Microcontroller

1. What is the order decided by a processor or the CPU of a controller to execute an instruction?
a) decode, fetch, execute
b) execute, fetch, decode
c) fetch, execute, decode
d) fetch, decode, execute

Answer: d
Explanation: First instruction is fetched from Program Memory. After fetching, instruction is decoded
to generate control signals to perform the intended task. After decoding, instruction is executed and
the complete intended task of that particular instruction.

2. How are the performance and the computer capability affected by increasing its internal bus width?
a) it increases and turns better
b) it decreases
c) remains the same
d) internal bus width doesn’t affect the performance in any way

Answer: a
Explanation: As the bus width increases, the number of bits carried by bus at a time increases as a
result of which the total performance and computer capability increases

3. Abbreviate CISC and RISC.

a) Complete Instruction Set Computer, Reduced Instruction Set Computer
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer, Reduced Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Instruction Set Computer, Reliable Instruction Set Computer
d) Complete Instruction Set Computer, Reliable Instruction Set Computer

Answer: b
Explanation: CISC means Complete Instruction Set Computer because in this a microcontroller has an
instruction set that supports many addressing modes for the arithmetic and logical instructions, data
transfer and memory accesses instructions. RISC means Reduced Instruction Set Computer because here
a microcontroller has an instruction set that supports fewer addressing modes for the arithmetic and
logical instructions and for data transfer instructions.

4. Give the names of the buses present in a controller for transferring data from one place to another?
a) data bus, address bus
b) data bus
c) data bus, address bus, control bus
d) address bus
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 3 buses present in a microcontroller they are data bus (for carrying data from one
place to another), address bus (for carrying the address to which the data will flow) and the control bus
(which tells the controller to execute which type of work at that address maybe it read or write operation).
5. What is the file extension that is loaded in a microcontroller for executing any instruction?
a) .doc
b) .c
c) .txt
d). hex

Answer: d
Explanation: Microcontrollers are loaded with. hex extension as they understand the language of 0’s and
1’s only.
6. What is the most appropriate criterion for choosing the right microcontroller of our choice?
a) speed
b) availability
c) ease with the product
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: For choosing the right microcontroller for our product we must consider its speed so that the
instructions may be executed in the least possible time. It also depends on the availability so that the
particular product may be available in our neighboring regions or market in our need. It also depends on
the compatibility with the product so that the best results may be obtained.
7. Why microcontrollers are not called general purpose computers?
a) because they have built in RAM and ROM
b) because they design to perform dedicated task
c) because they are cheap
d) because they consume low power

Answer: b
Explanation: Microcontrollers are designed to perform dedicated tasks. While designing general purpose
computers end use is not known to designers.
8. 8051 series has how many 16-bit registers?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 0

Answer: a
Explanation: It has two 16-bit registers DPTR and PC.
9. When the microcontroller executes some arithmetic operations, then the flag bits of which register
are affected?
a) PSW
b) SP
c) DPTR
d) PC

Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for program status word. It consists of carry, auxiliary carry, overflow, parity,
register bank select bits etc. which are affected during such operations.

10. How are the status of the carry, auxiliary carry and parity flag affected if the write instruction
MOV A, #9C
ADD A, #64H
a) CY=0, AC=0, P=0
b) CY=1, AC=1, P=0
c) CY=0, AC=1, P=0
d) CY=1, AC=1, P=1

Answer: b
Explanation: On adding 9C and 64, a carry is generated from D3 and from the D7 bit so CY and AC are
set to 1. In the result, the number of 1’s present are even so parity flag is set to zero.

