Seat No -

Total number of questions : 60

1001309_ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 2. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid
D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 3. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 4. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as
___________

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 5. in Aeration of water following component is not removed

A : CO2

B : H2S

C : lead

D : Iron

Q.no 6. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be

increased by

A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 7. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is ______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm
C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 8. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before

disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 9. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 10. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water
takes place?

A : Domestic water demand

B : Industrial water demand

C : Institutional and commercial water demand

D : Fire demand

Q.no 11. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 12. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is ______
A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 13. The sludge in water softening accelerator is deposite at

A : Sedimentation tank

B : Reaction zone

C : Concentrator

D : Secondary mixing zone

Q.no 14. The chemical composition of Alum is

A : Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

B : Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O

C : Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

D : Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.no 15. Sound is measured by units that are called

A : Hertz (Hz)

B : Decibels(dB)

C : Meters (m)

D : Pascal (Pa)

Q.no 16. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 17. The purpose of aeration is to provide

A : The medium to organisms

B : The carbon dioxide to organisms

C : The oxygen to organisms

D : The water to organisms

Q.no 18. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 19. As compared to arithmetical increase method of forecasting population,

geometrical increase method gives

A : Lesser value

B : Higher value

C : Same value

D : Accurate value

Q.no 20. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 21. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Secondary sedimentation

C : Plain sedimentation

D : Disinfection
Q.no 22. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 23. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

A : Applied chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Sum of applied and residual chlorine

D : difference of applied and residual chlorine

Q.no 24. Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?

A : Ferric sulphate

B : Ferric chloride

C : Aluminium sulphate

D : Copper sulphate

Q.no 25. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity
is ____ m/Sec

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 26. The contact time for disinfection by combined chlorine is

A : 20 min

B : 30 min

C : 40 min

D : 60 min
Q.no 27. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 28. In a baffled channel, tapered flocculation may be achieved by

A : Closer spacing of baffles in the beginning and wider spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

B : Wider spacing of baffles in the beginning and closer spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

C : Gradually decreasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

D : Gradually increasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

Q.no 29. Which water treatment process is done after filtration of water?

A : Primary sedimentation

B : Disinfection

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Flocculation

Q.no 30. Green House gas is

A : Nitrogen

B : Oxygen

C : Carbon Dioxide

D : Methane

Q.no 31. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree
branches or other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation
D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 32. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is

A : 100 kg/m3

B : 450 kg/m3

C : 700 kg/m3

D : 1000 kg/m3

Q.no 33. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

A : Decreasing the time of contact

B : Decreasing the temperature of water

C : Increasing the temperature of water

D : none

Q.no 34. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 35. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution,
because animals dependent on _________

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 36. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is _______

A : 0.9

B : 0.8

C : 0.99
D:1

Q.no 37. The slurry is

A : A suspension to be filtered

B : A porous membrane used to retain the solids

C : The solids which are present on the filter

D : A clear liquid passing through the filter

Q.no 38. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal

solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 39. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

A : 1/T

B : 1/T2

C:T

D : T2

Q.no 40. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 41. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S
D : CO2

Q.no 42. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and
induce coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 43. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of
water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 44. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 45. What is the test used to select the type of coagulant required

A : Bar Test

B : Jar Test

C : Stock Test

D : Coagulant Test

Q.no 46. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the
maximum daily demand is _____

A : 24 mld
B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 47. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called _____

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 48. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

A : It is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B : Huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

C : The effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

D : It is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

A : Increase the effect of agitation

B : Improve aeration efficiency

C : Improve cooling capacity

D : Improve the fermenter capacity

Q.no 50. The effective height of stack is given by ________

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack
Q.no 51. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 52. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum
is added to water is

A : Al (OH)3

B : SO2

C : CO2

D : Ca (OH)3

Q.no 53. The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from

A : 0.30 to 0.35 mm

B : 0.35 to 0.50 mm

C : 0.50 to 0.65 mm

D : 0.65 to 0.75 mm

Q.no 54. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent

hardness?

A : It is also called carbonate hardness

B : It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and

magnesium

C : It cannot be removed by boiling

D : It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Q.no 55. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2
C : Ca(OH)2

D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 56. What does the term turbidity indicate in atmospheric quality?

A : Indicates density of clouds

B : Reduction of light due to dust particles

C : Indicates the humidity

D : Turbulence of winds

Q.no 57. Which of these mechanisms is not a significant contributor for

contaminant removal in Rapid Sand Filters?

A : Adsorption

B : Physical straining

C : Biological action

D : Chemical action

Q.no 58. What is the residence time (average time a particle is active in a given
system) of carbon monoxide?

A : 11-15 years

B : 0.1-0.3 years

C : 0.5 years

D : 1-2 Years

Q.no 59. In which process of water softening, ion exchange

phenomenontakesplace?

A : Limesoda process

B : Zeolite process

C : Boiling

D : Demineralization process

Q.no 60. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

A : Burning
B : Source reduction

C : Disposal

D : Recycling

Q.no 1. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 2. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles
from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 3. Which is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation?

A : Sedimentation

B : Aeration

C : Flocculation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 4. ______ is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended
impurities from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

A : Polythene bags

B : Synthetic fiber

C : Food waste

D : plastic water bottle

Q.no 6. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

A : Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

B : Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

C : Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

D : Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

Q.no 7. Which is the largest source for production of nitrous oxide?

A : Chemical industry

B : Fertiliser industry

C : Fossil fuel combustion

D : Bacterial action

Q.no 8. The agitator is required to

A : Provide air

B : Mixing objectives

C : Purify the product

D : Sterilize the media

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?

A : NO2

B : O3

C : PAN

D : SPM

Q.no 10. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of
A : bacteria

B : odour

C : turbidity

D : Color

Q.no 11. The waste produced in cotton mills are

A : Municipal solid waste

B : Non biodegradable waste

C : Hazardous waste

D : Non hazardous waste

Q.no 12. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 13. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

A : 20-55 per second

B : 20-75 per second

C : 50-80 per second

D : 30-90 per second

Q.no 14. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 15. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be
increased by
A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 16. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 17. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of
water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 18. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60
degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 19. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is
______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm
Q.no 20. The sludge in water softening accelerator is deposite at

A : Sedimentation tank

B : Reaction zone

C : Concentrator

D : Secondary mixing zone

Q.no 21. Highest percentage of air consists of

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon dioxide

C : Nitrogen

D : Argon

Q.no 22. Which is the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved oxygen content of water

C : It decreases pH of water

D : It is used for mixing chemicals with water

Q.no 23. The permissible concentration of PM 10 in the air is

A : 60 μg/m3

B : 40 μg/m3

C : 50 μg/m3

D : 20 μg/m3

Q.no 24. How the performance of the rapid sand filter can be improved?

A : Replacing the top 15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

B : Replacing the bottom15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

C : Increasing the thickness of a layer of sand

D : Replacing 15 cm layer of Anthracite with sand

Q.no 25. The design period for the design of water treatment plant is generally
taken as

A : 15 years

B : 30 years

C : 50 years

D : more than 50 years

Q.no 26. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 27. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?

A : Screening devices

B : Sedimentation tank

C : Grit removers

D : Mechanical mixers

Q.no 28. Which of the following does not influence filtration?

A : Temperature

B : Density

C : Viscosity

D : pH

Q.no 29. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles
D : Floc

Q.no 30. What is the contact period for disinfection with chloramine?

A : 1 hour

B : 2 hours

C : 3 hours

D : 4 hours

Q.no 31. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ________

A : 05

B : 075

C : 0.1

D : 0.15

Q.no 32. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 33. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of high

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 34. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding hard water?

A : It causes more consumption of soap in laundry work

B : It causes difficulties in the manufacturing process

C : It increases the taste of food

D : It causes the formation of scales on the boilers

Q.no 35. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon monoxide

C : Nitrogen Dioxide

D : Ozone

Q.no 36. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ___ ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 37. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding turbidity?

A : It is an extent to which light is absorbed by particles in the water

B : It is expressed in ppm

C : It depends on the fineness of particle present in the water

D : Turbidity rod is a laboratory method to measure turbidity

Q.no 38. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is _______

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 39. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of intermediate

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 40. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 41. The liquid that comes out of solid waste dump is kown as?

A : Leachate

B : Wastewater

C : Sludge

D : Sullage

Q.no 42. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator
for design purpose?

A : 30 min

B : 60 min

C : 90 min

D : 100 min

Q.no 43. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion

D : Viscous motion

Q.no 44. In which type of filtration problem, layers of gravel are displaced?

A : Clogging

B : Air binding

C : Sand incrustation
D : Sand leakage

Q.no 45. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average
incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on
incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be _______

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 46. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 47. Which of the following regarding break point chlorination is wrong?

A : It will have adequate chlorine residual

B : It will remove manganese

C : It will remove taste and odor

D : It is determined by physical test

Q.no 48. Design criteria for space requirements for cascade aerator is

A : 0.060-0.080 m2/m3/hr

B : 0.030-0.060 m2/m3/hr

C : 0.010-0.020 m2/m3/hr

D : 0.015-0.045 m2/m3/hr

Q.no 49. For a flow of 5 MLD and detention period of 04 hrs ------m3 of volume
required for sedimentation tank

A : 833.33
B : 835.88

C : 834.33

D : 832.33

Q.no 50. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 51. Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz which are inaudible to normal
human ear are called

A : Noise

B : Frequency

C : Ultrasonic

D : Amplitude

Q.no 52. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse
Rate (ALR), then which of the followingoccurs?

A : Subadiabaticlapserate

B : Superadiabaticlapserate

C : Neutrallapserate

D : Adiabatic lapse rate

Q.no 53. The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more
than

A : 0.75 m

B : 1.2 m

C : 2.2 m

D : 3.5 m
Q.no 54. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible
velocity is ____ m/Sec.

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 55. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and
induce coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 56. In which process of water softening, ion exchange

phenomenontakesplace?

A : Limesoda process

B : Zeolite process

C : Boiling

D : Demineralization process

Q.no 57. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called _____

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 58. Which of these mechanisms is not a significant contributor for

contaminant removal in Rapid Sand Filters?

A : Adsorption

B : Physical straining
C : Biological action

D : Chemical action

Q.no 59. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the
maximum daily demand is _____

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 60. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2

C : Ca(OH)2

D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 1. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 2. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 3. The chemical composition of Alum is

A : Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

B : Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O
C : Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

D : Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.no 4. The purpose of aeration is to provide

A : The medium to organisms

B : The carbon dioxide to organisms

C : The oxygen to organisms

D : The water to organisms

Q.no 5. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is ______

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 6. As compared to arithmetical increase method of forecasting population,

geometrical increase method gives

A : Lesser value

B : Higher value

C : Same value

D : Accurate value

Q.no 7. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water

takes place?

A : Domestic water demand

B : Industrial water demand

C : Institutional and commercial water demand

D : Fire demand

Q.no 8. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved
oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 9. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before

disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 10. Sound is measured by units that are called

A : Hertz (Hz)

B : Decibels(dB)

C : Meters (m)

D : Pascal (Pa)

Q.no 11. in Aeration of water following component is not removed

A : CO2

B : H2S

C : lead

D : Iron

Q.no 12. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as
___________

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 13. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 14. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 15. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 16. Which is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation?

A : Sedimentation

B : Aeration

C : Flocculation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 17. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 18. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 19. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is
______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 20. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

A : Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

B : Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

C : Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

D : Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

Q.no 21. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

A : 1/T

B : 1/T2

C:T

D : T2

Q.no 22. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree
branches or other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening
B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 23. In a baffled channel, tapered flocculation may be achieved by

A : Closer spacing of baffles in the beginning and wider spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

B : Wider spacing of baffles in the beginning and closer spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

C : Gradually decreasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

D : Gradually increasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

Q.no 24. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

A : Applied chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Sum of applied and residual chlorine

D : difference of applied and residual chlorine

Q.no 25. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution,
because animals dependent on _________

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 26. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal

solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting
Q.no 27. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

A : Decreasing the time of contact

B : Decreasing the temperature of water

C : Increasing the temperature of water

D : none

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?

A : Ferric sulphate

B : Ferric chloride

C : Aluminium sulphate

D : Copper sulphate

Q.no 29. The contact time for disinfection by combined chlorine is

A : 20 min

B : 30 min

C : 40 min

D : 60 min

Q.no 30. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 31. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is _______

A : 0.9

B : 0.8

C : 0.99

D:1
Q.no 32. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called _____

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 33. Green House gas is

A : Nitrogen

B : Oxygen

C : Carbon Dioxide

D : Methane

Q.no 34. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Secondary sedimentation

C : Plain sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 35. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity
is ____ m/Sec

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 36. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling
D : Discrete settling

Q.no 37. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 38. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 39. In which form of chlorination, chlorine applies to raw water supply as it
enters the distribution system?

A : Plain Chlorination

B : Pre Chlorination

C : Super Chlorination

D : Double Chlorination

Q.no 40. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is

A : 100 kg/m3

B : 450 kg/m3

C : 700 kg/m3

D : 1000 kg/m3

Q.no 41. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion
D : Viscous motion

Q.no 42. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

A : Increase the effect of agitation

B : Improve aeration efficiency

C : Improve cooling capacity

D : Improve the fermenter capacity

Q.no 43. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 44. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 45. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum
is added to water is

A : Al (OH)3

B : SO2

C : CO2

D : Ca (OH)3

Q.no 46. The effective height of stack is given by ________

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack
B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 47. What is the test used to select the type of coagulant required

A : Bar Test

B : Jar Test

C : Stock Test

D : Coagulant Test

Q.no 48. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of
water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 49. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

A : Burning

B : Source reduction

C : Disposal

D : Recycling

Q.no 50. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period
Q.no 51. The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from

A : 0.30 to 0.35 mm

B : 0.35 to 0.50 mm

C : 0.50 to 0.65 mm

D : 0.65 to 0.75 mm

Q.no 52. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

A : It is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B : Huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

C : The effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

D : It is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Q.no 53. What does the term turbidity indicate in atmospheric quality?

A : Indicates density of clouds

B : Reduction of light due to dust particles

C : Indicates the humidity

D : Turbulence of winds

Q.no 54. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent

hardness?

A : It is also called carbonate hardness

B : It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and

magnesium

C : It cannot be removed by boiling

D : It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Q.no 55. The liquid that comes out of solid waste dump is kown as?

A : Leachate

B : Wastewater

C : Sludge
D : Sullage

Q.no 56. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator
for design purpose?

A : 30 min

B : 60 min

C : 90 min

D : 100 min

Q.no 57. What is the residence time (average time a particle is active in a given
system) of carbon monoxide?

A : 11-15 years

B : 0.1-0.3 years

C : 0.5 years

D : 1-2 Years

Q.no 58. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average
incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on
incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be _______

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 59. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 60. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2

C : Ca(OH)2

D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 1. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 2. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

A : 20-55 per second

B : 20-75 per second

C : 50-80 per second

D : 30-90 per second

Q.no 3. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

A : Polythene bags

B : Synthetic fiber

C : Food waste

D : plastic water bottle

Q.no 4. The waste produced in cotton mills are

A : Municipal solid waste

B : Non biodegradable waste

C : Hazardous waste

D : Non hazardous waste

Q.no 5. The agitator is required to

A : Provide air

B : Mixing objectives

C : Purify the product

D : Sterilize the media

Q.no 6. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 7. ______ is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended
impurities from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 8. The chemical composition of Alum is

A : Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

B : Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O

C : Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

D : Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.no 9. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?

