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13.test 7 Q

This document is a question paper for a Civil Engineering Conventional Test conducted by IES Master on April 30, 2023. It contains specific instructions for candidates, including the requirement to answer five questions from eight provided, with two questions being compulsory. The paper includes various technical problems related to civil engineering principles, such as tacheometry, hydrographs, soil testing, and structural analysis.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views19 pages

13.test 7 Q

This document is a question paper for a Civil Engineering Conventional Test conducted by IES Master on April 30, 2023. It contains specific instructions for candidates, including the requirement to answer five questions from eight provided, with two questions being compulsory. The paper includes various technical problems related to civil engineering principles, such as tacheometry, hydrographs, soil testing, and structural analysis.

Uploaded by

rahul pardeshi
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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IES MASTER

Institute for Engineers (IES/GATE/PSUs)

Sl. No. 07 ABCDEF(M)


Civil Engineering
Conventional Test - 07
30th April 2023

Time Allowed : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 300

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions :

Answer must be written in ENGLISH only.

There are EIGHT questions divided in TWO sections.

Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.

Questions no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining THREE are to be attempted
choosing at least ONE question from each section.

The number of marks carried by a question / part is indicated against it.

Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must be stated
clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space provided. No marks
will be given for answers written in a medium other than the authorized one.

Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated.
Diagrams / figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering the
question itself.

Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meanings. Attempt of
questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be
counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-
Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.
(2) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

Section-A
1. (a) To determine the gradient between two points A and
B, a tacheometer was set up at another station C and
the following observations were taken, keeping the
staff vertical.
Staff at Vertical angle Stadia readings
A +42000 1.300, 1.610, 1.920
B +01040 1.100, 1.410, 1.720
If the horizontal angle ACB is 35º20', determine the
average gradient between the points A & B.
Take, k = 100, C = 0.
[12 Marks]
1. (b) The ordinates of a 2 h unit hydrograph at 1 h intervals
starting from time = 0 are 0, 3, 8, 6, 3, 2 and 0 m3/
s. Use trapezoidal rule for numerical integration if
required.
(i) What is the catchment area represented by the
unit hydrograph?
(ii) A storm of 6.6 cm occurs uniformly over the
catchment in 3 h. If  index is equal to 2 mm/
h and base flow is 5m3/s, what is the peak flow
due to the storm?
[12 Marks]
1. (c) Find out the corrected SPT N-value.
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (3)

Given : Field N-value = 15, Depth = 6 m below ground


level, Soil Type : Fine sand with trace mica, no water
table was observed within the depth. Standard
penetration test was performed with standard split
spoon sampler and donut hammer using cat head.
Bore diameter was 100 mm.
Total rod length = depth + length above borehole
(typically 1 – 2 m)
Assume average unit weight of soil from N-value as
follows.

 moist = 16.0 + 0.1N 60  kN m 2 

EHCBCsCRN
N60 =
0.60
We have,
N60 = Corrected SPT N-value for
field procedures
EH = Hammer efficiency
CB = Borehole diameter correction
CS = Sampler correction
CR = Rod length correction
N = Measured STP N-value in field
This correction is to be done irrespective of the type
of soil
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(4) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

SPT Hammer Efficiencies (BNBC 2015 Table 6.D.4)


Hammer Type Hammer Release Mechanism Efficiency, EH
Automatic Trip 0.70
Donut Hand dropped 0.60
Donut Cathead + 2 turns 0.50
Safety Cathead + 2 turns 0.55-0.60
Drop/Pin Hand dropped 0.45
Borehole, Samler and Rod Correction Factors (BNBC 2015 Table 6.D.5)
Factor Equipment Variables
Borehold Dia Factor, CB 65-115 mm (2.5-4.5 in) 1.00
150 mm (6 in) 1.05
200 mm (8 in) 1.15
Sampler Correction, CS Standard sampler 1.00
Sampler without liner (not recommended) 1.20
Rod Length Correction, 3 – 4 m (10-13 ft) 0.75
CR 4 – 6 m (13-20 ft) 0.85
6 – 10 m (20-30 ft) 0.95
> 10 m (> 30 ft) 1.00

