Tomography
8. Which of the following terms refers to a dilated calyces and C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
renal pelvis? D. Radiography
A. Hydronephrosis 19. Which of the following statements below correctly
B. Hypernephroma demonstrates a radiographic appearance of an
C. Pyelonephritis intussusception?
D. Nephrosis A. Plain radiographs appear as small bowel obstruction
9. Which imaging modality would BEST demonstrate the with gas
posterior fossa, cerebellum and brainstem? B. A single contrast barium enema will have a coiled
A. Magnetic resonance imaging spring appearance
B. Positron emission tomography C. Ultrasound will show three concentric circle forming a
C. Single photon emission computed tomography soft tissue mass
D. Computed tomography D. CT image will appear as a doughnut-shaped lesion
10. Which of the following are the common areas of the body 20. Which of the following correctly states the radiographic
that are radiographed to determine bone age? appearance of a sigmoid volvulus?
A. Pelvis and hips A. A single contrast barium enema – bird’s beak sign
B. Skull and neck B. The haustral markings in the sigmoid colon are lost
C. Hand and foot C. Both A and B
D. Hand and wrist D. None of the above
11. Large amount of air trapped in sigmoid colon with a tapered 21. What is the best modality to be used for demonstrating
narrowing at the site of obstruction. epileptic foci?
A. Ascites A. Positron Emission Tomography
B. Pneumoperitoneum B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
C. Volvulus C. Ultrasound
D. Intussusception D. Computed Tomography

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22. Nephrocalcinosis is the deposition of calcium salts in the 36. When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a/n __
renal parenchyma due to which of the following? examination should be performed and is considered the gold
A. Hyperparathyroidism standard.
B. Hypoparathyroidism A. Upper GI
C. Hyperthyroidism B. Positron emission tomography
D. Hypothyroidism C. Computed tomography
23. What term is used to describe a collection of pus that is D. Radiography
usually encapsulated? 37. Currently, this is considered to be the most accurate imaging
A. Pyogenic examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear
B. Abscess clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. What is it?
C. Anasarca A. Ultrasound
D. Elephantiasis B. Computed tomography
24. Why does the mediastinum appear wide in infant commonly C. Positron emission tomography
referred to as the "sail sign"? D. Radiography
A. The thymus is normally large 38. Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of
B. The thyroid is normally large diverticulitis unless diagnosing for suspected complications
C. The esophagus is enlarged of which of the following?
D. The heart is enlarged A. Pneumoperitoneum and obstruction
B. Pneumonia and hyaline membrane disease
C. Multiple myeloma and Paget’s Disease
25. Radiographic appearance of a general abdominal haziness D. Rectal CA
A. Ascites 39. Which of the following is currently the standard imaging
B. Volvulus procedure for staging superficial rectal carcinomas?
C. Pneumoperitoneum A. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
D. Intussusception B. Computed tomography
26. Which of the following condition is associated with C. Radiography
radiological ‘Spalding sign'? D. Computed radiography
A. Mummification 40. The olive sign is associated with what pathologic process?
B. Maceration A. Helicobacter pylori
C. Hanging B. Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis
D. Drowning C. Colorectal cancers
27. Radiological appearance of ‘corkscrew esophagus’ is a D. Zenker diverticula
characteristic finding seen in the condition __. 41. A MRCP is used to visual which anatomic structures?
