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Practice MCQS
Complate 10 Units
Unit 1: Teaching Aptitude
Topic 1: Types and Methods of Teaching

1. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In 'Learner-Centred' teaching methods, the teacher acts merely
as a facilitator.
Statement II: 'Teacher-Centred' teaching methods encourage students to be
active participants.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Learner-centred methods emphasize active student

participation, with the teacher's role being to facilitate the learning

process.
● Statement II is false: In teacher-centred methods, the teacher is the
primary information provider, and students are generally passive
recipients, not actively encouraged participants.

2. Which of the following teaching methods is most suitable for

promoting 'Active Learning'?

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(A) Lecture Method
(B) Chalk and Talk Method
(C) Project Method
(D) Demonstration Method
Correct Answer: (C)
● Project Method: This method allows students to work on real-life
problems, engaging them actively and promoting learning by doing.
● It encourages hands-on experience and problem-solving.
● Other methods (Lecture, Chalk and Talk, Demonstration) are generally
associated with more passive learning where students primarily receive
information.

3. Match List I with List II:

List I (Teaching Method) List II (Main Objective/Characteristic)
(a) Brainstorming (i) Develop practical solutions for a
problem
(b) Role Play (ii) Generate a maximum number of
creative ideas
(c) Case Study (iii) Understand social situations and
behavior
(d) Workshop (iv) Solve real-life problems through in-
depth analysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Brainstorming (ii): Its objective is to generate a large number

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of creative ideas on a specific topic.
● (b) Role Play (iii): It helps students understand social situations
and behavior by assuming different roles.
● (c) Case Study (iv): It involves in-depth analysis of real or
hypothetical problems to arrive at solutions.
● (d) Workshop (i): Workshops are typically focused on developing
practical skills and finding practical solutions to problems.

4. Assertion (A): Online learning platforms like MOOCs (Massive

Open Online Courses) provide flexibility to students to learn at
their own pace and time.
Reason (R): MOOCs generally lack individualized feedback and one-on-one
teacher-student interaction, which is available in traditional classrooms.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Assertion (A) is true: MOOCs are known for their flexible learning
nature, allowing learners to study at their convenience.
● Reason (R) is also true: Due to their large scale, MOOCs often lack
personalized feedback and direct teacher-student interaction
found in traditional settings.
● Not a correct explanation: While both statements are true, (R) does
not explain (A). (A) talks about a benefit of MOOCs (flexibility), while
(R) describes a limitation.

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5. Andragogy primarily relates to which of the following?
(A) Teaching children
(B) Teaching adolescents
(C) Teaching adults
(D) Teaching children with special needs
Correct Answer: (C)
● Definition: Andragogy is the art and science of teaching adults.
● Characteristics: It assumes adult learners are self-directed,
experience-based, and problem-centered.
● It differs from pedagogy, which focuses on teaching children.

Topic 2: Evaluation System

1. Which of the following evaluations focuses on providing

continuous feedback during the learning process?
(A) Summative Assessment
(B) Placement Assessment
(C) Formative Assessment
(D) Diagnostic Assessment
Correct Answer: (C)
● Formative Assessment: Its primary purpose is to provide ongoing
feedback to improve student learning during the instructional process.
● It is typically conducted during the teaching-learning process.
● Other assessment types have different objectives (e.g., final grading,
course placement, or diagnosing learning difficulties).

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The main objective of Summative Assessment is to provide
grades or marks to students at the end of their learning.

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Statement II: Diagnostic Assessment helps in identifying the underlying
causes of students' learning difficulties.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Statement I is true: Summative Assessment is conducted at the end
of a learning period, and its main purpose is to evaluate overall
achievement and assign grades or marks.
● Statement II is true: Diagnostic Assessment is used to identify the
root causes of learning problems and difficulties faced by students.

3. Match the types of evaluation with their primary objectives:

List I (Type of Evaluation) List II (Primary Objective)
(a) Placement Evaluation (i) Identify underlying causes of learning
difficulties
(b) Formative Evaluation (ii) Assess overall achievement at the end of
a course or program
(c) Summative Evaluation (iii) Determine students' suitability for
admission to a specific course
(d) Diagnostic Evaluation (iv) Provide continuous feedback for
improving the learning process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

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Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Placement Evaluation (iii): It assesses students' initial skills and
knowledge before placing them into a specific course or program.
● (b) Formative Evaluation (iv): It provides continuous feedback to
guide and improve the learning process.
● (c) Summative Evaluation (ii): It evaluates students' overall
achievement at the end of an instructional period.
● (d) Diagnostic Evaluation (i): It is used to determine the underlying
causes of learning problems.

4. Assertion (A): A teacher should regularly use formative

assessment in the classroom to ensure effective teaching.
Reason (R): Formative assessment is the most reliable method for grading
and ranking students.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: Formative assessment is crucial for improving
the teaching-learning process as it provides ongoing feedback to both
teachers and students.
● Reason (R) is false: The primary purpose of formative assessment is
not grading and ranking. That is the objective of summative
assessment. Formative assessment is meant to foster and guide learning.

5. Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with a

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good evaluation tool?
(A) Reliability
(B) Validity
(C) Objectivity
(D) Bias
Correct Answer: (D)
● Bias: A good evaluation tool should be fair, and bias diminishes its
accuracy and impartiality.
● Reliability: It means that the results of the evaluation should be
consistent, no matter how many times it is conducted.
● Validity: It means that the evaluation tool actually measures what it is
intended to measure.
● Objectivity: It implies that the evaluation results should not be
influenced by the personal views or feelings of the evaluator.

Topic 3: Bloom's Taxonomy

1. According to Bloom's Cognitive Taxonomy (original 1956),

which is the lowest level cognitive objective?
(A) Application
(B) Knowledge
(C) Synthesis
(D) Analysis
Correct Answer: (B)
● Knowledge: In Bloom's original taxonomy, 'Knowledge' is the lowest
level.
● This level involves recalling or recognizing facts, terms, basic
concepts, or answers.
● It forms the foundation for other higher-level thinking skills in the

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cognitive domain.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Bloom's Revised Taxonomy, 'Creating' is the highest level of
the cognitive domain.
Statement II: 'Creating' means putting elements together to form a new
whole or structure.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both statements are true: In Bloom's Revised Taxonomy (2001),
'Creating' is indeed placed as the highest level of the cognitive domain.
● 'Creating' inherently involves putting various elements together to form
something new (e.g., a product, idea, or solution).

3. Arrange the levels of Bloom's Cognitive Taxonomy in the correct

ascending order (lowest to highest):
(a) Analyzing
(b) Understanding
(c) Creating
(d) Remembering
(e) Evaluating
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
(A) (d), (b), (a), (e), (c)
(B) (b), (d), (a), (c), (e)
(C) (d), (a), (b), (e), (c)

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(D) (b), (d), (c), (a), (e)
Correct Answer: (A)
● The correct ascending order of Bloom's Revised Taxonomy is:
○ Remembering (Lowest)
○ Understanding
○ Applying
○ Analyzing
○ Evaluating
○ Creating (Highest)

4. Assertion (A): Bloom's Taxonomy provides a hierarchical

framework for classifying learning objectives.
Reason (R): It helps teachers design various teaching-learning activities and
select assessment tools.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both statements are true: Bloom's Taxonomy indeed provides a
hierarchical classification that organizes learning objectives.
● Correct explanation: This classification is extensively used by teachers
to design teaching-learning activities and select assessment tools
to evaluate various levels of student comprehension, thus accurately
explaining the assertion.

5. Which of the following is the best example of the 'Analyzing'

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skill in Bloom's Cognitive Domain?
(A) Recalling facts from a textbook.
(B) Writing a new story.
(C) Identifying the different parts of a problem and understanding their
relationships.
(D) Explaining information in one's own words.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Analyzing: This skill involves breaking down information or a concept
into its constituent parts and understanding the relationships and
patterns between those parts, as described in option (C).
● Option (A) relates to 'Remembering'.
● Option (B) relates to 'Creating'.
● Option (D) relates to 'Understanding'.

Topic 4: Swayam Prabha Channel

1. What is the primary objective of Swayam Prabha channels?

(A) To provide quality e-content only for school education.
(B) To provide high-quality educational programmes on a 24x7 basis.
(C) To help students prepare only for competitive examinations.
(D) To conduct training programmes for teachers.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Primary Objective: Swayam Prabha is a group of 40 (earlier 32) DTH
channels dedicated to telecasting high-quality educational
programmes on a 24x7 basis.
● Reach: Its aim is to ensure educational access even in remote areas
where internet connectivity might be limited.
● Audience: It covers various subjects and levels, ranging from school
education to higher education and lifelong learning.

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2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The programmes of Swayam Prabha are telecast by BISAG
(Bhaskara-charya Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics).
Statement II: The programmes of Swayam Prabha are focused only on Arts
and Humanities subjects.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: BISAG-N (Bhaskara-charya Institute for Space
Applications and Geo-informatics-Gandhinagar) provides the uplinking
facilities for the Swayam Prabha channels.
● Statement II is false: Swayam Prabha programmes are not limited to
Arts and Humanities; they cover a wide range of subjects including
science, commerce, engineering, law, medicine, etc.

3. Which institutes provide content for Swayam Prabha?

(A) NPTEL, IITs, UGC, CEC, IGNOU, NCERT and NIOS.
(B) Only IITs and NITs.
(C) Only UGC and CEC.
(D) Only NCERT and NIOS.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Content Providers: Content for Swayam Prabha is provided by various
prestigious institutions and agencies.
● These include NPTEL (National Programme on Technology
Enhanced Learning), IITs (Indian Institutes of Technology),

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UGC (University Grants Commission), CEC (Consortium for
Educational Communication), IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National
Open University), NCERT (National Council of Educational
Research and Training), and NIOS (National Institute of Open
Schooling), among others.

4. Assertion (A): Swayam Prabha channels' programmes are

primarily beneficial for learners in remote areas who have limited
internet connectivity.
Reason (R): Swayam Prabha telecasts programmes through DTH (Direct-to-
Home) television, which does not require internet.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both statements are true: Swayam Prabha is designed to deliver
education to remote and rural areas where internet access can be a
challenge.
● Correct explanation: Telecasting through DTH (Direct-to-Home)
television is its key feature, making it internet-free and thus particularly
beneficial for regions with limited internet. Reason (R) accurately
explains the utility of Assertion (A).

5. How much new content is telecast on Swayam Prabha channels

every day?
(A) At least 2 hours

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(B) At least 4 hours
(C) At least 6 hours
(D) At least 8 hours
Correct Answer: (B)
● Telecast Schedule: Each channel telecasts at least 4 hours of new
content every day.
● Repetition: This 4 hours of new content is repeated 5 more times in
a day, allowing learners to choose a convenient time slot.

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Unit 2: Research Aptitude

Topic 1: Research Types and Characteristics

1. Which of the following research types focuses on exploring and

describing the characteristics of a population or phenomenon,
without manipulating variables?
(A) Experimental Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Descriptive Research
(D) Action Research
Correct Answer: (C)
● Descriptive Research: This type of research aims to describe the
characteristics of a population or phenomenon being studied.
● It answers questions like 'what', 'where', 'when', and 'how', rather than
'why'.
● Variables are not manipulated in descriptive research; it merely
observes and reports.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fundamental research is conducted to solve an immediate,
practical problem.
Statement II: Applied research aims to contribute to the existing body of
knowledge without immediate practical application.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

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(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Statement I is false: Applied research is conducted to solve an
immediate, practical problem, while fundamental (or basic) research is
for knowledge expansion.
● Statement II is false: Fundamental research aims to contribute to
the existing body of knowledge without immediate practical
application, whereas applied research focuses on practical solutions.
The definitions are swapped in the statements.

3. Match List I with List II:

List I (Research List II (Primary Characteristic)
Type)
(a) Experimental (i) Investigating past events systematically to draw
Research conclusions
(b) Historical (ii) Manipulating an independent variable to observe
Research its effect on a dependent variable
(c) Qualitative (iii) Exploring a problem to develop theory or new
Research understanding
(d) Action Research (iv) Solving immediate local problems through a
cyclical process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Experimental Research (ii): Involves manipulation of

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variables and control to establish cause-and-effect relationships.
● (b) Historical Research (i): Focuses on systematic investigation
of past events and data to understand or explain present or future
phenomena.
● (c) Qualitative Research (iii): Aims to gain deep understanding
of phenomena, often exploring complex issues to develop theories or
new insights through non-numerical data.
● (d) Action Research (iv): A cyclical process of planning, acting,
observing, and reflecting, aimed at solving immediate problems in
a local context.

4. Assertion (A): Research is always a systematic and objective

process.
Reason (R): Random errors can be eliminated completely in any research
study.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: Research is inherently systematic (follows a
logical sequence) and strives for objectivity (minimizing bias).
● Reason (R) is false: While systematic errors can be minimized or
eliminated, random errors are inherent to measurement and cannot
be completely eliminated, only reduced.

5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good research?

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(A) Replicability
(B) Generalizability
(C) Subjectivity
(D) Empirical Evidence
Correct Answer: (C)
● Subjectivity: Good research aims for objectivity, not subjectivity, to
ensure that findings are unbiased and verifiable.
● Replicability: The ability for other researchers to repeat the study and
obtain similar results.
● Generalizability: The extent to which research findings can be
applied to a larger population or different contexts.
● Empirical Evidence: Good research is based on observable and
verifiable evidence obtained through systematic observation or
experimentation.

Topic 2: Hypothesis

1. A researcher formulates a statement that predicts a relationship

between two or more variables. This statement is known as a:
(A) Theory
(B) Concept
(C) Hypothesis
(D) Paradigm
Correct Answer: (C)
● Hypothesis: It is a tentative, testable prediction about the
relationship between two or more variables.
● It serves as a starting point for empirical investigation.
● A hypothesis can be either supported or refuted by the research
findings.

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2. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A null hypothesis (H0) states that there is no significant
difference or relationship between the variables being studied.
Statement II: Rejecting the null hypothesis always proves that the alternative
hypothesis (H1) is absolutely true.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The null hypothesis (H0) is a statement of no
effect, no difference, or no relationship.
● Statement II is false: Rejecting the null hypothesis provides
evidence in favor of the alternative hypothesis (H1), but it does
not prove H1 to be absolutely true. It suggests that the observed data
are unlikely to have occurred if the null hypothesis were true.