A : NO2

B : O3

C : PAN

D : SPM
Q.no 10. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be
increased by

A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 11. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 12. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles
from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 13. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60
degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 14. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping
D : Neutral

Q.no 15. The sludge in water softening accelerator is deposite at

A : Sedimentation tank

B : Reaction zone

C : Concentrator

D : Secondary mixing zone

Q.no 16. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of

A : bacteria

B : odour

C : turbidity

D : Color

Q.no 17. Which is the largest source for production of nitrous oxide?

A : Chemical industry

B : Fertiliser industry

C : Fossil fuel combustion

D : Bacterial action

Q.no 18. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 19. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is
______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm
D : >0.5μm

Q.no 20. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 21. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of intermediate

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 22. The permissible concentration of PM 10 in the air is

A : 60 μg/m3

B : 40 μg/m3

C : 50 μg/m3

D : 20 μg/m3

Q.no 23. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 24. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is _______

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s
D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 25. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 26. What is the contact period for disinfection with chloramine?

A : 1 hour

B : 2 hours

C : 3 hours

D : 4 hours

Q.no 27. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 28. Highest percentage of air consists of

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon dioxide

C : Nitrogen

D : Argon

Q.no 29. The slurry is

A : A suspension to be filtered

B : A porous membrane used to retain the solids

C : The solids which are present on the filter

D : A clear liquid passing through the filter

Q.no 30. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?

A : Screening devices

B : Sedimentation tank

C : Grit removers

D : Mechanical mixers

Q.no 31. Which is the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved oxygen content of water

C : It decreases pH of water

D : It is used for mixing chemicals with water

Q.no 32. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon monoxide

C : Nitrogen Dioxide

D : Ozone

Q.no 33. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ________

A : 05

B : 075

C : 0.1

D : 0.15

Q.no 34. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding hard water?

A : It causes more consumption of soap in laundry work

B : It causes difficulties in the manufacturing process

C : It increases the taste of food

D : It causes the formation of scales on the boilers

Q.no 35. Which water treatment process is done after filtration of water?

A : Primary sedimentation

B : Disinfection

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Flocculation

Q.no 36. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ___ ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 37. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of high

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 38. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 39. The contact time for disinfection by combined chlorine is

A : 20 min

B : 30 min

C : 40 min
D : 60 min

Q.no 40. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal

solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 41. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse
Rate (ALR), then which of the followingoccurs?

A : Subadiabaticlapserate

B : Superadiabaticlapserate

C : Neutrallapserate

D : Adiabatic lapse rate

Q.no 42. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion

D : Viscous motion

Q.no 43. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 44. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling
C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 45. The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more
than

A : 0.75 m

B : 1.2 m

C : 2.2 m

D : 3.5 m

Q.no 46. Which of these mechanisms is not a significant contributor for

contaminant removal in Rapid Sand Filters?

A : Adsorption

B : Physical straining

C : Biological action

D : Chemical action

Q.no 47. Design criteria for space requirements for cascade aerator is

A : 0.060-0.080 m2/m3/hr

B : 0.030-0.060 m2/m3/hr

C : 0.010-0.020 m2/m3/hr

D : 0.015-0.045 m2/m3/hr

Q.no 48. In which process of water softening, ion exchange

phenomenontakesplace?

A : Limesoda process

B : Zeolite process

C : Boiling

D : Demineralization process

Q.no 49. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called _____
A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 50. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and
induce coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 51. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

A : Increase the effect of agitation

B : Improve aeration efficiency

C : Improve cooling capacity

D : Improve the fermenter capacity

Q.no 52. For a flow of 5 MLD and detention period of 04 hrs ------m3 of volume
required for sedimentation tank

A : 833.33

B : 835.88

C : 834.33

D : 832.33

Q.no 53. In which type of filtration problem, layers of gravel are displaced?

A : Clogging

B : Air binding

C : Sand incrustation

D : Sand leakage
Q.no 54. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible
velocity is ____ m/Sec.

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 55. Which of the following regarding break point chlorination is wrong?

A : It will have adequate chlorine residual

B : It will remove manganese

C : It will remove taste and odor

D : It is determined by physical test

Q.no 56. Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz which are inaudible to normal
human ear are called

A : Noise

B : Frequency

C : Ultrasonic

D : Amplitude

Q.no 57. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the
maximum daily demand is _____

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 58. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2

C : Ca(OH)2
D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 59. What does the term turbidity indicate in atmospheric quality?

A : Indicates density of clouds

B : Reduction of light due to dust particles

C : Indicates the humidity

D : Turbulence of winds

Q.no 60. The effective height of stack is given by ________

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 1. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

A : Polythene bags

B : Synthetic fiber

C : Food waste

D : plastic water bottle

Q.no 3. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 4. The waste produced in cotton mills are

A : Municipal solid waste

B : Non biodegradable waste

C : Hazardous waste

D : Non hazardous waste

Q.no 5. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as
___________

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 6. in Aeration of water following component is not removed

A : CO2

B : H2S

C : lead

D : Iron

Q.no 7. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

A : Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

B : Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

C : Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

D : Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

Q.no 8. The agitator is required to

A : Provide air

B : Mixing objectives

C : Purify the product

D : Sterilize the media

Q.no 9. Which is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation?

A : Sedimentation

B : Aeration

C : Flocculation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 10. Sound is measured by units that are called

A : Hertz (Hz)

B : Decibels(dB)

C : Meters (m)

D : Pascal (Pa)

Q.no 11. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 12. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water
takes place?

A : Domestic water demand

B : Industrial water demand

C : Institutional and commercial water demand

D : Fire demand

Q.no 13. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 14. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 15. As compared to arithmetical increase method of forecasting population,

geometrical increase method gives

A : Lesser value

B : Higher value

C : Same value

D : Accurate value

Q.no 16. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is ______

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 17. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

A : 20-55 per second

B : 20-75 per second

C : 50-80 per second

D : 30-90 per second

Q.no 18. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of
water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 19. The purpose of aeration is to provide

A : The medium to organisms

B : The carbon dioxide to organisms

C : The oxygen to organisms

D : The water to organisms

Q.no 20. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before
disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 21. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 22. Which of the following does not influence filtration?

A : Temperature
B : Density

C : Viscosity

D : pH

Q.no 23. The design period for the design of water treatment plant is generally
taken as

A : 15 years

B : 30 years

C : 50 years

D : more than 50 years

Q.no 24. How the performance of the rapid sand filter can be improved?

A : Replacing the top 15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

B : Replacing the bottom15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

C : Increasing the thickness of a layer of sand

D : Replacing 15 cm layer of Anthracite with sand

Q.no 25. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 26. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution,
because animals dependent on _________

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 27. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity
is ____ m/Sec
A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 28. Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?

A : Ferric sulphate

B : Ferric chloride

C : Aluminium sulphate

D : Copper sulphate

Q.no 29. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called _____

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 30. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 31. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree
branches or other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation
Q.no 32. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 33. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Secondary sedimentation

C : Plain sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 34. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

A : Decreasing the time of contact

B : Decreasing the temperature of water

C : Increasing the temperature of water

D : none

Q.no 35. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 36. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of intermediate

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 37. In which form of chlorination, chlorine applies to raw water supply as it
enters the distribution system?

A : Plain Chlorination

B : Pre Chlorination

C : Super Chlorination

D : Double Chlorination

Q.no 38. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

A : 1/T

B : 1/T2

C:T

D : T2

Q.no 39. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is

A : 100 kg/m3

B : 450 kg/m3

C : 700 kg/m3

D : 1000 kg/m3

Q.no 40. In a baffled channel, tapered flocculation may be achieved by

A : Closer spacing of baffles in the beginning and wider spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

B : Wider spacing of baffles in the beginning and closer spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

C : Gradually decreasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

D : Gradually increasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

Q.no 41. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse
Rate (ALR), then which of the followingoccurs?

A : Subadiabaticlapserate
B : Superadiabaticlapserate

C : Neutrallapserate

D : Adiabatic lapse rate

Q.no 42. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 43. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

A : Burning

B : Source reduction

C : Disposal

D : Recycling

Q.no 44. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 45. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum
is added to water is

A : Al (OH)3

B : SO2

C : CO2

D : Ca (OH)3

Q.no 46. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling
B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 47. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

A : It is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B : Huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

C : The effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

D : It is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Q.no 48. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion

D : Viscous motion

Q.no 49. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of
water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 50. The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more
than

A : 0.75 m

B : 1.2 m

C : 2.2 m

D : 3.5 m

Q.no 51. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent

hardness?
A : It is also called carbonate hardness

B : It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and

magnesium

C : It cannot be removed by boiling

D : It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Q.no 52. What is the test used to select the type of coagulant required

A : Bar Test

B : Jar Test

C : Stock Test

D : Coagulant Test

Q.no 53. The liquid that comes out of solid waste dump is kown as?

A : Leachate

B : Wastewater

C : Sludge

D : Sullage

Q.no 54. The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from

A : 0.30 to 0.35 mm

B : 0.35 to 0.50 mm

C : 0.50 to 0.65 mm

D : 0.65 to 0.75 mm

Q.no 55. What is the residence time (average time a particle is active in a given
system) of carbon monoxide?

A : 11-15 years

B : 0.1-0.3 years

C : 0.5 years

D : 1-2 Years
Q.no 56. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator
for design purpose?

A : 30 min

B : 60 min

C : 90 min

D : 100 min

Q.no 57. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average
incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on
incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be _______

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 58. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 59. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 60. In which process of water softening, ion exchange

phenomenontakesplace?
A : Limesoda process

B : Zeolite process

C : Boiling

D : Demineralization process

Q.no 1. The chemical composition of Alum is

A : Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

B : Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O

C : Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

D : Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.no 2. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of

A : bacteria

B : odour

C : turbidity

D : Color

Q.no 3. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 4. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be

increased by

A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 5. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles
from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 6. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 7. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is ______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 8. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 9. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral
Q.no 10. Which is the largest source for production of nitrous oxide?

A : Chemical industry

B : Fertiliser industry

C : Fossil fuel combustion

D : Bacterial action

Q.no 11. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?

A : NO2

B : O3

C : PAN

D : SPM

Q.no 12. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 13. The sludge in water softening accelerator is deposite at

A : Sedimentation tank

B : Reaction zone

C : Concentrator

D : Secondary mixing zone

Q.no 14. ______ is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended
impurities from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste
Q.no 15. The purpose of aeration is to provide

A : The medium to organisms

B : The carbon dioxide to organisms

C : The oxygen to organisms

D : The water to organisms

Q.no 16. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 17. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

A : 20-55 per second

B : 20-75 per second

C : 50-80 per second

D : 30-90 per second

Q.no 18. The agitator is required to

A : Provide air

B : Mixing objectives

C : Purify the product

D : Sterilize the media

Q.no 19. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as
___________

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 20. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before
disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 21. What is the contact period for disinfection with chloramine?

A : 1 hour

B : 2 hours

C : 3 hours

D : 4 hours

Q.no 22. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?

A : Screening devices

B : Sedimentation tank

C : Grit removers

D : Mechanical mixers

Q.no 23. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding hard water?

A : It causes more consumption of soap in laundry work

B : It causes difficulties in the manufacturing process

C : It increases the taste of food

D : It causes the formation of scales on the boilers

Q.no 24. Highest percentage of air consists of

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon dioxide

C : Nitrogen
D : Argon

Q.no 25. Which water treatment process is done after filtration of water?

A : Primary sedimentation

B : Disinfection

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Flocculation

Q.no 26. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

A : Applied chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Sum of applied and residual chlorine

D : difference of applied and residual chlorine

Q.no 27. The contact time for disinfection by combined chlorine is

A : 20 min

B : 30 min

C : 40 min

D : 60 min

Q.no 28. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal

solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 29. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is _______

A : 0.9

B : 0.8

C : 0.99
D:1

Q.no 30. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 31. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ________

A : 05

B : 075

C : 0.1

D : 0.15

Q.no 32. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon monoxide

C : Nitrogen Dioxide

D : Ozone

Q.no 33. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 34. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm
D : 100mm

Q.no 35. Green House gas is

A : Nitrogen

B : Oxygen

C : Carbon Dioxide

D : Methane

Q.no 36. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding turbidity?

A : It is an extent to which light is absorbed by particles in the water

B : It is expressed in ppm

C : It depends on the fineness of particle present in the water

D : Turbidity rod is a laboratory method to measure turbidity

Q.no 37. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution,
because animals dependent on _________

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 38. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 39. In a baffled channel, tapered flocculation may be achieved by

A : Closer spacing of baffles in the beginning and wider spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

B : Wider spacing of baffles in the beginning and closer spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel
C : Gradually decreasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

D : Gradually increasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

Q.no 40. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 41. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 42. In which type of filtration problem, layers of gravel are displaced?

A : Clogging

B : Air binding

C : Sand incrustation

D : Sand leakage

Q.no 43. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and
induce coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 44. Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz which are inaudible to normal
human ear are called

A : Noise
B : Frequency

C : Ultrasonic

D : Amplitude

Q.no 45. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the
maximum daily demand is _____

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 46. For a flow of 5 MLD and detention period of 04 hrs ------m3 of volume
required for sedimentation tank

A : 833.33

B : 835.88

C : 834.33

D : 832.33

Q.no 47. Which of the following regarding break point chlorination is wrong?

A : It will have adequate chlorine residual

B : It will remove manganese

C : It will remove taste and odor

D : It is determined by physical test

Q.no 48. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called _____

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 49. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

A : Increase the effect of agitation

B : Improve aeration efficiency

C : Improve cooling capacity

D : Improve the fermenter capacity

Q.no 50. Design criteria for space requirements for cascade aerator is

A : 0.060-0.080 m2/m3/hr

B : 0.030-0.060 m2/m3/hr

C : 0.010-0.020 m2/m3/hr

D : 0.015-0.045 m2/m3/hr

Q.no 51. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible

velocity is ____ m/Sec.

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 52. The effective height of stack is given by ________

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 53. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse
Rate (ALR), then which of the followingoccurs?

A : Subadiabaticlapserate

B : Superadiabaticlapserate
C : Neutrallapserate

D : Adiabatic lapse rate

Q.no 54. What does the term turbidity indicate in atmospheric quality?

A : Indicates density of clouds

B : Reduction of light due to dust particles

C : Indicates the humidity

D : Turbulence of winds

Q.no 55. Which of these mechanisms is not a significant contributor for

contaminant removal in Rapid Sand Filters?

A : Adsorption

B : Physical straining

C : Biological action

D : Chemical action

Q.no 56. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2

C : Ca(OH)2

D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 57. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of
water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 58. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

A : Burning
B : Source reduction

C : Disposal

D : Recycling

Q.no 59. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 60. The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from

A : 0.30 to 0.35 mm

B : 0.35 to 0.50 mm

C : 0.50 to 0.65 mm

D : 0.65 to 0.75 mm

Q.no 1. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 2. Sound is measured by units that are called

A : Hertz (Hz)

B : Decibels(dB)

C : Meters (m)

D : Pascal (Pa)

Q.no 3. As compared to arithmetical increase method of forecasting population,

geometrical increase method gives
A : Lesser value

B : Higher value

C : Same value

D : Accurate value

Q.no 4. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

A : Polythene bags

B : Synthetic fiber

C : Food waste

D : plastic water bottle

Q.no 5. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of

A : bacteria

B : odour

C : turbidity

D : Color

Q.no 6. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 7. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water

takes place?

A : Domestic water demand

B : Industrial water demand

C : Institutional and commercial water demand

D : Fire demand

Q.no 8. in Aeration of water following component is not removed

A : CO2

B : H2S

C : lead

D : Iron

Q.no 9. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be

increased by

A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 10. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

A : Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

B : Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

C : Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

D : Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

Q.no 11. The waste produced in cotton mills are

A : Municipal solid waste

B : Non biodegradable waste

C : Hazardous waste

D : Non hazardous waste

Q.no 12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water
D : It is used for mixing
chemicals with water

Q.no 13. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 14. Which is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation?