11. If we push data onto the stack then the stack pointer
a) increases with every push
b) decreases with every push
c) increases & decreases with every push
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: If we push elements onto the stack then the stack pointer increases with every push of
element.
12. “DJNZ R0, label” is ________ byte instruction.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) Can’t be determined

Answer: a
Explanation: DJNZ is 2-byte instruction. This means jump can be of -128 to +127 locations with respect
to PC. Here -128 means upward or backward jump and +127 means downward or forward jump.
13. JZ, JNZ, instructions checked content of _______ register.
a) DPTR
 b) B
c) A
d) PSW

Answer: c
Explanation: JZ and JNZ instructions checked the content of A register and if condition was satisfied or
true then jump to target address.
14. Calculate the jump code for again and here if code starts at 0000H
MOV R1, #0
MOV A, #0
MOV R0, #25H
AGAIN: ADD A, #0ECH
JNC HERE
HERE: INC R1
DJNZ R0, AGAIN
MOV R0, A
END
a) F3,02
b) F9,01
c) E9,01
d) E3,02

Answer: c
Explanation: Loop address is calculated by subtracting destination address and the address next to the
source address.
So here if we start with 0000H
then source address is 0008H and the destination address is 0004H
So loop address is 04-0A=E9

15. LCALL instruction takes

a) 2 bytes
b) 4 bytes
c) 3 bytes
d) 1 byte

Answer: c
Explanation: LCALL instruction moves the pointer to a 16-bit address so it is a 3-byte instruction.
16. Are PUSH and POP instructions are a type of CALL instructions?
a) yes
b) no
c) none of the mentioned
d) can’t be determined

Answer: b
Explanation: PUSH and POP instructions are not CALL instructions because in POP and PUSH
instructions the pointer does not move to any location specified by its address which is the fundamental of
CALL instruction, so it is not a type of CALL instruction.
17. What is the time taken by one machine cycle if crystal frequency is 20MHz?
a) 1.085 micro seconds
b) 0.60 micro seconds
c) 0.75 micro seconds
d) 1 micro seconds

Answer: b
Explanation: Time taken by one machine cycle is calculated by the inverse of a (crystal frequency) /12
18. Find the number of times the following loop will be executed
MOV R6, #200
BACK:MOV R5, #100
HERE: DJNZ R5, HERE
DJNZ R6, BACK
END
a) 100
b) 200
c) 20000
d) 2000

Answer: c
Explanation: It will be executed 200*100 times.

19. What is the meaning of the instruction MOV A,05H?

a) data 05H is stored in the accumulator
b) fifth bit of accumulator is set to one
c) address 05H is stored in the accumulator
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If we need to store the address in the accumulator, then directly the address is moved to it
unlikely of using # used for storing data in any register.
20. Do the two instructions mean the same?
1) BACK: DEC R0
JZ BACK
2) BACK: DJNZ RO, BACK
a) yes
b) no
c) can’t be determined
d) yes and the second one is preferred

Answer: b
Explanation: In the first statement, when the decrements approach zero then the jump moves back and in
the second statement, when the result after decrements is not zero, then it jumps back.
21. To initialize any port as an output port what value is to be given to it?
a) 0xFF
b) 0x00
c) 0x01
d) A port is by default an output port

Answer: d
Explanation: In 8051, a port is initialized by default in its output mode no need to pass any value to it.
22. Which instruction is used to check the status of a single bit?
a) MOV A, P0
b) ADD A, #05H
c) JNB PO.0, label
d) CLR P0.05H

Answer: c
Explanation: JNB which stands for Jump if no bit checks the status of the bit P0.0 and jumps if the bit is
0.
23. Is this a valid statement?
SETB A
a) yes
b) no
c) can’t be determined
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: SETB is used to set a bit of a register. A stand for accumulator which is an 8-bit register, so
it is an invalid instruction.