3. Match List I with List II based on types of hypotheses:

List I (Type of List II (Characteristic)
Hypothesis)
(a) Null Hypothesis (H0) (i) Predicts a specific direction of relationship

(b) Alternative (ii) States no relationship or difference between

Hypothesis (H1) variables
(c) Directional (iii) Predicts a relationship but not its specific
Hypothesis direction
(d) Non-directional (iv) States that there is a relationship or difference
Hypothesis between variables

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Null Hypothesis (H0) (ii): Posits that there is no statistically
significant relationship or difference between variables.
● (b) Alternative Hypothesis (H1) (iv): States that there is a
statistically significant relationship or difference between
variables.
● (c) Directional Hypothesis (i): Specifies the direction of the
expected relationship or difference (e.g., 'more than', 'less than').
● (d) Non-directional Hypothesis (iii): Predicts a relationship or
difference but does not specify its direction.

4. Assertion (A): A well-formulated hypothesis must be testable

through empirical observation.
Reason (R): Untestable hypotheses cannot contribute to scientific
knowledge.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: A fundamental characteristic of a
scientific hypothesis is its testability through data collection and

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analysis.
● Correct explanation: If a hypothesis cannot be tested empirically, it
cannot be verified or falsified, and therefore, it cannot contribute to
the advancement of scientific knowledge through the scientific
method.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good hypothesis?

(A) It is vague and ambiguous.
(B) It can be tested empirically.
(C) It contradicts existing theories.
(D) It is very complex and lengthy.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Empirically Testable: A good hypothesis must be formulated in such
a way that it can be tested and verified or falsified through
observable data and experiments.
● Clarity and Specificity: It should be clear, concise, and
unambiguous, not vague.
● Consistency (initially): While research can challenge theories, a
hypothesis typically builds upon or is consistent with existing
knowledge, or clearly states its departure.
● Simplicity: It should be as simple as possible while addressing the
research question.

Topic 3: Measures of Central Tendency and Dispersion

1. In a dataset where there are extreme outlier values, which

measure of central tendency would be most appropriate to
represent the typical value?
(A) Mean

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(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Standard Deviation
Correct Answer: (B)
● Median: The median is the middle value in a sorted dataset.
● It is less affected by extreme outlier values (either very high or
very low) compared to the mean.
● The mean is heavily influenced by outliers, which can distort the
representation of the typical value in skewed distributions.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The sum of deviations of all values from the arithmetic mean is
always zero.
Statement II: Mode is always unique for a given dataset.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: A fundamental property of the arithmetic
mean is that the sum of the deviations of all observations from it is
always zero.
● Statement II is false: A dataset can have multiple modes (bimodal,
multimodal) or no mode at all if no value repeats.

3. Match List I with List II based on measures of central tendency

and dispersion:

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List I (Measure) List II (Characteristic/Purpose)
(a) Mean (i) The most frequently occurring value in a dataset

(b) Median (ii) The average of all values; sensitive to outliers

(c) Mode (iii) The middle value in a sorted dataset; resistant to

outliers
(d) Standard (iv) A measure of the average distance of values from
Deviation the mean
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Mean (ii): It is the arithmetic average of a dataset and is
sensitive to extreme values.
● (b) Median (iii): It is the middle value when data is ordered,
making it robust to outliers.
● (c) Mode (i): It represents the most frequent value in a dataset.
● (d) Standard Deviation (iv): It is a common measure of dispersion
(spread) around the mean, indicating how much individual data points
deviate from the mean.

4. Assertion (A): Standard deviation is a more informative measure

of dispersion than range.
Reason (R): Standard deviation considers the deviation of every data point
from the mean, whereas range only considers the highest and lowest values.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Standard deviation provides a more
comprehensive picture of data spread compared to the range.
● Correct explanation: The range is simpListic as it only depends on
two values (max and min), ignoring the distribution of values in
between. Standard deviation, by contrast, factors in every data
point's deviation from the mean, thus providing a more robust
measure of overall variability and accurately explaining why it's more
informative.

5. Which of the following statements about variance is correct?

(A) Variance is the square root of the standard deviation.
(B) Variance is a measure of central tendency.
(C) Variance indicates how far data points are spread out from the mean.
(D) A high variance indicates that all data points are very close to the mean.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Variance: It is a measure of dispersion that quantifies how much
individual data points in a set vary from the mean of the set.
● It is the average of the squared differences from the mean.
● Variance is the square of the standard deviation, not the square
root.
● A high variance indicates that data points are spread out from the
mean, while a low variance indicates they are clustered closely.

Topic 4: Sampling Methods

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1. A researcher divides the population into distinct subgroups based
on certain characteristics and then randomly selects samples from
each subgroup. This sampling method is called:
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Random Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Convenience Sampling
Correct Answer: (B)
● Stratified Random Sampling: In this method, the population is first
divided into homogeneous subgroups (strata) based on relevant
characteristics (e.g., age, gender, income).
● Then, a simple random sample is drawn from each stratum.
● This ensures representation from all important subgroups within the
population.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In probability sampling, every element in the population has a
known, non-zero chance of being selected for the sample.
Statement II: Non-probability sampling methods allow for the generalization
of findings to the larger population with statistical confidence.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: This is the defining characteristic of probability
sampling – it ensures randomness and representativeness.

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● Statement II is false: Non-probability sampling methods (e.g.,
convenience, quota) do not use random selection, which means the
findings cannot be statistically generalized to the larger
population.

3. Match List I with List II based on types of sampling methods:

List I (Sampling List II (Characteristic/Description)
Method)
(a) Simple Random (i) Selecting participants based on their easy
Sampling accessibility
(b) Systematic (ii) Every nth element is selected from a List after a
Sampling random start
(c) Convenience (iii) Each member of the population has an equal
Sampling chance of selection
(d) Quota Sampling (iv) Non-probability method where researchers select
participants until a quota is met
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Simple Random Sampling (iii): This is the most basic
probability sampling where each member has an equal and known
chance of selection.
● (b) Systematic Sampling (ii): Involves selecting elements at a fixed
interval (every nth element) from a List, starting randomly.
● (c) Convenience Sampling (i): A non-probability method where
participants are chosen because they are readily available and

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accessible.
● (d) Quota Sampling (iv): A non-probability method where the
researcher ensures certain subgroups are represented in specific
proportions (quotas), but the selection within subgroups is non-
random.

4. Assertion (A): Sampling error cannot be completely eliminated in

any research study.
Reason (R): Sampling error occurs due to the use of a sample
instead of the entire population.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Sampling error is the natural
discrepancy between a sample statistic and the true population
parameter.
● Correct explanation: This error is inherent when studying a
subset (sample) instead of the entire population. Even with perfect
methodology, a sample will rarely be exactly identical to the
population, hence sampling error cannot be completely eliminated.

5. Which of the following is a key advantage of using probability

sampling methods?
(A) They are always less time-consuming than non-probability methods.
(B) They guarantee that the sample is perfectly representative of the
population.

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(C) They allow for the generalization of research findings to the larger
population.
(D) They are always the easiest methods to implement in practice.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Generalizability: The primary advantage of probability sampling is
that it allows researchers to make statistically valid generalizations
from the sample findings to the larger population with a known level
of confidence.
● Not a guarantee of perfect representation: While they aim for
representativeness, no sample is perfectly representative due to
sampling error.
● Not always less time-consuming or easiest: Probability methods
can often be more complex and time-consuming than non-probability
methods.

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Unit 3: Comprehension
Passage: Breast Cancer Awareness and Early Detection in India
Breast cancer remains a significant public health challenge globally, and
India is no exception. While incidence rates in Western countries are higher,
the disease often presents at a later stage in India, leading to poorer
outcomes. This late presentation is largely attributed to a lack of awareness,
social stigma associated with the disease, and limited access to screening
facilities, especially in rural areas. According to recent data from the
National Cancer Registry Programme, breast cancer is now the most
common cancer among Indian women, accounting for approximately 25-
30% of all female cancers. In major metropolitan cities like Delhi and
Mumbai, the incidence rate is even higher, with an alarming trend of
increasing cases among younger women (below 50 years of age).
Early detection is paramount to improving survival rates. Breast Self-
Examination (BSE) and Clinical Breast Examination (CBE) are crucial first
steps for awareness and early identification of abnormalities. However, the
gold standard for screening, particularly for women over 40, is
mammography. Unfortunately, access to mammography units is
concentrated in urban centers, making it financially and geographically
inaccessible for a large segment of the population. Furthermore, cultural
barriers and misconceptions about cancer often deter women from seeking
timely medical advice, even when symptoms appear. Many women
prioritize family needs over their own health, contributing to delays in
diagnosis.
To address these challenges, comprehensive awareness campaigns are vital.
These campaigns must focus not only on the symptoms of breast cancer but
also on debunking myths, reducing stigma, and emphasizing the importance
of regular screening and early consultation. Mobile screening units can help
bridge the gap in rural access to mammography. Moreover, incorporating

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basic health education on cancer prevention and early detection into school
curricula can create a future generation that is more informed and proactive
about health. Collaborative efforts involving government, NGOs, healthcare
providers, and community leaders are essential to foster a supportive
environment where women feel empowered to prioritize their breast health.

MCQs Based on the Passage

1. According to the passage, what is the primary reason for poorer

breast cancer outcomes in India compared to Western countries?
(A) Higher incidence rates in India.
(B) Greater social stigma in Western countries.
(C) Later stage presentation of the disease in India.
(D) Better access to treatment facilities in India.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Directly stated: The passage explicitly mentions, "the disease often
presents at a later stage in India, leading to poorer outcomes."
● Contributing factors: This late presentation is linked to lack of
awareness, social stigma, and limited screening access.
● The other options are either contradicted by the passage (A, D) or
misrepresent information (B).

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Breast cancer incidence rates are showing an increasing trend
among younger women (below 50 years of age) in Indian metropolitan
cities.
Statement II: Breast Self-Examination (BSE) is considered the gold standard
for breast cancer screening for women over 40.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:

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(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The passage states, "In major metropolitan cities
like Delhi and Mumbai, the incidence rate is even higher, with an
alarming trend of increasing cases among younger women (below 50
years of age)."
● Statement II is false: The passage clearly identifies mammography
as "the gold standard for screening, particularly for women over 40,"
while BSE is mentioned as a "crucial first step for awareness."

3. Match List I with List II regarding challenges in breast cancer

early detection in India, as per the passage:
List I (Challenge) List II (Description)
(a) Lack of Awareness (i) Limited availability of advanced diagnostic
machines
(b) Social Stigma (ii) Women prioritizing family over their own
health
(c) Limited Access to (iii) Misconceptions deterring women from
Screening seeking medical advice
(d) Cultural Barriers (iv) Fear of societal judgment if diagnosed with
cancer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
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● (a) Lack of Awareness (iii): This leads to women not knowing
symptoms or the importance of early check-ups, causing
misconceptions.
● (b) Social Stigma (iv): The passage mentions "social stigma
associated with the disease," which can lead to fear of judgment and
avoidance of diagnosis.
● (c) Limited Access to Screening (i): The passage highlights that
"access to mammography units is concentrated in urban centers,"
implying limited availability in other areas.
● (d) Cultural Barriers (ii): The passage notes "cultural barriers and
misconceptions... Many women prioritize family needs over their own
health," contributing to delays.

4. Assertion (A): Early detection is paramount to improving breast

cancer survival rates.
Reason (R): Comprehensive awareness campaigns that include debunking
myths and emphasizing regular screening are vital to achieve early detection.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: The passage clearly states "Early
detection is paramount to improving survival rates." It also emphasizes
that "comprehensive awareness campaigns are vital" to address
challenges.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) directly explains how early
detection (Assertion A) can be achieved by addressing the barriers

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through awareness, debunking myths, and promoting screening.

5. What does the passage suggest as an effective way to bridge the

gap in rural access to mammography?
(A) Building more hospitals only in urban areas.
(B) Relying solely on Breast Self-Examination (BSE).
(C) Incorporating health education into school curricula.
(D) Deploying mobile screening units.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Directly stated strategy: The passage explicitly suggests, "Mobile
screening units can help bridge the gap in rural access to
mammography."
● Targeted solution: This provides a practical solution to the
geographical and financial inaccessibility mentioned earlier in the
passage for rural populations.
● Other options either address different aspects or are not the most
effective direct solution to access to mammography in rural areas.

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Unit 4: Communication
Communication Models and Principles (including 5 Cs)

1. Assertion (A): In the Transactional Communication Model, both

the sender and receiver simultaneously encode and decode
messages.
Reason (R): This model assumes that communication is a dynamic and
collaborative process involving a continuous exchange of messages.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both statements are true: The Transactional Model views
communication as a two-way, simultaneous process, where
participants are simultaneously senders and receivers.
● Correct explanation: This model portrays communication as
dynamic and collaborative, involving continuous role-switching and
interpretation of messages, which accurately explains the assertion.

2. Which of the following are characteristics of effective written

communication, part of the '7 Cs'?
(a) Consideration
(b) Ambiguity
(c) Conciseness

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(d) Complexity
(e) Courtesy
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (c) and (e)
(C) (b), (d) and (e)
(D) (a), (d) and (e)
Correct Answer: (B)
● Part of the 7 Cs: The '7 Cs' of effective communication include
Consideration, Conciseness, and Courtesy, along with Clarity,
Completeness, Correctness, and Coherence.
● Undesirable traits: Ambiguity and Complexity are barriers to
effective communication, not its characteristics.

3. The Stimulus-Response (S-R) model of communication is

primarily associated with which school of thought?
(A) Cognitive Psychology
(B) Humanistic Psychology
(C) Behaviorism
(D) Psychodynamic Psychology
Correct Answer: (C)
● Behaviorism: The Stimulus-Response (S-R) model is a
foundational concept in behaviorism.
● It posits that communication is a direct reaction (response) to a
specific input (stimulus).
● This model typically views the receiver as a passive entity responding
predictably to the sender's message.