A. Achalasia cardia I. Gallbladder
B. Diffuse esophageal spasm II. Biliary system
C. Carcinoma esophagus III. Stomach
D. Reflux esophagitis A. I and II only
28. Shenton’s line is a radiological line used to determine the B. I and III only
pathology of? C. II and III only
A. Hip D. I, II and III
B. Ankle 42. Which of the following imaging studies are highly
C. Elbow recommended for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
D. Shoulder A. CT and PET
29. A child with a history of pain over lower extremities since B. Sonography and MRI
few moths shows radiological evidence of osteosarcoma. C. CT and sonography
Most common site of osteosarcoma is _. D. Sonography and Radiography
A. Upper end of femur 43. Which imaging procedure can differentiate between vessels
B. Lower end of femur and biliary based on flow characteristics?
C. Lower end of fibula A. Computed tomography
D. Lower end of tibia B. Doppler sonography
30. What is the most common male breast benign lesion? C. Oral cholegraphy
A. Simple Cyst D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
B. Fibroadenoma 44. The most common site for esophageal cancer is the __.
C. Lipoma A. Proximal esophagus
D. Gynecomastia B. Esophagogastric junction
31. It is an injury of the anteroinferior glenoid labrum. C. Distal esophagus
A. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation D. Upper esophageal sphincter
B. Bankart lesion 45. What fracture is described when the proximal third of the
C. Hill-Sach’s defect ulna continues into a fracture with anterior dislocation of the
D. Impingement syndrome radius?
32. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a A. Monteggia fracture
cervical rib? B. Pott's fracture
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Smith fracture
B. Transitional vertebrae D. Jones fracture
C. Ankylosing spondylitis 46. A common radiographic finding in a cross table cervical
D. Giant cell tumor lateral projection with patients suffering from whiplash is
33. High resolution CT is the imaging modality of choice in cases which of the following?
of suspected pathology? A. Loss of lordosis
A. Pleurisy B. Loss of kyphosis
B. Mediastinal emphysema C. Loss of lateral bending
C. Bronchiectasis D. Loss of anterior flexion & extension
D. Hyaline Membrane disease 47. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an
34. Doppler sonography is used to image which of the following abdominal aneurysm may include which of the following?
conditions? A. Angiography
I. Deep vein thrombosis B. Computed tomography
II. Carotid stenosis C. Sonography
III. Lower extremity arterial stenosis D. All of the above
A. I and II only 48. A 27-year-old man with history of alcoholism and repeated
B. I and III only bouts of aspiration pneumonia comes to the emergency
C. II and III only room with a high fever and pleuritic chest pain. Physical
D. I, II and III examination reveals dullness on percussion and absence of
35. A CT calcium score best demonstrates which of the breath sounds in the right lower lung field. A chest x-ray
following? demonstrates pleural fluid on the right side. Thoracentesis
A. Ischemia returns a thick, foul-smelling fluid. Which of the following is
B. Dissecting the most likely diagnosis?
C. Thrombus A. Empyema
D. Hard Plaques B. Hemothorax
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 C. Hydrothorax 57. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of
D. Pneumothorax long bones in individuals younger than 20 and consists of
49. The phenomenon which most definitely indicates that a numerous blood filled arteriovenous communications?
neoplasm is malignant is which of the following? A. Aneurysm
A. Autonomous cell proliferation B. Aneurysmal bone cyst
B. Central necrosis C. Potts Fracture
C. Lack of encapsulation D. Enchondroma
D. Metastasis 58. What type of aggressive done forming neoplasm that is most
50. A 22-year-old man with AIDS complains of persistent cough, often located in the bone marrow gives the radiographic
night sweats, low-grade fever, and general malaise. A chest appearance of a sunray or sunburst?
x-ray reveals an area of consolidation in the periphery of the A. Osteosarcoma
left upper lobe, as well as hilar lymphadenopathy. Sputum B. Osteoid osteoma
cultures show acid-fast bacilli. Which of the following is the C. Giant cell tumor
most likely diagnosis? D. Carcinoma
A. Bronchopneumonia 59. A patient with a possible rotator cuff tear comes to the
B. Pulmonary abscess radiology department. Which one of the following imaging
C. Sarcoidosis modalities would best demonstrate this injury?
D. Tuberculosis A. Arthrography
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
C. Nuclear medicine
D. Radiography
51. A 48-year-old man with a longstanding history of chronic 60. Which one of the following imaging modalities is most
constipation complains of anal itching and discomfort toward sensitive in diagnosing early signs of metastatic carcinoma of
the end of the day. He describes a perianal pain when sitting the pelvis?
and finds himself sitting sideways to avoid discomfort. A. Sonography
Physical examination reveals painful varicose dilations in the B. Computed tomography
anal region, associated with edema. Which of the following C. Magnetic resonance imaging
is the most likely diagnosis? D. Nuclear medicine
A. Anal cancer 61. In cases of lymphoma, the best modality to demonstrate
B. Anal fissure microscopic tumor is __.
C. Hemorrhoids A. Computed tomography
D. Rectal cancer B. Magnetic resonance imaging
52. A 56-year-old reports reduced exercise tolerance over the C. Nuclear medicine
past 5 years. In the past year, he has noted chest pain after D. Positron emission tomography
ascending a flight of stairs. He smokes 2 packs of cigarettes 62. What term is used for an anatomical variant of the
per day. On examination he has a blood pressure of 155/95 gallbladder caused by a fold or division at the point where
mm Hg. His body mass index is 30. Laboratory findings the tip of the gallbladder (the head) joins the main part of
include a total serum cholesterol of 245 mg/dL with an HDL the gallbladder (the body), and is named for its resemblance
cholesterol of 22 mg/dL. Which of the following vascular to a stocking cap.