24. When we add two numbers the destination address must always be.
a) some immediate data
b) any register
c) accumulator
d) memory

Answer: c
Explanation: For addition purposes, the destination address must always be an accumulator. Example-
ADD A, R0; ADD A, @R1; ADD A, @ DPTR
25. If SUBB A, R4 -is executed, then actually what operation is being applied?
a) R4+A
b) R4-A
c) A-R4
d) R4+A

Answer: c
Explanation: SUBB command subtracts with borrow the contents of an accumulator with that of the
register or some immediate value. So, A-R4 is being executed.
26. A valid division instruction always makes:
a) CY=0, AC=1
b) CY=1, AC=1
c) CY=0, AC=0
d) no relation with AC and CY

Answer: c
Explanation: When we divide two numbers then AC and CY become zero.
27. In 8-bit signed number operations, OV flag is set to 1 if:
a) a carry is generated from D7 bit
b) a carry is generated from D3 bit
c) a carry is generated from D7 or D3 bit
d) a carry is generated from D7 or D6 bit

Answer: d
Explanation: In 8-bit operations, if a carry is generated from D6 or D7 bit, then OV flag is set to 1.
28. A microcontroller at-least should consist of:
a) RAM, ROM, I/O ports and timers
b) CPU, RAM, I/O ports and timers
 c) CPU, RAM, ROM, I/O ports and timers
d) CPU, ROM, I/O ports and timers

Answer: c
Explanation: A microcontroller at-least consists of a processor as its CPU with RAM, ROM, I/O ports
and timers. It may contain some additional peripherals like ADC, PWM, etc.

29. In unsigned number addition, the status of which bit is important?

a) OV
b) CY
c) AC
d) PSW
Answer: b
Explanation: If unsigned numbers operations are involved, then the status of CY flag is important and in
signed number operation the status of OV flag is important.
30. Which of the following is the logic level understood by the micro-controller/micro-processor?
a) TTL logic level
b) RS232 logic level
c) None of the mentioned
d) TTL & RS232 logic level

Answer: a
Explanation: TTL logic or the transistor logic level is the logic that is understood by the micro-
controllers/microprocessors.
31. How many binary bits are in a byte?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 8
d) 16
Answer: c) 8

PLC

32. What is the full form of SCADA?

a) Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition
b) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

c) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment

d) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
Answer: Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
33. DCS is a ______
a) Distributed Control System
b) Data Control System

c) Data Column System

d) Distributed Column System

Answer: Distributed Control System

34. The control in SCADA is _____________
a) Online control
b) Direct control

c) Supervisory control
d) Automatic control

Answer: Supervisory control

35. What is SCADA?
a) Software
b) Process

c) System
d) Hardware

Answer: Process
36. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA system?
a) Database server
b) I/O system

c) PLC controller
d) Sparger controller

Answer: Sparger controller

37. When did the SCADA start?
a) 1980s
b) 1990s

c) 1970s
d) 1960s
Answer:1960s
38. . When did Windows become the world standard operating system?
a) 1980s
b) 1990s

c) 1970s
d) 1960s

Answer: 1990s
39. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA system?
a) 3 – levels
b) 5 – levels

c) 4 – levels
d) 6 – levels

Answer: 4 – levels
40. What is the full form of RAID?
a) Redundant Array of Independent Drives
b) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks

c) Redundant Array of Independent Disks

d) All of the above

Answer: All of the above

41. Which of the following is used for centralized network databases?
a) RAID 2
b) RAID 5

c) RAID 1
d) RAID 2

Answer: RAID 5
42. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA system?
a) PLC
b) HMI

c) Alarm task
d) I/O task
Answer: I/O task
43. Which of the following is an example of the SCADA system?
a) Emerson Delta V
b) Honeywell Plant Scape

c) Yokogawa CENTUM
d) Power Studio Deluxe

Answer: Power Studio Deluxe

44. What does NC stand for?
a) New Configuration
b) Normally Close

c) Normal Classes
d) Never Closing

Answer: Normally Close

45. What is nominal DC voltage given to PLC?
a) +10V
b) +24V

c) +5V
d) +12V

Answer: +5V
46. In which of the following is a PLC Programming tool.
a) RS Logix 500
b) RS view 32