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The 'Shannon-Weaver Model' of communication is often

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referred to as a linear model.
Statement II: This model explicitly includes the concept of 'feedback' as a
crucial element.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The Shannon-Weaver Model is a classic
linear model of communication, flowing from sender to receiver in a
one-way direction.
● Statement II is false: The original Shannon-Weaver Model did not
explicitly include feedback. Feedback was a concept later added by
other theorists or adaptations of the model (e.g., in the transactional
or interactive models).

5. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of effective

communication?
(A) Ambiguity
(B) Clarity
(C) Incompleteness
(D) One-way flow
Correct Answer: (B)
● Clarity: Effective communication must be clear and easily
understandable to the receiver, avoiding any vagueness or confusion.
● Completeness: Messages should be complete and provide all
necessary information for the receiver to act or understand fully.

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● Two-way flow: While one-way communication exists, effective
communication often encourages feedback, making it a two-way,
interactive process for better understanding and conflict resolution.

Communication Flow (Current) and Sequential Communication

1. In an organization, when information flows from higher levels of

management to lower-level employees, what type of
communication flow is this called?
(A) Upward Communication
(B) Downward Communication
(C) Horizontal Communication
(D) Diagonal Communication
Correct Answer: (B)
● Downward Communication: This refers to the flow of information
from higher levels in the hierarchy to lower levels within an
organization.
● It typically includes instructions, policies, goals, decisions, and
performance feedback.
● Examples include a CEO communicating new strategies to managers,
or managers assigning tasks to employees.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: 'Sequential Communication' involves a message flowing from
one person to another in a predetermined order.
Statement II: Sequential communication is always a one-way process and
never involves feedback.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Sequential communication indeed refers to
the transfer of messages from one person to another in a specific, often
linear, order or chain.
● Statement II is false: While sequential communication often follows
a linear path, it can still involve feedback loops, especially when
tasks are completed in a chain or process. It is not necessarily entirely
one-way.

3. Match List I with List II based on types of communication flow

and their main objectives:
List I List II (Main Objective)
(Communication
Flow)
(a) Upward (i) Coordinate and share information between
Communication different departments
(b) Horizontal (ii) Convey instructions, policies, and decisions
Communication to employees
(c) Downward (iii) Provide feedback, suggestions, and
Communication grievances to management
(d) Diagonal (iv) Communication between individuals at
Communication different levels and departments
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

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(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Upward Communication (iii): Aims to convey feedback,
suggestions, grievances, and performance reports from lower-level
employees to higher management.
● (b) Horizontal Communication (i): Occurs among individuals or
departments at the same organizational level for coordination,
information sharing, and problem-solving.
● (c) Downward Communication (ii): Aims to transmit instructions,
policies, rules, and decisions from higher management to lower
levels.
● (d) Diagonal Communication (iv): Occurs between individuals at
different levels and departments within the organization, often
bypassing the formal chain of command.

4. Assertion (A): Sequential communication is crucial in task-based

processes where the output of one task becomes the input for the
next.
Reason (R): Sequential communication helps prevent misunderstandings
and delays as each step is clearly defined.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Assertion (A) highlights the importance
of sequential communication in processes with a specific order of

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tasks.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) explains why it is important: the
sequential flow ensures that each step is completed correctly and
information accurately moves to the next stage, thereby reducing
misunderstandings and preventing delays.

5. In the context of sequential communication, which of the

following is a common challenge?
(A) Information spreading too quickly.
(B) The message passing through multiple individuals without losing its
original meaning.
(C) Communication channels getting blocked due to information overload.
(D) Difficulty in assessing the understanding of the message due to lack of
immediate feedback.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Lack of Immediate Feedback: In sequential communication,
especially when it is linear and passes through many nodes, there can
be a lack of immediate and sufficient feedback at each stage.
● This makes it difficult to assess message understanding or to rectify
misunderstandings promptly.
● Option (A) is more related to informal (grapevine) communication.
Option (B) is an ideal scenario, not a common challenge. Option (C)
is a general communication challenge but not specific to sequential
communication's inherent structure.

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Unit 5: Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude

Topic 1: Number and Letter Series / Wrong Number in Series

1. What will be the next term in the following number series?

3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?
(A) 125
(B) 127
(C) 129
(D) 131
Correct Answer: (B)
● Identify the pattern: The pattern in the series is that each term is
double the previous term plus 1.
● 3×2+1=7
● 7×2+1=15
● 15×2+1=31
● 31×2+1=63
● Next term: 63×2+1=126+1=127.

2. What will be the next term in the following letter series?

A, D, G, J, M, ?
(A) O
(B) P
(C) Q
(D) N
Correct Answer: (B)
● Identify the pattern: This is a letter series where two letters are
skipped between consecutive terms (or +3 positions in the alphabet).
● A (+3 positions) = D
● D (+3 positions) = G

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● G (+3 positions) = J
● J (+3 positions) = M
● Next term: M (+3 positions) = P.

3. Which number is wrong in the following number series?

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 215, 343
(A) 27
(B) 64
(C) 125
(D) 215
Correct Answer: (D)
● Identify the pattern: The numbers in the series are meant to be
perfect cubes.
● 13=1
● 23=8
● 33=27
● 43=64
● 53=125
● 73=343
● Wrong number: The number that should follow 125 in the sequence
of cubes is 63=216. However, the given number is 215, making it the
incorrect term in the series.

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Questions on finding the 'wrong term' in a number series are
often based on a specific mathematical operation pattern (like addition,
subtraction, multiplication, division, or powers).
Statement II: In a letter series, the pattern can only be based on the position
(place value) of letters, but not on repetitions or opposite pairs.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from

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the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Finding the wrong term or next term in a
number series typically involves identifying an underlying
mathematical pattern (e.g., arithmetic progression, geometric
progression, series of squares or cubes, or mixed operations).
● Statement II is false: While letter series patterns can be based on
letter positions, they can also be based on repetitions (e.g., ABAB),
opposite pairs (e.g., AZ, BY), or other complex arrangements
of letters.

5. What will be the next term in the following letter-number series?

C3, F6, I9, L12, ?
(A) O15
(B) P16
(C) M14
(D) N15
Correct Answer: (A)
● Letter Pattern: The letters are progressing with a gap of 2 letters
(or +3 positions in the alphabet): C to F (+3), F to I (+3), I to L (+3).
The next letter will be L (+3) = O.
● Number Pattern: The numbers represent the positional value of
the letter in the alphabet (C=3, F=6, I=9, L=12). Since the next letter
is O, its positional value is 15.
● Combined Term: Therefore, the next term in the series is O15.

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Topic 2: Coding-Decoding

1. If in a certain code language 'WATER' is written as 'XBUFS', how

will 'CLOUD' be written in that same code language?
(A) DMLVE
(B) BNKTC
(C) DPOGE
(D) EQVFG
Correct Answer: (A)
● Identify the pattern: Each letter is replaced by the next letter in
the alphabet (+1 position).
● W (+1) = X, A (+1) = B, T (+1) = U, E (+1) = F, R (+1) = S.
● Apply the pattern: Apply the same pattern to 'CLOUD'.
● C (+1) = D, L (+1) = M, O (+1) = P, U (+1) = V, D (+1) = E.
● Therefore, 'CLOUD' will be written as DMPVE.

2. If 'ROSE' is coded as '6821' and 'CHAIR' is coded as '73456', how

will 'SEARCH' be coded?
(A) 214673
(B) 214763
(C) 216473
(D) 214637
Correct Answer: (B)
● Identify the pattern: This is a direct coding where each letter is
assigned a specific digit.
● From 'ROSE': R=6, O=8, S=2, E=1.
● From 'CHAIR': C=7, H=3, A=4, I=5, R=6.
● Apply the pattern: Use the corresponding digits for the letters in

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'SEARCH'.
● S=2, E=1, A=4, R=6, C=7, H=3.
● Therefore, 'SEARCH' will be coded as 214673.

3. In a certain code language, 'TABLE' is written as 'VCDNG'. How

will 'CHAIR' be written in the same code language?
(A) EJCKU
(B) EIKUV
(C) EJKUY
(D) FGHLJ
Correct Answer: (B)
● Identify the pattern: Each letter is replaced by the letter that is two
positions ahead in the alphabet (+2 position).
● T (+2) = V, A (+2) = C, B (+2) = D, L (+2) = N, E (+2) = G.
● Apply the pattern: Apply the same pattern to 'CHAIR'.
● C (+2) = E, H (+2) = J, A (+2) = C, I (+2) = K, R (+2) = T.
● Therefore, 'CHAIR' will be written as EJCKT.

4. Assertion (A): Coding-decoding tests assess a candidate's logical

thinking and pattern recognition ability.
Reason (R): These questions often utilize the underlying principles of
numerical series and letter series.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)

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● Both statements are true: Coding-decoding questions effectively test
analytical and logical skills, particularly the ability to identify
hidden patterns.
● Correct explanation: These questions often employ principles from
numerical and letter series, such as positional values of letters,
mathematical operations, or specific relationships between letters, thus
accurately explaining why they test logical thinking.

5. If 'SPIN' is coded as 'TJPO', how will 'RATE' be coded?

(A) SBUE
(B) QBSD
(C) SCUD
(D) SBUF
Correct Answer: (A)
● Identify the pattern: This is a +1 pattern for each letter.
● S (+1) = T, P (+1) = Q, I (+1) = J, N (+1) = O.
● Apply the pattern: Apply the same pattern to 'RATE'.
● R (+1) = S, A (+1) = B, T (+1) = U, E (+1) = F.
● Therefore, 'RATE' will be coded as SBUF.

Topic 3: Time and Work / Time and Distance

1. A can complete a piece of work in 20 days and B can complete

the same work in 30 days. If they work together, in how many days
will they complete the work?
(A) 10 days
(B) 12 days
(C) 15 days
(D) 25 days

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Correct Answer: (B)
● Individual work rates: A's 1-day work = 1/20. B's 1-day work = 1/30.
● Combined work rate: Their combined 1-day work =
1/20+1/30=(3+2)/60=5/60=1/12.
● Time to complete work: If they complete 1/12 of the work in 1 day,
they will complete the entire work in 12 days.

2. A train is running at a speed of 72 km/hr. It crosses a 250-meter

long platform in 20 seconds. Find the length of the train.
(A) 150 meters
(B) 200 meters
(C) 250 meters
(D) 300 meters
Correct Answer: (A)
● Convert speed to m/s: 72 km/hr=72×(5/18) m/s=4×5=20 m/s.
● Total distance covered: When a train crosses a platform, it covers a
distance equal to its own length plus the length of the platform.
● Total distance = Speed × Time = 20 m/s×20 seconds=400 meters.
● Length of the train: Length of train = Total distance - Length of
platform = 400 meters−250 meters=150 meters.

3. A and B together can complete a work in 10 days. If A alone can

do the work in 15 days, in how many days will B alone complete
the work?
(A) 20 days
(B) 25 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 40 days
Correct Answer: (C)

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● Combined 1-day work of A and B: 1/10.
● A's 1-day work: 1/15.
● B's 1-day work: (Combined rate of A and B) - (A's rate) = 1/10−1/15.
● LCM is 30. So, 3/30−2/30=1/30.
● Time taken by B: If B alone does 1/30 of the work in 1 day, it will
take B 30 days to complete the entire work.

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If two individuals are doing the same work, the time taken to
complete the work is directly proportional to their individual work rates.
Statement II: If the same distance is covered, speed and time are inversely
proportional to each other.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Statement I is false: The time taken to complete a work is inversely
proportional to an individual's work rate (a higher work rate means
less time is needed).
● Statement II is true: If distance is constant, then Speed = Distance /
Time implies that speed and time are inversely proportional (higher
speed means less time, and lower speed means more time).

5. A person goes from point A to point B at a speed of 60 km/hr

and returns from point B to point A at a speed of 40 km/hr. What
is his average speed for the entire journey?

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(A) 50 km/hr
(B) 48 km/hr
(C) 45 km/hr
(D) 55 km/hr
Correct Answer: (B)
● Formula for Average Speed (for equal distances): If a person
travels the same distance at two different speeds (v1 and v2), the
average speed is given by (2×v1×v2)/(v1+v2).
● Apply the values: v1=60 km/hr, v2=40 km/hr.
● Average speed = (2×60×40)/(60+40).
● Average speed = (4800)/(100)=48 km/hr.

Topic 4: Profit and Loss

1. An item was sold for ₹440, incurring a profit of 10%. What was
the Cost Price (CP) of the item?
(A) ₹400
(B) ₹410
(C) ₹420
(D) ₹430
Correct Answer: (A)
● Selling Price (SP) and Profit Percentage: SP = ₹440, Profit = 10%.
● If CP is the Cost Price, then SP = CP + 10% of CP = 1.1×CP.
● 440=1.1×CP.
● Cost Price (CP): CP = 440/1.1=₹400.

2. A shopkeeper incurs a loss of 25% by selling an item for ₹600. At

what price should he sell the item to gain a profit of 20%?
(A) ₹720
(B) ₹800

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(C) ₹960
(D) ₹1000
Correct Answer: (C)
● Find the Cost Price (CP) from the loss: Selling for ₹600 resulted
in a 25% loss. This means ₹600 is 75% of the CP.
● CP ×(1−25/100)=600⇒CP×0.75=600⇒CP=600/0.75=₹800.
● Find the Selling Price (SP) for 20% profit: Now that CP is ₹800,
to gain 20% profit.
● SP = CP ×(1+20/100)=800×1.20=₹960.

3. A person buys a bicycle for ₹5000 and sells it for ₹4500. Find his
loss percentage.
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
Correct Answer: (B)
● Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP): CP = ₹5000, SP = ₹4500.
● Loss: Loss = CP - SP = 5000−4500=₹500.
● Loss Percentage: Loss Percentage = (Loss/CP)×100.
● Loss Percentage = $(500 / 5000) \times 100 = (1/10) \times 100 =
\textbf{10%}$.

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When the Selling Price (SP) is greater than the Cost Price (CP),
there is a profit.
Statement II: Loss percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP).
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Statement I is true: The fundamental definition of profit is when the
selling price exceeds the cost price.
● Statement II is true: Profit percentage or loss percentage is
conventionally always calculated relative to the Cost Price (CP),
unless explicitly stated otherwise.