abnormalities is he most likely to have? A. Emphysematous cholecystitis
A. Lymphedema B. Porcelain gallbladder
B. Medial calcific sclerosis C. Morrison’s Pouch
C. Atherosclerosis D. Phyrigian cup
D. Deep venous thrombosis 63. What imaging modality can be best used for demonstrating
53. An 80-year-old woman has had no major medical problems, a physiologic map?
but she has never been physically active for most of her life. A. Nuclear Medicine
One day she falls out of bed and immediately notes a sharp B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
pain in her left hip. She is subsequently unable to ambulate C. Ultrasound
without severe pain. Radiographs show not only a fracture D. Mammography
of the left femoral head, but also a compressed fracture of 64. Which of the following terms would correctly describe a
T10. Which of the following conditions is she most likely to kidney located outside of its normal location?
have? A. Renal agenesis
A. Vitamin D deficiency B. Supernumerary kidney
B. Acute osteomyelitis C. Hypoplastic kidney
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta D. Ectopic kidney
D. Osteoporosis 65. Bladder carcinoma occurs as a caner of the bladder in which
54. An otherwise healthy 44-year-old man with no prior medical of the following tissues?
history has had increasing back pain and right hip pain for A. Epithelium
the past decade. The pain is worse at the end of the day. On B. Muscularis
physical examination, he has bony enlargement of the distal C. Serosa
interphalangeal joints. A radiograph of the spine reveals the D. Connective tissues
presence of prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral 66. Which of the following imaging modalities is sensitive in
bodies. There is sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space detecting emboli within the thoracic vessels?
at the right acetabulum seen on a radiograph of the pelvis. A. Ultrasound
Which of the following diseases is he most likely to have? B. Computed Tomography
A. Gout C. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
B. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Radiography
C. Osteoarthritis 67. It is a characteristic radiographic lesion for staphylococcal
D. Osteomyelitis pneumonia, more typically seen in children
55. Which of the following answer choices is false? A. Pneumococcal (lobar) pneumonia
A. Ultrasonography is the standard imaging study for the B. Pneumatocele
diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy in first trimester. C. Interstitial pneumonia
B. Interstitial pregnancy can persist, in rare cases, D. Bronchopneumonia
asymptomatically for up to 16 weeks. 68. It is a name given to a severe bacterial pneumonia that
C. MRI has no role in diagnosis of interstitial ectopic becomes know after it caused the death of four people
pregnancy. attending convention in Philadelphia in 1976
D. On MRI, the presence of a junctional zone between the A. Aspiration pneumonia
gestational sac surrounded by myometrium and the B. Viral pneumonia
uterine cavity is very suggestive of interstitial C. Legionnaires disease
pregnancy. D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
56. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous 69. What fracture describes a transverse fracture of lumbar
evaluation of bone and soft tissues with quantitative vertebrae in addition to substantial abdominal injuries?
metabolic data of osteosarcomas? A. Seat belt fracture
A. Positron Emission Tomography scan B. Trimalleolar fracture
B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging C. Torus/buckle fracture
C. Ultrasonography D. Stress fracture
D. Radiography
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70. Radiographic appearance of thin crest-shaped radiolucency D. Nuclear medicine
underneath diaphragm 83. Which cervical vertebrae may demonstrate a “cervical rib”?
A. Volvulus A. C1
B. Ascites B. C2
C. Pneumoperitoneum C. C6
D. Ulcerative colitis D. C7
71. Which radiological procedure is used for studying vesico- 84. Which one of the following conditions is often diagnosed by
ureteric reflux? prenatal ultrasound?
A. Ascending pyelogram A. Scoliosis
B. Cystogram B. Spina bifida
C. Intravenous urogram C. Spondylolisthesis
D. Micturition cystourethrogram D. Ankylosing spondylitis
72. Which of the following radiological sign will be present in a 85. A flail chest is defined as __
young lady with symptoms suggestive of pulmonary A. Asthenic body habitus
embolism? B. Pulmonary injury caused by blunt trauma to two or
A. Hampton's hump more ribs
B. Westermark sign C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Fleischner sign D. Cardiac injury caused by blunt trauma
D. All of the above 86. Osteolytic metastases of the ribs produce which of the
following radiographic appearances?