A : Sedimentation

B : Aeration

C : Flocculation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 15. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 16. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is ______

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 17. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid
B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 18. The chemical composition of Alum is

A : Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

B : Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O

C : Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

D : Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.no 19. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 20. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?

A : NO2

B : O3

C : PAN

D : SPM

Q.no 21. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?

A : Screening devices

B : Sedimentation tank

C : Grit removers

D : Mechanical mixers
Q.no 22. In which form of chlorination, chlorine applies to raw water supply as it
enters the distribution system?

A : Plain Chlorination

B : Pre Chlorination

C : Super Chlorination

D : Double Chlorination

Q.no 23. Which is the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved oxygen content of water

C : It decreases pH of water

D : It is used for mixing chemicals with water

Q.no 24. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called _____

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 25. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 26. Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?

A : Ferric sulphate

B : Ferric chloride

C : Aluminium sulphate
D : Copper sulphate

Q.no 27. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ___ ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 28. How the performance of the rapid sand filter can be improved?

A : Replacing the top 15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

B : Replacing the bottom15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

C : Increasing the thickness of a layer of sand

D : Replacing 15 cm layer of Anthracite with sand

Q.no 29. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 30. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree
branches or other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 31. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is _______

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s
D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 32. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 33. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of high

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 34. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 35. The permissible concentration of PM 10 in the air is

A : 60 μg/m3

B : 40 μg/m3

C : 50 μg/m3

D : 20 μg/m3

Q.no 36. The slurry is

A : A suspension to be filtered

B : A porous membrane used to retain the solids

C : The solids which are present on the filter

D : A clear liquid passing through the filter

Q.no 37. The design period for the design of water treatment plant is generally
taken as

A : 15 years

B : 30 years

C : 50 years

D : more than 50 years

Q.no 38. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 39. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding hard water?

A : It causes more consumption of soap in laundry work

B : It causes difficulties in the manufacturing process

C : It increases the taste of food

D : It causes the formation of scales on the boilers

Q.no 40. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

A : 1/T

B : 1/T2

C:T

D : T2

Q.no 41. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average
incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on
incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be _______

A : 55000
B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 42. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 43. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum
is added to water is

A : Al (OH)3

B : SO2

C : CO2

D : Ca (OH)3

Q.no 44. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 45. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator
for design purpose?

A : 30 min

B : 60 min

C : 90 min

D : 100 min

Q.no 46. In which type of filtration problem, layers of gravel are displaced?
A : Clogging

B : Air binding

C : Sand incrustation

D : Sand leakage

Q.no 47. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent

hardness?

A : It is also called carbonate hardness

B : It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and

magnesium

C : It cannot be removed by boiling

D : It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Q.no 48. The liquid that comes out of solid waste dump is kown as?

A : Leachate

B : Wastewater

C : Sludge

D : Sullage

Q.no 49. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and
induce coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 50. The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more
than

A : 0.75 m

B : 1.2 m

C : 2.2 m
D : 3.5 m

Q.no 51. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

A : It is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B : Huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

C : The effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

D : It is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Q.no 52. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 53. What is the residence time (average time a particle is active in a given
system) of carbon monoxide?

A : 11-15 years

B : 0.1-0.3 years

C : 0.5 years

D : 1-2 Years

Q.no 54. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion

D : Viscous motion

Q.no 55. In which process of water softening, ion exchange

phenomenontakesplace?

A : Limesoda process

B : Zeolite process
C : Boiling

D : Demineralization process

Q.no 56. What is the test used to select the type of coagulant required

A : Bar Test

B : Jar Test

C : Stock Test

D : Coagulant Test

Q.no 57. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 58. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the
maximum daily demand is _____

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 59. The effective height of stack is given by ________

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack
Q.no 60. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible
velocity is ____ m/Sec.

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 1. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 2. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 3. The purpose of aeration is to provide

A : The medium to organisms

B : The carbon dioxide to organisms

C : The oxygen to organisms

D : The water to organisms

Q.no 4. As compared to arithmetical increase method of forecasting population,

geometrical increase method gives

A : Lesser value

B : Higher value

C : Same value
D : Accurate value

Q.no 5. The agitator is required to

A : Provide air

B : Mixing objectives

C : Purify the product

D : Sterilize the media

Q.no 6. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles
from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 7. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

A : 20-55 per second

B : 20-75 per second

C : 50-80 per second

D : 30-90 per second

Q.no 8. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 9. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before

disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine
C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 10. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 11. ______ is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended
impurities from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 12. Sound is measured by units that are called

A : Hertz (Hz)

B : Decibels(dB)

C : Meters (m)

D : Pascal (Pa)

Q.no 13. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is
______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 14. The sludge in water softening accelerator is deposite at

A : Sedimentation tank
B : Reaction zone

C : Concentrator

D : Secondary mixing zone

Q.no 15. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60
degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 16. Which is the largest source for production of nitrous oxide?

A : Chemical industry

B : Fertiliser industry

C : Fossil fuel combustion

D : Bacterial action

Q.no 17. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as
___________

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 18. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

A : Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

B : Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

C : Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

D : Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

Q.no 19. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?
A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 20. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of

A : bacteria

B : odour

C : turbidity

D : Color

Q.no 21. Which of the following does not influence filtration?

A : Temperature

B : Density

C : Viscosity

D : pH

Q.no 22. Highest percentage of air consists of

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon dioxide

C : Nitrogen

D : Argon

Q.no 23. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution,
because animals dependent on _________

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour
Q.no 24. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Secondary sedimentation

C : Plain sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 25. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding turbidity?

A : It is an extent to which light is absorbed by particles in the water

B : It is expressed in ppm

C : It depends on the fineness of particle present in the water

D : Turbidity rod is a laboratory method to measure turbidity

Q.no 26. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal

solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 27. The density of ash produced in the municipal solid waste is

A : 100 kg/m3

B : 450 kg/m3

C : 700 kg/m3

D : 1000 kg/m3

Q.no 28. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling
D : Discrete settling

Q.no 29. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ________

A : 05

B : 075

C : 0.1

D : 0.15

Q.no 30. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

A : Decreasing the time of contact

B : Decreasing the temperature of water

C : Increasing the temperature of water

D : none

Q.no 31. In a baffled channel, tapered flocculation may be achieved by

A : Closer spacing of baffles in the beginning and wider spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

B : Wider spacing of baffles in the beginning and closer spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

C : Gradually decreasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

D : Gradually increasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

Q.no 32. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity
is ____ m/Sec

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 33. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 34. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon monoxide

C : Nitrogen Dioxide

D : Ozone

Q.no 35. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 36. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is _______

A : 0.9

B : 0.8

C : 0.99

D:1

Q.no 37. Green House gas is

A : Nitrogen

B : Oxygen

C : Carbon Dioxide

D : Methane

Q.no 38. What is the contact period for disinfection with chloramine?

A : 1 hour

B : 2 hours
C : 3 hours

D : 4 hours

Q.no 39. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of intermediate

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 40. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 41. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called _____

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 42. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 43. Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz which are inaudible to normal
human ear are called
A : Noise

B : Frequency

C : Ultrasonic

D : Amplitude

Q.no 44. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average
incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on
incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be _______

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

A : Increase the effect of agitation

B : Improve aeration efficiency

C : Improve cooling capacity

D : Improve the fermenter capacity

Q.no 46. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse
Rate (ALR), then which of the followingoccurs?

A : Subadiabaticlapserate

B : Superadiabaticlapserate

C : Neutrallapserate

D : Adiabatic lapse rate

Q.no 47. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

A : Burning

B : Source reduction

C : Disposal
D : Recycling

Q.no 48. The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from

A : 0.30 to 0.35 mm

B : 0.35 to 0.50 mm

C : 0.50 to 0.65 mm

D : 0.65 to 0.75 mm

Q.no 49. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 50. For a flow of 5 MLD and detention period of 04 hrs ------m3 of volume
required for sedimentation tank

A : 833.33

B : 835.88

C : 834.33

D : 832.33

Q.no 51. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of
water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 52. Which of these mechanisms is not a significant contributor for

contaminant removal in Rapid Sand Filters?

A : Adsorption

B : Physical straining
C : Biological action

D : Chemical action

Q.no 53. Which of the following regarding break point chlorination is wrong?

A : It will have adequate chlorine residual

B : It will remove manganese

C : It will remove taste and odor

D : It is determined by physical test

Q.no 54. What does the term turbidity indicate in atmospheric quality?

A : Indicates density of clouds

B : Reduction of light due to dust particles

C : Indicates the humidity

D : Turbulence of winds

Q.no 55. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2

C : Ca(OH)2

D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 56. Design criteria for space requirements for cascade aerator is

A : 0.060-0.080 m2/m3/hr

B : 0.030-0.060 m2/m3/hr

C : 0.010-0.020 m2/m3/hr

D : 0.015-0.045 m2/m3/hr

Q.no 57. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 58. In which type of filtration problem, layers of gravel are displaced?

A : Clogging

B : Air binding

C : Sand incrustation

D : Sand leakage

Q.no 59. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum
is added to water is

A : Al (OH)3

B : SO2

C : CO2

D : Ca (OH)3

Q.no 60. What is the residence time (average time a particle is active in a given
system) of carbon monoxide?

A : 11-15 years

B : 0.1-0.3 years

C : 0.5 years

D : 1-2 Years

Q.no 1. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 2. in Aeration of water following component is not removed

A : CO2

B : H2S

C : lead

D : Iron

Q.no 3. Which of the following is wrong regarding disinfection?

A : It should be readily available at reasonable cost

B : Its method of application should be simple

C : It should render the water toxic for its intended use

D : It should act as safeguard against re-contamination

Q.no 4. Which is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation?

A : Sedimentation

B : Aeration

C : Flocculation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 5. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be

increased by

A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 6. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours
Q.no 7. The waste produced in cotton mills are

A : Municipal solid waste

B : Non biodegradable waste

C : Hazardous waste

D : Non hazardous waste

Q.no 8. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 9. The chemical composition of Alum is

A : Al2 (SO4)3.18H2O

B : Al2 (SO4)2.18H2O

C : Al3 (SO4)2.18H2O

D : Al4 (SO4)3.18H2O

Q.no 10. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?

A : Polythene bags

B : Synthetic fiber

C : Food waste

D : plastic water bottle

Q.no 11. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap
C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 12. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is ______

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 13. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 14. Which of the following is not a part of photochemical smog?

A : NO2

B : O3

C : PAN

D : SPM

Q.no 15. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 16. In which type of water demand, minimum average consumption of water
takes place?

A : Domestic water demand

B : Industrial water demand

C : Institutional and commercial water demand

D : Fire demand

Q.no 17. As compared to arithmetical increase method of forecasting population,

geometrical increase method gives

A : Lesser value

B : Higher value

C : Same value

D : Accurate value

Q.no 18. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 19. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before
disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 20. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles
from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 21. Which of the following is not a coagulating agent?

A : Ferric sulphate
B : Ferric chloride

C : Aluminium sulphate

D : Copper sulphate

Q.no 22. How the performance of the rapid sand filter can be improved?

A : Replacing the top 15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

B : Replacing the bottom15 cm layer of sand with Anthracite

C : Increasing the thickness of a layer of sand

D : Replacing 15 cm layer of Anthracite with sand

Q.no 23. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 24. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding hard water?

A : It causes more consumption of soap in laundry work

B : It causes difficulties in the manufacturing process

C : It increases the taste of food

D : It causes the formation of scales on the boilers

Q.no 25. The slurry is

A : A suspension to be filtered

B : A porous membrane used to retain the solids

C : The solids which are present on the filter

D : A clear liquid passing through the filter

Q.no 26. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum
B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 27. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 28. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of high

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation

C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 29. The contact time for disinfection by combined chlorine is

A : 20 min

B : 30 min

C : 40 min

D : 60 min

Q.no 30. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree
branches or other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 31. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 32. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?

A : Screening devices

B : Sedimentation tank

C : Grit removers

D : Mechanical mixers

Q.no 33. In which form of chlorination, chlorine applies to raw water supply as it
enters the distribution system?

A : Plain Chlorination

B : Pre Chlorination

C : Super Chlorination

D : Double Chlorination

Q.no 34. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 35. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

A : Applied chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Sum of applied and residual chlorine

D : difference of applied and residual chlorine

Q.no 36. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called _____

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 37. The permissible concentration of PM 10 in the air is

A : 60 μg/m3

B : 40 μg/m3

C : 50 μg/m3

D : 20 μg/m3

Q.no 38. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is _______

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 39. Which water treatment process is done after filtration of water?

A : Primary sedimentation

B : Disinfection

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Flocculation

Q.no 40. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ___ ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100
Q.no 41. The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more
than

A : 0.75 m

B : 1.2 m

C : 2.2 m

D : 3.5 m

Q.no 42. What is the test used to select the type of coagulant required

A : Bar Test

B : Jar Test

C : Stock Test

D : Coagulant Test

Q.no 43. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent

hardness?

A : It is also called carbonate hardness

B : It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and

magnesium

C : It cannot be removed by boiling

D : It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Q.no 44. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion

D : Viscous motion

Q.no 45. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

A : It is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B : Huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

C : The effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

D : It is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Q.no 46. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 47. What is the normal value of the detention period adopted in a flocculator
for design purpose?

A : 30 min

B : 60 min

C : 90 min

D : 100 min

Q.no 48. __________ is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and
induce coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 49. The liquid that comes out of solid waste dump is kown as?

A : Leachate

B : Wastewater

C : Sludge

D : Sullage

Q.no 50. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible

velocity is ____ m/Sec.

A:3

B : 0.3
C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 51. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 52. The effective height of stack is given by ________

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 53. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is
called _____

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 54. In which process of water softening, ion exchange

phenomenontakesplace?

A : Limesoda process

B : Zeolite process

C : Boiling

D : Demineralization process
Q.no 55. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the
maximum daily demand is _____

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 56. What does the term turbidity indicate in atmospheric quality?

A : Indicates density of clouds

B : Reduction of light due to dust particles

C : Indicates the humidity

D : Turbulence of winds

Q.no 57. Which of these mechanisms is not a significant contributor for

contaminant removal in Rapid Sand Filters?

A : Adsorption

B : Physical straining

C : Biological action

D : Chemical action

Q.no 58. The chemical compound which is insoluble in water, formed when alum
is added to water is

A : Al (OH)3

B : SO2

C : CO2

D : Ca (OH)3

Q.no 59. Which of the following regarding break point chlorination is wrong?

A : It will have adequate chlorine residual

B : It will remove manganese

C : It will remove taste and odor

D : It is determined by physical test

Q.no 60. For a flow of 5 MLD and detention period of 04 hrs ------m3 of volume
required for sedimentation tank

A : 833.33

B : 835.88

C : 834.33

D : 832.33

Q.no 1. Slow sand filter is more efficient for the removal of

A : bacteria

B : odour

C : turbidity

D : Color

Q.no 2. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 3. Which is the largest source for production of nitrous oxide?

A : Chemical industry

B : Fertiliser industry

C : Fossil fuel combustion

D : Bacterial action

Q.no 4. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding Iron salt?

A : Iron salt produces less floc than Alum

B : Detention time for sedimentation by using Iron salt as coagulant is less

C : Handling of Iron salt requires some skills

D : Iron removes H2S, taste and odor

Q.no 5. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as
___________

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 6. What is the desirable value of mean velocity gradient in a flocculator?