[12 Marks]
1. (d) A base line measure with a steel tape gives an
approximate length of 1000 m. Compute the correct
length of the base line at mean sea level when the
pull at the standardization equals 15 kg. The applied
pull is 23 kg. The cross sectional area of tape is
0.0645 cm2 and E = 2.11 × 106 kg/cm2. Temperature
Tm and To are 35°C and 15°C, respectively. The
coefficient of thermal expansion of the material of the
tape per °C is 11.5 × 10–6. The difference in level of
the two ends of base line is 2 m. R = 6400 km.
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (5)

Elevation of base line above mean sea level = 1000 m.


[12 Marks]
1. (e) The effective spans for a simple one-way slab system,
with an overhang, are indicated in the figure below.
The specified ultimate design loads on the slab are
6.0 kN/m2 and 4.5 kN/m2 for dead loads and live loads
respectively. Considering the possibility of live loads
not occurring simultaneously on both spans, determine
the maximum spacing (in mm) of 8 mm diameter bars
required as bottom reinforcement in the span AB,
assuming an effective depth of 125 mm. Assume M20
concrete and Fe 415 steel.
A B C

3.5m 1.5m
[12 Marks]
2. (a) Find the forces in the members shown in Fig. The
area of each member is A sq. mm. The structure
consists of members which follow elastic non-linear
curve given by  = p2 × 10–12 where p is the stress in
N/mm2 and  is strain. Take F = 10000 N.
A B C

45°
45°

F [20 Marks]
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(6) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

2. (b) (i) The distance between two points A and B was


measured 12 times under identical conditions, and
measured values were recorded as (in m) :
63.48, 63.45, 63.42, 63.44, 63.48, 63.45,
63.43, 63.44, 63.47, 63.48, 63.45, 63.47
Determine
(i) Standard deviation
(ii) Probable errors of a single observation
(iii) Most probable error of the mean
(iv) Maximum error
[8 Marks]
2. (b) (ii) A foundation 4m × 2 m, carrying a net pressure
of 200 kN/m2, is located at a depth of 1.5 m in a
layer of clay 5m thick for which the value of Eu
is 45 MN/m2. The layer is underlain by a second
layer, 10 m thick, for which the value of Eu is 80
MN/m2. A hard stratum lies below the second
layer. Ground water table is at the depth of
foundation. Determine the average immediate
settlement under the foundation.
Assume soil is saturated clay, Vs = 0.5. So the
following equation can be used:
q.B
 
Si = 0 1 E
u
 0 depends on D/B ratio.
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (7)

D
For = 0.75   0 = 0.95
B
1 depends on H/B and L/B
For H/B = 1.75 and L/B = 2  1 = 0.65
H/B = 6.75 and L/B = 2  1 = 0.9
[12 Marks]
2. (c) (i) Enumerate assumption and limitations of Dupit’s
theory.
[6 Marks]
2. (c) (ii) Three wells A, B, C tap the same horizontal
aquifer. The distance AB = 1200 m and BC = 1000
m. The well B is exactly south of well A and the
well C lies to the west of well B. The following are
the ground surface elevation and depth of water
below the ground surface in the three wells.
Surface Elevation Depth of water
Well
 m above datum  table  m 
A 200.00 11.00
B 197.00 7.00
C 202.00 14.00

Determine the direction of groundwater flow in


the aquifer in the area ABC of the wells (bearing

assuming BA as North direction). Also find total
flow and intrinsic permeability (in darcy) given
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(8) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

 = 1 cSt at 20°C and Kx = Ky = 10 m/day.