5. The marked price (MP) of an item is ₹800. After allowing a 10%

discount, the shopkeeper still gains a profit of 20%. What is the
Cost Price (CP) of the item?
(A) ₹600
(B) ₹720
(C) ₹750
(D) ₹800
Correct Answer: (A)
● Selling Price (SP) after discount: Marked Price = ₹800, Discount =
10%.
● Discount amount = 10% of 800=₹80.
● Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price - Discount = 800−80=₹720.
● Find Cost Price (CP) from profit: The shopkeeper gained 20%
profit, so SP ₹720 is 120% of the CP.
● CP ×(1+20/100)=720⇒CP×1.2=720⇒CP=720/1.2=₹600.

Topic 5: Simple Interest (SI) and Compound Interest (CI)

1. What will be the Simple Interest (SI) on ₹5000 for 3 years at a

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rate of 8% per annum?
(A) ₹1000
(B) ₹1200
(C) ₹1500
(D) ₹1800
Correct Answer: (B)
● Simple Interest Formula: SI = (Principal×Rate×Time)/100.
● Apply the values: Principal (P) = ₹5000, Rate (R) = 8%, Time (T) =
3 years.
● SI = (5000×8×3)/100.
● SI = 50×8×3=₹1200.

2. What will be the Compound Interest (CI) on ₹10,000 for 2 years

at a rate of 10% per annum, compounded annually?
(A) ₹2000
(B) ₹2100
(C) ₹2200
(D) ₹2500
Correct Answer: (B)
● Compound Interest Formula (for Amount): Amount (A) =
Principal (P) ×(1+Rate/100)Time.
● Apply the values: P = ₹10,000, R = 10%, T = 2 years.
● A = 10000×(1+10/100)2=10000×(110/100)2=10000×(1.1)2.
● A = 10000×1.21=₹12100.
● Compound Interest (CI): CI = Amount (A) - Principal (P) =
12100−10000=₹2100.

3. What is the main difference between Simple Interest and

Compound Interest?

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(A) In Simple Interest, the principal amount changes every year for interest
calculation.
(B) In Compound Interest, interest is calculated only on the principal
amount.
(C) In Simple Interest, interest is calculated only on the principal, whereas
in Compound Interest, interest is calculated on both the principal and
accumulated interest.
(D) Compound Interest is always less than Simple Interest.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Simple Interest: Interest is always calculated only on the initial
principal amount.
● Compound Interest: Interest is calculated not only on the initial
principal but also on the accumulated interest from previous
periods, leading to "interest on interest".
● Options (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect. Compound interest is
generally greater than simple interest (except for the first period if rate
and principal are the same).

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: For the same principal, rate, and time, Compound Interest is
always greater than or equal to Simple Interest.
Statement II: If interest is compounded semi-annually, the effective annual
rate decreases compared to the nominal annual rate.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)

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● Statement I is true: For the same principal, rate, and time,
Compound Interest is always greater than Simple Interest,
except when the time period is one year or less (in which case they are
equal if compounded annually).
● Statement II is false: If interest is compounded semi-annually, the
effective annual rate increases compared to the nominal annual rate
because interest is earned more frequently on the accumulated interest
within the same year.

5. What will be the minimum number of years in which an amount

of ₹800 will become ₹1040 at a Simple Interest rate of 10% per
annum?
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Correct Answer: (B)
● Principal and Total Amount: Principal (P) = ₹800, Total Amount
(A) = ₹1040.
● Interest (I): Interest = A - P = 1040−800=₹240.
● Simple Interest Formula: I=(P×R×T)/100.
● Find Time (T): 240=(800×10×T)/100.
● 240=8×10×T.
● 240=80×T.
● T=240/80=3 years.

Topic 6: Ratio and Percentage

1. The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:2. If there are a total of 50

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students in the class, find the number of girls.
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
Correct Answer: (A)
● Total parts of the ratio: The total parts in the ratio of boys to girls =
3+2=5 parts.
● Value of each part: Total students = 50, so 1 part = 50/5=10 students.
● Number of girls: The girls' share is 2 parts, so the number of girls =
2×10=20.

2. In an examination, a student secured 350 marks out of 500. What

is the percentage of marks obtained by the student?
(A) 60%
(B) 65%
(C) 70%
(D) 75%
Correct Answer: (C)
● Marks obtained and total marks: Marks obtained = 350, Total
marks = 500.
● Percentage formula: Percentage = (Marks Obtained/Total
Marks)×100.
● Percentage = (350/500)×100.
● Percentage = $(35 / 50) \times 100 = (7 / 10) \times 100 =
\textbf{70%}$.

3. If 20% of A is equal to 30% of B, what is the ratio of A:B?

(A) 2:3
(B) 3:2

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(C) 4:5
(D) 5:4
Correct Answer: (B)
● Set up the equation: 20% of A = 30% of B.
● A×(20/100)=B×(30/100).
● A×0.20=B×0.30.
● Find the ratio: A/B=0.30/0.20=3/2.
● Thus, the ratio of A:B is 3:2.

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Percentage is always used to express a quantity based on 100.
Statement II: Two ratios can only be compared if their antecedents are the
same.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The term 'percent' literally means 'per hundred',
and it is indeed used to express a quantity out of 100.
● Statement II is false: Two ratios can be compared by making their
consequents (second terms) equal, by converting them to fractions
with a common denominator, or by converting them to decimals.
Making only the antecedents (first terms) equal is not the sole method
for comparison.

5. The population of a city was 8000. It increased by 10% in the

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first year and by 20% in the second year. What will be the
population of the city after two years?
(A) 9600
(B) 10560
(C) 10800
(D) 11200
Correct Answer: (B)
● Population after the first year: 8000+(10% of
8000)=8000+800=8800.
● Population after the second year: The increase is on the new
population of 8800.
● 8800+(20% of 8800)=8800+(8800×0.20)=8800+1760.
● Total population after two years = 10560.

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Unit 6: Logical Reasoning

Topic 1: Square of Opposition

1. Given the statement "All dogs are mammals" is true, what can be
inferred about the truth value of the statement "Some dogs are not
mammals" according to the Square of Opposition?
(A) It must be true.
(B) It must be false.
(C) It is undetermined.
(D) It is probably true.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Contradictory Relationship: "All dogs are mammals" (A-
proposition) and "Some dogs are not mammals" (O-proposition) are
contradictories in the Square of Opposition.
● Truth Value Rule: Contradictory propositions always have opposite
truth values. If one is true, the other must be false, and vice versa.
● Inference: Since the A-proposition ("All dogs are mammals") is given
as true, its contradictory O-proposition ("Some dogs are not
mammals") must be false.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: According to the Square of Opposition, 'Contraries' cannot
both be true simultaneously.
Statement II: 'Contraries' can both be false simultaneously.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Contraries Definition: Contraries are A (All S are P) and E (No S are
P) propositions. They are opposites in quality but universal in
quantity.
● Truth Value Rule I: It is impossible for both contraries to be true
(e.g., "All men are honest" and "No men are honest" cannot both be
true).
● Truth Value Rule II: However, it is possible for both contraries to
be false (e.g., if some men are honest and some are not, both "All
men are honest" and "No men are honest" would be false).

3. Match List I with List II based on the relationships in the Square

of Opposition:
List I List II (Truth Value Inference)
(Relationship)
(a) Contradictory (i) If one is true, the other is undetermined

(b) Contrary (ii) If one is true, the other must be false, and vice
versa
(c) Subalternation (iii) If the universal is true, the particular must be
true
(d) Sub-contrary (iv) Cannot both be true, but can both be false

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

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Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Contradictory (ii): A and O propositions, E and I propositions.
They always have opposite truth values.
● (b) Contrary (iv): A and E propositions. They cannot both be
true, but can both be false.
● (c) Subalternation (iii): A to I, E to O. If the universal (A or E) is
true, then its corresponding particular (I or O) must be true.
● (d) Sub-contrary (i): I and O propositions. They cannot both be
false, but can both be true. If one is false, the other must be true. If
one is true, the other is undetermined.

4. Assertion (A): The Square of Opposition is a diagram that

represents the logical relationships between four types of categorical
propositions.
Reason (R): It only deals with the relationships between the quantity
(universal/particular) of propositions, not their quality
(affirmative/negative).
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: The Square of Opposition is indeed a visual
tool representing logical relationships among A, E, I, and O categorical
propositions.
● Reason (R) is false: The Square of Opposition deals with
relationships based on both quantity (universal/particular) AND

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quality (affirmative/negative) of propositions. For example,
'Contradictories' differ in both quantity and quality.

5. If the statement "No birds are mammals" (E-proposition) is true,

what can be inferred about the truth value of "Some birds are
mammals" (I-proposition) according to the Square of Opposition?
(A) It must be true.
(B) It must be false.
(C) It is undetermined.
(D) It is probably false.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Contradictory Relationship: "No birds are mammals" (E-
proposition) and "Some birds are mammals" (I-proposition) are
contradictories in the Square of Opposition.
● Truth Value Rule: Contradictory propositions always have opposite
truth values. If one is true, the other must be false.
● Inference: Since the E-proposition ("No birds are mammals") is given
as true, its contradictory I-proposition ("Some birds are mammals")
must be false.

Topic 2: Logical Equivalence

1. Two propositions are said to be logically equivalent if:

(A) They have the same subject and predicate terms.
(B) They both describe a true state of affairs in the world.
(C) They always have the same truth value under all possible truth
assignments for their components.
(D) They share at least one common term.
Correct Answer: (C)

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● Definition of Logical Equivalence: The core definition of logical
equivalence is that two statements or propositions always have the
identical truth value in every possible interpretation or
circumstance.
● This means if one is true, the other is true, and if one is false, the
other is false, without exception.
● Options (A), (B), and (D) describe partial similarities or factual
correctness, not the fundamental logical relationship of equivalence.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The contrapositive of a conditional statement "If P, then Q" is
"If not Q, then not P".
Statement II: A conditional statement is logically equivalent to its converse.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The contrapositive of "If P, then Q" is indeed
"If not Q, then not P". For example, "If it rains, then the ground is
wet" has the contrapositive "If the ground is not wet, then it did not
rain."
● Statement II is false: A conditional statement is NOT logically
equivalent to its converse ("If Q, then P"). For instance, "If it rains,
then the ground is wet" is true, but its converse "If the ground is wet,
then it rained" might be false (e.g., if a sprinkler was on).

3. Which of the following conditional statements is logically

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equivalent to "If it is a cat, then it is a mammal"?
(A) If it is a mammal, then it is a cat. (Converse)
(B) If it is not a cat, then it is not a mammal. (Inverse)
(C) If it is not a mammal, then it is not a cat. (Contrapositive)
(D) It is a cat and it is not a mammal.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Logical Equivalence with Contrapositive: A conditional statement
("If P, then Q") is always logically equivalent to its contrapositive
("If not Q, then not P").
● Here, P = "it is a cat", Q = "it is a mammal".
● "If not Q, then not P" becomes "If it is not a mammal, then it is not a
cat." This statement holds the same truth value as the original.

4. Assertion (A): De Morgan's laws are crucial in determining

logical equivalence of complex propositions.
Reason (R): De Morgan's laws provide rules for negating conjunctions and
disjunctions.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: De Morgan's laws (e.g., ¬(P∧Q)≡(¬P∨¬Q)
and ¬(P∨Q)≡(¬P∧¬Q)) are fundamental rules in propositional logic.
● Correct explanation: These laws specifically provide the rules for
negating compound statements involving 'AND' and 'OR',
which is essential for simplifying and proving logical equivalence of
more complex propositions.

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5. The statement "Not all students are intelligent" is logically equivalent to

which of the following?
(A) All students are intelligent.
(B) No students are intelligent.
(C) Some students are intelligent.
(D) Some students are not intelligent.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Translation to Categorical Form: "Not all students are intelligent"
is the negation of "All students are intelligent" (A-proposition).
● Relationship in Square of Opposition: The negation of an A-
proposition is an O-proposition (Some S are not P).
● Equivalence: Therefore, "Not all students are intelligent" is logically
equivalent to "Some students are not intelligent."

Topic 3: Syllogism

1. Consider the following statements:

I. All books are papers.
II. All papers are tables.
Conclusion: All books are tables.
This is an example of a:
(A) Valid Syllogism
(B) Invalid Syllogism
(C) Categorical Fallacy
(D) Inductive Argument
Correct Answer: (A)
● Structure: This is a classic example of a valid categorical syllogism
in the form of AAA-1 (All M are P, All S are M, Therefore, All S are P).
● Validity: The conclusion logically follows from the premises. If all

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books are papers, and all papers are tables, then necessarily all books
must also be tables.
● Soundness vs. Validity: Note that validity concerns the logical
structure, not the factual truth of the premises.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a valid categorical syllogism, if the premises are true, the
conclusion must also be true.
Statement II: A syllogism can be logically valid even if its premises are
factually false.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Statement I is true: This is the definition of validity in deductive
reasoning (of which syllogism is a type). If the premises guarantee the
conclusion, and the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.
● Statement II is true: Validity is about logical structure, not
factual content. A syllogism can have a correct logical form even if the
statements themselves are factually incorrect (e.g., "All birds are
mammals. All mammals have scales. Therefore, all birds have scales" is
valid, but unsound due to false premises).

3. Match List I with List II regarding components of a categorical

syllogism:
List I List II (Description)
(Component)
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(a) Major Term (i) The predicate of the conclusion

(b) Minor Term (ii) The subject of the conclusion

(c) Middle Term (iii) The term that appears in both premises but not in
the conclusion
(d) Conclusion (iv) The statement that logically follows from the
premises
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Major Term (i): The predicate of the conclusion. It appears in
the major premise.
● (b) Minor Term (ii): The subject of the conclusion. It appears in
the minor premise.
● (c) Middle Term (iii): The term that acts as a link, appearing in
both premises but not in the conclusion.
● (d) Conclusion (iv): The statement that is deduced or inferred
from the premises.

4. Assertion (A): All valid syllogisms are also sound arguments.

Reason (R): A sound argument requires both logical validity and factually
true premises.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

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(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Assertion (A) is false: A valid syllogism simply means the conclusion
logically follows from the premises. The premises themselves might be
false. For an argument to be sound, it must be both valid AND have
all true premises.
● Reason (R) is true: The definition of a sound argument is that it is
a valid argument with all true premises.

