[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A (1) 48 N
1. If G is the universal gravitational constant, M is (2) 96 N
the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth and h is (3) 48 2 N
GM (4) 96 2 N
the altitude, then dimension of time in
R+h
will be 5. A rigid body rotates with a constant angular
(1) 0 acceleration of 4.0 rad/s2. If it start from rest, then
(2) –1 the number of revolutions it makes in first 8 s will
(3) 1 be nearly
(4) 1/2 (1) 15
(2) 20
2. Two bodies are dropped in succession from a (3) 10
height at interval of one second. The relative (4) 25
velocity of body one with respect to other is
(where g is the acceleration due to gravity) 6. Angular momentum of the body is equal to the
(1) g/2 product of
(2) g (1) Mass and angular velocity
(3) 2g (2) Centripetal force and radius
(4) Zero (3) Linear velocity and angular velocity
(4) Moment of inertia and angular velocity
3. A body is projected with velocity 20 m/s making
an angle 53° with horizontal. Among the 7. Two thin discs each of mass M and radius r are
following the time after which its vertical attached to form a rigid body. The moment of
inertia of the system about an axis passing through
component of velocity is equal to the horizontal the diameter of the disc and in the plane of the
component is (g = 10 m/s2) disc as shown in figure will be
(1) 0.2 s
(2) 1 s
(3) 0.6 s
(4) 0.4 s

4. Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the

two ends of a light inextensible string that goes
over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. If
all the surface are smooth and system is released 7 Mr 2
(1)
from rest, then net force on the pulley by the 2
string will be (g = 10 m/s2) Mr 2
(2)
2
9 Mr 2
(3)
2
3Mr 2
(4)
2

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[2]
8. The magnitude of change in potential energy of a 12. The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends
particle of mass m when it moves from the centre primarily on:
(1) Mass of fluid
of the earth to the surface of the earth will be
(2) Density
(1) mgR (3) Angle of contact between the surface and the
mgR liquid
(2) (4) Viscosity
4
3mgR 13. The neck and bottom of a bottle filled with liquid
(3)
2 are 2 cm and 12 cm in radius respectively. If the
cork is pressed with a force of 15 N in the neck of
mgR
(4) the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the
2 bottle is
(1) 460 N
9. A moving block of mass 2 m, collides with (2) 15 N
(3) 660 N
another stationary block having mass 3 m. The
(4) 540 N
lighter block comes to rest after collision, when
initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then value 14. A body cools from 5T to 2T in 5 minutes. The
of coefficient of restitution(e) will be room temperature is T. Assume that newton's law
(1) 1/3 of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the
(2) 1/2 body at the end of next 5 minutes will be
(1) T/3
(3) 2/3
(2) 2T/3
(4) 1/4
(3) 5T/4
10. A body of mass m is given a minimum velocity, (4) T
when it enter the vertical loop of radius R, so that
15. Two rods A and B of different materials are
it can just complete the circle. The velocity of the
body when it will be in its horizontal position is welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal
() gR conductivities are 2K and 3K. The thermal
() 3gR conductivity of the composite rod will be

() 2gR
() 4gR

(1) 2K
11. A rope 2 cm in diameter breaks, if the tension in it
exceeds 600 N. The maximum tension that a 12 K
(2)
similar rope of diameter 3 cm can withstand is 5
(1) 600 N 9K
(3)
(2) 900 N 5
(3) 450 N (4) 5K
(4) 1350 N
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16. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic 20. The radius of the circle, the periodic revolution,
motion about x = 0 with amplitude A and time period the initial position, and sense of revolution are
A indicated in given figure. Obtained the simple
T. The speed of the pendulum at x = will be
2 harmonic motion of the x-projection of the radius
2A vectors of the revolving particle P.
(1)
T
3A
(2)
2T
A
(3)
T
A
(4)
2T
 
(1) x = 4sin  t +  
 3 
17. The equation of the wave is given by y = 5sin(40t
– 5x) (where x, y are in metre and t is second). The  
ratio of the maximum particle velocity to the wave (2) x = 4cos  t +  
 3 
velocity is
(1) 25 : 1  2 
(3) x = 4sin  t −  
(2) 3 : 1  3 
(3) 2 : 3
 2 
(4) 4 : 3 (4) x = 4cos  t −  
 3 
18. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note 'Dha'
are slightly out of tune and produce beats 21. The dimensional formula of specific heat capacity
frequency 6 Hz. The tension of string B is slightly is
decreased and the beat frequency is found to be 7 (1) [LT–2K–2]
Hz. If frequency of A is 440 Hz, then frequency of
(2) [L3T–1K–1]
B will be
(1) 440 Hz (3) [L2T–2K–1]
(2) 446 Hz (4) [L3T–2K–2]
(3) 434 Hz
(4) 452 Hz 22. When both source and listener approach each
other with a velocity equal to half the velocity of
19. The speed of sound in gas is independent of sound, the frequency of the sound as detected by
(1) Pressure of the gas the listener is (frequency of sound = n)
(2) Temperature of the gas (1) n
(3) Humidity of the gas (2) 2n
(4) Atomicity of the gas (3) n/2
(4) 3n
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23. A magnetic field is produced and directed along y- 28. Which among the following rays causes “Green
axis. A magnetic needle is placed along x-axis. house effect”?
The direction of torque on the magnet will be (1) Infrared rays
(1) In the x-y plane
(2) Ultraviolet rays
(2) Along y-axis
(3) Along z-axis (3) X-rays
(4) Torque will be zero (4) Radio waves