c) Keil u vision
d) Core Vision AVR

Answer: RS Logix 500

47. Among following which one is a PLC Programming Language
a) Assembly
b) Ladder Logic

c) Java
d) HTML
Answer: Ladder Logic
48. In which of the following is the SCADA Software?
a) OrCAD
b) RS View32

c) Keil u vision
d) Porteous

Answer: RS View32
49. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:
a) Virtual relay contacts and coils
b) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines

c) Function blocks with connecting lines

d) Text-based code

Answer: Virtual relay contacts and coils

50. Examine-on instruction in PLC language is symbolically represented by what shape?
a) -] [-
b) -( )-

c) -]/[-
d) None of these

Answer: -] [-
51. The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language?
a) OUT output unlatch instruction.
b) OTL output latch instruction

c) Examine off instruction.

d) Output energize instruction

Answer: OTL output latch instruction

52. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..
a) The technician enters the program
b) Timers and counters are indexed by

c) The entire program takes to execute

d) Transmitted data communications must finish
Answer: The entire program takes to execute
53. The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

a) ABC + D
b) C + (A + B’) D’

c) C + D’ (A + B’)
d) AB’C + BD

e) C (AB’ + D’)
Answer: C (AB’ + D’)
54. What is the color used for NO type switches?
a) Red
b) Green

c) none of the above

Answer: none of the above
55. The below rung would represent what Boolean equation?

a) X•Y=Z
b) X + Y = Z
 c) X • Y’ = Z
d) None of the above.

Answer: X • Y’ = Z
56. To increase the number of inputs and outputs of the PLC, one can use expansion modules.
a) True.
b) False.

c) None of the above.

Answer: True.
57. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:
a) Analog output.
b) Digital output.

c) Analog input.
d) Digital input

Answer: Digital output.

58. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
a) Armature
b) Coil

c) NO contact
d) NC contact

Answer: Armature
59. The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .
a) Whether the PLC is running or stopped
b) Whether the programming PC has internet connectivity

c) Where the edited program resides

d) The type of programmer used

Answer: Where the edited program resides

60. Normally open contacts are open when:
a) When Input is not energized
b) When the input is energized

c) When input is higher than 20 volts

 d) None of these

Answer: When Input is not energized

61. What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach if it uses a 16-bit register?
a) 32,768
b) 65,535

c) 65,536
d) 65,537

e) 32,767
Answer: 65,535
62. An NOR function implemented in ladder logic uses:
a) Normally-closed contacts in series
b) Normally-open contacts in series

c) A single normally-closed contact

d) Normally-closed contacts in parallel

Answer: Normally-closed contacts in series

63. Which of the following instruction enables a jump to a subroutine?
a) JMP
b) SBR

c) RET
d) None of the above

Answer: JMP
64. What are the features of SCADA?
a) Control feature using a graphical representation
b) Alarm Handling

c) Security Management
d) All of the above

Answer: All of the above

65. Leading SCADA providers companies are.
a) Siemens WinCC
b) Microsoft
 c) TCS
d) All of the above

Answer: Siemens WinCC

66. What are Scripts in SCADA?
a) Scripts are basically a form
b) Scripts are basically a function

c) Scripts are basically a facility

d) Scripts are basically a favorite

Answer: Scripts are basically a function

67. What is CIMPLICITY?
a) SCADA package
b) SCADA hardware

c) SCADA software
d) SCADA handler

Answer: SCADA package

68. A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be:
a) A communications function block
b) A PID function block

c) A math function block

d) A motor start/stop rung

Answer: A PID function block

69. What is the full form of RTU?
a) Remote Terminate Unit
b) Remote Terminal Unit

c) Remote Translation Unit

d) Remote Transfer Unit

Answer: Remote Terminal Unit

70. What is the full form DDE?
a) Dynamic Data Exchange
b) Data Dynamic Exchange
 c) Domain Data Exchange
d) Different Data Exchange