[14 Marks]
3. (a) (i) During a recuperation test, the water in an open
well was depressed by pumping by 2.5m and it
recuperated 1.8m in 80 minutes. Calculate the
yield from a well 4m diameter under a depression
head of 3m.
[10 Marks]
3. (a) (ii) In an artesian aquifer, the drawdown is 1.2 meters
at a radial distance of 10 meters from a pumped
well after two hours of pumping. On the basis of
non-equilibrium equation, determine its pumping
time for the same drawdown (i.e. 1.2 m) at a
radial distance of 30 meters from this well.
[10 Marks]
3. (b) (i) Derive the expression used for calculation of the
coefficient of permeability of unsaturated soil by
capillarity permeability test.
2 2
x 2 – x1 2k
= h + h c 
t 2 – t1 Sn  1
[10 Marks]
3. (b) (ii)A capillary permeability test was conducted in two
stages under a head of 80 cm and 160 cm, respectively,
at the entry end. In the first stage, the wetted surface
moved from 2 to 8 cm in 8 minutes. In second stage,
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (9)

it advanced from 8 cm to 20 cm in 25 minutes. The


degree of saturation at the end of the test was 80%
and porosity was 40%. Determine the capillary head
and the coefficient of permeability.
[10 Marks]
3. (c) (i) Write the temporary and permanent adjustment
of theodolite also mention in the order which they
are performed.
[8 Marks]
3. (c) (ii) The difference in level between two points A and
B was found by three routes— (a) via C and D, (2)
via E, F and G, (3) via H, distances being as
follows :
Route 1 AC = 180m CD = 282 m DB = 228 m
Route 2 AE= 144 m EF = 156 m FG = 324, GB = 270 m
Route 3 AH = 264 m HB = 369 m
The sections on Route 1 were levelled eight times,
those on Route 2 twice and those on Route 3 four
times and the differences in level were found to be
8.275 m, 8.292 m and 8.285 m respectively. Find
the most probable value of the difference in level
between A and B.
[12 Marks]
4. (a) The concrete structure shown in figure is built on
sandy soil and is used to retain water. A flow net has
been constructed for this structure. The coefficient of
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(10) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

permeability for the soil is 1.2 × 10–2 cm/s.


(a) Compute the water uplift pressure at Points A,
B, C, D, E and F.
(b) Compute the factors of safety against “boiling” of
the sand.
(c) Compute the total discharge per unit of length
along the wall (into the paper)
A and F are midway between equipotential lines.
Head water
Ground surface

12.8
18.8 Tail water

Ground surface
6.0
DATUM 4.2
A B C D E F

impervious
boudary

Concrete retaining structure with flow net (all lengths


in meters).
[20 Marks]
4. (b) A footing 2m × 2m in plan is founded at 1m depth
below GL in sand having angle of shearing resistance
of 36°. Compute the allowable load at the base of the
footing.
If (i) factor of safety against shear is 3. and (ii) the
max. settlement of footing is not to exceed 50 mm.
The W.T is 1m below G.L. The allowable soil pressure
: For 50 mm settlement with water table at very great
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (11)

depth is 50 t/m2 saturated and dry unit weights of


sand are 2 t/m3 and 1.6 t/m3. For  = 36°, Nc = 50,
Nq = 42 and Ng= 46. If the load on the footing is
eccentric with e x = e y= 0.25m, what will be the
allowable external load?
Take soil above water table is dry.
[20 Marks]
4. (c) Two tangents intersect at chainage 1200 m, the
deflection angle being 40º. Compute the data for setting
out a 400 m radius curve by deflection angles. Take
30m chord lengths in the general reach.
[20 Marks]
Section-B
5. (a) 60 cm diameter well is being pumped at a rate of 1360
litres/ minute. Measurements in a nearby test well
were made at the same time as follows. At a distance
of 6 m from the well being pumped, the drawndown
was 6 m, and at 15 m the drawdown was 1.5 m. The
bottom of the well is 90 m below the ground watertable.
(i) Find out the coefficient of permeability. (ii) What
is the specific capacity of the well? (iii) What is the
rate at which water can be drawn from this well ?
[12 Marks]
5. (b) Describe briefly about the different parts and working
of Imhoff tank.
[12 Marks]
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(12) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