24. A dip needle vibrates in the vertical plane 29. Radius of concave mirror is 30 cm and size of
perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. The time image (real) is twice as that of object, then the
period of vibration is found to be 4 s. The same object distance from the mirror is
needle then allowed to vibrate in the horizontal
(1) 15 cm
plane and the time period is again found to be 4 s.
Then the angle of dip is (2) 30 cm
(1) 60° (3) 22.5 cm
(2) 30° (4) 45 cm
(3) 90°
(4) 45° 30. A converging lens of radii of curvatures 20 cm
and 40 cm has refractive index 4/3. Its focal
25. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of
length is (in cm)
2 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked
with each turn of solenoid is 10–2 Wb. The self (1) +40 cm
inductance of the solenoid is (2) –40 cm
(1) 2.5 H (3) +30 cm
(2) 5 H (4) –30 cm
(3) 3 H
(4) 1.5 H
31. In which of the following, the final image is erect?
26. A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, the A. Simple microscope
frequency of change of direction of induced emf is B. Compound microscope
(1) Thrice per revolution C. Astronomical telescope
(2) Twice per revolution D. Galilean telescope
(3) Six times per revolution (1) A and D only
(4) Four times per revolution (2) A and C only
(3) D and B only
27. The power in AC circuit is given by P = Erms Irms
(4) A, B, C and D
cos . The value of cos  in series LCR circuit at
resonance is
32. Which of the following phenomenon is not
1
(1) common to both sound and light waves?
2 (1) Interference
1 (2) Diffraction
(2)
2 (3) Reflection
(3) 1 (4) Polarisation
(4) Zero

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33. A light beam of power ‘P’ consists only of SECTION - B
wavelength . If Plancks constant is h and the 36. Consider a nuclear reaction
speed of light is c, then the number of photon
2 He
4
+ Z X A →Z+ 2 Y A +3 + R , here R denotes
emitted per second in the beam is
(1) Electron
P (2) Positron
(1)
h (3) Proton
P (4) Neutron
(2)
hc 37. If 10% of the radioactive material decays in 5
hc days, the percentage of original material left after
(3) 20 days will be
P
(1) 90%
hc (2) 80%
(4) (3) 65.6%
P
(4) 50%

34. When radiation of wavelength  is incident on a 38. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than
photon sensitive metallic surface, the stopping the drift current in magnitude
potential is 3.6 volt. If the same surface is (1) If the junction is forward biased
illuminated with radiation of double wavelength, (2) If the junction is reversed biased
then the stopping potential becomes 1.2 V. Then (3) If junction is unbiased
the threshold wavelength of the metal surface is (4) It is not possible
(1) 4
(2) 2 39. A cell of emf 4.5 V is connected to a junction
(3)  diode whose barrier potential is 0.7 V. If external
(4) 3 resistance of the circuit is 190 , then the current
in the circuit is
35. If R is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, then
the wave number of the second line in the Balmer
series is
3R
(1)
4 (1) 20 mA
(2) 2 mA
5R (3) 0.2 mA
(2)
36 (4) 0.02 mA
3R
(3) 40. What will be the input of A and B for Boolean
16
expression A + B + A  B = 0
R (1) 0, 0
(4)
4 (2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 0
(4) 1, 1

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41. A uniformly charged hollow non-conducting 44. AB is a wire of uniform resistance. The
spherical shell of radius R is having charge Q. The galvanometer G shows no current when the length
magnitude of work done in moving any charge q AC = 40 cm and CB = 60 cm as shown in figure.
from charge of sphere to a distance 2R from its The resistance R is equal to
centre will be
Qq
(1)
80 R
Qq
(2)
40 R
Qq
(3) (1) 40 
20 R
(4) Zero (2) 50 
(3) 15 
42. If the charge on a capacitor is increased by 2C, the (4) 30 
energy stored in it increase by 21%. The original
charge on the capacitor is
45. A proton makes a full rotation in a circle of radius
(1) 10 C
(2) 20 C 0.4 metre in two seconds. The value of the
(3) 30 C magnetic field B at the centre of the circle will be
(4) 40 C (1) 4 × 10–26 T
(2) 2 × 10–26 T
43. For the network as shown in figure, the current (3) 4 × 10–23 T
through 2  resistance will be
(4) 2 × 10–23 T

46. The (x, y, z) co-ordinates of two points A and B

are given respectively as (0, 1, –2) and (–1, 3, 1).
The unit vector along the displacement vector A to
B is given by
iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3kˆ
(1)
14
V −iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ
(1) (2)
3 14
V
(2) −iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ
6 (3)
2V 7
(3)
3 iˆ + 2 ˆj − 3kˆ
V (4)
(4) 7
4

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47. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT3 = 49. Which among the following, the magnetic
constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of susceptibility does not depend on the temperature?
the gas is (1) Paramagnetism
1 (2) Ferromagnetism
(1)
T (3) Ferrite
2 (4) Diamagnetism
(2)
T
4 50. A square loop (of wire) of side length 10 cm is
(3) placed at angle 45° with a magnetic field that
T
changes uniformly from 0.1 T to zero in 0.7
3
(4) second. The induced emf in the loop is
T
(1) 25 mV
(2) 1 mV
48. Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and
(3) 4 mV
–Q, facing each other at a certain distance are
(4) Zero
dipped in water. If plates are kept in air keeping
charge on the plates and distance between the
plates same, then electric field between the plates
will
(1) Remain same
(2) Decreases
(3) Becomes zero
(4) Increases

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)

SECTION - A 52. Which one of the following compound is

51. On treating a mixture of two alkyl halides with obtained when grignard reagent (CH3MgBr) is
sodium metal in dry ether, 2-Methylpropane was treated with water?
obtained. The alkyl halides are (1) Ethane
(1) 2-Chloropropane & Chloromethane (2) Ethyl alcohol
(2) 2-Chloropropane & Chloroethane (3) Methyl alcohol
(3) Chloromethane & Chloroethane (4) Methane
(4) Chloromethane & 1-Chloropropane

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53. The energy absorbed by each molecule (A2) of a 58. For the reaction
substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond energy per H2(g) + I2(g) ⇋ 2HI(g)
molecule is 4.0 × 10–19 J. The kinetic energy of KC = 66.9 at 350°C and KC = 50.0 at 448°C. The
the molecule per atom will be reaction has
(1) 2.2 × 10–19 J (1) H >0
(2) 2.0 × 10–19 J (2) H < 0
(3) 4.0 × 10–20 J (3) H = 0
(4) 2.0 × 10–20 J (4) H sign cannot be determined
54. De-Broglie wavelength for electron is related to 59. Which of the following process involves the gain
applied voltage as of energy?
(1) =
12.3
A (1) O (g) + e– → O– (g)
h (2) Na+(g) + e– → Na (g)
12.3 (3) Ar (g) + e– → Ar– (g)
(2) = A (4) O2– (g) → O– (g) + e–
V
12.3
(3) = A 60. The formation of oxide ion, O2– (g) requires first
r an exothermic and then an endothermic step as
12.3 shown below:
(4) = A
m O (g) + e– → O– (g); H°= –142 kJ mol–1
O– (g) + e– → O2– (g); H°= 844 kJ mol–1 This is
55. The group having triangular planar structures is because
(1) Oxygen is more electronegative
(1) NCl3, BCl3, SO3 (2) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(2) CO32− , NO3− , SO3 (3) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of
(3) NH3, SO3, CO32− another electron
(4) O– has comparatively larger size than
(4) BF3, NF3, CO32− oxygen atom