A. Irregular bony margins
B. Increased bony density of the ribs
73. A nuclear medical bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of C. Sharp lucent lines through the ribs
osteomyelitis of the right foot. If this procedure is positive, D. Smooth lucent “holes” in the ribs
what would the image demonstrate? 87. Which of the following imaging modalities is the most
A. Increase uptake on the right foot (cold spot) common neuroimaging procedure performed for the
B. Increase uptake on the right foot (hot spot) cranium?
C. Decrease uptake on the right foot (cold spot) A. Computed tomography
D. Decrease uptake on the right foot (hot spot) B. Ultrasound
74. What is the current standard of care when a pulmonary C. Magnetic resonance imaging
embolism is suspected? D. Nuclear medicine
A. Thoracic CTA 88. Which of the following imaging modalities is most commonly
B. Abdomen CTA performed to evaluate patients for Alzheimer’s disease?
C. Peripheral Arteriogram A. CT
D. High Resolution Lung CT B. Ultrasound
75. Bronchogenic carcinoma and metastatic lung disease would C. MRI
be the best demonstrated in what imaging modality? D. Nuclear medicine
A. Fluorodeoxyglucose PET 89. Which of the following is the most common type of bacterial
B. Chest Radiography pneumonia?
C. High Resolution CT scan A. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging B. Legionnaires’ disease
76. A 66-year-old man with Parkinson disease develops pleuritic C. Pneumococcal pneumonia
chest pain. On exam, he has guarding over the right lower D. Streptococcal pneumonia
lung with dullness to percussion. A chest CT scan shows a 90. Which portion of the gastrointestinal system is most
focal, wedge-shaped pleural based area of hemorrhage in frequently damaged by blunt trauma to the abdomen?
the right lower lobe. Which of the following is the most likely A. Cecum
cause for his pulmonary lesion? B. Duodenum
A. Embolism C. Ileum
B. Atherosclerosis D. Jejunum
C. Vasculitis 91. A contusion formed on the side of the head where trauma
D. Thrombosis occurs is called a:
77. Which one of the following imaging modalities or procedures A. Concussion
provides a functional, or dynamic study of the shoulder B. Contre coup lesion
joint? C. Coup lesion
A. Ultrasound D. Spondylosis
B. Radiography 92. Where is the pars interarticularis found?
C. Nuclear medicine A. Superior and inferior aspect of the pedicle
D. MRI B. Between the intervertebral disk and vertebra
78. Which of the following ill-defined area of bone destruction C. Between the superior and inferior articular processes
with surrounding “onion peel” appearance? D. Between the lamina and body spinous process
A. Osteoid osteoma 93. Which of the following imaging modalities is usually
B. Ewing’s sarcoma performed on neonates with a possible intracranial
C. Gout hemorrhage?
D. Osgood-Schlatter disease A. CT
79. What is the common term for chondromalacia patellae? B. Ultrasound
A. Brittle bone disease C. MRI
B. Runner’s knee D. Nuclear medicine
C. Degenerative joint disease 94. An avulsion fracture of the spinous processes of C6 through
D. Giant cell tumor T1 is called a __.
80. Which one of the imaging modalities can be used on a A. Hangman’s fracture
newborn to assess hip joint stability during movement of the B. Clay shoveler’s fracture
lower limbs? C. Jefferson’s fracture
A. Sonography D. Teardrop burst fracture
B. Computed tomography 95. Which of the following pathologies describes an asymmetric
C. Magnetic resonance imaging erosion of joint spaces with calcaneal erosion?
D. Nuclear medicine A. Osteoarthritis
81. Mild form of scoliosis and kyphosis developing during B. Osteomalacia
adolescence is called __. C. Reiter syndrome
A. Teardrop burst fracture D. Bone cyst
B. Hangman’s fracture 96. Which one of the following conditions is demonstrated
C. Scheuermann’s disease radiographically as distended, air filled loops of the small
D. Unilateral subluxation bowel?
82. Which of the following imaging modalities is not performed A. Ascites
to rule out a herniated nucleus pulposus (HNP)? B. Ulcerative colitis
A. Computed tomography C. Pneumoperitoneum
B. Myelography D. Ileus
C. Magnetic resonance imaging 97. A Bennett’s fracture involves:
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 A. Base of first metacarpal C. Sharply marginated