Answer: Dynamic Data Exchange

71. What is the difference between SCADA and HMI?
a) Both are same
b) HMI is not related with SCADA

c) HMI can be a part of SCADA but SCADA can’t be a part of HMI.

d) SCADA is a part of HMI

Answer: HMI can be a part of SCADA but SCADA can’t be a part of HMI.
72. What are the differences between PLC and SCADA?
a) PLC is a hardware part while SCADA is a software part.
b) PLC is a software part while SCADA is a hardware part.

c) Both are hardware unit

d) Both are software

Answer: PLC is a hardware part while SCADA is a software part.

73. A PLC consists of
a) Processor Unit
b) Input/output Section

c) Display Device
d) All of the above

Answer: All of the above

74. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:
a) Normally-closed contacts in series
b) Normally-open contacts in series

c) Normally-open contacts in parallel

d) Normally-closed contacts in parallel

Answer: Normally-open contacts in parallel

75. Which of the following is not element of SCADA?
a) SCADA Communication
b) Mono Terminal Units
 c) PLCs
d) RTUs

Answer: Mono Terminal Units

76. Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

a) Start contact
b) Seal-in contact

c) Stop contact
d) Power source

Answer: Seal-in contact

77. The most popular language for PLCs is:

a) Ladder diagram
b) C++
c) OOP+
d) VHDL
78. Very often relays and valves are connected to
a) Input modules
b) Transmission
c) Output modules
d) Any of these
79. PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:
 a) Rack PLCs
b) Monolithic PLCs
c) Modular PLCs
d) None of these
80. Colored contact in PLC ladder diagram indicates:
a) Closed contact
b) Open contact
c) Any of these
d) None of these
81. The first company to build PLCs was-
a) General Motors
b) Allen Bradley
c) Square D
d) Modicon

82. An example of discrete (digital) control is:

a) Varying the volume of a music system
b) Turning a lamp ON or OFF
c) Varying the brightness of a lamp
d) Controlling the speed of a fan

83. A solenoid is an example of an output device.

a) True
b) False
c) None of the above

84. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT true?
a) It is called an SPDT type of relay.
b) It has one common contact.
c) It has two positions (NC and NO).
 d) It has a center off position.

85. When a relay is NOT energized:

a) There is an electrical path through the NO contacts
b) There is an electrical path through the NC contacts
c) Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path
d) Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path

86. In today’s automation control world

a) SCADA does the bulk of the machine control
b) PLCs do the bulk of the machine control
c) neither only relays control machines
d) none of the mentioned

87. Timers may have one or more _____ for their reference timing.
a) time bases
b) analog outputs
c) analog inputs
d) unlatch inputs

88. A ladder diagram is composed of _____ each controlling _____.

a) one or more rungs, a JSR
b) one or more rungs, one output
c) only one rung, one output
d) none of the mentioned

89. When the accumulator value equals the register value, the relay contact is
a) Deactivated
b) Activated
c) remain the same
d) can’t predict
90. Peripherals are used in PLC to
a) program the PLC
b) prepare the program listing
c) Back up the program
d) All of the mentioned

91. Which is not the type of PLC peripheral?

a) Network communication interface
b) EPROM loader
c) RAM loader
d) Pc based software

92. Which is the type and styles of switches?

a) Locking and nonlocking
b) Normally open and normally closed
c) Single pole and multiple pole
d) All of the mentioned

93. Ladder contacts can be programmed in

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series-parallel
d) All of the mentioned