56. The central atom of which one of the following 61. Which one of the following is not an
molecules, has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs of organochlorine?
(1) Parathion
electrons in its valence shell? (2) DDT
(1) Boron trifluoride (3) BHC
(2) Phosphorous trichoride (4) Aldrin
(3) Chlorine trifluoride
(4) Xenon trioxide
62. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
57. In which of the following system, doubling the
volume of the container causes equilibrium to
shift to the right?
(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ 2HCl(g) (1) 4-Methylchlorobenzene
(2) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g) (2) 4-Chlorotoluene
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) (3) 2-Chloro-4-methylbenzene
(4) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (4) 1-Methyl-4-chlorobenzene

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63. IUPAC name of following compound is 69. On strong heating MgCl2.6H2O, the product
H3C − CH − CH − CH 3 obtained is
| |
CH3 CH2 − CN (1) MgCl2
(2) MgO
(1) 1-Cyano-2, 3-dimethylbutane
(3) MgCl2.2H2O
(2) 1-Cyano-2, 3-dimethylpentane
(3) 2, 3-Dimethylbutanenitrile (4) MgCl2.4H2O
(4) 3, 4-Dimethylpentanenitrile
70. For the reaction: A + 2B → C
64. The bleaching property of H2O2 is due to its 5 mole of A and 8 mole of B will produce
(1) Acidic nature (1) 5 mole of C
(2) Oxidizing nature (2) 4 mole of C
(3) Reducing nature
(3) 8 mole of C
(4) Basic nature
(4) 12 mole of C
65. Solution of 0.1 M NH4OH and 0.1 M NH4Cl has
71. A compound (80 g) on analysis gave
pH 9.25, The pKb of NH4OH is
(1) 9.25 C = 24 g, H = 4 g, O = 32 g. Its empirical formula
(2) 4.75 is
(3) 3.75 (1) C2H2O2
(4) 8.25 (2) C2H2O
(3) CH2O2
(4) CH2O
66. IUPAC name of is
72. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high
pressure is
(1) 1-Ethoxy-2, 2-dimethlcyclohexane
RT
(2) 2-Ethoxy-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane (1) 1 +
(3) 1, 1-Dimethyl-2-ethoxycyclohexane pb
(4) 2-Methyl-1, 1-ethoxycyclohexane (2) 1
pb
67. The reducing character of hydrides of group 14 (3) 1 +
RT
elements is
pb
(1) Maximum for CH4 and minimum for PbH4 (4) 1 −
(2) Maximum for CH4 and minimum for SnH4 RT
(3) Maximum for PbH4 and minimum for SiH4
(4) Maximum for PbH4 and minimum for CH4 73. a and b are van der Waals’ constants for a real gas.
Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane
68. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half its because
molecular weight when it is converted into (1) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2 H6
(1) Mn2O3 (2) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2 H6
(2) MnO−4
(3) a for Cl2 > a for C2 H6 but b for Cl2 > b for C2 H6
(3) MnO2
(4) a for Cl2 > a for C2 H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2 H6
(4) MnO24−

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74. For the reaction: N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g) 78. Product of the given reaction contains
If U = 2.0 kcal, S = 50 cal K–1 at 300 K then O
|| *
Na O H
the value for G of the above reaction is CH3CH 2 — C— OC2 H5 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ * →
H 2O
(1) + 12.4 kcal O
|| *
(2) – 12.4 kcal (1) CH3 — CH 2 — C— O –
(3) – 6.4 kcal
O*
(4) + 6.4 kcal ||
(2) CH3 — CH 2 — C — O−
*
75. Which of the following major product will be (3) CH3 — CH 2 — O— H
obtained when neopentyl alcohol is treated with (4) Both (1) and (2)
conc. HCl in presence of ZnCl2?
79. Which of the following forms a stable diazonium
(1) t-Butyl chloride salt at 273 K to 278 K?
(2) Isobutylene (1) Ethylamine
(3) t-Pentyl chloride (2) Aniline
(3) Dimethylamine
(4) Neopentyl chloride
(4) Benzylamine

76. Which of the following alkanols is most soluble 80. Denaturation of protein
(1) Is always irreversible
in water?
(2) Disrupts the secondary and tertiary
(1) 1–Butanol structures only
(2) 2–Butanol (3) Will not affect the original biological
activity
(3) Isobutyl alcohol
(4) None of these
(4) t–Butyl alcohol
 81. Which of the following test is not used for testing
O H/ 
77. Ph — CHO + CH3 — CHO ⎯⎯⎯→ of proteins?
Product obtained is (1) Million’s test
(2) Molisch’s test
(1) Ph –CH =CH– CHO (3) Biuret test
(2) (4) Ninhydrin test

82. Choose the correct statement from the following.

(3)
(1) Saccharin is 650 times sweeter than sugar.
(2) Alitame is 2000 times sweeter than sugar.
(4) (3) Sucralose is 1600 times sweeter than sugar.
(4) Aspartame is 550 times sweeter than sugar.