B. Trapezium bone D. Hyperdense
C. Scaphoid 112. Ultrasound depends on the echo of the high-frequency
D. Fracture extending through first IP first sound waves produced by the transducer. Tissue that
98. Which of the following imaging modalities provides an produces a strong reflection is known as __.
excellent distinction between normal and abnormal brain A. Hypoechoic
tissue? B. Anechoic
A. CT C. Isoechoic
B. MRI D. Hyperechoic or echogenic
C. Ultrasound 113. Ultrasound is limited by acoustic barriers such as __.
D. Nuclear medicine A. Liver and splenic tissue
99. Which of the following conditions may be visualized in a CT B. Air and bone
study of the brain? C. Urine in the bladder
A. Glioblastoma D. Gallstones or kidney stones
B. Wilm’s tumor 114. The conversion of mechanical oscillation to an electrical
C. Krukenburg tumor signal follows __.
D. Plasmacytosis A. the Doppler effect
100. A hyperfunctioning nodule would appear as __. B. Snell's law
A. Cold spot C. the piezoelectric effect
B. Hot spot D. Huygens' principle
C. Uniform texture 115. Ultrasound velocity is faster in tissue of __.
D. Nothing A. Lower impedance
B. Lower refractive index
C. higher compressibility
Ultrasonography (100) D. Higher density
101. Which of the following is a description of a mass with 116. Who among the following stated that positions on a
distorted architecture, irregular borders and decreased wavefront can be considered point sources for secondary
transmission? wavelets?
A. Infiltrating mass A. Snell
B. Homogenous mass B. Doppler
C. Heterogeneous mass C. Young
D. Abscess D. Huygens
102. Wavelength is a measure of __ 117. In applying the wave equation, the term period means the _.
A. Distance A. Frequency
B. Voltage B. Wavelength
C. Time C. Velocity
D. Pulse duration D. Time of one cycle
103. Which is the resultant effect on refraction if the probe is 118. Slowest to fastest, which of the following properly sequences
positioned perpendicular to the interest? ultrasound velocity in tissue?
A. Minimized refraction A. air, fat, bone, blood, muscle
B. Changed in refraction B. fat, air blood, muscle, bone
C. Increased refraction proportionally C. blood, muscle, fat, air, bone
D. Increased the incidence of refraction D. air, fat, blood, muscle, bone
104. Which of the following is observed during breast 119. Sound emitted with a frequency of 10 Hz would be called __.
ultrasonography? A. Subsonic
A. Duct of wirsung B. Supersonic
B. Lymphatic duct C. Audible
C. Ductless gland D. Hypersonic
D. Lactiferous duct 120. Specular reflection occurs only __.
105. The estimated frequency of sound wave with a wavelength A. At high frequency.
of 5.2 meters if the velocity is 5.2 km/s is __. B. At a smooth interface.
A. 1000 c/s C. With real-time ultrasound
B. 50 c/s D. At a high-impedance interface.
C. 100 Hz 121. Which of the following most influences the resistance of
D. 10 Hz tissue to ultrasound propagation?
106. Audible sound has an average frequency of __. A. compressibility
A. 5 MHz B. mass density
B. 10 Hz – 19 Hz C. acoustic impedance
C. 1 – 1.5 MHz D. index of refraction
D. 20 Hz – 20 KHz 122. What causes refraction at a tissue interface?
107. 2D ultrasound images are known as __. A. absorption
A. B mode B. attenuation
B. Doppler C. impedance change
C. M mode D. velocity change
D. A mode 123. Acoustic impedance is expressed in __.
108. The primary mechanisms that produce sound changes in A. hertz (Hz)
cells and tissues are __. B. mW/cm2
A. Direct and indirect C. dB
B. Thermal and cavitational D. rayl
C. Absorption and reflection 124. High-frequency transducers have __.
D. Oscillations and radiation A. Better resolution and less penetration.
109. Which of the following is the MOST sensitive and specific B. Better resolution and more penetration.
noninvasive method of diagnosing mitral stenosis? C. Reduced resolution and higher intensity.
A. Ultrasonography D. Reduced resolution and less penetration.
B. Cardiac arteriography 125. Which term describes the fraction of time during pulse echo
C. Computed tomography (PE) imaging that ultrasound is actually emitted?
D. Echocardiography A. bandwidth
110. On some ultrasound equipment, adjusting the compression B. duty cycle
will affect which of the following processes? C. pulse length
A. Balance D. pulse repetition rate (PRR)
B. Dynamic range 126. During pulse echo (PE) imaging, approximately what percent
C. Output of the time can the transducer receive echoes?
D. Slope position A. <1
111. A pathophysiologic change that appears as a similar tissue is B. 1 to 5
termed as __. C. 10 to 25
A. Heterogenous D. 99.9
B. Isodense 127. Which of the following is an example of an acoustic window?
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 A. bladder B. Strongly attenuating tissue.
B. bone C. Doppler shift.
C. muscle/fat interface D. Huygens ‘Principle.
D. rib/lung interface 143. The mirror-image artifact would most likely be observed
128. For an unfocused transducer, the near-field length depends near the __.
on __. A. Diaphragm.