A : 20-55 per second

B : 20-75 per second

C : 50-80 per second

D : 30-90 per second

Q.no 7. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 8. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 9. ______ is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended
impurities from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge
C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 10. The agitator is required to

A : Provide air

B : Mixing objectives

C : Purify the product

D : Sterilize the media

Q.no 11. Sound is measured by units that are called

A : Hertz (Hz)

B : Decibels(dB)

C : Meters (m)

D : Pascal (Pa)

Q.no 12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 13. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is
______

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 14. The sludge in water softening accelerator is deposite at

A : Sedimentation tank

B : Reaction zone

C : Concentrator

D : Secondary mixing zone

Q.no 15. The purpose of aeration is to provide

A : The medium to organisms

B : The carbon dioxide to organisms

C : The oxygen to organisms

D : The water to organisms

Q.no 16. What is the pH value of water sample if the pOH value is 6?

A:6

B:7

C:8

D:9

Q.no 17. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is ______

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 18. Chlorine which gets consumed in the oxidation of impurities before
disinfection is

A : Free chlorine

B : Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand
Q.no 19. The efficiency of sedimentation tank for a given discharge, can be
increased by

A : increasing the depth of tank

B : decreasing the depth of tank

C : increasing the surface area of tank

D : decreasing the surface area of tank

Q.no 20. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : Rich class consumes less water

B : Intermittent water supplies leads to less water consumption

C : Loss of water is more if the pressure in the distribution system is less

D : Water consumption is less in flush system

Q.no 21. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 22. What is the dimension formula of mean velocity gradient?

A : 1/T

B : 1/T2

C:T

D : T2

Q.no 23. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is _______

A : 0.9

B : 0.8

C : 0.99

D:1
Q.no 24. The design period for the design of water treatment plant is generally
taken as

A : 15 years

B : 30 years

C : 50 years

D : more than 50 years

Q.no 25. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 26. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 27. In a rectangular horizontal flow tank, the maximum permissible velocity
is ____ m/Sec

A:3

B : 0.3

C : 03

D : 003

Q.no 28. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution,
because animals dependent on _________

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action
D : Behaviour

Q.no 29. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles,
the operation is called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Secondary sedimentation

C : Plain sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 30. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

A : Decreasing the time of contact

B : Decreasing the temperature of water

C : Increasing the temperature of water

D : none

Q.no 31. Highest percentage of air consists of

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon dioxide

C : Nitrogen

D : Argon

Q.no 32. Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?

A : Oxygen

B : Carbon monoxide

C : Nitrogen Dioxide

D : Ozone

Q.no 33. In which type of sedimentation, flocculent suspension of intermediate

concentration takes place?

A : Type I sedimentation

B : Type II sedimentation
C : Type III sedimentation

D : Type IV sedimentation

Q.no 34. What is the contact period for disinfection with chloramine?

A : 1 hour

B : 2 hours

C : 3 hours

D : 4 hours

Q.no 35. Which is the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved oxygen content of water

C : It decreases pH of water

D : It is used for mixing chemicals with water

Q.no 36. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal

solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 37. 1 TCU (True Color Unit) is equivalent to

A : The color produced by 1 g of platinum cobalt

B : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt

C : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1L of distilled water

D : The color produced by 1 mg of platinum cobalt in 1mL of distilled water

Q.no 38. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as ________

A : 05

B : 075
C : 0.1

D : 0.15

Q.no 39. Which of the following does not influence filtration?

A : Temperature

B : Density

C : Viscosity

D : pH

Q.no 40. In a baffled channel, tapered flocculation may be achieved by

A : Closer spacing of baffles in the beginning and wider spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

B : Wider spacing of baffles in the beginning and closer spacing of baffles towards end
of the channel

C : Gradually decreasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

D : Gradually increasing the loading rates (discharge at the inlet) to the flocculator

Q.no 41. What is the test used to select the type of coagulant required

A : Bar Test

B : Jar Test

C : Stock Test

D : Coagulant Test

Q.no 42. Molecular formula for bleaching powder is

A : ClO2

B : CaCl2

C : Ca(OH)2

D : Ca(ClO)2

Q.no 43. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 44. Which of the following statement is wrong regarding permanent

hardness?

A : It is also called carbonate hardness

B : It is due to the presence of sulfates, chlorides and nitrates of calcium and

magnesium

C : It cannot be removed by boiling

D : It requires special methods of water softening to get removed

Q.no 45. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of
water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 46. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

A : It is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

B : Huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

C : The effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

D : It is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Q.no 47. What is the residence time (average time a particle is active in a given
system) of carbon monoxide?

A : 11-15 years

B : 0.1-0.3 years

C : 0.5 years

D : 1-2 Years
Q.no 48. ________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present
in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 49. The effective size of sand particles for slow sand filters varies from

A : 0.30 to 0.35 mm

B : 0.35 to 0.50 mm

C : 0.50 to 0.65 mm

D : 0.65 to 0.75 mm

Q.no 50. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 51. In which type of filtration problem, layers of gravel are displaced?

A : Clogging

B : Air binding

C : Sand incrustation

D : Sand leakage

Q.no 52. Design criteria for space requirements for cascade aerator is

A : 0.060-0.080 m2/m3/hr

B : 0.030-0.060 m2/m3/hr

C : 0.010-0.020 m2/m3/hr

D : 0.015-0.045 m2/m3/hr
Q.no 53. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

A : Increase the effect of agitation

B : Improve aeration efficiency

C : Improve cooling capacity

D : Improve the fermenter capacity

Q.no 54. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

A : Burning

B : Source reduction

C : Disposal

D : Recycling

Q.no 55. What is the movement of solids in water called?

A : Motion

B : Brownian motion

C : Horizontal motion

D : Viscous motion

Q.no 56. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 57. Sounds of frequency higher than 20,000 Hz which are inaudible to normal
human ear are called

A : Noise

B : Frequency

C : Ultrasonic

D : Amplitude
Q.no 58. The slow sand filter should be cleaned if the loss of head becomes more
than

A : 0.75 m

B : 1.2 m

C : 2.2 m

D : 3.5 m

Q.no 59. When environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is equal to the Adiabatic Lapse
Rate (ALR), then which of the followingoccurs?

A : Subadiabaticlapserate

B : Superadiabaticlapserate

C : Neutrallapserate

D : Adiabatic lapse rate

Q.no 60. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average
incremental increase during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on
incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be _______

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500
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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD12885 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING I

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or other
large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 2. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 3. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

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A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 4. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 5. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 6. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 7. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

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Q.no 8. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 9. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 10. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 12. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

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Q.no 13. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 14. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 15. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 16. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 17. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

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Q.no 18. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 19. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 20. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 21. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 22. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

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D : Remains constant

Q.no 23. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 24. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 25. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 26. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 27. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

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B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 28. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 29. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 30. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 31. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 32. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

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C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 33. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 34. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 35. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 36. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 37. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

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B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 38. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 39. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 40. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 41. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting
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Q.no 42. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 43. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 44. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 45. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 46. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 47. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

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A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 48. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 49. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 50. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 51. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

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C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 52. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 53. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 54. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 55. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 56. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

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D : Electrical

Q.no 57. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 58. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 59. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 60. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 1. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

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D : Smoke

Q.no 2. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 3. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 4. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 5. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 6. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

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C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 7. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 8. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or other
large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 9. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 10. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 11. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

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B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 12. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 13. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 14. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 15. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 16. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

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B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 17. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 18. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 19. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 20. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 21. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

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B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 22. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 23. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 24. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 25. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 26. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

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B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 27. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 28. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 29. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 30. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

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B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 31. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 32. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 33. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 34. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 35. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

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C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 36. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 37. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 38. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 39. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 40. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

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C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 41. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 42. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 43. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 44. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 45. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

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B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 46. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 47. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 48. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 50. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

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A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 51. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 52. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 53. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 54. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 55. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

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B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 56. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 57. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 58. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 59. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 60. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

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C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 1. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 2. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 3. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 4. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

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C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 6. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 7. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 8. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 9. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 10. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

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D : Remains constant

Q.no 11. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 12. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 13. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 14. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 15. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

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B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 16. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 17. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or
other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 18. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 19. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 20. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

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B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 21. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 22. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 23. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 24. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 25. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

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B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 26. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 27. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 28. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 29. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 30. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

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A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 31. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 32. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 33. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 34. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

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Q.no 35. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 36. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 37. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 38. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 39. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

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Q.no 40. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 41. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 42. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 43. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 44. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

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C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 45. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 46. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 47. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 48. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 49. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

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A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 50. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 51. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 52. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 53. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

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Q.no 54. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 55. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 56. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 57. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 58. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 59. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

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A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 60. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 1. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 2. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 3. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 4. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification

process.

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A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 5. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 6. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 7. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or other
large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 8. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

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Q.no 9. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 10. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 11. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 12. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 13. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

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Q.no 14. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 15. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 16. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 17. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 18. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

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D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 19. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 20. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 21. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 22. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 23. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

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D : Aeration

Q.no 24. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 25. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 26. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 27. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 28. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

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C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 29. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 30. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 31. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 32. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

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Q.no 33. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 34. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 35. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 36. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 37. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 38. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

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A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 39. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 40. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 41. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 42. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

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D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 43. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 44. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 45. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 46. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 47. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

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D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 48. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 49. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 50. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 51. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 52. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

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C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 53. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 54. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 55. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 56. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 57. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

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B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 58. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 59. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 60. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 1. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 2. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

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C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 3. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 4. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from
it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 5. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 6. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 7. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

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B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 8. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 9. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 10. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 11. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 12. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

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A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 13. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or
other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 14. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 15. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 16. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 17. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

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A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 18. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 19. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 20. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 21. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

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A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 23. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 24. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 25. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 26. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

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Q.no 27. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 28. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 29. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 30. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 31. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 32. Identify the correct relation between the following?

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A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 33. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 34. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 35. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 36. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive
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B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 37. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 38. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 39. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 40. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 41. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

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A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 42. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 43. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 44. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 45. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 46. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

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A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 47. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 48. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 49. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 50. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 51. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

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A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 52. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 53. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 54. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 55. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 56. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

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A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 57. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 58. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 59. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 60. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

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Q.no 1. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 2. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 3. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from
it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 4. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 5. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

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Q.no 6. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 7. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 8. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 9. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 10. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 11. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

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A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 12. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or
other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 13. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 14. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 15. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

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D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 16. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 17. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 18. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 19. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 20. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

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C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 21. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 22. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 23. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 24. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 25. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

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C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 26. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 27. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 28. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 29. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 30. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

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B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 31. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 32. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 33. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 34. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 35. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

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A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 36. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 37. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 38. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 39. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 40. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

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B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 41. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 42. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 43. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 44. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

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Q.no 45. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 46. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 47. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 48. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 49. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 50. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

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A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 51. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 52. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 53. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 54. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

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Q.no 55. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 56. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 57. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 58. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 59. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

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D : Electrical

Q.no 60. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 1. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 2. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 3. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 4. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

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D : Pressure filter

Q.no 5. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 6. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities from
it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 7. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 8. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 9. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

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C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 10. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 11. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 12. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 13. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 14. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

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C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 15. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 16. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or
other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 17. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 18. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 19. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

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C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 20. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 21. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 22. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 23. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 24. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

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C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 25. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 26. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 27. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 28. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 29. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

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A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 30. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 31. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 32. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 33. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

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D : hot climate

Q.no 34. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 35. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 36. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 37. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 38. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection
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B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 39. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 40. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 41. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 42. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 43. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

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B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 44. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 45. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 46. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 47. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 48. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

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C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 49. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 50. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 51. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 52. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 53. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

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C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 54. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 55. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 56. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 57. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 58. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

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B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 59. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 60. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 1. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 2. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification

process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 3. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

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B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 4. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or other
large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 5. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 6. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 7. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 8. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

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B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 9. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 10. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 11. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 12. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 13. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

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A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 14. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 15. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 16. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 17. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 18. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

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A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 19. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 20. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 21. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 22. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 23. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

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A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 24. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 25. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 26. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 27. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

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D : Soil

Q.no 28. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 29. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 30. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 31. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 32. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

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C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 33. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 34. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 35. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 36. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 37. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is
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A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 38. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 39. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 40. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 41. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

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Q.no 42. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 43. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 44. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 45. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 46. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 47. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

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A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 48. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 49. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 50. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 51. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 52. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

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B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 53. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 54. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

D : 54 mld

Q.no 55. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 56. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 57. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

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B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 58. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 59. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 60. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 1. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 2. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

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A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 3. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 4. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 5. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification

process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 6. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 7. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

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A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 8. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 9. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 10. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 11. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 12. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

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A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 13. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 14. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 15. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 16. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

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Q.no 17. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or
other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 18. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 19. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 20. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 21. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

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Q.no 22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 23. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 24. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 25. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 26. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

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Q.no 27. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 28. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 29. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 30. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 31. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

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B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 32. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 33. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 34. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 35. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 36. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

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A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 37. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 38. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 39. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 40. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 41. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

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A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

Q.no 42. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 43. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 44. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 45. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles
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D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 46. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 47. The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as

A : Daily demand

B : Monthly demand

C : Annual demand

D : Per capita demand

Q.no 48. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 49. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 50. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

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D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 51. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 52. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 53. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 54. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

D : 100mm

Q.no 55. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

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Q.no 56. Sunlight is a method of disinfection.

A : Physical

B : Chemical

C : Mechanical

D : Electrical

Q.no 57. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

Q.no 58. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 59. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 60. If the average daily demand of a city of 50,000 population, is 20 MLD., the maximum
daily demand is

A : 24 mld

B : 30 mld

C : 36 mld

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D : 54 mld

Q.no 1. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of water?

A:2

B:3

C:4

D:5

Q.no 2. In water treatment activated carbon is used for

A : Removing odour

B : Removing permanent hardness

C : Disinfection

D : Removing Oxygen

Q.no 3. The normal dose of chlorine during plain chlorination is

A : 0.5-1ppm

B : 0.1-0.2ppm

C : 0.1-0.5ppm

D : 1-2ppm

Q.no 4. Which of the following is a liquid form of aerosol?

A : Fume

B : Dust

C : Mist

D : Smoke

Q.no 5. Why should people implement rainwater harvesting?

A : In order to play with the

water

B : In order to use during

scarcity of water

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C : In order to pour the

rain water directly to the sewage

D : In order to time pass

Q.no 6. What is the dB of a threshold of pain?

A : 100

B : 110

C : 120

D : 146

Q.no 7. How many methods of rainwater harvesting are there?

A : One

B : Two

C : Three

D : Four

Q.no 8. By aeration process, dissolved iron is oxidized into

A : Ferrous oxide

B : Ferric oxide

C : Ferrous hydroxide

D : Ferric hydroxide

Q.no 9. The effective size of sand in a rapid sand filter is

A : 0.45mm

B : 0.7mm

C : 0.8mm

D : 0.9mm

Q.no 10. is a liquid that passes through solid waste and extracts suspended impurities
from it.

A : Leachate

B : Sludge

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C : Distilled water

D : Municipal waste

Q.no 11. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A : Water with hardness up to 75 ppm is considered soft

B : Water with hardness 50 ppm is considered hard

C : Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 10 ppm

D : Water with pH 4 is soft water

Q.no 12. In which of the following distribution system, the clean water flows entirely under
gravity?

A : Gravity system

B : Pressure system

C : Combined gravity and

pumping system

D : Pumping system

Q.no 13. Which one of the following is the benefit of rainwater harvesting?