5. Identify the conclusion from the following premises:

Premise 1: No artists are bankers.
Premise 2: Some artists are painters.
Conclusion: ?
(A) Some painters are bankers.
(B) Some painters are not bankers.
(C) All painters are bankers.
(D) No painters are bankers.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Analyze Premises:
○ "No artists are bankers" (E-proposition): This means the set of
artists and bankers are mutually exclusive.
○ "Some artists are painters" (I-proposition): There is an overlap
between artists and painters.
● Inference: Since there are some painters who are artists (from
Premise 2), and no artists are bankers (from Premise 1), it logically
follows that those "some painters" who are artists cannot be bankers.
● Conclusion: Therefore, "Some painters are not bankers" (O-
proposition) is the valid conclusion.

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Topic 4: Immediate Inference

1. What is the process of inferring a conclusion from a single

premise called?
(A) Syllogism
(B) Mediate Inference
(C) Immediate Inference
(D) Inductive Inference
Correct Answer: (C)
● Immediate Inference: This refers to the process of drawing a
conclusion directly from a single premise without the aid of any
other premises.
● Examples include conversion, obversion, and contraposition.
● Syllogism and mediate inference involve two or more premises.
Inductive inference draws probable conclusions from specific
observations.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The 'converse' of the statement "All S are P" is "All P are S".
Statement II: Conversion is a valid immediate inference for 'E' (No S are P)
and 'I' (Some S are P) propositions, but not always for 'A' (All S are P) or
'O' (Some S are not P) propositions.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Statement I is false: The converse of "All S are P" is "Some P are S"

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(by conversion by limitation for A-propositions), or "All P are S"
(simple conversion, not always valid). The simple converse "All P are
S" is not logically equivalent and often invalid.
● Statement II is true: Simple conversion is valid for E-propositions
("No S are P" →"No P are S") and I-propositions ("Some S are P" →
"Some P are S"). It is not valid for A-propositions (e.g., "All cats are
mammals" does not imply "All mammals are cats") and not valid for
O-propositions (e.g., "Some animals are not dogs" does not imply
"Some dogs are not animals").

3. What is the 'obverse' of the statement "All students are

intelligent"?
(A) No students are intelligent.
(B) No students are non-intelligent.
(C) Some students are intelligent.
(D) Some students are not non-intelligent.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Obversion Rule: To obtain the obverse of a categorical proposition:
○ Change the quality (from affirmative to negative, or negative to
affirmative).
○ Replace the predicate term with its complement (non-P).
● Application:
○ Original: "All students are intelligent" (A-proposition,
affirmative).
○ Change quality to negative: "No students are..." (E-proposition).
○ Replace predicate "intelligent" with its complement "non-
intelligent".
○ Result: "No students are non-intelligent".

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4. Assertion (A): Immediate inferences allow us to derive a
conclusion that is necessarily true if the premise is true.
Reason (R): They rely on the logical structure and definitions of categorical
propositions alone.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Immediate inferences are forms of
deductive arguments, meaning if the premise is true and the inference
is valid, the conclusion must be true.
● Correct explanation: These inferences rely solely on the internal
logical structure of the original proposition and the definitions of
terms, without needing additional premises. This structural reliance
explains their necessary truth-preserving nature.

5. The 'contrapositive' of the statement "No birds are mammals" is:

(A) No mammals are birds.
(B) All non-mammals are non-birds.
(C) Some birds are non-mammals.
(D) Some non-mammals are not non-birds.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Contraposition Rule: To obtain the contrapositive:
○ Change the quality of the proposition.
○ Replace both the subject and predicate terms with their
complements.

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○ Transpose the subject and predicate terms.
● Application:
○ Original: "No birds are mammals" (E-proposition).
○ Change quality (E to A): "All..."
○ Replace "birds" with "non-birds", "mammals" with "non-
mammals".
○ Transpose: The new subject is "non-mammals", and the new
predicate is "non-birds".
○ Result: "All non-mammals are non-birds".

Topic 5: Fallacies

1. Identify the fallacy in the following argument: "My doctor says I

should eat healthy, but she smokes and drinks heavily, so her advice
about healthy eating is worthless."
(A) Ad Hominem (Personal Attack)
(B) Appeal to Authority
(C) Red Herring
(D) Straw Man
Correct Answer: (A)
● Ad Hominem (Personal Attack): This fallacy occurs when an
argument is rejected based on a personal attack on the arguer's
character, motives, or circumstances, rather than on the merits of
their argument itself.
● In the example, the doctor's advice (the argument) is dismissed
because of her personal habits (a personal attack), not because the
advice itself is logically flawed.

2. Given below are two statements:

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Statement I: A formal fallacy is an error in reasoning that can be detected by
examining the logical structure of an argument, without needing to evaluate
its content.
Statement II: An informal fallacy is an error in reasoning that arises from the
content and context of the argument, often due to misleading language or
irrelevant information.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Statement I is true: Formal fallacies (e.g., affirming the
consequent, denying the antecedent) are structural flaws that make an
argument invalid, regardless of whether the premises are true.
● Statement II is true: Informal fallacies (e.g., ad hominem, straw
man, slippery slope) are errors in reasoning that arise from the way an
argument's content is presented, interpreted, or distorted, rather than
purely from its logical form.

3. Match List I with List II regarding common informal fallacies:

List I (Fallacy) List II (Description)
(a) Appeal to (i) Misrepresenting an opponent's argument to make it
Ignorance easier to attack
(b) False Dilemma (ii) Assuming a claim is true because it has not been
proven false, or vice versa
(c) Straw Man (iii) Presenting only two extreme options as the only
possibilities

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(d) Slippery Slope (iv) Arguing that a minor action will inevitably lead to a
chain of disastrous consequences
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Appeal to Ignorance (ii): Claims something is true because it
hasn't been proven false, or vice versa.
● (b) False Dilemma (iii): Presents only two choices as the only
options, when more alternatives exist.
● (c) Straw Man (i): Distorts or exaggerates an opponent's argument
to make it easier to refute.
● (d) Slippery Slope (iv): Asserts that a relatively small first step will
inevitably lead to a chain of related, usually negative, consequences.

4. Assertion (A): Understanding fallacies helps in evaluating the

soundness of arguments.
Reason (R): Fallacies represent flawed reasoning patterns that undermine the
logical validity or persuasiveness of an argument.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Understanding fallacies is crucial for
critical thinking and argument evaluation.

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● Correct explanation: Fallacies are indeed flawed reasoning
patterns that make an argument appear valid or sound when it is not,
thereby directly undermining its logical strength and persuasiveness.
This explains why recognizing them is vital for evaluating soundness.

5. The fallacy of 'Ad Populum' (Appeal to Popularity) occurs when:

(A) An argument is dismissed because of the person making it.
(B) A claim is argued to be true simply because many people believe it.
(C) A conclusion is drawn from premises that are too weak to support it.
(D) A general rule is applied to a specific case where it does not apply.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Ad Populum (Appeal to Popularity): This fallacy argues that a
proposition must be true because many people believe it, or
because it is popular.
● It appeals to the general public's opinion or emotions, rather
than logical evidence.
● Option (A) is Ad Hominem. Options (C) and (D) describe other
fallacies.

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Unit 7: Data Interpretation

Topic: Data Interpretation Based on Table Graphs

1. Which of the following statements is a key characteristic or

advantage of a table graph as a data representation?
(A) It most effectively depicts trends of data over time.
(B) It clearly shows the proportion of each category within a total sum of
data.
(C) It presents data accurately, in detail, and in an organized manner.
(D) It is best for visual comparison between different categories.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Accuracy and Detail: Table graphs excel at presenting data with
precise numerical information and in a detailed format, allowing
users to look up specific values easily.
● Organized Presentation: They organize data into rows and
columns, which makes it easy to read and compare information in a
structured way.
● Option (A) is best suited for line graphs, (B) for pie charts, and (D) for
bar graphs.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a table graph, it is crucial to scan data both across rows and
down columns to understand relationships between data points.
Statement II: Having a large number of rows and columns in a table graph
always makes data interpretation easier.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:

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(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: To derive meaning and answer questions from a
table graph, it's essential to understand the row and column
headers and to scan data across both dimensions to find relationships.
● Statement II is false: A large or dense table graph with too many
rows and columns can actually make data more complex and
harder to interpret, not easier.

3. Assertion (A): Table graphs are ideal for presenting precise

numerical information.
Reason (R): Table graphs have low visual appeal and can be difficult to
immediately discern trends or patterns.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Assertion (A) is true: Table graphs are excellent at presenting
numerical data with high precision.
● Reason (R) is true: Table graphs are often less visual than graphical
representations (like line or bar graphs), making it harder to quickly
identify trends or patterns in large datasets.
● Not a correct explanation: Reason (R) does not explain Assertion

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(A). Assertion (A) states a strength of tables, while Reason (R) states a
limitation. Both are true but one doesn't explain the other.

4. A company's sales data (in thousands) is given below:

Month Product A Product B
January 12 18

February 15 20

March 10 22

What percentage of Product B's sales in January was Product A's sales in
March?
(A) 55.56%
(B) 60.00%
(C) 66.67%
(D) 75.00%
Correct Answer: (A)
● Identify values: Sales of Product A in March = 10 (thousands). Sales
of Product B in January = 18 (thousands).
● Percentage Calculation: We need to find what percentage 10 is of
18.
● (10/18)×100%
● $(5 / 9) \times 100\% = 0.5555... \times 100\% = \textbf{55.56%
(approximately)}$.

5. Which of the following challenges is often encountered when

solving large and complex table graphs?
(A) Difficulty in precisely identifying each specific data point.
(B) Time consumption in finding the correct rows and columns for required
calculations.
(C) No challenge in calculating averages or ratios inherent in the table.

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(D) Ease of presenting data visually directly.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Primary Challenge: In large and complex tables, especially with
many rows and columns, it can be quite time-consuming to locate
and extract the correct data points for the required calculations.
● This process can also be prone to errors if not done carefully.
● Option (A) is generally not a challenge as tables provide precise values.
Option (C) is incorrect as calculations can indeed be challenging.
Option (D) is incorrect because tables are not ideal for direct visual
presentation of trends.

Topic 2: Data Interpretation - Types, Skills & Strategies

1. Which of the following data representation types is most suitable

for depicting trends over time?
(A) Pie Chart
(B) Bar Graph
(C) Line Graph
(D) Table
Correct Answer: (C)
● Line Graph: Line graphs are most effective for representing time-
series data and showing trends or changes in data points over
different periods.
● Pie Chart: Pie charts are used to show proportions or parts of a
whole.
● Bar Graph: Bar graphs are used for comparing categories.
● Table: A table presents data in an organized manner but is not as
visually effective as a line graph for showing trends directly.

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2. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Understanding the concepts of percentages and ratios is
essential for solving Data Interpretation questions.
Statement II: It is always necessary to use complex calculus methods for
calculations in DI questions.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: DI questions frequently involve calculating
percentages, ratios, averages, and increases/decreases from data,
making a solid understanding of these concepts crucial.
● Statement II is false: DI questions in UGC NET are typically based
on basic arithmetic (addition, subtraction, multiplication,
division), percentages, ratios, and averages. The use of complex
calculus methods is not required.

3. Match List I with List II regarding the skills required to solve

Data Interpretation questions effectively:
List I (Skill) List II (Description)
(a) Numerical (i) Ability to identify relationships between different
Ability parts of data
(b) Analytical (ii) Ability to comprehend and explain the given data
Ability
(c) Logical (iii) Ability to perform calculations like percentages,
Reasoning ratios, and averages accurately

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(d) Data (iv) Ability to deduce hidden patterns and underlying
Interpretation meanings
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Numerical Ability (iii): This involves basic mathematical
calculations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division,
percentages, ratios, and averages.
● (b) Analytical Ability (i): This refers to the ability to break down
and understand relationships and comparisons between different
parts of the data.
● (c) Logical Reasoning (iv): This involves thinking logically to draw
conclusions, understand patterns, and avoid misinterpretations
from the data.
● (d) Data Interpretation (ii): This is the overall ability to
comprehend the given data and articulate its implications.

4. Assertion (A): Data Interpretation questions in UGC NET often

involve calculations of percentage increase or decrease.
Reason (R): To calculate percentage increase/decrease, we only need the
initial value, not the final value.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: Percentage increase/decrease calculations are
very common in UGC NET DI as they are crucial for understanding
changes over time or between different categories.
● Reason (R) is false: To calculate percentage increase or decrease, we
need both the initial value (original value) AND the final value.
The formula is: (Final Value−Initial Value)/Initial Value×100.

5. Which of the following is an effective strategy while solving a

Data Interpretation set?
(A) Calculating every data point in all tables/graphs thoroughly before
reading the questions.
(B) Relying entirely on mental calculations to solve all questions
simultaneously.
(C) Quickly overviewing the data to understand the main trends and
patterns before reading each question.
(D) Abandoning the entire set if one calculation goes wrong.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Quick Overview: Taking a quick overview of the data set before
attempting questions, understanding the main trends,
maximum/minimum values, and patterns, is highly beneficial.
● This helps you locate the information needed to answer questions
and saves time.
● Other options describe inefficient or inappropriate strategies that can
waste time or lead to errors.

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Unit 8: Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

Topic 1: Malware (Spyware, Trojan Horse, Types of Malware)

1. Which type of malware is designed to secretly collect information

about a user's computer activities (such as Browse history and
keystrokes) and send it to an attacker?
(A) Virus
(B) Worm
(C) Spyware
(D) Ransomware
Correct Answer: (C)
● Spyware: This malware is specifically created to monitor and
collect data about a user's activities without their knowledge or
consent.
● It often tracks Browse habits, email addresses, and sensitive
information like passwords.
● Unlike viruses or worms, it might not directly cause damage to the
system but focuses on information theft.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A Trojan Horse malware often disguises itself as legitimate
software to trick users into installing it.
Statement II: Once a Trojan Horse is installed, it typically replicates itself
across the network.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

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(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Trojan Horses are known for their deceptive
nature, appearing as harmless or useful programs to entice users to
download and execute them.
● Statement II is false: A key characteristic of Trojan Horses is that
they do not self-replicate (unlike viruses or worms). They rely on
user deception for initial infection.