94. What is this table?

A B Output
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

a) AND logic table

b) OR logic table
c) OUTPUT
d) NOT
Answer: b) OR logic table
95. This table for
A B Output
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

a) OR
b) AND
c) NOT
d) None of the above
Answer: b) AND

96. Which one below is NOT PLC's configuration types?

a) Unitary
b) Modular
c) Automation
d) Rack mounted
Answer: c) Automation

97. Identify the input device in PLC

a) LED
b) Motor
c) Lamp
d) Sensor
Answer: a) Sensor

98. Identify the output device in PLC

a) pumps
b) switch
c) push button
d) sensor
Answer: a) pumps

99. the part of the PLC where inputs and outputs are connected are
a) input /output interface
b) memory
c) Processor
d) power supply
Answer: a) input /output interface
100. the PLC stores its programs in
a) memory
b) programming device
c) power supply
d) input device
Answer: a) memory

101. the program is written in _______________ and then transferred to the memory of PLC
a) input
b) Programming device
c) output
d) power supply
Answer: b) programming device

102. Which of the following is a basic part of the PLC?

a) Input Module
b) CPU
c) Output Module
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above.

103. Select an analog input device

a) Switch
b) Push button
c) Potentiometer
d) Digital Optical Sensor
Answer: c) Potentiometer

104. Which of the following methods can be used to program PLC?

a) SFC
b) LAD
c) FBD
d) All of the above
Answer: d) all of the above

105.

What does this LAD connection represent?

a) An interlock
b) Latch
 c) Motor control
d) Two ways to control an output
Answer: b) latch

106. In the relay, what is the main purpose of the coil?

a) Increase the current
b) Reduce the voltage
c) Generates the magnetic field
d) Protects the relay from overcurrent
Answer: c) Generate the magnetic field

107.

What is this symbol called?

a) Normally Close contact
b) Normally Open contact
c) Output coil
d) Input coil
Answer: b) Normally Open contact

108.

What is this symbol called?

a) Normally Close contact
b) Normally Open contact
c) Output coil
d) Input coil
Answer: a) Normally Close contact

109. what is description of NO and NC

a) Not Open and Not Closed
b) Need Open and Not Closed
c) Never Open and Never Closed
d) Normally Open and Normally Closed
Answer: d) Normally Open and Normally Closed

110. Why does PLC program in Ladder diagram Logic system need to have END function?
a) To make the PLC turn off when reach the END function.
b) To make the PLC stop running when reach END function.
c) To make the PLC do nothing when reach the END function.
d) To make PLC know the end of program when reach the END function.
Answer: d) to make PLC know the end of program when reach the END function.
111. Which of the following is NOT part of basic PLC system?
a) Memory
b) Relay box
c) Power supply
d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Answer: b) Relay box

112. What is meant by programming device in PLC?

a) Platform where data is processed.
b) Platform where program or control logic is written.
c) Platform where incoming power supply coming in.
d) Platform where input or output source is connected.
Answer: b) Platform where program or control logic is written.

113. PLC is _______________ type of system

a) User friendly
b) Microprocessor based
c) Special Computer
d) All of the above
Answer: a) All of the above

114. PLC is preferred over traditional logic system because

a) Security & Speed of Operation
b) Visual Observation & Documentation
c) Flexible & Reliable
d) Compact
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above.

115.

Choose the symbol that is similar to this diagram.

i.

ii.

iii.

iv. S
Answer: b)

116.

Choose the symbol that is similar to this diagram.

a)

b)

c)

d) S
Answer: a)

117. What is the meaning of "download”?

a) To transfer the program to PC
b) To retrieve the program from PLC
c) To transfer the program to PLC
d) To retrieve the program from PC
Answer: c) to transfer the program to PLC

118. ____________ track the number of events that take place in a process
a) On Delay Timer
b) Off Delay Timer
c) Up/Down Counter
d) Internal Memory
Answer: c) Up/Down Counter

119. The______ counter that counts the events that has happened and decrements the counted number by
one count.
a) Up Counter
b) Down Counter
c) Weekly Counter
d) Hourly Counter
Answer: b) Down Counter
120. _____________ specifies the number of events that a counter has counted and is pre-set to zero
a) Preset Value
b) alternatives
c) Accumulated Value
d) A and b
Answer: d) a and b