Airmanship

1.____________ helps to inculcate the sense of discipline amongst pilots and

other crew members
a)aerodrome b)airmanship c) air report d) air route
2.___________ is Defined area on land or water including any buildings,
installations and equipment intended to be used either wholly or in part
for the arrival, departure and movement of ac.
a)aerodrome b)airmanship c) air report d) air route
3. _____________is a report passed during the course of a flight in
conformity with requirements for position, operational, or meteorological
reporting in the AIREP or POMAR form
a)aerodrome b)airmanship c) air report d) air route
4. The navigable airspace between two points, identified to the extent
necessary for the application of flight rules.
a)aerodrome b)airmanship c) air report d) air route
5. The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed
usually expressed in degrees from North (magnetic) is
a)heading b)restricted area c)prohibited area d)QFE
6. Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas of territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited is
a)heading b)restricted area c)prohibited area d)QFE
7. An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial
waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in
accordance with specified conditions is
a)heading b)restricted area c)prohibited area d)QFE
8. When set on the altimeter on the ground, the Altimeter should read
zero is
a)heading b)restricted area c)prohibited area d)QFE
9. The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a
point, measured from a specified datum is
a)height b)transitional altitude c)QNH d)Visibility
10. When set on the altimeter on the ground, the altimeter should read
aerodrome elevation is
a)height b)transitional altitude c)QNH d)Visibility
11. The altitude in the vicinity of an aerodrome at or below which the
Vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes above
mean sea level or height above the aerodrome depending on whether
QNH or QFE is set on the altimeter is
a)height b)transitional altitude c)QNH d)Visibility
12. . The ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and expressed
in units of distance, to see and identify prominent lighted objects by night
is
a)height b)transitional altitude c)QNH d)Visibility
13. The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.
The depth of the layer will normally be insignificant, and will in any case
never exceed 500 ft is
a)height b)transitional altitude c)transitional layer d)Visibility
14. service provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding ac in
need of search and rescue aid, and assist such organizations as required is
a)altering service b)alternate aerodrome c)altitude d)distress message
15. The vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point
measured from mean sea level (MSL) is
a)altering service b)alternate aerodrome c)altitude d)distress message
16. Emergency message to be used when an aircraft is threatened by
serious or imminent danger and the crew is in need of immediate
assistance
a)altering service b)alternate aerodrome c)altitude d)distress message
17. An aerodrome specified in the flight plan to which a flight may proceed
when it becomes inadvisable to land at planned aerodrome is
a)altering service b)alternate aerodrome c)altitude d)distress message
18. ________ensures a pilot at his best, when the situation is at its worst
a)altering service b)airmanship c)altitude d)distress message
19. __________when studied in correct sense promotes flight safety and
prevents aircraft accidents
a)altering service b)airmanship c)altitude d)distress message
20. __________helps the pilot to know the standard procedures laid down
for the airfield on which he is operating
a)altering service b)airmanship c)altitude d)distress message
21. __________helps the pilot to know procedure to be followed in
emergency situation.
a)altering service b)airmanship c)altitude d)distress message
22.__________the vertical position of a point or a level, above, on or affixed
to the surface of the earth, measured from mean sea level is
a)height b)transitional altitude c)elevation d)Visibility
23. _________ are that part of an airfield intended for the surface
movement of the aircraft
a)runway b)taxiway c)movement areas d)flight strip
24._________ are paved surfaces intended for take-off and landing of ac.
a)runway b)taxiway c)movement areas d)flight strip
25. __________are paved surfaces provided for the taxing of aircraft and
intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and
another.
a)runway b)taxiway c)movement areas d)flight strip
26. _________is the rectangular portion of an airfield containing the runway
and paved over-runs along with the shoulders and cleared zones
a)runway b)taxiway c)movement areas d)flight strip
27. _________are paved areas and include runways, taxiways, dispersal
areas, aprons etc.
a)runway b)taxiway c)movement areas d)flight strip
28. __________Areas immediately adjacent to the edges of the runway,
taxiways, overruns and SGAs prepared for accidental or emergency use in
the event of an aircraft running off the paved surface.