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83. The incorrect statement regarding an octahedral 88. If (S)- glyceraldehyde has a specific rotation of –
complex is 8.7°, then what is the specific rotation of (R)-
(1) Central metal cation with d6 configuration is glyceraldehyde?
diamagnetic in strong ligand field.
(1) –8.7°
(2) Central metal cation with d5 configuration
has one unpaired electron in both weak and (2) +8.7°
strong ligand field. (3) 0.0°
(3) Central metal cation with d8 configuration (4) Cannot be determined from the information
has two unpaired electrons in weak, strong given
and also in mixed ligand field.
(4) Central metal cation with d4, d5, d6 and d7 89. If specific rotation of glucose solution is 52° and
configuration have different number of that of fructose solution is –92° then what will be
the specific rotation of invert sugar?
unpaired electrons in weak and strong ligand
(1) –20°
field.
(2) +20°
(3) –72°
84. The colour of light absorbed by an aqueous (4) +72°
solution of CuSO4 is
(1) Orange-Red 90. If a metal has low oxygen affinity then the
(2) Blue-Green purification of metal may be carried out by
(3) Yellow (1) Liquation
(4) Violet (2) Distillation
(3) Zone refining
85. The ion(s) having 4f 14 5d0 6s0 outer electronic (4) Cupellation
configuration is/are
(1) Yb
2+ 91. The shape of ClO3− is
3+ (1) Pyramidal
(2) Lu
3+ (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Yb
(3) Triangular planar
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Triangular bipyramidal
SECTION - B
92. Which of the following is the correct order?
86. The reaction that takes place at graphite anode in (1) AsH3 > NH3 > PH3 (Reducing property)
dry cell is (2) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4 (Reducing
(1) Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn(s)
property)
(2) Zn(s) → Zn2+ + 2e–
(3) HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 (Oxidising
(3) Mn2+ +2e– → Mn(s)
(4) Mn(s) →Mn+ + e– property)
(4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (Acidic strength)
87. Which of the following material is not present in
a dry cell? 93. F2C = CF2 is a monomer of
(1) MnO2 (1) Teflon
(2) NH4Cl (2) Adipic acid
(3) ZnCl2 (3) Sulphurous acid
(4) Phthalic acid
(4) KCl
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94. The monomer of Glyptal is 97. Fe3O4 is ferrimagnetic at room temperature but at
(1) Ethylene glycol 850 K it becomes
(2) Phthalic acid (1) Diamagnetic
(3) Formaldehyde (2) Ferromagnetic
(3) Non-magnetic
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Paramagnetic

95. Turnbull’s blue and Prussian’s blue respectively 98. An ionic compound AB has fluorite type
are structure. If the radius of B– is 200 pm, then the
II II III III ideal radius of A+ would be
(1) Fe[Fe(CN 6 ]2− and Fe[Fe(CN)6 ] (1) 82.8 pm
III III II II (2) 146.4 pm
(2) Fe[Fe(CN)6 ] and Fe[Fe(CN)6 ]2– (3) 40 pm
(4) 45 pm
II III III II
(3) Fe[Fe(CN)6 ]− and Fe[Fe(CN)6 ]–
99. Which of the following ions has minimum
III II II III
− – flocculation value?
(4) Fe[Fe(CN)6 ] and Fe[Fe(CN)6 ]
(1) Pb2+
(2) Pb4+
96. An inorganic salt is strongly heated the residue is (3) Na+
yellow when hot and white when cold. The salt (4) Sr2+
contains
100. The concentration of CaCl2 solution is 0.5 mole
(1) Cu2+ L–1. The moles of CaCl2 in 500 ml in the solution
(2) Zn2+ is
(3) Co2+ (1) 0.25
(2) 0.45
(4) Fe2+
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.5
SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A (2) C4 acid from the bundle sheath cells is broken
101. Which of the following is not a defining property down in the mesophyll cells to release CO2
of living organisms? (3) Aspartic acid or malic acid is translocated to
(1) Cellular organisation of the body bundle sheath cells through plasmodesmata
(2) Consciousness (4) ATP dependent decarboxylation of malic acid
(3) Growth by accumulation of material on the in bundle sheath cells
surface
(4) Metabolism 103. The internal structure of stem in monocotyledonous
and dicotyledonous plants does not show variation
102. Which of the following step is required to increase w.r.t.
the intracellular concentration of CO2 ensuring (1) Arrangement of vascular bundles
minimal oxygenase activity in dry tropical plants? (2) Type of vascular bundles
(1) Transport of fixed carbon as PGA from (3) Location of vascular bundles
mesophyll cells (4) Arrangement of primary xylem

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104. Strobili are absent in 109. During translation, the ribosomes move from
(1) Selaginella codon to codon along the mRNA from its
(2) Equisetum (1) 5'→3' direction
(3) Dryopteris (2) 3'→5' direction
(4) Pinus (3) Either of the two directions depending upon
the nature of polypeptide
105. How many of the following are fungi? (4) There is random movement of ribosomes
Puccinia, Penicillium, Rhizopus, Trypanosoma
TMV, Entamoeba, Saccharomyces, Albugo 110. Mark the wrong statement for the double-helix
(1) Three structure of DNA.
(2) Four (1) It is made up of two polynucleotide chains,
(3) Five having anti-parallel polarity
(4) Six (2) The backbone of DNA molecule is constituted
by sugar-phosphate
106. According to classification given by R.H (3) The pitch of the helix is 0.34 nm
Whittaker, which one of the following organism
(4) As purine pairs with pyrimidine, there is
has been shifted from Kingdom Plantae to
Kingdom Protista? approximately uniform distance between the
(1) Chlamydomonas two strands of the helix.
(2) Paramoecium
(3) Amoeba 111. Fill in the blanks.
(4) Entamoeba The synergids have special cellular thickenings at
the P tip called Q , which play an important
107. Match the following. role in guiding the R into the S .
Crop Hybrid variety P Q R S
(i) Wheat (a) Pusa Sadabahar (1) Micropylar Filiform Pollen Synergid
(ii) Brassica (b) Himgiri apparatus tube
(iii) Cauliflower (c) Pusa Swarnim (2) Chalazal Filiform Pollen Synergid
(iv) Cowpea (d) Pusa Komal apparatus tube
(v) Chilli (e) Pusa Shubhra (3) Chalazal Haustoria Pollen Egg
(1) (i)-(a); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(b); (v)-(e) tube
(2) (i)-(b); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(e); (iv)-(d); (v)-(a) (4) Micropylar Haustoria Pollen Egg
(3) (i)-(c); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(e); (v)-(b) tube
(4) (i)-(d); (ii)-(e); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(b); (v)-(a)
112. In which of the following plants, water does not
108. DNA from a single cell may be enough to perform. acts as a medium for transfer of gametes?
DNA fingerprinting analysis in such case used (1) Fucus
______ to prepare the DNA fingerprint.
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Spirogyra
(2) PCR (3) Funaria
(3) Southern Blotting (4) Dryopteris
(4) Density gradient centrifugation