A : Flood mitigation

B : Provide a lot of water to play

C : Create good aesthetic view

D : Decrease the ground

water level

Q.no 14. represents the bacterial density that is most likely to be present in water.

A : BOD

B : COD

C : MPN

D : Coliform index

Q.no 15. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, tree branches or
other large particles suspended in water?

A : Screening

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B : Aeration

C : Primary sedimentation

D : Secondary sedimentation

Q.no 16. One degree of hardness is equivalent to ppm.

A:2

B:1

C : 10

D : 100

Q.no 17. Water losses in water supply, is assumed as

A : 5%

B : 7.5%

C : 10%

D : 15%

Q.no 18. In which type of filter, rate of filtration is more?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Gravity filter

D : Pressure filter

Q.no 19. The water supply distribution pipes are designed for

A : maximum daily demand

B : maximum hourly demand

C : average daily demand

D : maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Q.no 20. When turbidity in water increases, the efficiency of chlorine?

A : Decreases

B : Increases
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C : Slightly increases

D : Remains constant

Q.no 21. The major photochemical smog is

A : Hydrogen peroxide

B : Chlorofluorocarbon

C : Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D : Hydrogen sulphite

Q.no 22. is the application of chlorine at two or more points in the purification
process.

A : Plain chlorination

B : Pre chlorination

C : Super chlorination

D : Double chlorination

Q.no 23. Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal solid waste?

A : Land fills

B : Shredding

C : Pulverization

D : Composting

Q.no 24. Which of the following substance is commonly used in a filter?

A : Murum

B : Sand

C : Sodium Chloride

D : Soil

Q.no 25. The chlorine, which serves as a disinfectant is

A : Free chlorine

B : Free Residual chlorine

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C : Chlorine demand

D : Residual demand

Q.no 26. The time period for which the water is stored in a sedimentation tank is called

A : Time of flow

B : Frequency of flow

C : Settling time

D : Detention period

Q.no 27. When impurities are separated by the gravitation of settling particles, the operation is
called

A : Sedimentation with coagulant

B : Plain sedimentation

C : Secondary sedimentation

D : Disinfection

Q.no 28. Capacity of distribution reservoir is calculated by

A : Unit hydrograph

B : Digital planimeter

C : Clinometer

D : Sounding bar

Q.no 29. The effective height of stack is given by

A : Plume height /
Actual height of the stack

B : Plume height *
Actual height of the stack

C : Plume height –
Actual height of the stack

D : Plume height +
Actual height of the stack

Q.no 30. is an operation designed to force agitation in the fluid and induce
coagulation.

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A : Sedimentation

B : Flocculation

C : Disinfection

D : Aeration

Q.no 31. In distribution pipes, an air valves are provided at

A : Any where

B : Junction point

C : Lower point

D : Higher point

Q.no 32. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aeration process.

A : It removes taste and odor

B : It increases the dissolved

oxygen content of water

C : It increases the carbon

dioxide content of water

D : It is used for mixing

chemicals with water

Q.no 33. What is the detention period of a clarifier used in the treatment of water?

A : 1hour

B : 2hours

C : 3hours

D : 4hours

Q.no 34. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as

A : 50 yr

B : 20 yr

C : 30 yr

D : 10 yr

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Q.no 35. Wildlife faces more problems than humans due to noise pollution, because animals
dependent on

A : Noise

B : Sound

C : Action

D : Behaviour

Q.no 36. Method of rainwater harvesting which can be adopted by individual house owners is

A : Construction of recharge trenches

water

B : On channel storage of water

water

C : Creation of new water bodies

D : Roof top rainwater harvesting

of water for shower

Q.no 37. Identify the correct relation between the following?

A : Dissolved solid =
Total solid + Suspended solid

B : Dissolved solid =
Total solid – Suspended solid

C : Total solid =
Dissolved solid / Suspended solid

D : Dissolved solid =
Suspended solid – Total solid

Q.no 38. Which filter is normally used in the lime soda treatment plant?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Dual media filter

D : Mixed media filter

Q.no 39. What would happen if the tube settler is inclined greater than 60 degrees?

A : The efficiency will increase

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B : The efficiency will decrease

C : Colour will be removed

D : Odour will be removed

Q.no 40. The maximum efficiency of the electrostatic precipitator is

A : 90%

B : 80%

C : 99%

D : 100%

Q.no 41. When the loss of head exceeds the static head, the head becomes

A : Positive

B : Negative

C : Constant

D : Zero

Q.no 42. The design value of the velocity of flow in a flocculator is

A : 0.2-0.8m/s

B : 0.3-0.5m/s

C : 0.6-0.8m/s

D : 0.1-0.5m/s

Q.no 43. The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is

A : R.C.C. pipes

B : Hume pipes

C : Cast iron pipes

D : G.I. pipes

Q.no 44. What of the following is the preferred in case of anion exchanger?

A : NaCl

B : Na2SO4

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C : Na2CO3

D : NaOH

Q.no 45. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

A : use of metering system

B : good quality of water

C : better standard of living

D : hot climate

Q.no 46. The temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of

A : Sulfates, Chlorides

B : Sulfates, Chlorides, nitrates

C : Carbonates and bicarbonates

D : Sulfates and carbonates

Q.no 47. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?

A : Rain collection

B : Rainwater harvesting

C : Rain digging

D : Rain water pumping

Q.no 48. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the zeolite process?

A : No sludge is formed

B : The process is almost

automatic

C : Suspended impurities
get deposited around the
zeolite particles

D : Zero hardness can

be occurred

Q.no 49. Pipe corrosion can be minimized by

A : Removal of copper sulfate

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B : Addition of calcium carbonate

C : Addition of carbon dioxide

D : Removal of dissolved oxygen

Q.no 50. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from water?

A : Chemical precipitation

B : Chemical coagulation

C : Ion exchange

D : Adsorption

Q.no 51. Which gas is released when alum is added to water?

A : NO2

B : O2

C : H2S

D : CO2

Q.no 52. What is formed when coagulant is added to water?

A : Scum

B : Soap

C : Bubbles

D : Floc

Q.no 53. The minimum particle size removes by the gravitational chamber is

A : >50μm

B : >10μm

C : >25μm

D : >0.5μm

Q.no 54. The pressure in the distribution mains does not depend on

A : Altitude to supply water

B : Fire fighting requirements

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C : Availability of funds

D : Quality of water

Q.no 55. The upward vertical rise prevails in which of the following plume?

A : Trapping

B : Fanning

C : Looping

D : Neutral

Q.no 56. The pressure in distribution mains in a residential building up to three storeys is

A : 2kg/cm2

B : 5kg/cm2

C : 7kg/cm2

D : 10kg/cm2

Q.no 57. What is the value of specific gravity of sand filter?

A:2

B : 2.6

C : 3.1

D : 3.5

Q.no 58. The pathogenic bacteria do not last long at a pH

A : >11

B : <11

C : <8

D : >8

Q.no 59. What is the size of the coarse screen used in pretreatment of water?

A : 25mm

B : 50mm

C : 75mm

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D : 100mm

Q.no 60. The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000.

The average increase in population over last 8 decades is 7500 and average incremental increase
during 8 decades is 750. The population of the city based on incremental
method, in the year 2020 will be

A : 55000

B : 60500

C : 66500

D : 72500

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1. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
A. The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage
B. The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops
C. The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called sewerage
D. The old convergency system was definitely better than water carried sewerage system
Answer => D
Discuss in Forum

2. The sludge does not contain waste water from

A. bath rooms
B. wash basins
C. kitchen sinks
D. toilets.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

3. The water carried sewerage system removes

A. domestic sewage
B. industrial sewage
C. storm sewage
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

4. In a city the ratio of the drainage_ to sewage is 20, the

percentage discharge passing through non-monsoon periods, is
A.5
B.10
C.15
D.20

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

5. The sewerage system originates from

A. house sewers
B. lateral sewers
C. branch sewers
D. main sewers
Answer => A

Discuss in Forum

6. The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of

treatment, is called
A. house sewer
B. out-fall sewer
C. branch sewer
D. lateral

Answer => B

Discuss in Forum

7. Pick up the in-correct statement from the following :

A. Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals
B.Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge
C. Inlets are generally provided in all sewers
D. None of these.

Answer => C

Discuss in Forum

8. Before discharging the foul sewage into rivers, it is generally

treated by
A. screening
B. sedimentation
C. oxidation
D. all the above.
Answer => D
Discuss in Forum

9. The sewers
A. must be of adequate size to avoid over flow must flow under gravity l to g full 2 4
B.must be laid at least 2 to 3 m deep to collect water from the basements
C. all the above.
D.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum
10. R.M.O. expenses include
A. running expenses
B. maintenance expenses
C. operation expenses
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

11. For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is

assumed
A. 65 to 70%
B. 70 to 75%
C. 75 to 80%
D. 85%.

Answer => C

Discuss in Forum

12. Design period of 40 to 50 years is adopted for

A. branch sewers
B. main sewers
C. trunk sewers
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

13. The design period in years for pumping plants, is

A.1
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 5
D. 5 to 10.

Answer => D
14. The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow
for trunk mains having diameters more than 1.25 m, is
A.1.5
B.2
C.3
D. 4.0.

Answer => A

15. The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow

for mains up to 1 m in diameter, is
A.1.5
B.2
C.3
D. 4.0.
Answer => B
Discuss in Forum

16. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. Maximum daily flow = 2 times the average daily flow
B. Maximum daily flow = x average daily flow 3
C. Sewers are designed for minimum permissible velocity at minimum flow
D. All the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

17. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The maximum rate of storm run off is called peak drainage discharge
B. Rational method of estimating peak run off, may be used precisely for areas less
than 50 hectares
C. The period after which the entire area starts contributing to the run off, is called the
time of concentration
D. All the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum
18. For estimating the peak run off the rational formula Q =
0.0278 KpA was evolved by
A. Kinchling
B. Lloyd Davis
C. Frubling
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

19. The rainfall at any place may be determined by

A. its intensity
B. its direction
C. its frequency
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

20. The intensity of rain is expressed in

A. cm/minute
B. cm/hour
C. cm/day
D. none of these.

Answer => B

Discuss in Forum

21. If the length of overland flow from the critical point to the
mouth of drain is 13.58 km and difference in level between the
critical point and drain mouth is 10 m, the inlet time is
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours.
Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

Discuss in Forum

22. The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If

water supply demand per day is 200 litres and sewage discharge
is 80% of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of separate
system, is
A. 0.05552 cumec
B. 0.05554 cumec
C. 0.05556 cumec
D. 0.0556 cumec
Answer => C
Discuss in Forum

23. The drainage area of a town is 12 hectares. Its 40% area is

hard pavement (K= 0.85), the 40% area is unpaved streets (K =
0.20) and the remaining is wooded areas (K = 0.15). Assuming
the time of concentration for the areas as 30 minutes and using
the formula P., = + the maximum run t 90060 off is
A. 0.10 cumec
B. 0.12 cumec
C. 0.15 cumec
D. 0.20 cumec.

Answer => C

Discuss in Forum

24. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The water supply pipes carry pure water free from solid particles
B. The water supply pipes get clogged if flow velocity is less than self cleansing velocity
C. The sewers may be carried up and down the hills and valleys
D. The sewer pipes are generally laid along level hills

Answer => A

Discuss in Forum
25. The sewer pipes
A. carry sewage as gravity conduits
B. are designed for generating self-cleansing velocities at different discharge
C. should resist the wear and tear caused due to abrasion
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

26. -3 rd or -4 th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum

discharge for
A. low estimates of the average and maximum flows large scale infiltration of storm
water
B. unexpected increase in population
C. all the above.
D.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

27. If the peak discharge of a storm water drain (S.W. Drain) is

expected to exceed 150 cumecs, the free board to be provided, is
A. 100 cm
B. 90 cm
C. 80 cm
D. 50 cm.

Answer => A

Discuss in Forum

28. The Chezy's constant Gin the formula V= C:lit-'s depends

upon
A. size of the sewer
B. shape of the sewer
C. roughness of sewer surface
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

29. is used in
A. Chezy's formula (c) Kutter's
B. Bazin's formula
C. Manning's formula.
D.
Answer => C
Discuss in Forum

30. 9.32. The value of Chezy's constant is used in

A. Chezy's formula
B. Bazin's formula
C. Kutter's formula
D. Manning's formula.

Answer => B

Discuss in Forum

31. The formula V = -n r32/,47--S used for determining flow

velocities in sewers, is known as
A. Chezy's formula
B. Bazin's formula
C. Kutter's formula
D. Manning's formula.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

32. The formula which accepts the value of rugosity coefficient n

= 0.012 to be used in Manning's formula, is given by
A. Bazin
B. Crimp and Bruge
C. William-Hazen
D. Kutter.

Answer => B

Discuss in Forum

33. If ??, is the unit weight of water, r the hydraulic mean depth
of the sewer and S the bed slope of the sewer, then the tractive
force exerted by flowing water, is
A. yw. r.S
B. y,, 7'112. S
C.( c) y?, r g
D. y?, r2/3 Arg.

Answer => A

Discuss in Forum

34. The porosity of sediments in sewer pipes, is usually taken as

A.0.01
B.0.011
C.0.012
D.0.013

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

35. A sewer pipe contains 1 mm sand particles of specific gravity

2.65 and 5 mm organic particles of specific gravity 1.2, the
minimum velocity required for removing the sewerage, is
A. 0.30 m/sec
B. 0.35 m/sec
C. 0.40 m/sec
D. 0.45 m/sec
Answer => D
Discuss in Forum
36. If the diameter of a sewer is 100 mm, the gradient required
for generating self cleansing velocity, is
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 120
D. none of these.
Answer => A
Discuss in Forum

37. If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required

for generating self cleansing velocity, is
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 120
D. none of these.

Answer => B

Discuss in Forum

38. If the diameter of sewer is 225 mm, the gradient required for
generating self cleansing velocity, is
A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 100
C. 1 in 120
D. none of these.

Answer => C

Discuss in Forum

39. In sewers the effect of scouring is more on

A. top side
B. bottom side
C. horizontal side
D. all sides.

Answer => B

Discuss in Forum
40. For non-scouring velocity 5 in/sec, the type of sewers
generally preferred to, is
A. cast iron sewers
B. cement concrete sewers
C. glazed bricks sewers
D. stone ware sewers.

Answer => C

Discuss in Forum

41. In sewers the highest non-scouring velocity is achieved in

A. glazed bricks sewers
B. cast iron sewers
C. cement concrete sewers
D. stone ware sewers.

Answer => A

Discuss in Forum

42. Cement concrete sewers are only suitable if non-scouring

velocity is between
A. 2.5 to 3.0 in/sec
B. 3.0 tO 4.0 m/sec
C. 3.5 to 4.5 rn/sec
D. 4.5 to 5.5 m/sec.

Answer => A

Discuss in Forum

43. The drop man holes are generally provided in sewers for
A. industrial areas
B. large town ships
C. hilly town ships
D. cities in plains.
Answer => C
Discuss in Forum
44. With self cleansing velocity in sewers
A. silting occurs at bottom
B. scouring occurs at bottom
C. both silting and scouring occur at bottom
D. neither silting nor scouring occurs at bottom.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

45. For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that

A. minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec, is maintained at its minimum flow
B. a maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec, is maintained at its maximum flow
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B.

Answer => C

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46. The angle subtended by the surface of sewer water with

partial flow, at sewer centre is 120?, the depth of sewerage is
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 50 cm

Answer => D

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47. If the depth of partial flow in a sewer of diameter 2 m, is 50

cm, its wetted perimeter is
A. n
B.n/2
C.n/3
D.2n/3

Answer => D
Discuss in Forum

48. In circular sewers if depth of flow is 0.2 times the full depth,
the nominal gradient,
A. is only provided
B. is doubled
C. is trebled
D. is not enough.