a)runway b)shoulders c)movement areas d)flight strip
29.__________ are those areas of the flight strip adjacent to the shoulders
which for safety 45 of aircraft operations
a)cleared zone b)shoulders c)movement areas d)flight strip
30. __________defined rectangular area on ground at the end of runway in
the direction of take-off prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft
can be stopped in case of abandoned take off, or during a landing
emergency
a)runway b)shoulders c)movement areas d)Over-run areas
31. ________markings shall consist of a two-digit number and on parallel
runways shall be supplemented by a letter
a)runway designation marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
32.In which two- digit number shall be the whole number nearest to one
tenth of magnetic azimuth of centre line measured clockwise from
magnetic North when viewed from direction of approach
a)runway designation marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
33. ______________ markings shall be located over the first 600 m (2000 ft)
of instrument runways at longitudinal spacing of 150 m (500 ft)
a)runway touch down zone marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
34.__________ markings shall consist of a series of broken longitudinal lines
along the runway centre line
a)runway designation marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
35. . The markings shall consist of a series of longitudinal strips of uniform
dimensions symmetrically placed on both sides of runway centre line are
a)runway designation marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
36. ________markings shall be provided on all paved runways
a)runway designation marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
37. which markings shall be provided with distance coding
a)runway touch down zone marking b) runway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
38. These markings shall be single unbroken lines 0.15 m (6") wide along
the centre line of taxiway
a)runway touch down zone marking b) taxiway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
39. These markings shall consist of four lines of 0.15 m (6") width each
with spacing of 0.15 m (6")
a)runway touch down zone marking b) taxiway centre line marking c)
runway holding position marking d) runway side strip marking
40.__________ markings shall be in the form of cross
a)unserviceability marking b) taxiway centre line marking c) runway
threshold marking d) runway side strip marking
41.________ shall be displayed on those parts of movement area, which are
unfit for landing,
a)runway touch down zone marking b) taxiway centre line marking c)
runway threshold marking d) unserviceability marking
42. When operated more than ____ nm seaward from the coast-line in
controlled airspaces.
A) 200nm b)100nm c)50nm d)150nm
43. When two aircrafts are on the paths which cross, the aircraft which has
the other on its right is to give way
A) landing b) approaching to land c)approaching head on d)converging
44. . When two aircrafts are approaching head on, each is to alter heading
to the right
A) landing b) approaching to land c)approaching head on d)converging
45. The aircraft at the lower altitude on the approach has the right of way
A) landing b) approaching to land c)approaching head on d)converging
46. Aircraft in the final stage of landing have the right of way over aircraft
in the air and on the ground
A) landing b) approaching to land c)approaching head on d)converging
47.________is the area on the opposite side of the landing runway from the
downwind leg. Approach should be made into this area at or above circuit
height.
A) downwind b) baseleg c)upwind d)circuit joining croswind
48. __________a flight path at right angles to the direction of landing
A) downwind b) baseleg c)upwind d)circuit joining crosswind
49. __________ is a flight path, opposite to the direction of landing, which is
parallel to and at a sufficient distance from the landing runway to permit a
standard rate–one turn to the base leg.
A) downwind b) baseleg c)upwind d)circuit joining crosswind
50.________ is a corridor, lying within the airspace between the centre of
the landing runway and its upwind end, linking the upwind side and the
downwind leg
A) downwind b) baseleg c)upwind d)circuit joining crosswind
51. __________is a flight path in the (f) direction lf landing, commencing at
least ¼ mile from the runway threshold, wherein an airplane is in line with
the landing runway and descending towards the runway threshold.
A) final approach leg b) baseleg c)upwind d)circuit joining crosswind
52.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “A” stands for ____________
53.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “B” stands for ____________
54.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “C” stands for ____________
55.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “D” stands for ____________
56.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “E” stands for ____________
57.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “F” stands for ____________
58.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “G” stands for ____________
59.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “H” stands for ____________
60.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “I” stands for ____________
61.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “J” stands for ____________
62.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “K” stands for ____________
63.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “L” stands for ____________
64.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “M” stands for ____________
65.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “N stands for ____________
66.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “O” stands for ____________
67.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “P stands for ____________
68.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “Q” stands for ____________
69.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “R” stands for ____________
70.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “S” stands for ____________
71.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “T” stands for ____________
72.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “U” stands for ____________
73.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “V” stands for ____________
74.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “W” stands for ____________
75.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “X” stands for ____________
76.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “Y” stands for ____________
77.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “Z” stands for ____________
78.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “10” stands for ____________
79.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “76” stands for ____________
80.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY 100 stands for ____________
81.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY 583 stands for ____________
82.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY 5000 stands for ____________
83.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY 25000 tands for ____________
84.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY 34 stands for ____________
85. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to controlled
flights arriving at or departing from, one or more aerodromes is
A) approach control office b) approach control tower c)aerodrome
control service d)alerting service
86. A unit established to provide air traffic control service to aerodrome
traffic
A) approach control office b) approach control tower c)aerodrome
control service d)alerting service
87. ATC service for arriving or departing controlled flights
A) approach control office b) approach control tower c)aerodrome
control service d)alerting service
88. ATC service for aerodrome traffic is
A) approach control office b) approach control tower c)aerodrome
control service d)alerting service
89.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “1” stands for ____________
90.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “2” stands for ____________
91.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “3” stands for ____________
92.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “4” stands for ____________
93.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “5” stands for ____________
94.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “6” stands for ____________
95.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “7” stands for ____________
96.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “8” stands for ____________
97.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “9” stands for ____________
98.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “10” stands for ____________
99.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “1560” stands for ____________
100.In RT PROCEDURES AND PHRASEOLOGY “.” stands for ____________