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113. TCA cycle starts with condensation reaction 119. In plants inhibition of cell division is caused due to
catalysed by deficiency of
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (1) N, K, S, Mo
(2) Citrate synthetase (2) Ca, Mg, Cu, K
(3) Fumarase (3) N, S, Mo, Zn
(4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (4) Mg, Zn, Mo, Ca

114. Choose the right match. 120. Four ponds I, II, III and IV have 3 different species
P. Differentiation - Formation of primary xylem of fish, A, B and C. Following is the number of fish
Q. Dedifferentiation - Formation of intercalary caught per species in one catch.
meristem
R. Redifferentiation - Formation of phelloderm
(1) Only P is correct
(2) P and Q both are correct
(3) P and R both are correct
(4) Only Q is correct

115. Which PGR is used to speed up malting process in Which pond has uniform population density for all
brewing industry?
the three species?
(1) Ethylene
(2) Gibberellic acid (1) I
(3) Auxin (2) II
(4) Cytokinin (3) III
(4) IV
116. The right sequence for the stages of Calvin cycle is
(1) Carboxylation → Reduction → Regeneration 121. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross,
(2) Carboxylation → Regeneration → Reduction the ratio of both dominant to both recessive traits is
(3) Reduction → Carboxylation → Regeneration (1) 9 : 1
(4) Regeneration → Reduction → Carboxylation (2) 10 : 6
(3) 3 : 1
117. Mark the wrong match. (4) 15 : 1
Family Example Economic
importance 122. Match the following.
(1) Fabaceae Sesbania Fodder Organism Organic acid
(2) Solanaceae Petunia Ornamental (i) Aspergillus niger (a) Acetic acid
(3) Liliaceae Aloe Medicinal (ii) Acetobacter aceti (b) Lactic acid
(4) Fabaceae Sunhemp Dye (iii) Clostridium (c) Citric acid
butylicum
118. Diffusion in plants is not affected by (iv) Lactobacillus (d) Butyric acid
(1) Concentration gradient (1) (i)→(c), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(d), (iv)→(b)
(2) ATP concentration (2) (i)→(c), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(a)
(3) Membrane permeability (3) (i)→(a), (ii)→(b), (iii)→(d), (iv)→(c)
(4) Temperature (4) (i)→(a), (ii)→(c), (iii)→(d), (iv)→(b)

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123. Biogas is majorly composed of 129. Mark the wrong match.
(1) CH4 + H2S + CO2 + NO only Pyramid of Ecosystem Shape
(2) CO2 + CH4 (1) Biomass Tree Upright
(3) CH4 + H2S only
(2) Number Pond Upright
(4) SO2 + CO2 + H2S only
(3) Biomass Grassland Inverted
124. Which one of the following is not included in the (4) Biomass Pond Inverted
five kingdom system of classification, though their
components are part of the five kingdom system of 130. Mark the given statements as true (T) or false (F).
classification? P. Humus is highly resistant to microbial action
(1) Lichens and undergoes decomposition at an extremely
(2) Viruses
slow rate
(3) Viroids
(4) Both (1) and (2) Q. Low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition.
125. A unicellular alga which is used as food is R. Temperature and soil pH are the most
(1) Laminaria important climatic factors that regulate
(2) Gelidium decomposition
(3) Chlorella S. The decomposition rate is fast if the detritus is
(4) All the these such as lignin and chitin
P Q R S
126. To remove particulate matter from smoke stacks of (1) T F F T
thermal power plants, the most used method is (2) F T T F
(1) Scrubber (3) F T F T
(2) Tall chimneys (4) T T F T
(3) Electrostatic precipitator
(4) STP 131. How many of the following statements are correct
regarding competition?
127. In lakes, accelerated eutrophication is mainly P. Only related species compete for the same
caused by resources, which are limiting
(1) Domestic sewage and agricultural waste Q. Competitive release is an evidence of the
(2) Addition of toxins from industrial effluents occurrence of competition in nature
(3) Pesticides such as DDT R. Species facing competition might evolve
(4) Heavy metals such as mercury mechanisms that promote co-existence rather
than exclusion
128. The loss of biodiversity in a region may not lead to S. Herbivores and plants are usually not affected
(1) Decline in plant production by competition
T. The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands
(2) Increased resilience to occasional
became extinct due to greater browsing
disturbances, both natural and man-made efficiency of the goats
(3) Lowered resistance to environmental (1) One
perturbations such as drought (2) Two
(4) Increased variability in certain ecosystem (3) Three
processes such as plant productivity, water (4) Four
use, and pest and disease cycles
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132. In the following pie-chart identify the correct (1) The endodermal cytoplasm has suberin
combination for vertebrates. deposition
(2) The intercellular spaces between endodermal
cells is filled with suberin and lignin
(3) The wall of endodermis has bands of suberised
matrix called casparian strips
(4) All the endodermal cells have many
plasmodesmata

137. Mark the wrong set.

Characteristics C3 Plants C4 Plants
(1) A → Fishes; B → Mammals; C → Reptiles
(1) Primary CO2 RuBP PEP
(2) A → Fishes; C → Birds; E → Amphibians
acceptor
(3) B → Birds; C → Reptiles; E → Amphibians
(2) Primary CO2 3PGA OAA
(4) A → Fishes; C → Birds; D → Amphibians
fixation product
(3) Cell with Mesophyll Bundle sheath
133. In root tip cells of pea plant, each cell has 14
RuBisCO
chromosomes. What would be the number of
(4) Temperature 30-40° C 20-25° C
chromosomes in each cell of pollen tetrad?
optimum
(1) 7
(2) 14
138. The terminal electron acceptor during lactic acid
(3) 28
formation is
(4) 21
(1) Oxygen
(2) Pyruvic acid
134. The last stage of meiotic prophase I is marked by
(3) Acetaldehyde
(1) Splitting of bivalents
(4) NAD+
(2) Disappearance of recombination nodules
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex 139. High yielding wheat varieties introduced in India
(4) Terminalisation of chiasmata during Green Revolution were
(1) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona
135. Neutral solutes usually move across the membrane (2) Jaya and Ratna
by the process of (3) Prabhani Kranti
(1) Simple diffusion (4) Protina and Shakti
(2) Facilitated diffusion
(3) Osmosis 140. A colourblind man with AB blood group marries a
(4) Active transport normal vision woman with B blood group, whose
father is colourblind with O blood group. What is
SECTION - B the probability that they B blood group progeny?
136. Which of the following statements best explains (1) 50%
symplastic movement of water through root (2) 25%
endodermis? (3) 12.5%
(4) 6.75%
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141. 144. Which of the following population interaction is
commonly used for biological control of pests?
(1) Mutualism
(2) Predation
(3) Competition
(4) Commensalism