3. Match List I with List II regarding types of malware:

List I (Malware List II (Primary Function/Characteristic)
Type)
(a) Virus (i) Self-replicates and spreads across networks without
human intervention
(b) Worm (ii) Encrypts user data and demands payment for
decryption key
(c) Ransomware (iii) Attaches itself to legitimate programs and requires
execution to spread
(d) Adware (iv) Automatically delivers unwanted advertisements to
the user
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Virus (iii): A virus requires a host program and user action
(execution) to spread and infect other files.
● (b) Worm (i): Worms are self-replicating and can spread

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independently across computer networks without human intervention.
● (c) Ransomware (ii): This malware type encrypts a victim's files
and demands a ransom payment, usually in cryptocurrency, for their
release.
● (d) Adware (iv): Adware is software that automatically displays or
downloads advertising material (pop-ups, banners) onto a user's
computer.

4. Assertion (A): Antivirus software is crucial for protecting

computers from malware.
Reason (R): Malware can cause data loss, system damage, and privacy
breaches.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Antivirus software plays a vital role in
detecting, preventing, and removing malware.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) directly explains why antivirus
software is crucial (Assertion A) – because malware poses significant
threats like data loss, system damage, and privacy breaches, thus
necessitating protective measures.

5. Which of the following is a common symptom of a computer

infected with malware?
(A) Increased system speed.
(B) Unexpected pop-up advertisements.

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(C) Reduced hard drive usage.
(D) Inability to connect to the internet.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Unexpected Pop-ups: One very common sign of malware, especially
adware or certain types of spyware, is the frequent appearance of
unwanted pop-up advertisements.
● Other symptoms: Malware typically causes decreased system
speed, increased hard drive usage (due to hidden files or processes),
and can lead to various network issues including inability to connect
to the internet.

Topic 2: Properties of E-governance Tools / Electronic Devices

1. Which of the following is a key characteristic of effective e-

governance tools?
(A) Lack of transparency
(B) High cost of access for citizens
(C) User-friendliness and accessibility
(D) Limited scope for public participation
Correct Answer: (C)
● User-friendliness: Effective e-governance tools must be intuitive
and easy for citizens to use, regardless of their technical
proficiency.
● Accessibility: They should be accessible to all citizens, including
those with disabilities or limited internet access, promoting inclusivity.
● Transparency and Participation: Good e-governance aims to
increase transparency and promote public participation, not limit
them, and should ideally be cost-effective for citizens.

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2. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Digital signatures are primarily used in e-governance for
ensuring the authenticity and integrity of electronic documents.
Statement II: Biometric devices are primarily output devices used for
displaying information.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Digital signatures use cryptography to provide
a secure and legally valid way to verify the authenticity (origin) and
integrity (unchanged content) of electronic documents.
● Statement II is false: Biometric devices (e.g., fingerprint scanners,
facial recognition) are input devices used for identity verification by
capturing unique biological or behavioral characteristics. Output
devices display information.

3. Match List I with List II regarding electronic devices and their

primary function:
List I (Electronic List II (Primary Function)
Device)
(a) Scanner (i) Converts digital information into a printed
copy
(b) Printer (ii) Converts physical documents or images into
digital data

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(c) Router (iii) Acts as an input device for moving a cursor
on a screen
(d) Mouse (iv) Forwards data packets between computer
networks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Scanner (ii): An input device that captures images or text from
physical documents and converts them into digital data.
● (b) Printer (i): An output device that takes digital data from a
computer and generates a hard copy (printed document).
● (c) Router (iv): A network device that forwards data packets
between different computer networks, enabling internet connectivity.
● (d) Mouse (iii): A handheld input device that detects two-
dimensional motion relative to a surface, used to control the cursor on
a graphical user interface.

4. Assertion (A): E-governance initiatives can enhance transparency

in public administration.
Reason (R): By making government information and services accessible
online, corruption opportunities are reduced.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

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Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: E-governance aims to improve public
services and governance efficiency.
● Correct explanation: By facilitating online access to information
and services, e-governance reduces the need for physical interaction,
which in turn reduces discretion and opportunities for
corruption, thereby enhancing transparency.

5. Which of the following is a primary benefit of using electronic

devices in educational settings?
(A) Increased reliance on traditional teaching methods.
(B) Limited access to global learning resources.
(C) Enhanced interactivity and personalized learning experiences.
(D) Reduction in student-teacher interaction.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Enhanced Interactivity: Electronic devices (computers, tablets,
smartboards) facilitate interactive learning through multimedia
content, simulations, and educational apps.
● Personalized Learning: They enable adaptive learning paths,
allowing students to learn at their own pace and according to their
individual needs.
● These devices also provide access to vast global learning resources
and can actually enhance student-teacher interaction through
collaborative tools.

Topic 3: Network Topology (Mesh Topology)

1. In which network topology is every device directly connected to

every other device in the network?

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(A) Star Topology
(B) Bus Topology
(C) Ring Topology
(D) Mesh Topology
Correct Answer: (D)
● Mesh Topology: In a full mesh topology, every single device
(node) in the network is directly connected to every other device.
● This creates a highly redundant and fault-tolerant network.
● Other topologies (Star, Bus, Ring) have different connection patterns
that do not involve every device connecting to every other.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A key advantage of Mesh Topology is its high fault tolerance; if
one link fails, data can still find an alternative path.
Statement II: Mesh Topology is generally the least expensive network
topology to implement due to minimal cabling requirements.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The redundant connections in a mesh topology
provide high fault tolerance. If one communication path fails, there
are typically multiple other paths for data to take.
● Statement II is false: Mesh Topology is generally the most
expensive network topology to implement, especially a full mesh,
due to the extensive cabling and numerous connection ports
required for every node to connect to every other node.

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3. Match List I with List II regarding different network topologies

and their characteristics:
List I (Network List II (Characteristic)
Topology)
(a) Star Topology (i) All devices share a single common cable

(b) Bus Topology (ii) Data travels in one direction around a circular
path
(c) Ring Topology (iii) All devices connect to a central hub/switch

(d) Mesh Topology (iv) Provides dedicated point-to-point links

between all devices
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Star Topology (iii): All devices are connected to a central hub
or switch.
● (b) Bus Topology (i): All devices share a single common
communication line or backbone cable.
● (c) Ring Topology (ii): Devices are connected in a circular chain,
and data travels around the ring, typically in one direction.
● (d) Mesh Topology (iv): Provides dedicated, point-to-point
connections between every device in the network.

4. Assertion (A): Mesh topology is often preferred in critical

network environments like power plants or defense systems.

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Reason (R): Its high redundancy ensures that the network remains
operational even if multiple communication links fail.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Mesh topology's reliability is highly
valued in environments where network downtime is unacceptable.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) directly explains why Mesh
topology is preferred in critical environments (Assertion A) – its high
redundancy and multiple paths ensure continuous operation even
in case of failures.

5. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of implementing

a full mesh network topology?
(A) Central point of failure.
(B) High cabling cost and complexity.
(C) Difficulty in adding new devices.
(D) Data collision due to shared medium.
Correct Answer: (B)
● High Cost and Complexity: The primary disadvantage of a full
mesh topology is the significant amount of cabling required (n(n-
1)/2 connections for n devices) and the resulting installation and
management complexity, leading to high costs.
● A central point of failure (A) is characteristic of a star topology.
Difficulty in adding new devices (C) can be true for ring/bus, but

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mesh usually is structured well for it once the initial complexity is
dealt with. Data collision (D) is common in bus topology.

Topic 4: ICT Tools and Memory

1. Which of the following is an example of an application software?

(A) Operating System (e.g., Windows)
(B) Device Driver
(C) Web Browser (e.g., Chrome)
(D) Firmware
Correct Answer: (C)
● Application Software: This is a type of computer program that
performs a specific task or set of tasks for an end-user.
● Web browsers are designed for Browse the internet, fulfilling a
specific user need.
● Operating Systems, Device Drivers, and Firmware are types of system
software, essential for the computer's basic functioning.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: RAM (Random Access Memory) is a type of volatile memory,
meaning its contents are lost when the power is turned off.
Statement II: ROM (Read-Only Memory) is primarily used for storing the
operating system of a computer.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)

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● Statement I is true: RAM is volatile memory, meaning it requires
power to maintain the stored information. When the computer is shut
down, the data in RAM is cleared.
● Statement II is false: ROM is non-volatile and stores essential
boot-up instructions (like BIOS/UEFI firmware), not the entire
operating system. The operating system is stored on a non-volatile
secondary storage device (like an SSD or HDD).

3. Match List I with List II regarding types of computer memory:

List I (Memory List II (Characteristic/Use)
Type)
(a) Primary (i) Stores data permanently even without power;
Memory slower than RAM
(b) Secondary (ii) Volatile; faster than secondary memory; directly
Memory accessible by CPU
(c) RAM (iii) Non-volatile; stores boot-up instructions and
firmware
(d) ROM (iv) Includes RAM and Cache memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Primary Memory (iv): This category includes internal memory
directly accessible by the CPU, such as RAM and Cache memory.
● (b) Secondary Memory (i): This is non-volatile storage (like HDDs,
SSDs, USB drives) that stores data permanently and is slower than
primary memory.

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● (c) RAM (ii): Random Access Memory is volatile, used for active
data and programs, and is faster than secondary memory, directly
accessed by the CPU.
● (d) ROM (iii): Read-Only Memory is non-volatile and typically
stores basic input/output system (BIOS/UEFI) or firmware
instructions needed for startup.

4. Assertion (A): ICT tools have significantly transformed teaching

and learning processes.
Reason (R): They provide access to vast information resources and facilitate
interactive learning experiences.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: ICT tools (like computers, internet,
multimedia) have indeed revolutionized education.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) correctly explains why ICT tools
have transformed education (Assertion A) – by providing
unprecedented access to information and enabling interactive
and engaging learning environments.

5. Which of the following is a volatile memory?

(A) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
(B) Solid State Drive (SSD)
(C) Read Only Memory (ROM)

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(D) Random Access Memory (RAM)
Correct Answer: (D)
● Volatile Memory: RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile; its
contents are lost when the computer's power is turned off. It's used for
temporary storage of data that the CPU is actively using.
● Non-volatile Memory: HDD, SSD, and ROM are types of non-
volatile memory, meaning they retain their data even without power.

Topic 5: Number System Conversion

1. Convert the decimal number 25 to its binary equivalent.

(A) 11001
(B) 10101
(C) 11010
(D) 10011
Correct Answer: (A)
● Decimal to Binary Conversion (Division by 2 method):
○ 25 / 2 = 12 R 1
○ 12 / 2 = 6 R 0
○ 6/2=3R0
○ 3/2=1R1
○ 1/2=0R1
● Read remainders upwards: The binary equivalent is 11001.

2. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10110?

(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23
Correct Answer: (C)

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● Binary to Decimal Conversion (Positional Value method):
○ 101102=(1×24)+(0×23)+(1×22)+(1×21)+(0×20)
○ =(1×16)+(0×8)+(1×4)+(1×2)+(0×1)
○ =16+0+4+2+0=22.

3. Convert the decimal number 47 to its hexadecimal (base-16)

equivalent.
(A) 2F
(B) 3A
(C) 1B
(D) 2B
Correct Answer: (2F)
● Decimal to Hexadecimal Conversion (Division by 16 method):
○ 47 / 16 = 2 Remainder 15
○ In hexadecimal, 15 is represented by 'F'.
○ 2 / 16 = 0 Remainder 2
● Read remainders upwards: The hexadecimal equivalent is 2F.

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The base of the hexadecimal number system is 16, and it uses
digits 0-9 and letters A-F.
Statement II: To convert a binary number to an octal number, you group
binary digits into sets of four, starting from the right.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)

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● Statement I is true: The hexadecimal system (base-16) uses 16
distinct symbols: 0-9 for values zero to nine, and A-F for values ten to
fifteen.
● Statement II is false: To convert a binary number to an octal
number (base-8), you group binary digits into sets of three, not four,
starting from the right. Grouping into sets of four is for converting
binary to hexadecimal.

5. What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number 'A5'?

(A) 10100101
(B) 10110101
(C) 10010100
(D) 10101010
Correct Answer: (A)
● Hexadecimal to Binary Conversion (Each hex digit to 4 binary
digits):
○ Hexadecimal 'A' corresponds to decimal 10. In binary (4 bits), 10
is 1010.
○ Hexadecimal '5' corresponds to decimal 5. In binary (4 bits), 5 is
0101.
● Combine the binary equivalents: Combining '1010' and '0101' gives
10100101.

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Unit 9: People, Development and Environment

Topic 1: Water Treatment (Activated Carbon, Chlorination,

Aeration, Flocculation)

1. Which of the following water treatment processes is primarily

used for the removal of odors and organic compounds from water?
(A) Chlorination
(B) Flocculation
(C) Aeration
(D) Activated Carbon Adsorption
Correct Answer: (D)
● Activated Carbon Adsorption: Activated carbon has a highly
porous structure, making it very effective at adsorbing organic
compounds, tastes, and odors from water.
● Chlorination: Primarily for disinfection.
● Flocculation: Used for removing suspended solids by making
them clump together.
● Aeration: Used for oxidizing iron, manganese, and removing
dissolved gases like hydrogen sulfide.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Chlorination is a widely used method for disinfection in
municipal water supply systems.
Statement II: The primary purpose of chlorination in water treatment is to
remove suspended impurities.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Chlorination is highly effective at killing
bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms in water, making it
safe for consumption.
● Statement II is false: The primary purpose of chlorination is
disinfection, not the removal of suspended impurities. Suspended
impurities are typically removed by processes like coagulation,
flocculation, and sedimentation.

3. Match List I (Water Treatment Process) with List II (Primary

Function):
List I (Water Treatment List II (Primary Function)
Process)
(a) Aeration (i) Removing suspended particles by forming
larger flocs
(b) Flocculation (ii) Killing microorganisms and preventing
waterborne diseases
(c) Chlorination (iii) Removing dissolved gases and oxidizing
metals like iron
(d) Sedimentation (iv) Settling down of heavier suspended
particles by gravity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

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Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Aeration (iii): Involves exposing water to air to remove
dissolved gases (like H2S) and oxidize dissolved metals.
● (b) Flocculation (i): A process where small suspended particles in
water clump together to form larger flocs for easier removal.
● (c) Chlorination (ii): The process of adding chlorine to water for
disinfection to kill harmful bacteria and viruses.
● (d) Sedimentation (iv): The process where heavier suspended
particles settle down at the bottom of a tank due to gravity, often
after coagulation/flocculation.