Answer => B

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49. If the discharge of a sewer running half is 628 1.p.s., = 0.001,

and n = 0.010, the diameter of the sewer, is
A. 1.39 m
B. 1.49 m
C. 1.59' m
D.1.69

Answer => D

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50. A circular sewer section is preferred to because

A. it is cheaper in construction
B. it provides maximum area for a given perimeter
C. it provides maximum hydraulic mean depth
D. all the above.
Answer => D
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51. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The circular section of sewers provides maximum hydraulic mean depth
B. The circular sewers are provided for separate sewerage system
C. The circular sewers work efficiently if the sections run at least half full
D. All the above.

Answer => D
Discuss in Forum

52. If D is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall

depth of a standard egg shaped section, is
A. D
B. 1.25 D
C. 1.5 D
D. 1.75 D

Answer => C

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53. If D is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall

depth of New Egg shaped sewer section, is
A. 1.250 D
B. 1.350 D
C. 1.425 D
D. 1.625 D.

Answer => D

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54. If D is the diameter of a circular sewer and D' is the top

horizontal diameter of an equivalent egg shaped section, the
relationship which holds good, is
A. D' = 0.64 D
B. D' = 0.74 D
C. D = 0.84 D
D. D' = 0.94 D.

Answer => C

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55. D is the diameter of a circular sewer and a is the side of a
square section sewer. If both are hydraulically equivalent, the
relationship which holds good, is
A. 70813 4 013
B. TED315 = 4 b3/5
C.702/3 . 4 b2/3
D. i-0312 = 4 b312

Answer => A

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56. If the side of a square sewer is 1000 mm, the diameter of a

hydraulically equivalent circular section, is
A. 1045 mm
B. 1065 mm
C. 1075 mm
D. 1095 ram.

Answer => D

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57. The ratio of the diameter of a circular section and the side of
a square section hydraulically equivalent, is
A.1.095
B.1.085
C.1.075
D. 1.065.
Answer => A
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58. The width of a rectangular sewer is twice its depth while

discharging 1.5 misec. The width of the sewer is
A. 0.68 m
B. 0.88 m
C. 1.36 m
D. 1.76 m.

Answer => C

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59. Maximum permissible velocity 1.5 rn/sec, is adopted in
drains
A. with beds of rocks and gravels
B. lined with stones
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B.

Answer => C

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60. For the open drain (N = 0.025) shown in Fig. 9.1, the
discharge is
A. 26.88 cumecs
B. 27.88 cumecs
C. 28.88 cumecs
D. 29.88 cumecs.

Answer => C

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61. For trunk and out-fall, the type of sewers generally used, is
A. standard egg shaped
B. circular shaped
C. horse shoe shaped
D. parabolic shaped

Answer => C

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62. The pressure exerted by

A. the sewage when running full from inside, is called internal pressure
B. the internal pressure if any, causes tensile stress in the pipe material
C. pressure sewers are designed to be safe in tension
D. All the above.
Answer => D

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63. A sewer running partially full and hurried with back filled,
fails in compression due to
A. weight of the pipe
B. weight of the back fill
C. superimposed traffic loads
D. all the above,

Answer => D

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64. The asbestos cement sewers are

A. light in weight
B. not structurally strong to bear large compressive stress
C. susceptible to corrosion by sulphuric acid
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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65. The asbestos cement pipes are generally laid

A. horizontally
B. vertically
C. at an angle of 30?
D. at an angle of 60?,

Answer => B

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66. Large diameter sewers subjected to external pressure alone,

are reinforced
A. near the inner surface of the pipe
B. near the outer surface of the pipe
C. both A and B
D. with elliptical cage
Answer => D

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67. Hume steel pipes are

A. steel pipes
B. R.C.C. pipes
C. steel shell coated from inside with cement mortar
D. both B and C

Answer => D

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68. Stoneware sewers are available in size

A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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69. Pick up the incorrect size of stone ware sewers

A. 52.5 cm
B. 67.5 cm
C. 82.5 cm
D. 90 cm

Answer => D

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70. The stone ware sewers

A. are used for carrying sewage and drainage from houses
B. are manufactured from clays and shales
C. after casting are dried and burnt at temperature 150?C, 700?C and 1200?C
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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71. Stone ware pipes are

A. highly resistant to sulphide corrosion
B. highly impervious
C. hydraulically efficient because of their smooth interior surface
D. specially suited to pressure pipes
Answer => D
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72. The sewer which resists sulphide corrosion, is

A. Brick sewer
B. Cast iron sewer
C. R.C.C. sewer
D. Lead sewer

Answer => D

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73. For laying a sewer line in a trench of 2 m width, an offset line

is marked on the ground parallel to the given centre line at a
distance of
A. 100 cm
B. 120 cm
C. 140 cm
D. 160 cm

Answer => D

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74. The reduced levels of the string at the consecutive sight rails
A and B are 203.575 m, 203.475 m respectively. If the difference
of their R.D.s is 10 m, the gradient of the sewer line is
A. 1 in 100 upward
B. 1 in 500 upward
C. 1 in 100 downward
D. 1 in 503 upward.

Answer => C

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75. In case of sewer lines

A. water test is carried out to check water tightness of the joints
B. test for straightness is carried out with the help of a lamp and mirror
C. obstruction test is carried out with the help of smooth ball of diameter 13 mm
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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76. A manhole is generally provided at each

A. bend
B. junction
C. change of gradient
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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77. The spacing of man holes along a straight portion of a sewer

is 300 m, the diameter of the sewer may be
A. 0.9 cm
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.5 m
D. > 1.5 m.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum
71. Stone ware pipes are
A. highly resistant to sulphide corrosion
B. highly impervious
C. hydraulically efficient because of their smooth interior surface
D. specially suited to pressure pipes
Answer => D
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72. The sewer which resists sulphide corrosion, is

A. Brick sewer
B. Cast iron sewer
C. R.C.C. sewer
D. Lead sewer

Answer => D

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73. For laying a sewer line in a trench of 2 m width, an offset line

is marked on the ground parallel to the given centre line at a
distance of
A. 100 cm
B. 120 cm
C. 140 cm
D. 160 cm

Answer => D

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74. The reduced levels of the string at the consecutive sight rails
A and B are 203.575 m, 203.475 m respectively. If the difference
of their R.D.s is 10 m, the gradient of the sewer line is
A. 1 in 100 upward
B. 1 in 500 upward
C. 1 in 100 downward
D. 1 in 503 upward.

Answer => C
Discuss in Forum

75. In case of sewer lines

A. water test is carried out to check water tightness of the joints
B. test for straightness is carried out with the help of a lamp and mirror
C. obstruction test is carried out with the help of smooth ball of diameter 13 mm
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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76. A manhole is generally provided at each

A. bend
B. junction
C. change of gradient
D. all the above.

Answer => D

Discuss in Forum

77. The spacing of man holes along a straight portion of a sewer

is 300 m, the diameter of the sewer may be
A. 0.9 cm
B. 1.2 m
C. 1.5 m
D. > 1.5 m.

Answer => D

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85. The small sewers are cleaned by

A. flushing
B. cane rodding
C. wooden pills
D. none of these.
Answer => A
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86. Pick up the correct statement from the following :
A. Small sewers are cleaned by flushing
B. Medium sewers are cleaned by cane rodding
C. Medium sewers may be cleaned by pills
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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87. In sewers the gas generally found. Is

A. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)
B. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
C. Methane (CH4)
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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88. If a paper moistened with lead acetate for five minutes when
placed in manhole turns black. The sewer certainly contains
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen

Answer => A

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89. If the flame of a miner's safety lamp in a manhole

extinguishes within 5 minutes, the sewer certainly contains
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
Answer => B

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90. If the flame of a miner's safety lamp in the upper layers of

the sewer forms an explosive, the sewer certainly contains
A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen

Answer => C

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91. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following for

allowing workers to enter sewers
A. The particular manhole and one manhole on up stream and one manhole on down
stream should remain open for 30 minutes
B. Proper tests for the presence of poisonous gases must be carried out
C. The men entering the manhole should be advised to smoke in the sewer
D. Warning signals should be erected

Answer => C

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92. Sewer ventilating columns are generally placed at

A. distances 150 m to 300 m
B. upper ends of branch sewers
C. every change in the size of sewers
D. all the above.
Answer => D
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93. 'Cowl' is provided at

A. lower end of ventilating column
B. upper end of ventilating column
C. upper end of the manhole
D. first step in manhole:
Answer => B

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94. The sewage is pumped up

A. from low lying areas
B. from flat areas
C. from basements
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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95. The non-clog pump which permits solid matter to pass out
with the liquid sewage, is
A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. pneumatic ejector
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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96. The disintegrating pump in which solid matter is broken up

before passing out, is
A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. pneumatic ejector
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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97. The most widely used pump for lifting sewage is

A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. pneumatic ejector
D. air pressure pump.

Answer => A

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98. A cylindrical ejector having its height 2 m fills after every 10

minutes with a peak sewage discharge of 0.0157 cumec. The
diameter of the ejector chamber, is
A. 2.30 m
B. 2.40 m
C. 2.45 m
D. 2.50 m.

Answer => C

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99. For a peak discharge of 0.0157 cumec, with a velocity of 0.9

misec, the diameter of the sewer main, is
A. 10 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 18 cm
Answer => C
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100. The Brake Horse power of the motor (efficiency 60%)

required for a pump of capacity 0.075 cumec for a total lift of 12
m, is
A.10
B.15
C.20
D.25

Answer => C

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101. Pathogens (or pathogentic bacterias) in water may cause
A. typhoid
B. cholera
C. dysentery
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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102. Aerobic bacterias

A. flourish in the presence of free oxygen
B. consume organic matter as their food
C. oxidise organic matter in sewage
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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103. Faculative bacterias survive in

A. the presence of oxygen
B. the absence of oxygen
C. both cases A and B
D. neither A nor B.

Answer => C

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104. Nitrogen cycle of sewage, is

A. Liberation of ammonia-formation of nitrites?formation of nitrates?liberation of
nitrogen
B. Liberation of nitrogen?liberation of ammonia?formation of nitrites? formation of
nitrates
C. Liberation of nitrogen?formation of nitrates?formation of nitrites?liberation of
ammonia
D. Formation of nitrates?formation of nitrites?liberation of nitrates?liberation of nitrates

Answer => A
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105. The following is the physical characteristic of sewage

A. turbidity
B. colour
C. odour
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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106. Pick up the correct statement from the following

A. Turbidity is more in strong sewage
B. The black colour indicates septic sewage
C. The fresh sewage is practically odourless
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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107. The temperature affects the

A. biological activity, of bacterias in sewage
B. solubility of gases in sewage
C. viscosity of sewage
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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108. The average temperature of sewage in India, is

A. 10?C
B. 15?C
C. 20?C
D. 25?C

Answer => C

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109. In sewage, the solids in mg per litre is
A. 100 to 500
B. 500 to 1000
C. 1000 to 1500
D. 1500 to 2000.

Answer => B

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110. 1000 kg of sewage contains

A. 0.112 kg in suspension
B. 0.112 kg in solution
C. 0.225 kg in solution
D. both A and (c) of above.

Answer => D

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111. Imhoff cone is used to determine

A. settlable solids
B. suspended solids
C. dissolved solids
D. none of these,

Answer => A

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112. If the pH value of sewage is 7

A. it is acidic
B. it is alkaline
C. it is neutral
D. none of these.

Answer => C
Discuss in Forum

113. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. pH value indicates acidity and alkalinity of sewage
B. In acidic sewage, the pH value is less than 7
C. In alkaline sewage, the pH value is more than 7
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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114. The pH value of sewage is determined with the help of

A. Imhoff Cone
B. turbidimeter
C. potentiometer
D. none of these.

Answer => C

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115. In sewage having fully oxidised organic matter, the nitrogen

exists in the form of
A. nitrites
B. nitrates
C. free ammonia
D. aluminoid nitrogen

Answer => B

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116. In very first stage of decomposition of the organic matter in

sewage
A. nitrites are formed
B. nitrates are formed
C. carbondioxide is formed
D. ammonia is formed.

Answer => D
Discuss in Forum

117. The presence of free ammonia in sewage, is detected by

A.( a) boiling
B. adding pottassium permanganate
C. adding sulphuric acid
D. phenol-di-sulphuric acid.

Answer => A

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118. For detecting the nitrites in the sewage, the matching colour
may be developed by adding
A. Pottassium permanganate
B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
C. Phenol-di-sulphuric acid pottassium hydroxide
D. None of these.

Answer => B

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119. For detecting the nitrates in sewage, the colour may be

developed by adding
A. Pottassium permanganate
B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine
C. Phenol-di-sulphuric acid and pottassium hydroxide
D. None of these.

Answer => C

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120. Pick up the correct statement from the following;

A. Hydrogen sulphide gas in excess, may cause corrosion of concrete sewers
B. 4 ppm of Dissolved Oxygen (D.0.) is ensured before discharging the treated sewage
in river
C. Solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% of that of distilled water
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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121. To test chemical oxygen demand (C.O.D.) of sewage,

organic matter is oxidised by pottassium dichromate in the
presence of
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Citric acid.

Answer => B

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122. The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias

which cause the aerobic biological decomposition of sewage, is
known
A. Bio-Chemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.)
B. Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.)
C. Chemical Oxygen Demand (C.O.D.)
D. None of these.

Answer => B

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123. The standard B.O.D. of water is taken for

A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 5 days

Answer => D

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124. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 5 ppm after
incubating a 2.5% solution of sewage sample for 5 days at 21?C,
B.O.D. of the sewage is
A. 50 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 150 ppm
D. 200 ppm

Answer => D

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125. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/litre after

incubating 2.5 ml of sewage diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20?C,
B.O.D. of the sewage is
A. 50 mg/1
B. 100 mg/1
C. 150 mg/1
D. 250 mg/1,

Answer => D

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126. Dilution method of disposing off sewage, is not preferred to

A. when sewage is fresh
B. when diluting water has high dissolved oxygen content
C. when diluting water is used for water supply near the point of sewage disposed
D. when the diluting water is having flow currents

Answer => C

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127. No treatment of the sewage is given if dilution factor is

A. less than 150
B. between 150 to 200
C. between 200 to 300
D. more than 500.
Answer => D
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128. Pick up the correct statement from the following :
A. The ratio of the quantity of the diluting water to that of the sewage, is known as
dilution factor
B. The automatic purification of polluted water, is known self purification phenomenon
C. The photosynthesis is carried out in the presence of sun light
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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129. The factor responsible for purification of sewage in river is

A. Hydrology
B. Dissolved oxy in water
C. Temperature
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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130. If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural

drainage, it indicates the zone of
A. degradation
B. active decomposition
C. recovery
D. cleaner water

Answer => B

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131. The algae dies out in the zone of

A. degradation
B. active decomposition
C. recovery
D. cleaner water.
Answer => A

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132. If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at

20?C and depletion of oxygen was found to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of
the sewage is
A. 200 ppm
B. 225 ppm
C. 250 ppm
D. None of these.

Answer => C

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133. As compared to fresh river water, sea water contains oxygen

A. 10% less
B. 20% less
C. 10% more
D. 20% more.

Answer => B

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134. During preliminary treatment of a sewage

A. Oil and grease are removed from skimming tanks
B. Floating materials are removed by screening
C. Girt and sand are removed by girt chambers
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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135. Primary treatment of sewage consists of removal of

A. large suspended organic solids
B. oil and grease
C. sand and girt
D. floating materials
Answer => A

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136. For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend
A. a sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant
B. a plant consisting of Imhoff tanks with low rate trickling filters
C. sedimentation tanks with high rate trickling filters
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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137. The spacing of bars for perforations in coarse screens used

for the treatment of sewage, is
A. 20 mm
B. 30 mm
C. 40 mm
D. 50 mm

Answer => D

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138. The spacing of bars of perforations of fine screens used for

the treatment of sewage, is
A. 2 to 3 mm
B. 3 to 5 mm
C. 5 to 8 mm
D. 8 to 10 mm.