5. (c) Draw the influence lines for vertical reactions VB and


VD and for the shear force and bending moment at E
in the compound beam shown in Fig. The unit load
moves over the portion AB.
A 2m C 3m B
D
3m E 2m

[12 Marks]
5. (d) (i) Prove that for stratified deposits of soils, the
average permeability in the horizontal direction is
greater than the average permeability in the
vertical direction.
[6 Marks]
5. (d) (ii) In a falling head permeability test, the sample
was 18 cm long with cross-sectional area of 22
cm2. Calculate the time required for the drop of
head from 25 to 10 cm if the cross-sectional area
of the stand pipe was 2 cm2. The sample of soil
was heterogeneous, with a coefficient of
permeability of 3×10–4 cm/s for the first 6 cm,
4×10–4 cm/s for the second 6 cm, and 6×10–4 cm/
s for the last 6 cm of thickness. Assume the flow
taking place perpendicular to the bedding planes.
[6 Marks]
5. (e) A river is flowing from west to east. For determining
the width of the river, two points A and B are selected
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (13)

on the southern bank such that distance AB = 100 m.


Point A is westwards. The bearing at a tree C on the
northern bank are observed to be 40° and 340°,
respectively from A and B. Calculate the width of the
river.
[12 Marks]
6. (a) An unconfined aquifer (K = 5 m/day) situated on the
top of a horizontal impervious layer connects two
parallel water bodies M and N which are 1200 m
apart. The water-surface elevation of M and N,
measured above the horizontal impervious bed are
10.00 m and 8.00 m. If a uniform recharge at the rate
of 0.002 m3/day/per m2 of horizontal area occurs at
the ground surface, estimate
(i) the water table profile
(ii) the location and elevation of the water table
divide.
(iii) the seepage discharges into the lakes, and
(iv) the recharge rate at which the water table divide
coincides with the upstream edge of the aquifer
and the total seepage flow per unit width of the
aquifer at the recharge rate.
The water-table profile is given by :
 2 2 RL2 
Rx 2  h 0 – h1 – 
2 – –  K  x + h2
h = 0
K L
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(14) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

Ground surface

Water table

q0

M h
h0 q1
qx h1 N

x=0 Horizontal
x=L
x impervious bed
L

[20 Marks]
6. (b) An anchored bulkhead 5.1 m high retains sand on
both sides. The anchor rods are 1 m below the top and
depth of embedment is 1.5 m. Determine the factor of
safety against failure. Angle of internal friction of
sand is 30° and the sand is dry throughout having a
unit weight of 16 kN/m3. Comment if the depth of
embedment is adequate. If not, obtain the depth of
embedment using a factor of safety of 2.
[20 Marks]
6. (c) A wastewater-treatment plant consists of primary
treatment units followed by an activated-sludge
secondary system. The primary and secondary sludges
are mixed, thickened in a gravity thickener, and sent
to further treatment. A schematic of the system is
shown below.
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (15)

Influent Primary Effluent


Aerator
clarifier

Sludge
return
Liquid return

Waste water, treatment plant and sludge


characteristics are as follows
Wastewater Treatment plant Sludge

Influent SS 200 mg/L Primary clarifier diameter 25m Primary 5.0% solids
Influent BOD 225 mg/L Aerator volume 2900 m3 Secondary 0.75% solids
Effluent BOD 20 mg/L MLSS in aerator 3500 mg/L Thickened 4.0% solids
Flow 19,000 m3/d

efficiency of primary clarifier (SS) = 58%


efficiency of primary clarifier (BOD) = 32%
Secondary solid produced in SST = 0.35 kg per kg of
BOD removed in aerator.
Take specific gravity of sludge as 1 in all units.
Determine (a) the solids loading (in kilograms per
day) to the sludge disposal facilities and (b) the percent
volume reduction by the thickener.
[20 Marks]
7. (a) The section of a homogeneous earth dam is shown
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(16) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

below
K = 8 × 10–7 cm/s, Kz = 3.6 × 10–7 cm/s. Estimate
X
seepage through the dam section.
If the no of equipotential drops upto point ‘X’ is 3 and
total no of equipotential drop = 18, Find pore water
pressure at X.
11m
2.3
2.3 15m 1
14m 1
X
6m