145. Which one of the following is an international

effort to control the emission of ozone depleting
substances?
(1) Montreal Protocol
(2) The Earth Summit
(3) World Summit
(4) Chipko Movement
Select the true set w.r.t examples for each
placentation
(a) Pea 146. The number of NADH+H+, FADH2 and GTP
(b) China rose, tomato produced during Krebs' cycle, if one molecule of
(c) Dianthus, Primrose Acetyl CoA enters into the cycle is
(d) Mustard, Argemone NADH+H+ FADH2 GTP
(e) Sunflower and marigold (1) 3 1 1
(1) (a), (b), (d) are correct
(2) 2 3 1
(2) (b), (c), (e) are correct
(3) (c), (d), (e) are correct (3) 3 1 2
(4) (a), (b), (e) are correct (4) 2 2 1

142. 9+2 arrangement of microtubules is observed in 147. Cytokinesis differs in plant cells and animal cells.
(1) Eukaryotic flagella In the animal cells, it takes place by furrow
(2) Prokaryotic flagella formation whereas in the plant cells it takes place
(3) Centrioles by
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Cell plate formation
(2) Extensible wall formation
143. A genetic mechanism to prevent self pollination by (3) Wall formation at the corners only
inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth (4) Both (1) & (2)
in the pistil of same flower is explained by
(1) In a bisexual flower pollen release and stigma 148. Mark the odd one w.r.t. 'in situ' conservation
receptivity are not synchronised strategy.
(2) The anther and stigma are placed at different (1) Biodiversity hot spots
position so that pollen cannot come in contact (2) Biosphere reserves
with the stigma of same flower (3) Botanical gardens
(3) Self-incompatibility (4) Sacred grooves
(4) The male and female flowers are present in
different plants

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149. Which of the following can be a secondary 150. The growth equation for a population provided
consumer in a food chain? with unlimited resources is
(1) Phytoplankton dN
(1) = rN
(2) Birds dt
(3) Grasshopper dN K−N
(4) Zooplankton (2) = rN  
dt  K 
dN
(3) = dt
dN
dt K−N
(4) = Nr  
dN  K 

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 154. Which ones have open circulatory system?
151. Mark the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of A. Ascidia
male cockroach
(1) A pair of testes lying one on each lateral side B. Cockroach
in 4th – 6th abdominal segment C. Earthworm
(2) A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is
present in 6th – 7th abdominal segments which D. Prawn
functions as an accessory reproductive gland E. Silver Fish
(3) The ejaculatory duct opens into male
gonopore situated dorsal to anus F. Snail
(4) Sperms are stored in seminal vesicles (1) B, D, F
152. The digestive glands associated with the digestive (2) A, B, D, F
system includes (3) C, D, E
a. Salivary glands
b. Gastric glands (4) B, D, E, F
c. Liver
d. Pancreas 155. Along with hypothalamus, limbic system is
e. Brunner’s gland
(1) a, b and e involved in
(2) b, c and d I. Thermoregulation
(3) a, b, c, d and e
II. Regulation of sexual behaviour
(4) a, c and d
III. Expression of emotional reactions
153. The inorganic compound like sulphate, phosphate IV. Motivation
etc., are found in Choose the correct option
(1) Acid-soluble pool
(2) Acid-insoluble fraction (1) II, III & IV
(3) Both (1) & (2) (2) I & II
(4) None of the above (3) I, III & IV
(4) I & IV
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156. Mark the incorrect statement 160. Which one is correct option for given diagram?
(1) Each Testis has about 250 compartments
called testicular lobules
(2) Each testicular lobule has 1-3 highly coiled
seminiferous tubules
(3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its
inside by male germ cells only
(4) Leydig cells are found in the interstitial a b c d
spaces of testicular lobules
Hypophar Mandib
(1) Labrum Maxilla
157. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by ynx le
(1) Development of dissimilar characteristics in
Hypophar Labru
closely related groups (2) Mandible Maxilla
ynx m
(2) Development of common set of
characteristics in groups of different (3) Labrum
Hypophar
Maxilla
Mandib
ancestory ynx le
(3) Development of characteristics by random
Hypophar Labru
mating (4) Maxilla Mandible
ynx m
(4) Replacement of common characteristics in
different groups
161. Select the correct statement
158. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that Statement I: Digestion is carried out by our
(1) Pneumonia is a communicable disease digestive system by mechanical methods
whereas the common cold is a nutritional Statement II: Digestion is carried out by our
deficiency disease digestive system by biochemical methods
(2) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live (1) Statement I is correct
(2) Statement II is correct
attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the (3) Both the statements are incorrect
common cold has no effective vaccine (4) Both the statements are correct
(3) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the
common cold is caused by the bacterium 162. Identify the given structural formula and select the
Haemophilus influenza correct option
(4) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas
the common cold affects nose and respiratory
passage but not the lungs

159. Find out the incorrect statement

(1) Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice
of breeding and raising livestock
(2) More than 70 per cent of the world’s
livestock population is in India and China
(3) Dairying is the management of animals for A B
milk and its products for human consumption (1) Adenine Uracil
(4) Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed (2) Guanine Thymine
in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri rams and (3) Adenine Guanine
Marino ewes (4) Cytosine Thymine

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163. Select the correct option for the following 166. Which of the following genes were introduced in
cotton to protect it from cotton bollworm?
(1) Cry Ac and cry Ab
(2) Bt Ac and Bt Ab
(3) Cry IAc and cry II Ab
(4) Nif genes