Answer => A

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139. The screens are fixed

A. perpendicular to the direction of flow
B. parallel to the direction of flow
C. at an angle 30? to 60? to the direction of flow
D. none of these.

Answer => C

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140. The use of coarse screens for the disposal of sewage, may
be dispensed with by
A. comminutor
B. shredder
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B.

Answer => C

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141. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The materials separated by screens, is called screenings
B. The screenings are disposed off either by burning or by burial or by dumping
C. The process of burning the screenings, is called incineration
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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142. In a grit chamber of a sewage treatment plant,

A. flow velocity 0.15 m to 0.3 m/sec is kept
B. depth of 0.9 m to 1.20 m is kept
C. one minute of detention period is kept
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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143. The grit chambers of sewage treatment plants, are generally

cleaned after
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days.

Answer => D

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144. If the grit in grit chambers is 4.5 million litres per day, its
cleaning is done
A. manually
B. mechanically
C. hydraulically
D. electrically.

Answer => A

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145. The grit and silt of the grit chambers, may not be used for
A. raising low lying areas by dumping
B. concreting
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B.

Answer => B

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146. In detritus tanks,

A. flow velocity is kept 0.09 m/sec
B. detention period is kept 3 to 4 minutes
C. organic and inorganic materials are separated
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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147. For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is
0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2 minutes, the length of the
tank, is
A. 16 m
B. 20 m
C. 24 m
D. 30 m.

Answer => C

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148. The sewage discharge in a detritus tank of a treatment plant

is 576 litres/sec with flow velocity of 0.2 m/sec. If the ratio of
width to depth is 2, the depth is
A. 100 cm
B. 110 cm
C. 120 cm
D. 150 cm.
Answer => C
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149. In primary sedimentation, the 0.2 mm inorganic solids get

separated if specific gravity is
A.2.25
B.2.5
C.2.55
D.2.65

Answer => D

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150. The settlement of a particle in sedimentation tank, is

affected by
A. velocity of flow
B. viscosity of water
C. size and shape of solid
D. all the above.

Answer => D
Discuss in Forum

151. Discrete or granular particles change their

A. size
B. shape
C. weight
D. none of these.

Answer => D

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152. Flocculated particles do not change their

A. size
B. shape
C. weight
D. none of these.

Answer => D

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153. The settling velocity of a spherical particle of diameter less

than 0.1 mm as per Stock's law, is
A. V, = 418 (G, - G,?)d[100
B. V = 418 (G, - G?.,)d2[ 371070
C. V, = 218 (G, - Gidd2 [ 3T1t107?
D. V, = 218 (G, - Gi?)d[ 3T +

Answer => B

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154. Hazin's formula= 418 (G, -3T+ 7? is used for the settlement
100 velocity of the particles of diameter
A. less than 0.01 mm
B. less than 0.05 mm
C. less than 0.1 mm
D. greater than 0 1 mm.

Answer => D

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155. The settlement velocity of a solid (diameter 0.5 mm, specific

gravity 2.5) in water having temperature 10?C, is
A. 213.5 cm/sec
B. 313.5 cm/sec
C. 413.5 cm/sec
D. 500 cm/sec.
Answer => B
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156. For a continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks

A. width of the tank is normally kept about 6 m
B. length of the tank is normally kept 4 to 5 times the width
C. maximum horizontal flow velocity is limited to 0.3 m/minute
D. capacity of the tank for 24 hours, is kept equal to maximum daily flow of sewage

Answer => D

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157. The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is

usually
A. 4 to 8 hours
B. 8 to 16 hours
C. 16 to 24 hours
D. 24 to 36 hours.

Answer => A

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158. The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is

generally called
A. over flow rate
B. surface loading
C. over flow velocity
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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159. The normal value of over flow rates for plain primary
sedimentation tanks, ranges bet-ween
A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day
B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
D. 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day

Answer => B

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160. The normal values of over flow rates for sedimentation

tanks using coagulent, ranges between
A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day
B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
D. 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day

Answer => C

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161. The normal values of over flow rates for secondary

sedimentation tanks, ranges bet-ween
A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day
B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
D. 80,000 to 10,000 litres/sqm/day

Answer => A

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162. The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks, is kept
A. 3 m
B. 3.5 in
C. 4 m
D. 4.5 in.
Answer => A
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163. The detention time (t) of a settling tank, may be defined as

the time required for
A. a particle to travel along its length
B. a particle to travel from top surface to bottom sludge zone
C. the flow of sewage to fill the tank
D. none of these.

Answer => C

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164. The detention time of a circular tank of diameter d and water

depth H, for receiving the sewage Q per hour, is
A. d2(0.011d + 0.78511)
B. d(0.022d + 0.08511)
C. d(0.785d + 0.011/D
D. d(0.285d + 0.011H)

Answer => A

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165. The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a

settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m per sec. The detention period
recommended for the tank, is
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hour and 30 minutes
D. 2 hours

Answer => D
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166. . The dimensions of a rectangular settling tank are : length

24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m. If 2 hour detention period for
tanks is recommended, the rate of flow of sewage per hour, is
A. 204 cu m
B. 208 cu m
C. 212 cu m
D. 216 cu m

Answer => D

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167. The width of a settling tank with 2 hour detention period for
treating sewage 378 cu m per hour, is
A. 5 m
B. 5.5 m
C. 6 m
D. 7 m.

Answer => D

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168. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

A. Septic tanks are horizontal continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks
B. Septic tanks are generally provided a detention period of 12 to 36 hours
C. Septic tanks are completely covered and high vent shafts are provided for the escape
of foul gases
D. None of these.

Answer => D

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169. The digested sludge from septic tanks, is removed after a

maximum period of
A. 3 years
B. 3.5 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years.
Answer => A
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170. The rate of accumulation of sludge per person per year, is

A. 10 litres
B. 15 litres
C.c) 20 litres
D. 25 litres

Answer => C

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171. In septic tanks,

A. free board of 0.3 m may be provided
B. the baffles or tees are extended up to top level of scum
C. the clear-space between the baffle top and covering slab is about 7.5 cm
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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172. The bottom of the sewage inlet chamber of septic tanks, is

provided an outward slope
A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 10
C. 1 in 15
D. 1 in 20

Answer => B

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173. Bottom openings 15 cm x 15 cm in the standing baffle wall

are provided
A. 15 cm c/c
B. 22.5 cm c/c
C. 30 cm c/c
D. 50 cm c/c.

Answer => B

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174. In a septic tank of de-sludging period of 1 year, receives

sewage for 100 persons @ 120 litres per person per day. If the
depth is kept 1.667 m and length-width ratio is 4, the length and
width of the septic tank, are :
A. 4 and 1 m
B. 4.80 m and 1.20 m
C. 5.20 m and 1.30 m
D. 6.00 m and 1.50 m.

Answer => D

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175. In case of Imhoff tanks,

A. the shape is rectangular
B. detention period is 2 hours
C. the velocity of flow is restricted to 0.30 m/minute
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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176. The clarigesters are circular septic tanks

A. rectangular septic tanks
B. circular Imhoff double tanks with bottom hoppers
C. circular Imhoff double storey tanks without bottom hoppers.
D. none of these.
Answer => D
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177. The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the
sewage, is
A. alum
B. ferric chloride
C. ferric sulphate
D. chlorinated copperas.

Answer => A

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178. The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment, is

A. alum
B. ferric chloride
C. ferric sulphate
D. chlorinated copperas.

Answer => B

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179. The moisture content of a sludge is reduced from 90% to

80% in a sludge digestion tank. The percentage decrease in the
volume of sludge, is
A.25%
B.50%
C.10%
D. 5%.

Answer => B

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180. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

A. The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic
conditions, is called sludge digestion
B. Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank
C. The gases produced in sludge digestion process. contain 75% carbon dioxide
D. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% methane.
Answer => C

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181. The first stage of neutral process of sludge digestion, is

A. acid fermentation
B. acid regression
C. alkaline fermentation
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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182. Acid regression stage of sludge digestion at a temperature

21?C extends over a period of
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days.

Answer => D

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183. PH value of sludge during alkaline regression stage, is

A. more than 7
B. less than 7
C. less than 6
D. more than 6.
Answer => A
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184. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. Rate of digestion of slugde is more at higher temperature
B. Thermophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature ranges from 40? to
60?C
C. Mesophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature is between 25? and 40?C
D. All the above.
Answer => D

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185. The sewerage system consists of

A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C. branch sewer
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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186. The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment
is called
A. main sewer
B. outfall sewer
C. branch sewer
D. house sewer.

Answer => B

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187. The sewer pipe which carries sewage from a building for
immediate disposal is
A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C. intercepting sewer
D. main sewer.

Answer => A

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188. In areas where rainy season is limited to a few months, the

type of sewerage system recommended is
A. combined system
B. partially separate system
C. separate system
D. none of these.

Answer => C

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189. In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed

throughout the year, the type of sewerage system to be adopted
is
A. separate system
B. combined system
C. partially combined system
D. none of these.

Answer => B

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190. When drainage to sewage ratio is 20, the peak dry weather
flow is
A. 20% of the design discharge
B. slightly less than 5% of the design discharge
C. slightly more than 5% of the design discharge
D. none of these.
Answer => B
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191. Sewer pipes need be checked for

A. minimum flow
B. maximum flow
C. both A and B
D. none of these.

Answer => C

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192. The design period of sewage treatment works in normally
A. 5-10 years
B. 15-20 years
C. 30-40 years
D. 40-50 years.

Answer => B

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193. For sewer mains of 0.5 to 1 m diameter, the ratio of

maximum daily sewage flow to the average daily sewage flow is
assumed
A.1.5
B.2
C.2.5
D. 3.0.

Answer => B

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194. For trunk sewers more than 1.25 m in diameter, the ratio of
the maximum daily sewage flow to the average daily sewage flow
is assumed
A.1.5
B.2
C.25
D.3

Answer => A

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195. The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of

sewage is
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 3/4.
Answer => B

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196. Sewer pipes are designed for maximum discharge with 25%
to 33% vacant cross-sectional area for
A. unexpected large scale infiltration of stream water
B. unexpected increase in the population
C. under estimates of maximum and average flows
D. All of the above.

Answer => D

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197. The maximum diameter of sewers adopted in the designs is

A. 1.0 m
B. 2.0 m
C. 3.0 m
D. 4.0 m.
Answer => C
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198. The minimum diameter of sewer to be adopted is

A. 10 cm
B. 12.5 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 25 cm.

Answer => C

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199. The rational formula for peak drainage discharge, was

evolved by
A. Fruhling
B. Lloyd David
C. Kuichling
D. All of these.
Answer => D

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200. If the over land flow from the critical point to the drain is 8
km and the difference in level is 12.4 m, the inlet time is
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours.

Answer => C

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201. If n is the rugosity coefficient, r is the hydraulic depth, s is

the bed slope of sewer, the velocity of flow in m/sec may be
obtained by the formula V = -n r213 s ? evolved by
A. Chezy
B. Manning
C. Bazin
D. Kutter.

Answer => B

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202. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. the sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running full at
maximum discharge
B. the sewer pipes of sizes greater than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running 2/3rd
or 3/4th full at maximum discharge
C. the minimum design velocity of sewer pipes is taken as 0.8 m/sec
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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203. In a residential colony, sewers of diameters 100 mm, 150
mm and 225 mm were laid with a gradient 1 in 120. Which
portion of the sewage system does not choke in due course of
time
A. 100 mm dia.
B. 150 mm dia.
C. 225 mm dia.
D. all of these.

Answer => C

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204. You are asked to design sewer pipes of diameters 0.4 m to

0.9 m at maximum flow, you will assume the sewer flow running
at
A. full depth
B. half full
C. two third full
D. three fourth full.
Answer => B
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205. The most efficient cross section of sewers in a separate

sewerage system is
A. parabolic
B. circular
C. rectangular
D. new egged.

Answer => B

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206. The most efficient cross-section of sewers in a combined

sewerage system is
A. parabolic
B. circular
C. rectangular
D. new egged.

Answer => B
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207. In sewers designed with self cleansing velocity,

A. the bottom is silted
B. the bottom is scoured
C. both silting and scouring occur at the bottom
D. neither silting nor scouring occurs at the bottom.

Answer => D

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208. In olden days the type of section adopted in trunk and out
fall sewers was
A. parabolic shaped
B. horse shoe shaped
C. egg shaped
D. circular shaped.

Answer => B

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209. The underground sewers are more subjected to

A. tensile force
B. compressive force
C. bending force
D. shearing force.

Answer => B

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210. In R.C. sewer pipes, the percentage longitudinal

reinforcement to the cross-sectional area of concrete is kept
A.10
B.5
C.2
D. 0.25.

Answer => D

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211. House connections to the laterals is generally made by

A. R.C.C.
B. P.C.C.
C. Cast iron
D. Glazed stonewares.
Answer => D
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212. Which one of the following resists hydrogen sulphide

corrosion
A. R.C.C.
B. Glazed stone wares
C. Asbestos cement
D. Glazed ware.

Answer => D

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213. Which one of the following tests is used for esting sewer
pipes :
A. water test
B. ball test
C. mirror test
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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214. Sewer manholes are generally provided at

A. the change of gradient
B. the change of direction
C. the junctions of sewers
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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215. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The boning rod is used for checking the levels of the sewer inverts
B. Manhole covers are made circular for the convenience of the cleaning staff
C. A manhole is classified as deep manhole if its depth is more than 1.5 m
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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216. The maximum spacing of manholes specified by Indian

standard in sewers upto 0.3 in diameter is than 0.6 m
A. 20 m
B. 30 in
C. 45 m
D. 75 m.

Answer => C

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217. The arrangement made for passing the sewer line below an
obstruction below the hydraulic gradient lines called
A. inverted syphon
B. depressed sewer
C. sag pipe
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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218. The gas evolved in sewers is
A. Carbondioxide
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Methane
D. All &these.
Answer => D
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219. Lead acetate test in sewer manhole is done to test the

presence of
A. Methane gas
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Carbondioxide gas
D. Diesel vapours.

Answer => B

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220. . A safety lamp when inserted in the upper portion of a

manhole causes flames. It indicates the presence of
A. Carbondioxide gas
B. Hydrogen sulphide gas
C. Methane gas
D. Petrol vapours.

Answer => C

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221. Inter-distance between ventilation columns in a sewer line

is kept
A. 25 to 50 m
B. 50 m to 100 m
C. 100 m to 150 m
D. 150 m tO 300 m.

Answer => D

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222. Which of the following pumps in used to pump sewage solids
with liquid sewage without clogging the pump is
A. centrifugal pump
B. pneumatic ejector
C. reciprocating pump
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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223. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen
B. aerobic bacteria flourish in the presence of oxygen
C. facultative bacteria flourish with or without oxygen
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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224. A well oxidized sewage contains nitrogen mainly as

A. nitrates
B. nitrites
C. free ammonia
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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225. In 1000 kg of sewage, the total solids approximate

A. 0.5 to 1.0 kg
B. 1 kg to 2.0 kg
C. 5 kg to 7.5 kg
D.. 7.5 kg to 10 kg.
Answer => A
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226. Imhoff cone is used to measure
A. total organic solids
B. total solids
C. total in organic solids
D. settleable solids.