4. Assertion (A): Activated carbon is often used as a final polishing

step in drinking water treatment.
Reason (R): It can effectively remove chlorine residuals, improving the taste
and odor of water.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Activated carbon is excellent at
removing various dissolved impurities.
● Correct explanation: Activated carbon is specifically used to
remove remaining chlorine and its byproducts, which can cause
unpleasant tastes and odors in treated water, thereby acting as a
polishing step that improves the final aesthetic quality of drinking
water.

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5. Which of the following is a potential drawback of using chlorine

for water disinfection?
(A) It is ineffective against most common bacteria.
(B) It forms harmful disinfection byproducts (DBPs) like trihalomethanes.
(C) It does not provide residual disinfection in the distribution system.
(D) It is an extremely expensive method for large-scale application.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Disinfection Byproducts (DBPs): A major concern with
chlorination is the potential for chlorine to react with naturally
occurring organic matter in water to form harmful disinfection
byproducts (DBPs), such as trihalomethanes (THMs).
● It is highly effective (A is false), it does provide residual disinfection (C
is false), and it is relatively cost-effective for large scale (D is false).

Topic 2: Air Pollution Control (Electrostatic Precipitator, etc.)

1. Which air pollution control device is commonly used to remove

fine particulate matter from industrial exhaust gases by using an
electric charge?
(A) Cyclone Separator
(B) Bag Filter
(C) Wet Scrubber
(D) Electrostatic Precipitator
Correct Answer: (D)
● Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP): An ESP uses electrostatic forces
to separate particulate matter (like dust, ash, smoke) from a gas
stream.
● Particles are given an electric charge, then attracted to oppositely

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charged plates, where they are collected.
● ESPs are highly efficient for removing very fine particulate matter.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) systems are primarily used to
control sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions from power plants.
Statement II: Catalytic converters are mainly employed to reduce nitrogen
oxides (NOx) emissions from industrial facilities.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) is a well-
established technology designed to remove sulfur dioxide (SO2) from
the exhaust flue gases of fossil fuel power plants.
● Statement II is false: Catalytic converters are primarily used in
automobiles to reduce harmful emissions like NOx, carbon
monoxide (CO), and unburnt hydrocarbons, not typically for large
industrial facilities.

3. Match List I (Air Pollutant) with List II (Primary Control

Technology):
List I (Air Pollutant) List II (Primary Control
Technology)
(a) Particulate Matter (i) Selective Catalytic Reduction
(SCR)

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(b) Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) (ii) Bag Filters / Electrostatic
Precipitators
(c) Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) (iii) Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD)

(d) Volatile Organic Compounds (iv) Thermal Oxidizers / Adsorption

(VOCs)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Particulate Matter (ii): Controlled using devices like Bag Filters
(fabric filters) or Electrostatic Precipitators.
● (b) Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) (iii): Primarily controlled by Flue Gas
Desulfurization (FGD) systems.
● (c) Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) (i): Controlled by technologies like
Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) or Low NOx burners.
● (d) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) (iv): Controlled using
technologies such as Thermal Oxidizers (combustion) or
Adsorption (using activated carbon).

4. Assertion (A): Air pollution control devices are essential for

mitigating the harmful effects of industrial emissions.
Reason (R): Industrial emissions contain various pollutants like particulate
matter, sulfur dioxide, and nitrogen oxides, which severely impact human
health and the environment.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

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(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Air pollution control devices are indeed
critical for environmental protection.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) accurately explains why these
devices are essential (Assertion A) by highlighting the toxic nature
and environmental impact of the pollutants released from
industrial sources.

5. Which of the following air pollutants is primarily responsible for

the formation of acid rain?
(A) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
(B) Lead (Pb)
(C) Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen Oxides (NOx)
(D) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
Correct Answer: (C)
● Acid Rain Precursors: Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen
Oxides (NOx) are the primary precursors to acid rain.
● These gases react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals in the
atmosphere to form sulfuric acid and nitric acid, which fall to the
Earth as acid rain.
● Carbon Monoxide is a toxic gas, Lead is a heavy metal, and VOCs
contribute to ground-level ozone.

Topic 3: Global Warming (Carbon Dioxide)

1. Which gas is considered the most significant contributor to

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anthropogenic (human-caused) global warming due to its high
concentration and long atmospheric lifetime?
(A) Methane (CH4)
(B) Nitrous Oxide (N2O)
(C) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
(D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Correct Answer: (C)
● Carbon Dioxide (CO2): Although other greenhouse gases have
higher global warming potentials per molecule, carbon dioxide is the
most significant contributor to anthropogenic global warming
due to the sheer volume of its emissions from fossil fuel burning and
deforestation, and its long residence time in the atmosphere.
● Methane and Nitrous Oxide are also potent greenhouse gases, and
CFCs were once a major concern but are now largely phased out.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the
Earth's surface.
Statement II: Human activities have enhanced the natural greenhouse effect
by increasing the concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Statement I is true: The greenhouse effect is a natural
phenomenon essential for life on Earth, as it traps some of the sun's
heat, keeping the planet warm enough.

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● Statement II is true: Human activities (like burning fossil fuels,
deforestation) have significantly increased the atmospheric
concentrations of greenhouse gases, leading to an enhanced
greenhouse effect and thus global warming.

3. Match List I (Greenhouse Gas Source) with List II (Primary Gas

Emitted):
List I (Greenhouse Gas Source) List II (Primary Gas Emitted)
(a) Burning of Fossil Fuels (i) Methane (CH4)

(b) Livestock Farming (ii) Nitrous Oxide (N2O)

(c) Agricultural Fertilizers (iii) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

(d) Refrigerants (older) (iv) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Burning of Fossil Fuels (iii): The primary source of Carbon
Dioxide (CO2) emissions.
● (b) Livestock Farming (i): A major source of Methane (CH4)
emissions (e.g., enteric fermentation in cattle).
● (c) Agricultural Fertilizers (ii): The use of synthetic nitrogen
fertilizers in agriculture is a significant source of Nitrous Oxide (N2
O) emissions.
● (d) Refrigerants (older) (iv): Older refrigerants and aerosols were
major sources of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), though these are

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now largely banned.

4. Assertion (A): Reducing carbon dioxide emissions is crucial for mitigating

global warming.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is the most potent greenhouse gas on a per-
molecule basis.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: Reducing CO2 emissions is indeed central to
climate change mitigation efforts due to its large volume and long
atmospheric lifetime.
● Reason (R) is false: While CO2 is the most significant contributor to
global warming overall, it is not the most potent greenhouse gas
on a per-molecule basis. Gases like methane, nitrous oxide, and
especially fluorinated gases (HFCs, PFCs, SF6) have a much higher
global warming potential per molecule than CO2.

5. Which of the following human activities is the largest source of

anthropogenic carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions?
(A) Agriculture and livestock farming.
(B) Industrial processes (e.g., cement production).
(C) Deforestation and land-use change.
(D) Burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas).
Correct Answer: (D)
● Fossil Fuel Combustion: The burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and

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natural gas) for electricity, heat, transportation, and industry is by far
the largest source of anthropogenic carbon dioxide emissions.
● Deforestation also contributes significantly by releasing stored carbon,
but fossil fuel burning dominates.

Topic 4: Ozone Layer (Stratosphere, Montreal Protocol)

1. In which atmospheric layer is the Earth's protective ozone layer

primarily located?
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere
Correct Answer: (B)
● Stratosphere: The ozone layer (O3) is predominantly found in the
stratosphere, an atmospheric layer extending roughly 10 to 50
kilometers above Earth's surface.
● This stratospheric ozone plays a crucial role in absorbing most of the
Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
● The troposphere is the lowest layer where weather occurs.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to
protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous ozone-
depleting substances (ODS).
Statement II: Ozone depletion primarily causes a decrease in global
temperatures, leading to a cooling effect.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The Montreal Protocol (1987) is highly
successful in achieving its goal of phasing out ozone-depleting
substances (ODS) like CFCs and halons.
● Statement II is false: Ozone depletion primarily leads to an increase
in harmful UV radiation reaching Earth's surface, which can
cause skin cancer, cataracts, and harm ecosystems. While some ODS
are also greenhouse gases, ozone depletion itself is not the primary
driver of global cooling.

3. Match List I (Ozone-Depleting Substance - ODS) with List II

(Common Use/Source):
List I (ODS) List II (Common Use/Source)
(a) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) (i) Fire extinguishers

(b) Halons (ii) Agricultural fumigant

(c) Methyl Bromide (iii) Aerosol propellants and refrigerants

(d) Carbon Tetrachloride (iv) Industrial solvent and feedstock

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) (iii): Widely used as refrigerants,
aerosol propellants, and in foam blowing prior to the Montreal

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Protocol.
● (b) Halons (i): Primarily used in fire extinguishers for their
effective fire suppression properties.
● (c) Methyl Bromide (ii): An ozone-depleting substance mainly used
as an agricultural fumigant (to control pests in soil and crops).
● (d) Carbon Tetrachloride (iv): Used as an industrial solvent and
as a feedstock in the production of other chemicals.

4. Assertion (A): The ozone layer is vital for protecting life on

Earth.
Reason (R): It absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from
the Sun.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: The ozone layer indeed plays a critical
protective role.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) directly explains why the ozone
layer is vital (Assertion A) – by absorbing the majority of
biologically damaging UV radiation, which would otherwise reach
the Earth's surface and cause severe harm to living organisms.

5. Which of the following is an effect of ozone layer depletion on

human health?
(A) Reduced risk of skin cancer.

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(B) Increased incidence of cataracts.
(C) Enhanced immune system response.
(D) Lower risk of sunburn.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Increased UV Radiation: Ozone layer depletion leads to more
harmful UV-B radiation reaching the Earth's surface.
● Health Impacts: Increased UV-B exposure is linked to a higher
incidence of skin cancer, premature aging of the skin, and cataracts
(clouding of the eye lens). It also suppresses the immune system.

Topic 5: Disasters (Chernobyl, etc.)

1. Which of the following is widely recognized as the worst nuclear

power plant disaster in history, resulting in widespread radioactive
contamination?
(A) Three Mile Island accident
(B) Fukushima Daiichi disaster
(C) Chernobyl disaster
(D) Kyshtym disaster
Correct Answer: (C)
● Chernobyl Disaster (1986): The Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant
disaster in Ukraine (then Soviet Union) is considered the most severe
nuclear accident in history.
● It resulted in a massive release of radioactive materials into the
atmosphere, causing widespread contamination and long-term health
effects.
● Fukushima (2011) was also severe but Chernobyl remains the
benchmark for severity.

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2. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Natural disasters like earthquakes and floods can often be
predicted with high accuracy days in advance.
Statement II: Disaster risk reduction involves strategies to lessen the severity
and impact of hazards.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Statement I is false: While some natural disasters (like
hurricanes/cyclones) can be predicted days in advance, others, like
earthquakes, are notoriously difficult to predict with high
accuracy in terms of precise timing and location. Floods can often be
predicted with some lead time, but not always days in advance with
high accuracy.
● Statement II is true: Disaster risk reduction (DRR) encompasses
a wide range of actions, policies, and measures taken to reduce the
exposure of people and assets to hazards, lessen their vulnerability, and
improve preparedness for adverse events.

3. Match List I (Type of Disaster) with List II (Example):

List I (Type of List II (Example)
Disaster)
(a) Hydrological Disaster (i) The 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami

(b) Geological Disaster (ii) A massive wildfire spreading across a forest

area

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(c) Climatological (iii) The 2011 Christchurch Earthquake in New
Disaster Zealand
(d) Biological Disaster (iv) A widespread epidemic like COVID-19

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Hydrological Disaster (i): Related to water. The Indian Ocean
Tsunami was caused by an underwater earthquake, leading to massive
displacement of water.
● (b) Geological Disaster (iii): Related to Earth's processes.
Earthquakes are prime examples of geological disasters.
● (c) Climatological Disaster (ii): Related to climate and weather
patterns. Wildfires are often exacerbated by hot, dry climatic
conditions.
● (d) Biological Disaster (iv): Caused by living organisms. Epidemics
and pandemics are large-scale outbreaks of diseases.

4. Assertion (A): Disaster preparedness is a crucial component of

effective disaster management.
Reason (R): It involves developing plans and capabilities to respond
effectively to disasters, minimizing loss of life and property.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

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(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Disaster preparedness is indeed a
cornerstone of effective disaster management.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) accurately explains why
preparedness is crucial (Assertion A) – by focusing on proactive
planning and capacity building to ensure a swift and effective
response, which directly aims to minimize the negative impacts of
disasters.

5. Which of the following types of disasters is primarily human-

made?
(A) Tsunami
(B) Cyclone
(C) Industrial chemical leak
(D) Volcano eruption
Correct Answer: (C)
● Human-made Disaster: An industrial chemical leak is a disaster
caused by human error, technological failure, or negligence in
industrial operations.
● Tsunami, Cyclone, and Volcano eruption are all natural disasters.

Topic 6: International Agreements (Kyoto Protocol, Montreal

Protocol)

1. The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits State

Parties to:
(A) Phase out ozone-depleting substances.
(B) Reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

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(C) Protect biodiversity.
(D) Control transboundary movement of hazardous wastes.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Kyoto Protocol (1997): This international treaty committed
industrialized countries and economies in transition to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
● It set binding emission reduction targets for developed countries.
● Phasing out ODS relates to the Montreal Protocol, protecting
biodiversity to the CBD, and hazardous wastes to the Basel
Convention.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Montreal Protocol is considered one of the most successful
international environmental agreements.
Statement II: It primarily addresses climate change by setting targets for
reducing carbon dioxide emissions.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The Montreal Protocol (1987) has been highly
successful in phasing out ozone-depleting substances, leading to the
recovery of the ozone layer.
● Statement II is false: The Montreal Protocol's primary focus is on
ozone layer protection by phasing out ODS. Climate change
mitigation and carbon dioxide emission reduction are the
primary goals of the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement.