(1) A-Peripheral Nervous System and B-Central 167. The term ‘Saltation’ imply
Nervous System (1) Excess of species at a given area
(2) C-Autonomic Nervous System and E-Cranial (2) Reduced number of species due to saline
Nerves
environments
(3) B-Peripheral Nervous System and D-Spinal
(3) Occurrence of variations gradually step by
Nerves
(4) A-Central Nervous System and D-Sympathetic step
Nervous system (4) Single step large mutations

164. The enzyme that seals 5' PO4 and 3' OH 168. Select the correct statements regarding the
polynucleotide ends while creating a recombinant characteristics of acquired immunity
DNA molecule is
(1) Alkaline phosphatase (i) Cell-mediated immunity and humoral
(2) DNA ligase immunity are responsible for acquired
(3) DNAse immunity
(4) Restriction endonuclease
(ii) It produces a primary response of low
165. Match the following columns intensity
Column-I Column-II (iii) Active immunity is a types of acquired
(a) Pills (1) Intra uterine immunity
device (iv) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and natural
(b) Condoms (2) Prevent ovulation killer cells are involved in acquired immunity
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(c) Vasectomy (3) Prevent sperm
(2) (i), (iii) & (iv)
from reaching the
cervix (3) (i) & (iv)
(4) (i) & (iii) only
(d) Cu-T (4) Semen contain no
sperm
169. Which group of animals respire through lungs?
a b c d (1) Earthworm and insects
(1) 1 2 4 3 (2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
(2) 2 3 4 1 (3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods
(3) 4 2 3 1
(4) Amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals
(4) 4 3 2 1

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170. Which of the following statement is/are not 172. Find the correct statement of the given question
correct regarding connective tissue? Statement A: Monosaccharides and disaccharides
(i) They are the most abundant and widely are crystalline and sweet in taste
distributed in the body of complex animals Statement B: Polysaccharides are tasteless,
amorphous and insoluble in water
(ii) They connect and support other tissues
(1) Statement A is correct
(iii) They include diverse tissues such as bones,
(2) Statement B is correct
cartilage, tendons, adipose, and other loose
(3) Both statements are correct
connective tissues
(iv) They form the internal and external lining of (4) Both statements are incorrect
many organs
(v) Blood is an example of a fluid connective 173. Observe the given diagrammatic representation.
tissue Identify A to E
(1) (iv) only
(2) (v) only
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (v)

171. Match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

a. Biomacromolecules i. Alimentary
of food canal and
associated
gland

b. Human digestive ii. Embedded in

system jaw bones
(1) A- Hypothalamus; B- Hypothalamic neurons;
c. Stomach iii. Outer wall of C- Portal circulation; D- Posterior pituitary;
visceral organs E- Anterior pituitary
d. Thecodont iv. Converted into (2) A- Epithalamic neurons; B- Hypothalamic
simple vein; C- Pars distalis; D- Pars intermedia; E-
substances Hypothalamus
(3) A- Hypothalamic neurons; B- Portal
e. Serosa v. J-shaped bag
like structure circulation; C- Anterior pituitary; D-
Posterior pituitary; E- Hypothalamic vein
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-iv (4) A- Hypothalamic neurons; B- Portal
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii circulation; C- Posterior pituitary; D-
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
Anterior pituitary; E- Hypothalamus
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v

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174. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark 177. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
the correct option out of the options given below: (1) ADH helps in water elimination making
Assertion: In MOET, hormones with urine hypotonic
progesterone like activity are given to the cow to
(2) Protein free fluid is filtered from blood
induce superovulation.
Reason: After mating, the embryos at 4-6 celled plasma into the Bowman’s capsule
stage are recovered and transferred to surrogate (3) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the
mothers. proximal convoluted tubule
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (4) Henle’s loop plays an important role in
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. concentrating the urine
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
178. The ____A____ releasing the ADP and Pi goes
assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. back to its ____B____ state. A new ATP binds
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. and the crossbridge is ____C____ The ATP is
again hydrolysed by the ____D____ head and
175. Which of the following conditions are found in cycle of cross bridge formation and breakage is
the alveoli of lungs? repeated causing further sliding
I. High pO2
II. Low pCO2 Fill the appropriate options in the blanks A, B, C
III. High pCO2 and D
IV. Low pO2 (1) A-Myosin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D-myosin
V. Low H+ (2) A-Actin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D-myosin
VI. High H+ (3) A-Myosin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D-actin
Choose the correct option (4) A-Actin, B-relaxed, C-broken, D-actin
(1) I, III and V
(2) III, IV and VI 179. Which one of the following options gives the
(3) I, IV and VI correct match of a disease with its causative
(4) I, II and V organism and mode of infection?
Disease Causative Mode of
176. The animal possessing the following type of germ organism infection
layers (a and b) are called __________ and
___________ respectively Salmonella With
(1) Typhoid
typhi inspired air
Streptococcus Droplet
(2) Pneumonia
pneumonia infection

With
Wuchereria infected
(3) Elephantiasis
bancrofti water and
food

(1) Diploblastic, Triploblastic Bite of male

Plasmodium
(2) Triploblastic, Diploblastic (4) Malaria Anopheles
vivax
(3) Diploblastic, Diploblastic mosquito
(4) Triploblastic, Triploblastic

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180. Match the following column I & II and mark the (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
correct option as given below reason is not the correct explanation of
Column I Column II assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
A. Asymmetrical I. Annelids
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
B. Radial symmetry II. Coelenterates
183. In pBR322, ampR and tetR genes are present.
C. Bilateral III. Sponge When we ligate a foreign DNA at Pst-I site, then
IV. Arthropoda recombinant plasmids will lose the resistance to
the
V. Ctenophores (1) Ampicillin
(2) Tetracycline
VI. Platyhelminthes
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(1) A-I, B-III, II, C-IV, V, VI (4) None of the above
(2) A-III, B-VI, II, C-I, IV, V
(3) A-III, B-II, V, C-I, IV, VI 184. Statement 1: Insulin for curing diabetes should
(4) A-III, B-IV, V, II, C-I, VI only come from animals
Statement 2: Insulin has three peptide chains in
181. I. Plasma contains very high amount of its active stage
minerals like Na+, Ca2+, Mg+, HCO3–, Cl– (1) Statement 1 is correct
II. Glucose, amino acids, lipids etc. are present (2) Statement 2 is correct
in the plasma as they are not always in transit (3) Both are correct
in the body (4) Both are incorrect
III. Factors for clotting of blood are present in
plasma in an active form 185. Choose the correct option regarding the concept
IV. Plasma without the clotting factors is called of Darwin and Hugo de Vries
serum The concept of The concept of
Find the correct one regarding the above Darwin Hugo de Vries
statement
(1) Only I is incorrect Variations are Mutation are
(2) Only II is correct (1) random and minor changes
(3) IV is correct directionless and directional
(4) All are incorrect Gradual Saltatory
(2)
evolution evolution
182. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
the correct option out of the options given below: Mutational Genetic variation
(3)
Assertion: Beehives are kept in crop field during concept concept
flowering period. Large difference Minor variations
Reason: Bees are pollinating agents. (4) arises suddenly are
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and in a population heritable
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