A. Backing material and wavelength. B. Kidney.
B. Crystal diameter and frequency. C. Lung.
C. Crystal thickness and wavelength. D. Pancreas.
D. Matching layer and crystal diameter. E. Vessel.
129. The intensity of a focused ultrasound beam is highest 144. What is the name of the region near the skin when no useful
A. At the transducer/skin interface. echoes are obtained?
B. In the near zone. A. allowed zone
C. At the focal zone. B. B zone
D. In the far zone. C. dead zone
130. Which part of the transducer controls ring down? D. reflective zone
A. radio frequency insulation 145. The transducer should __.
B. matching layer I. Be autoclaved when used during surgery.
C. backing material II. Be autoclaved on a regular schedule.
D. piezoelectric crystal III. Be autoclaved when a sterile field is required.
131. Real-time scanning excels as compared with compound B- IV. Not be autoclaved.
mode imaging in its __. A. Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
A. Axial resolution. B. Only 1 and 3 are correct.
B. Lateral resolution. C. Only 2 and 4 are correct.
C. Contrast resolution. D. Only 4 is correct.
D. Temporal resolution. E. All are correct.
132. Which operator control varies echo amplitude as a function
of depth in the patient? 146. When individual ultrasound waves combine, the process is
A. compression called __.
B. amplification A. absorption
C. enveloping B. attenuation
D. time-gain compensation (TGC) C. interference
133. The piezoelectric crystal is usually made of __. D. refraction
A. Calcium tungstate (Ca W04). E. dispersion
B. Lead zirconate titanate (Pb ZT). 147. A longitudinal wave is one in which __.
C. Lead oxide (Pb O). A. the wavelength is longer than the frequency
D. Lithium fluoride (Li F). B. The total energy equals the incremental energy.
134. Real-time ultrasound has most in common with __. C. The oscillating energy disturbance is in the direction of
A. Fluoroscopy. the wave motion.
B. SPECT. D. The oscillating energy disturbance is perpendicular to
C. MRI. the direction of the wave motion.
D. Spiral CT. 148. Ultrasound velocity in soft tissue is 1540 m/s. Which of the
135. A necessary condition to produce diagnostic ultrasound following has velocity closest to soft tissue?
echoes is __ A. blood
A. sound wavelength less than 1 mm B. bone
B. differences of acoustic impedance C. liver
C. differences in atomic number D. lung
D. differences in mass density 149. When tissue is exposed to ultrasound, __.
136. When transducer frequency is reduced, what happens to the A. The unit of Intensity is mW/cm2
Doppler shift frequency of a moving tissue? B. The unit of ultrasound dose is the rad.
A. it decreases C. The unit of ultrasound dose is the decibel (dB).
B. it remains the same D. If a beam has a 30 dB gain, that means it is 30% more
C. it increases intense.
D. it increases or decreases, depending on the direction of 150. Best axial resolution is obtained with __.
motion A. Highest frequency and shortest spatial pulse length
137. What type of ultrasound imager has both real-time and B. Highest frequency and longest spatial pulse length
Doppler capacity? C. Lowest frequency and shortest spatial pulse length
A. A mode D. Lowest frequency and longest spatial pulse length
B. B mode 151. During pulse echo (PE) imaging, the fraction of time that the
C. M mode transducer actually emits ultrasound is the __.
D. color-flow imaging A. Spatial pulse length (SPL)
138. Relative to soft tissue, the velocity of sound in blood is B. Period
approximately __. C. Pulse repetition frequency (PRF)
A. Half as slow. D. Duty factor (DF)
B. Slightly slower. 152. The Doppler shift frequency is proportional to the:
C. Slightly faster. A. Doppler angle
D. Twice as fast. B. operating frequency
139. A structure that has no echoes and transmits ultrasound C. velocity of the reflector
with little attenuation is called __. D. propagation speed of the medium
A. Echogenic. 153. An increase in reflection amplitudes from reflectors behind a
B. Hyperechoic. weakly attenuating structure is termed:
C. Hypoechoic. A. comet-tail artifact
D. Sonolucent. B. acoustic shadowing
140. During real-time imaging, the ring down artifact is a result of C. slice thickness artifact
__. D. acoustic enhancement
A. Resonance in air-filled cavities. 154. As the transducer diameter increases, the:
B. Refraction at a tissue interface. A. near zone length decreases
C. Velocity differences. B. thickness of the element decreases
D. Nonspecular reflection. C. divergence in the far field decreases
141. When two specular reflectors are close, what is the most D. propagation speed of the element decreases
likely artifact? 155. Holding a single image of sonographic information for
A. ghost display is termed a:
B. reverberation A. pixel
C. speckle B. scan line
D. aliasing C. cine loop
142. Enhancement occurs because of __. D. freeze frame
A. Weakly attenuating tissue.
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156. Which of the following is most likely to improve axial 170. A spaghetti-like echogenic tubular structure within a bile
resolution? duct is a sonographic finding associated with:
A. increasing the frame rate A. hepatitis
B. increasing the penetration depth B. ascariasis
C. decreasing the angle of incidence C. clonorchiasis
D. increasing the transducer frequency D. hydatid disease
157. Heat sterilization of ultrasound transducers is not 171. Splenomegaly is a consistent finding in which of the
recommended because: following liver pathologies?