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3. Match List I (International Environmental Agreement) with List

II (Primary Focus):
List I (Agreement) List II (Primary Focus)
(a) Convention on Biological (i) Climate change mitigation and emission
Diversity (CBD) reductions
(b) Kyoto Protocol (ii) Protection of the ozone layer

(c) Montreal Protocol (iii) Conservation of biological diversity and

sustainable use of its components
(d) Paris Agreement (iv) Global action on climate change,
including adaptation and finance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) (iii): Focuses on
the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its
components, and fair and equitable sharing of benefits.
● (b) Kyoto Protocol (i): An international treaty that sets binding
emission reduction targets for industrialized countries to address
climate change.
● (c) Montreal Protocol (ii): A landmark agreement for the
protection of the ozone layer by phasing out ozone-depleting
substances.
● (d) Paris Agreement (iv): A global agreement within the UNFCCC,
dealing with greenhouse gas emissions mitigation, adaptation,

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and finance, starting in the year 2020.

4. Assertion (A): International environmental agreements are crucial

for addressing global environmental challenges.
Reason (R): Many environmental problems transcend national borders and
require coordinated action among countries.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: International cooperation is indeed vital
for tackling environmental issues.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) accurately explains why
international agreements are crucial (Assertion A) – because
environmental problems like climate change and ozone depletion are
transboundary and their solutions necessitate collective and
coordinated global efforts.

5. Which of the following is a major criticism often leveled against

international environmental agreements?
(A) They are too strict and hinder economic development.
(B) They often lack effective enforcement mechanisms.
(C) They are too fast in achieving their targets.
(D) They involve too many countries, making decision-making easy.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Lack of Enforcement: A frequent criticism is that international

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environmental agreements, while setting ambitious goals, often lack
strong and binding enforcement mechanisms, making
compliance voluntary or difficult to compel.
● Option (A) is a common argument by some industries or developing
nations, but not a universal criticism of the agreements' effectiveness.
Options (C) and (D) are generally false; achieving targets is often slow,
and decision-making with many countries is complex.

Topic 7: Environmental Acts (Indian context relevant)

1. The Environment (Protection) Act in India was enacted in which

year?
(A) 1972
(B) 1986
(C) 1992
(D) 2002
Correct Answer: (B)
● Environment (Protection) Act, 1986: This comprehensive
umbrella legislation was enacted by the Parliament of India in 1986.
● It was a response to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy and provides for the
protection and improvement of the environment.
● 1972 is the year of the Wildlife (Protection) Act.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974,
aims to prevent and control water pollution and maintain the
wholesomeness of water.
Statement II: The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981,
established central and state pollution control boards.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from

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the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (A)
● Statement I is true: The Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act of 1974 is specifically designed to address water
pollution issues in India.
● Statement II is true: The Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act of 1981 was enacted to provide for the prevention,
control, and abatement of air pollution, and it indeed established the
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control
Boards (SPCBs).

3. Match List I (Environmental Act in India) with List II (Primary

Objective):
List I (Environmental Act) List II (Primary Objective)
(a) Wildlife (Protection) Act (i) Prevention and control of
pollution of air
(b) Water (Prevention and Control of (ii) Regulation of hazardous
Pollution) Act wastes and their management
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of (iii) Protection of wild animals,
Pollution) Act birds, and plants
(d) Hazardous Wastes (Management, (iv) Prevention and control of
Handling and Transboundary Movement) water pollution
Rules
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

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(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Wildlife (Protection) Act (iii): Enacted in 1972, its primary aim
is the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants.
● (b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (iv):
Enacted in 1974, it focuses on the prevention and control of water
pollution.
● (c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (i): Enacted in
1981, its primary objective is the prevention and control of air
pollution.
● (d) Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling and
Transboundary Movement) Rules (ii): These rules (first enacted in
1989, amended periodically) specifically deal with the regulation of
hazardous wastes.

4. Assertion (A): Environmental acts in India empower the central

government to take measures for environmental protection.
Reason (R): The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, is an umbrella
legislation designed to provide a framework for central government
coordination of various regulatory agencies and environmental protection
measures.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Correct Answer: (A)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: Indian environmental legislation,
particularly the EPA, grants broad powers to the central government.
● Correct explanation: Reason (R) accurately explains how the central
government is empowered (Assertion A) – the Environment
(Protection) Act of 1986 is a comprehensive act that provides the
central government with significant powers to coordinate, legislate,
and enforce measures for environmental protection.

5. Which of the following is a key objective of the National Green

Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010?
(A) To promote public participation in environmental decision-making.
(B) To establish a specialized judicial body for effective and expeditious
disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.
(C) To provide financial assistance for environmental conservation projects.
(D) To regulate the import and export of genetically modified organisms.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Specialized Judicial Body: The National Green Tribunal (NGT)
Act, 2010, was enacted to establish a specialized judicial body (the
National Green Tribunal).
● Expeditious Disposal: Its key objective is the effective and
expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection,
conservation of forests, and other natural resources.
● It ensures that environmental disputes are handled by experts in a
timely manner, which is crucial for environmental justice.

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Unit 10: Higher Education System

Topic 1: Commissions and Policies (Kothari, Yashpal, Macaulay
Minutes)

1. The Kothari Commission (1964-66) is widely known for

recommending what percentage of national income to be invested
in education?
(A) 4%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 7%
Correct Answer: (C)
● Key Recommendation: The Kothari Commission famously
recommended that 6% of India's national income should be
invested in education.
● Purpose: This was aimed at improving the quality and accessibility of
education in the country.
● Its report, "Education and National Development," was a landmark
document in Indian educational history.

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Macaulay's Minutes of 1835 advocated for the promotion of
oriental learning in India.
Statement II: It significantly influenced the adoption of English as the
medium of instruction in higher education in British India.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

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(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Statement I is false: Macaulay's Minutes of 1835 strongly
advocated for the promotion of Western education through the
English medium, rejecting oriental learning.
● Statement II is true: His recommendations were highly influential in
shaping the British educational policy in India, leading to the
widespread adoption of English as the medium of instruction in
higher education.

3. Match List I (Education Commission/Policy) with List II (Year of

Establishment/Publication):
List I (Education Commission/Policy) List II (Year)
(a) Kothari Commission (i) 1986

(b) National Policy on Education (ii) 2005

(c) National Curriculum Framework (iii) 1964-66

(d) Yashpal Committee Report (iv) 1993

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Kothari Commission (iii): Established in 1964 and submitted its
report in 1966.
● (b) National Policy on Education (i): The prominent NPE was

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formulated in 1986 (with amendments in 1992).
● (c) National Curriculum Framework (ii): NCF 2005 is the latest
in a series of national curriculum frameworks.
● (d) Yashpal Committee Report (iv): The report "Learning without
Burden" by the Yashpal Committee was published in 1993.

4. Assertion (A): The Yashpal Committee Report (1993) significantly

highlighted the issue of 'burden on students' in education.
Reason (R): The report recommended a drastic reduction in homework and
classroom teaching hours for all school levels.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: The Yashpal Committee's report
"Learning without Burden" (1993) explicitly focused on reducing
the academic burden on school children.
● Reason (R) is false: While it recommended reducing burden, it did
not suggest a drastic reduction in all homework and teaching hours.
Its emphasis was on making learning joyful, understanding-based, and
reducing rote learning, not merely cutting hours.

5. Which of the following recommendations is not typically

associated with the Kothari Commission (1964-66)?
(A) Common School System
(B) 10+2+3 pattern of education

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(C) Education for national development
(D) Emphasis on digitalization of higher education
Correct Answer: (D)
● Digitalization: While the Kothari Commission focused on
modernizing education, the emphasis on digitalization in higher
education is a much more recent development (late 20th and 21st
century) and was not a primary recommendation of the Kothari
Commission.
● Common School System, 10+2+3 pattern, and Education for
National Development were all key recommendations of the
Kothari Commission.

Topic 2: Higher Education Institutions (NKC, AICTE, NCTE,

UGC)

1. Which statutory body in India is primarily responsible for the

coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of
higher education?
(A) AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education)
(B) NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education)
(C) UGC (University Grants Commission)
(D) NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training)
Correct Answer: (C)
● UGC (University Grants Commission): The UGC is the apex
body responsible for the coordination, determination, and
maintenance of standards of university education in India.
● AICTE: Deals with technical education.
● NCTE: Deals with teacher education.
● NCERT: Focuses on school education curriculum and textbooks.

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2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established
with a focus on transforming India into a knowledge society.
Statement II: It primarily recommended setting up 100 new universities to
achieve a GER (Gross Enrolment Ratio) of 30% by 2020.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: The National Knowledge Commission
(NKC), chaired by Sam Pitroda (2005-2009), aimed at developing
strategies to make India a knowledge-based society.
● Statement II is false: The NKC recommended establishing 1500
new universities to address the target GER of 30% by 2020 (as
opposed to 100).

3. Match List I (Higher Education Institution/Body) with List II

(Primary Function):
List I List II (Primary Function)
(Institution/Body)

(a) AICTE (i) Regulation and maintenance of standards in

teacher education

(b) NCTE (ii) Development and promotion of a knowledge-

based society

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(c) NKC (iii) Planning and coordination of technical

education

(d) UGC (iv) Funding and coordination of university

education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) AICTE (iii): All India Council for Technical Education is
responsible for the planning, formulation, and maintenance of norms
and standards in technical education.
● (b) NCTE (i): National Council for Teacher Education is the
statutory body for regulating and maintaining standards in teacher
education.
● (c) NKC (ii): National Knowledge Commission focused on
promoting access to knowledge, innovation, and transforming India
into a knowledge-based society.
● (d) UGC (iv): University Grants Commission is responsible for
the funding and coordination of university education, and
maintaining its standards.

4. Assertion (A): The All India Council for Technical Education

(AICTE) is a statutory body established for proper planning and
coordinated development of technical education in the country.
Reason (R): AICTE primarily deals with the regulation of medical and legal
education.

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In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Assertion (A) is true: AICTE is indeed a statutory body
(established by an Act of Parliament in 1987) dedicated to the
planning and development of technical education.
● Reason (R) is false: AICTE's mandate is specifically for technical
education, not medical or legal education. These are regulated by
separate bodies (MCI/NMC for medical, BCI for legal).

5. The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) was

established with the primary objective of:
(A) Providing grants to universities for research.
(B) Maintaining standards of teacher education in India.
(C) Promoting distance education.
(D) Regulating medical colleges in India.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Primary Objective: The NCTE (established as a statutory body in
1995) has the primary objective of achieving planned and coordinated
development of the teacher education system throughout the
country.
● Standard Maintenance: It lays down norms and standards for various
teacher education programs and maintains standards for such
institutions.
● Options (A) relates to UGC, (C) is a broad educational initiative, and
(D) relates to medical councils.

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Topic 3: Educational Framework (NCF 2005, 'Learning without

Burden')

1. The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005 was primarily

developed by which organization?
(A) UGC (University Grants Commission)
(B) AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education)
(C) NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training)
(D) CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Education)
Correct Answer: (C)
● Developer: The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005
was developed by the NCERT (National Council of Educational
Research and Training).
● Role: NCERT is the apex body for curriculum development in school
education in India.
● Other organizations have different mandates (UGC for universities,
AICTE for technical education, CBSE as a board implementing
curricula).

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A key guiding principle of NCF 2005 is to connect knowledge
to life outside the school.
Statement II: The NCF 2005 strongly advocates for rote learning and
memorization as the primary methods of teaching.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

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(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Correct Answer: (C)
● Statement I is true: One of the five guiding principles of NCF 2005
is to connect knowledge to life outside the school, making
learning more relevant and meaningful.
● Statement II is false: NCF 2005 explicitly advocated for moving
away from rote learning and memorization, emphasizing
constructive learning, understanding, and application of knowledge.

3. Match List I (Key Principle of NCF 2005) with List II

(Explanation/Focus):
List I (Key Principle) List II (Explanation/Focus)
(a) Connecting knowledge to (i) Moving away from fragmented
life outside school knowledge and promoting hoListic
development
(b) Ensuring learning shifts (ii) Making exams more flexible and
away from rote methods integrating them with classroom life
(c) Enriching the curriculum (iii) Making learning relevant and contextual
beyond textbooks
(d) Making examinations (iv) Emphasizing understanding and
more flexible application over memorization
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer: (A)
● (a) Connecting knowledge to life outside school (iii): This
principle emphasizes making education relevant and contextual to

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students' real-world experiences.
● (b) Ensuring learning shifts away from rote methods (iv): This
core principle focuses on promoting understanding and application
of knowledge rather than mere memorization.
● (c) Enriching the curriculum beyond textbooks (i): This aims for
a broader educational experience that fosters hoListic development
and moves beyond narrow, fragmented knowledge.
● (d) Making examinations more flexible (ii): This principle
suggests integrating examinations with classroom life to make them
less stressful and more continuous as assessment tools.

4. Assertion (A): The core idea behind 'Learning without Burden'

(Yashpal Committee, 1993) was to reduce the weight of school
bags.
Reason (R): The deeper implication of 'Learning without Burden' was to
shift focus from rote memorization to understanding and conceptual
learning.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B)
● Both (A) and (R) are true: The phrase 'Learning without Burden'
became popularly associated with reducing physical schoolbag weight.
The Yashpal Committee indeed aimed for a deeper pedagogical shift.
● Not a correct explanation: Reason (R) describes the deeper, true
intent of 'Learning without Burden', while Assertion (A) describes a

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more superficial, though related, outcome/interpretation. Reason (R)
is the primary goal, not merely an explanation of reducing bag weight.

5. Which of the following is a key objective of the National

Curriculum Framework (NCF) 2005?
(A) To promote only vocational education at the school level.
(B) To develop a curriculum that enhances rote memorization skills.
(C) To reduce the number of subjects taught in schools.
(D) To promote a child-centered approach to education.
Correct Answer: (D)
● Child-Centered Approach: A fundamental objective of NCF 2005
was to promote a child-centered approach to education, where
learning experiences are tailored to the needs and interests of the
children.
● Against Rote Learning: It explicitly moved away from rote
memorization.
● It emphasized connecting knowledge to real life and enriching the
curriculum, not necessarily reducing subjects or focusing solely on
vocational education.

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