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 SECTION - B 189. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
186. Match the items given in column I with those in (1) A person of O blood group has anti A and
column II and select the correct option given anti B antibodies in his blood plasma
below (2) A person of B blood group cannot donate
Column I Column II blood to a person of A blood group
(3) Blood group is designated on the basis of the
I. Glycosuria a. Accumulation of uric presence of antibodies in the blood plasma
acid in joints (4) A person of AB blood group is universal
II. Gout b. Mass of crystallised recipient
salts within the kidney
190. The outline of principal event of urination is given
III. Renal c. Inflammation of below in unorder manner
calculi glomeruli I. Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary
bladder send signal to the CNS
IV. Glomerular d. Presence of glucose in II. The bladder fills with urine and becomes
nephritis urine distended
I II III IV III. Micturition
(1) c b d a IV. CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the
(2) a b c d contraction of smooth muscles of bladder and
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter
(3) d a b c
The correct order of steps for urination is
(4) b c a d (1) II → I → IV → III
(2) IV → III → II → I
187. Statement A: The neural system is composed of (3) II → I → III → IV
highly specialised cells called neurons that can (4) III → II → I → IV
detect stimuli
191. Match the column I with column II and select the
Statement B: The neural system is composed of
correct option from the codes given below
highly specialised cells called neurons that can Column I Column
transmit stimuli II
(1) Statement A is correct
(2) Statement B is correct I. Structural and a. H-zone
functional unit of a
(3) Statement A and B are correct
myofibril
(4) Statement A and B are incorrect
II. Protein of thin filament b. Myosin
188. Which of the following is/are true for phylum III. Protein of thick c. Sarcomere
ctenophora? filament
Statement A: Sexes are separate in ctenophora
Statement B: Fertilisation is external IV The central part of thick d. Actin
. filament not overlapped
Statement C: Development is indirect
by thin filament
(1) All statements are correct
(2) Only statement A is incorrect I II III IV
(3) Statement B and C are incorrect (1) a b c d
(2) a c b d
(4) Only statement B is correct
(3) a d c b
(4) c d b a

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192. Identify A, B, C and D correctly 194. Read the following statements and choose
incorrect one
(1) There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of
rice in India alone
(2) Most of the industrialised nations are rich
financially but poor in biodiversity and
traditional knowledge
(3) Transgenic cow are being developed for use
in testing the safety of vaccines before they
are used on humans
(1) A – Ejaculatory Duct (4) Probes are formed by using radioactive
B – Bulbourethral gland substances
C – Seminal Vesicle
D – Prostate 195. Which one of the following statement in regard to
(2) A – Ejaculatory Duct the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
B – Prostate (1) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
C – Bulbourethral gland impermeable to electrolytes
D – Seminal Vesicle (2) Descending limb of loop of Henle is
(3) A – Ejaculatory Duct impermeable to water
B – Seminal Vesicle (3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
C – Prostate reabsorbing HCO3–
D – Bulbourethral gland (4) Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is
(4) A – Ejaculatory Duct reabsorbed by the renal tubules
B – Bulbourethral gland
C – Prostate 196. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark
D – Seminal Vesicle
the correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Mechanism of muscle contraction is
193. Choose the correct option
explained by sliding-filament theory.
Statement 1: Ori sequence is also responsible for
controlling the copy number of the linked DNA Reason: Contraction of muscle fibre takes place
Statement 2: Ori is a sequence from where by the sliding of thick filaments over the thin
replication starts and any piece of RNA when filaments.
linked to this sequence can be made to replicate (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
within the host cells reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Statement 3: In cloning vector, pBR322 ori is (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
situated between rop and tetR region reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) Statement 1 is correct assertion.
(2) Statement 2 is correct (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Statement 3 is correct
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) All are correct

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197. Read the given statements that define functions of 199. Identify the structure X correctly
a particular hormone
I. Regulate the development, maturation and
functions of epididymis, vas deferens,
seminal vesicle, prostate gland, urethra, etc.
II. Stimulate muscular growth of facial and
axillary hairs, aggressiveness, low pitch of
voice, etc.
III. Stimulates spermatogenesis
IV. Act on CNS and sexual behaviour (libido)
V. Produce anabolic (synthetic) effect on protein
and carbohydrate metabolism
VI. Leydig’s cell/ interstitial cells (present in the (1) Morula
(2) Blastocyst
intertubular space) secrete this hormone
(3) Ootid
under the influence of LH (4) Blastomere
Which of the following hormone is referred here?
(1) FSH 200. Pick up correct match
(2) Progesterone Terms Meaning
(3) Androgen
(a) IVF (1) Embryo transfer done
(4) Melatonin inside uterus after in
vitro fertilisation
198. Blood carries the CO2 in three forms. The correct
percentages of CO2 in these forms are (b) GIFT (2) Taking sperm from
donor
As As Dissolve
carbamino- bicarbonat d form (c) AI (3) Embryo at 8 celled stage
Hemoglobin es in transferred to mother
RBC plasma
(d) ZIFT (4) Mixing gametes and
(1) 20–25% 70% 7% putting in female
fallopian tube
(2) 70% 20-25% 7%
(e) ET (5) Zygote put in to fallopian
(3) 20-25% 7% 70% tube

(4) 7% 20-25% 70% (1) (a)-1, (b)-2, (c)-5, (d)-3, (e)-4

(2) (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-5, (d)-4, (e)-2
(3) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-3, (d)-5, (e)-2
(4) (a)-1, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-5, (e)-3

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Rough Work
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