12 m
Length of drainage blanket
[20 Marks]
7. (b) A page of a level book was defaced so that the only
legible figures were (a) consecutive entries in the
column of reduced levels: 55.565(B.M.); 54.985(T.P.),
55.170; 56.265; 53.670; 53.940; (TP);52.180; 52.015;
51.480(T.P.); 53.145; 54.065 (T.B.M.); (b) entries in
the backsight column: 1.545; 2.310; 0.105; 3.360 in
order from the top of the page.
Reconstruct the page as booked and check your work.
Calculate the corrected level of the T.B.M. if the
instrument is known to have an elevated collimation
error of 60'' and back and foresight distance averaged
80 and 30 meters respectively.
[20 Marks]
7. (c) A Kaplan turbine develops 40 MW of power under a
head of 35 m and a speed of 175 rpm. The tip diameter
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (17)

of runner is 5.0 m and hub diameter is 2.5 m. The


overall efficiency and hydraulic efficiency of turbine
are 89% and 92% respectively. Determine :
(a) Speed ratio
(b) Flow ratio
(c) inlet guide vane angle, inlet and outlet blade
angles at (i) tip (ii) mid-radius.
[20 Marks]
8. (a) (i) A 12 m thick layer of relatively impervious
saturated clay lies over a gravel aquifer. Piezometer
tubes introduced to the gravel layer show an
artesian pressure condition with the water level
standing in the tubes 3 m above the top surface
of the clay system. The properties of the clay are
e = 1.2 and G = 2.7.
Determine (a) the effective stress at the top of the
gravel strata, (b) the depth of excavation that can
be made in the clay station without bottom heave.
[12 Marks]
8. (a) (ii) Two points A and B are 1530 m apart across a
wide river. The following reciprocal levels are
taken with one level :
Level at Readings on
A B
A 2.165 3.810
B 0.910 2.355
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(18) CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023

The error in the collimation adjustments of the


level is –0.004 m in 100 m. Calculate the true
difference of level between A and B and the
refraction.
[8 Marks]
8. (b) (i) Write characteristics of contour lines.
[8 Marks]
8. (b) (ii) A tract of land has three straight boundaries AB,
BC, and CD. The fourth boundary DA is irregular.
The measured lengths are as under:
AB = 135 m, BC = 191 m, CD = 126 m,
BD = 255 m.
The offsets measured outside the boundary DA to
the irregular boundary at a regular interval of 30
m from D, are as below:
Distance from D  m  0.0 30 60 90 120 150 180
Offsets  m  0.0 3.7 4.9 4.2 2.8 3.6 0.0
Determine the area of the tract.
[12 Marks]
8. (c) (i) Enumerate differences between Rankine and
Coulomb Earth Pressure theory.
[4 Marks]
8. (c) (ii) Determine the factor of safety against wedge failure
along the interface of a soil mass, which is resting
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CE (Test-07), ESE Conventional Test Series, 30th April 2023 (19)

on an inclined impermeable clay layer, as shown


in the figure given below.
Assume C = 10 kN/m2,  = 25 and  = 18 kN m 3 .
3.5 m
C B
Soil Mass
3m
30°
A Impermeable
Clay Layer
4.5m

45°
[8 Marks]
8. (c) (iii)Analyse the slope of infinite extent having
slope angle = 25° if it is made of clay having
c' = 30 kN/m2,  = 20 , e = 0.65 and G = 2.7 and
under the following conditions : (i) when the soil
is dry, (ii) when water seeps steadily parallel to
the surface of the slope.
[8 Marks]

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