A. it will void the warranty A. polycystic disease
B. the transducer's stability decreases B. hepatic vein thrombosis
C. heat will damage the electric cables C. portal hypertension
D. the piezoelectric properties will be lost D. hepatocellular carcinoma
158. The greater the impedance difference between two 172. Enlargement of the gallbladder caused by obstruction of the
structures, the greater the: common bile duct by a distal external neoplasm is termed:
A. refraction A. Bouveret sign
B. reflection B. Murphy sign
C. attenuation C. Mirizzi syndrome
D. transmission D. Courvoisier sign
159. What is the purpose of the damping material in the 173. The length of a normal adult spleen should not exceed
transducer assembly? A. 8 cm
A. increase sensitivity B. 10 cm
B. reduce pulse duration C. 13 cm
C. eliminate grating lobes D. 17 cm
D. improve sound transmission into the body 174. A displacing of the renal calyces documented on a recent
intravenous pyelogram. A sonogram over this area
demonstrates a smooth circular anechoic renal mass. This
mass is most suspicious for a(n):
A. hematoma
160. The objective of the matching layer in the assembly of an B. simple cyst
ultrasound transducer is to reduce the: C. extrarenal pelvis
A. spatial pulse length D. malignant neoplasm
B. number of cycles in each pulse 175. When hydronephrosis is encountered, the sonographer
C. electrical energy applied to the crystal should evaluate the urinary bladder for evidence of a(n):
D. impedance difference between the element and skin A. cyst
161. When coursing from a medium of lower propagation speed B. infection
to a medium of higher propagation speed, the frequency of C. obstruction
the sound wave will __. D. duplication
A. double E. inflammation
B. increase 176. To aid in demonstrating posterior acoustic shadowing, the
C. decrease sonographer should:
D. remain constant A. increase the overall gain
162. Specular reflections occur when the sound wave: B. decrease the image depth
A. strikes a rough surface C. decrease the dynamic range
B. encounters a weak reflector D. increase the transducer frequency
C. encounters a strong reflector 177. Which of the following invasive procedures removes a small
D. strikes a smooth, large reflector piece of living tissue for microscopic analysis?
163. Contrast resolution is the ability to distinguish __. A. core biopsy
A. different points in time B. thoracentesis
B. between echoes analogous to the sound path C. paracentesis
C. between echoes of slightly different amplitudes D. cyst aspiration
D. two separate structures parallel to the sound path 178. A patient with a recent history of angioplasty presents with a
164. For refraction to occur, which of the following must take pulsatile inguinal mass. A fluid collection adjacent to the
place? common femoral artery is identified. Color and spectral
A. perpendicular incidence and a change of velocity Doppler demonstrates turbulent blood flow within the fluid
B. perpendicular incidence and a change in impedance collection. On the basis of the clinical history, the
C. oblique incidence and a change of propagation speed sonographic findings are most consistent with a(n):
D. perpendicular incidence and a change in impedance A. lipoma
165. A hydrophone is an instrument used to measure: B. hematoma
A. cavitation C. pseudoaneurysm
B. thermal index D. enlarged lymph node
C. acoustic output 179. 105. A 25-year-old patient presents with a non-tender
D. mechanical index palpable breast mass. A hypoechoic, oval-shaped mass
E. transducer characteristics demonstrating posterior acoustic enhancement is identified
166. Which of the following frequencies is in the infrasound in the breast parenchyma. On the basis of this clinical
range? history, the sonographic finding is most suspicious for a:
A. 10 Hz A. lipoma
B. 25 Hz B. complex cyst
C. 10 kHz C. fibroadenoma
D. 25 kHz D. galactocele
167. Which of the following techniques use separate transmitter 180. Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays
and receiver elements? the sonographic appearance and location of a Meckel
A. motion mode diverticulum?
B. amplitude mode A. hyperechoic mass located near the anal canal
C. real-time imaging B. isoechoic mass located near the ileocecal valve
D. continuous wave Doppler C. anechoic or complex mass, slightly to the right of the
168. Normal diameter of the main portal vein should not exceed: umbilicus
A. 0.3 cm D. complex mass, slightly inferior to the ligamentum
B. 0.5 cm venosum
C. 1.3 cm E. anechoic or complex mass, slightly medial to the
D. 1.5 cm falciform ligament
169. A small hyperechoic pancreas is identified on ultrasound. 181. Post void residual in a normal adult urinary bladder should
This is most suspicious for which of the following not exceed:
abnormalities? A. 5mL
A. islet cell tumor B. 20 mL
B. cystic fibrosis C. 50 mL
C. chronic pancreatitis D. 100 mL
D. fatty infiltration
7
182. On ultrasound, visualization of a needle during an invasive D. cavernous hemangioma
procedure is attained in a plane: 194. The Whipple procedure is a surgical resection of which of
A. parallel to the needle path the following organs?
B. oblique to the needle path A. liver
C. perpendicular to the needle path B. spleen
D. posterior to the needle path C. pancreas
183. A round, homogeneous, solid mass is identified medial to the D. gallbladder
splenic hilum. The echo texture is similar to the adjacent 195. Which of the following patient positions is typically used
splenic parenchyma. On the basis of these sonographic during a thoracentesis?
findings, the mass is most consistent with which of the A. prone
following? B. supine
A. gastric neoplasm C. sitting
B. accessory spleen D. decubitus
C. adrenal adenoma 196. Which color always represents the baseline in color Doppler
D. left lobe of the liver imaging?
184. Non-shadowing, low-amplitude echoes layering in the A. red
dependent portion of the gallbladder describes: B. blue
A. polyps C. black
B. gallstones D. yellow
C. biliary sludge 197. Transmission of the sound wave from one medium to the
D. adenomyomatosis next is determined by the media:
185. The following statements are true, EXCEPT: A. stiffness
A. With regards to PRF, the number of cycles in each B. amplitude
pulse is meaningless. C. impedance
B. Pulse repetition frequency is reported in units of Hz D. propagation speed
(hertz) 198. Which of the following transducers will produce a longer
C. The sonographer cannot change the PRF focal length if the crystal diameter remains constant?
D. PRF is unrelated to frequency A. 5-MHz focused transducer
B. 10-MHz focused transducer
C. 5-MHz unfocused transducer
186. The integrity of which of the following structures is D. 10-MHz unfocused transducer
evaluated with the Thompson test? 199. What are the advantages of neonatal cranial sonography
A. calf muscles versus computed tomography?
B. rotator cuff I. Can be done with a portable unit
C. Achilles tendon II. No partial volume effect
D. carpal tunnel nerve III. No transducer artifact
187. A patient presents with a history of abdominal pain and IV. No bone interference
lower-extremity edema. An ultrasound is requested to rule A. I and II C. I, II, III and IV
out Budd-Chiari syndrome. The sonographer should B. I and III D. II and IV
thoroughly evaluate which of the following organs? 200. The type of ultrasound scanner that fires an array of
A. liver transducers one at a/an time to create a rectangular image
B. spleen is called a __.
C. kidneys A. Sector scanner D. Phased array
D. pancreas B. Linear array E. T-M Mode
188. A patient presents with a history of severe back pain, weight C. Annular array
loss, and painless jaundice. An abnormality in which of the
following organs is most likely to correlate with these
symptoms?
A. spleen
B. kidney
C. pancreas
D. adrenal gland
189. Which of the following conditions is associated with Mirizzi
syndrome?
A. biliary atresia
B. pancreatic neoplasm
C. gallbladder neoplasm
D. impacted stone in the cystic duct
190. Congenital anomalies of the gallbladder include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. duplication
B. ectopic location
C. hourglass shape
D. strawberry appearance
191. A patient presents with a palpable neck mass. A sonogram
demonstrates an echogenic mass in the superior lobe of the
right thyroid gland. A prominent hypoechoic ring surrounds
this nodule. This mass is most suspicious for which of the
following neoplasms?
A. lipoma
B. adenoma
C. carcinoma
D. metastatic lesion
192. A patient presents with a history of elevated liver function
tests. An anechoic tubular structure is identified in the body
of the pancreas. This structure most likely represents the:
A. splenic vein
B. splenic artery
C. pancreatic duct
D. common bile duct
193. A 30-year-old patient presents with a history of right upper
quadrant pain. Laboratory tests are within normal limits. An
image of the spleen demonstrates an incidental hyperechoic
mass. This mass is most suspicious for a(n):
A. abscess
B. lipoma
C. metastatic lesion
8