Answer => D

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227. The pH value of fresh sewage is usually

A. equal to 7
B. more than 7
C. less than 7
D. equal to zero.

Answer => C

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228. For the survival offish in a river stream, the minimum

dissolved oxygen is prescribed
A. 3 PPm
B. 4 PPm
C. 5 PPm
D. 10 ppm.

Answer => B

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229. 5 days-biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5) is taken at a

temperature of
A. 0?C
B. 15?C
C. 20?C
D. 25?C.

Answer => C
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230. Kjedahl nitrogen is a mixture of

A. ammonia and nitrogen
B. nitrogen and organic nitrogen
C. organic nitrogen and ammonia
D.--a11 the above.

Answer => D

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231. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. In treated sewage, 4 PPm of D.O. is essential
B. Only very fresh sewage contains some dissolved oxygen
C. The-solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% that is in distilled water
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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232. For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by

K2Cr207 in the presence of
A. H2SO4
B. HNO3
C. HC1
D. none of these,
Answer => A
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233. Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days in

generally referred to
A. initial demand
B. first stage demand
C. carbonaceous demand
D. all of these.

Answer => D
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234. 3.0 ml of raw sewage is diluted to 300 ml. The D.O.

concentration of the diluted sample at the beginning of the test
was 8 mg/1. After 5 day-incubation at 20?C, the DO.
concentration was 5 mg,/1. The BOD of raw sewerage is
A. 100 mg/1
B. 200 mg/1
C. 300 mg/1
D. 400 mg/l.

Answer => C

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235. If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at

20?C and the dissolved oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/I.
The BOD of the sewage is
A. 100 mg/1
B. 200 mg/1
C. 300 mg/1
D. 400 mg/I.

Answer => D

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236. Sluge banks are formed if sewage is disposed of in

A. rivers
B. seas
C. lakes
D. none of these.

Answer => B

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237. The recommended detention period for grit chambers is
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C., 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes.

Answer => A

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238. The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is

recommended as
A. 30 litres/person/year
B. 25 litres/person/year
C. 30 litres/person/month
D. 25 litres/person/month.

Answer => A

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239. . Which one of the following statements regarding septic

tanks is wrong :
A. a gap of 7.5 cm between the bottom of the covering slab and the top level of scum is
provided
B. the outlet invert level is kept 5 to 7.5 cm below the inlet invert level
C. the minimum width of septic level is 90 cm
D. the depth of tank is kept equal to its width.
Answer => D
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240. The ratio of design discharge to the surface area of a

sedimentation tank is called
A. surface loading
B. overflow rate
C. overflow velocity
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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241. The flow velocity in detritus tanks is
A. 0.05 m/sec
B. 0.09 m/sec
C. 1.25 in/sec
D. none of these.

Answer => B

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242. The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic

decomposition of organic matter is used, are called
A. imhoff tanks
B. trickling filters
C. sludge sedimentation tanks
D. none of these.

Answer => B

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243. The sewage treatment in septic tanks is due to

A. anaerobic decomposition
B. aerobic decomposition
C. parasitic decomposition
D. none of these,

Answer => A

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244. To maintain aerobic biological activity, the moisture content

of the compost mass should be about
A.45%
B.50%
C.55%
D. 60%.
Answer => C

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245. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. Indore method of composting involves decomposition under aerobic conditions
B. Bangalore method of composting involves decomposing under anaerobic conditions
C. Fully stabilised refuse by the Bangalore method of compositing is a powdery mass
called humus
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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246. The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively

piled above the ground to form a mound, is called
A. a heap
B. platen
C. windrow
D. none of these.
Answer => C
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247. In a fully mechanised composting plant, involves

A. mechanized receipt
B. mechanized segregation
C. mechanized pulverising of refuse
D. all of these.

Answer => D

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248. Depletion of ozone layer in the outer atmosphere may cause

A. lung cancer
B. skin cancer
C. bronchitis
D. heart disorder.
Answer => B

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249. Which one of the following part of human body withstands

minimum radiation
A. thyroid
B. kidneys
C. eyes
D. ovaries/testis.

Answer => D

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250. Which one of the following gases is most significant as air

pollutant
A. Carbondioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Sulphurdioxide.

Answer => D

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251. A rainfall may be classified as acidic if its pH value is less or

equal to
A.6
B.7
C.5
D. 6.5.

Answer => C

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252. The most dangerous pollutant in vehicular emissions is
A. CO
B. SO2
C. CO2
D.SO

Answer => A

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253. In SI units the power of sound is represented in

A. kgs
B. joules
C. neutons
D. watts.
Answer => D
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254. Assertion : The minimum self cleansing velocity in the sewer,

at least once a day, must be generated. Reason : If certain
deposition takes place and is not removed, it obstructs free flow
and causes further deposition leading to complete blocking of the
sewer.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.

Answer => A

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255. Assertion : The determination of pH value of sewerage is

important. Reason : The efficiency of certain treatment methods
depends upon the availability of pH value. Codes :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.

Answer => A
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256. Assertion : Discharging the effluents from the oxidation

ponds just up stream of lakes or reservoirs is undesirable. Reason
: The discharged algae get settled in the reservoirs and cause
anaerobic decomposition and other water qualities. Codes :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.

Answer => A

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257. Assertion : A free board of 0.3 m is provided above the top

sewage line in septic tanks. Reason : It helps to accommodate the
scum in the septic tank. Codes :
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.

Answer => A

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258. The liquid wastes from kitchens, bath rooms and wash
basins, is not called
A. liquid waste
B. sullage
C. sewage
D. none of these.

Answer => C

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259. Dry weather flow is :
A. average daily rate of flow
B. average monthly rate of flow
C. average annual rate of flow
D. water supply allowance per capita

Answer => D

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260. The quantity of liquid waste which flows in sewers during

the period of rainfall, is known
A. sanitary sewage
B. industrial waste
C. storm sewage
D. none of these.
Answer => C
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261. A rain sanitary sewer is constructed to carry

A. sanitary sewage
B. storm sewage
C. surface water
D. ground water

Answer => A

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262. The sewer which collects the discharge from a collecting

System and delivers it to a treatment plant, is known
A. house sewer
B. lateral sewer
C.A branch sewer
D. sewer outfall.

Answer => D

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263. The sewer which received discharge from two or more main
sewers, is known as
A. a trunk sewer
B. an outfall sewer
C. a main sewer
D. an intercepting sewer.

Answer => A

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264. Rate of flow of sewage is generally assumed

A. more than the rate of water supply
B. equal to the rate of water supply
C. less than the rate of water supply
D. at 150 litres per capita.

Answer => D

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265. To prevent settling down of sewage both at the bottom and

on the sides of a large sewer, self-cleaning velocity recommended
for Indian conditions, is
A. 0.50 m/sec
B. 0.60 in/sec
C. 0.70 m/sec
D. 0.75 m/sec

Answer => D

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266. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The larger the sewer in size, more.will be velocity
B. The smaller the sewer in size, less will be velocity
C. The larger the sewer in size, no deposition will take place
D. The larger the sewer in size, deposition will take place.

Answer => D
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267. It is customary to design a sewer for D.W.F. on the basis of

A. average demand
B. twice the average demand
C. thrice:the average demand
D. four times the average demand.
Answer => C
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268. For design purposes, the normal rate of infiltration of ground

water into the sewer, is
A. 500 litres/km/cm
B. 1000 litres/km/cm
C. 1500 litres/km/cm
D. 2000 litres/km/cm

Answer => D

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269. The gradient of sewers depends upon

A. velociy of flow
B. diameter of the sewer
C. discharge
D.all the above.

Answer => D

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270. The minimum diameter of a sewer is kept

A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C.20 cm
D. 25 cm

Answer => B

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271. The suitable cross-section of sewers to carry combined
,flow, is
A. circular
B. egg shaped
C. rectangular
D. horse shoe shaped.

Answer => B

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272. For disposal of discharge by separate system, the

recommended cross-section of sewers is :
A. circular
B. egg shaped
C. rectangular
D. horse shoe shaped.

Answer => A

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273. Setting out the alignments of sewers may start from

A. city
B. out-fall
C. tail end
D. any point.

Answer => C

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274. The laying of sewers is done with

A. magnetic compass
B. theodolite
C. level
D. clinometers
Answer => C
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275. For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before
putting them to use, is
A. water test
B. smoke test
C.A straightness test
D. all the above.

Answer => B

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276. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers, is

A. carbondioidde
B. methane
C. ammonia
D. carbon monoxide.

Answer => B

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277. Fresh sewage is generally

A. alkaline
B. acidic
C. highly decomposed
D. a source of objectionable odour.

Answer => A

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278. For large sewers, maximum distance between manholes may

be
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 200 m
D. 300 m
Answer => D

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279. The minimum diameter of an opening of a manhole should

be
A. 25 ni
B.? 50 M
C. 75 m
D. 100 m

Answer => B

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280. At the junction of sewers

A. top of smaller sewer is kept lower
B. top of larger sewer is kept lower
C. tops of both the sewers are at the same level
D. none of these.

Answer => D

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281. Ventilating shafts are provided to a sewer line at every

A. 100 m
B. 150 m
C. 200 m
D. 300 m
Answer => D
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282. Aerobic activity is maximum la in freshly produced sewage

A.in freshly produced sewage
B. at sewer pipes
C. in sewer treatment plants
D. none of these.

Answer => A
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283. During putrifaction process of sewage the gas given off, is

A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. ammonia
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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284. Oxidation process results in the formation of

A. carbon dioxide
B. nitrates
C. sulphates
D. all the above.

Answer => D

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285. Fresh sewage may become stale in

A. one hour
B. two to three hours
C. three to four hours
D. six hours.

Answer => C

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286. Water content of sewage is about

A.90%
B.95%
C.99%
D. 9.9%.
Answer => D

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287. For evaporation and measurement of settlable solids, the

apparatus used, is
A. a jar
B. a breaker
C. a test tube
D. an Imhoff cone.

Answer => D

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288. A five day B.O.D. at 15?C of the sewage of a town is 100

kg/day. If the 5 day B.O.D. per head at 15?C for standard sewage
is 0.1 kg/day, the population equivalent is
A.100
B.1000
C.5000
D.10000
Answer => D
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289. Disposal to sewage in large cities, is done in

A. irrigation
B. dilution
C. oxidation
D. putrifaction.

Answer => B

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290. A nuisance is experienced in diluting water if dilution factor

is less than
A.100
B.60
C.40
D.20

Answer => D

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291. The sewage in oxidation ponds, is treated by

A. aerobic bacteria action
B. sedimentation
C. action of algae
D. both A and (c).

Answer => D

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292. In a trickling filter

A. filtration process is used
B. biological action is used
C. neither A nor B
D. both A and B.

Answer => B

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293. In trickling filter, B.O.D. is reduced to

A. 30 to 40%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 80%
D. 80 to 90%

Answer => C

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294. In normal conditions, the period for sludge digestion, is
A. 10 days
B. 20 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days

Answer => C

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295. In a sludge tank, the gas mainly produced. Is

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer => D
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296. For house drainage minimum gradient is

A. 1 in 60
B. 1 in 80
C. 1 in 10
D. 1 in 400.

Answer => A

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297. Removal of oil and grease from sewage, is known

A. screening
B. skinning
C. filtration
D. none of these.

Answer => B

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298. In septic tanks, decomposition of organic bacteria, is done
by
A. anaerobic bacteria
B. aerobic bacteria
C. both types of bacterias
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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299. The self-cleansing velocity of water flowing through pipe

lines, is
A. 2 metres/sec
B. 1 metre/sec
C. 0.5 metre/sec
D. 0.25 metre/sec.

Answer => A

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300. Dry water flow in a combined sewer, is

A. industrial sewage
B. domestic sewage
C. storm water
D. inclusive of domestic and industrial sewage but excludes storm water.

Answer => C

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301. Drop manholes at the junctions of sewer lines, are provided

if
A. invert level of a branch sewer is more than 60 cm that of the main sewer
B. sewer line runs along a main road
C. ordinary manhole cannot be built
D. two sewer lines intersect.

Answer => A

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302. Antisyphonage pipe is fitted

A. at the end of septic tanks
B. on manholes
C. with a W.C. trap
D. at the beginning of sewer line.
Answer => C
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303. Chlorination of water is done for the removal of

A. bacterias
B. suspended solids
C. sediments
D. hardness.

Answer => A

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304. The effluent of a septic tank is

A. fit for discharge into any open drain
B. foul and contains dissolved and suspended solids
C. as good as that from a complete treatment
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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305. Dried sewage after treatinexit-is used as
A. fertilizer
B. building material
C. chemical for lowering B.O.D.
D. base material for paints.

Answer => A

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306. In sewers the velocity of flow should not be

A. more than the self-cleansing velocity
B. less than the self-cleansing velocity
C. less than 10 m/sec
D. more than 20 in/sec.

Answer => B

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307. Self-cleansing velocity is

A. velocity at dry weather flow
B. velocity of water at flushing
C. velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains
D. velocity of water in a pressure filter,

Answer => C

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308. Hydraulic mean radius is

A. mean radius of sewer
B. difference in heads between two points in circular pipes
C. mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross-sections
D. cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter.
Answer => D

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309. In the activated sludge process

A. aeration is continued till stability
B. aeration is done with an admixture of previously aerated sludge
C. sludge is activated by constant stirring
D. water is removed by centrifugal action.
Answer => B
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310. Drop manholes are the manholes

A. without entry ladders
B. without manhole covers
C. with depths more than 3.5 m
D. having drains at different levels.

Answer => D

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311. Skimming tanks are

A. used to remove the grease and oil
B. those from which sludge is skimmed out
C. tanks provided with self-cleansing screens
D. improved version of grit chambers.

Answer => A

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312. Traps
A. are water seals which prevent the entry of foul gases
B. are used to trap the rats entering sewers
C. dissolve the foul gases
D. create syphonic action to increase the quick disposal of sewerage.

Answer => A

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313. For providing an Indian type W.C., the R.C.C. slabs in the
toilet portion
A. should be sunk by 20 cm
B. should be kept 20 cm above the adjacent portion
C. should be sunk by 50 cm
D. need not be sunk.

Answer => C

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314. Lead caulked joints are used for laying

A. stone ware pipes
B. earthern ware pipes
C. C.I. pipes
D. G.I. pipes.

Answer => B

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315. The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is

A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm,
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm,

Answer => C
Discuss in Forum

316. Which one of the following does not require treatment

before its disposal
A. storm sewage
B. domestic sewage
C. Industrial sewage
D. All the above.
Answer => A
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317. The following are the components of a sewerage system 1.

Main sewers 2. Outfall sewers 3. Lateral sewers 4. House sewers
5. Branch sewers. Pick up the correct occurrence of these
components from the following
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 4, 3, 5,1,2
D. 5,4,1,2,3

Answer => C

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318. The complete treatement of the original contaminated

sewage is done in the following order sewage is done in the
following order before allowing is to be discharged directly into
the natural drainage system
A. Screening, sedimentation, oxidation, sludge digestion, disinfection
B. Disinfection, sedimentation, sludge digestion, screening oxidation
C. Oxidation, sludge digestion, disinfection, screening sedimentation
D. Sludge digestion, sedimentation, screening oxidation.

Answer => A

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319. %?...- of per capita water demand in litres/day/person is
assumed as per capita sewage produced in litres/day/person.
A.60%
B.70%
C.75%
D.80%

Answer => D

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320. The sizes of sewers are generally designed for carrying the
computed maximum hourly flows, running
A. ?2 full
B. rd full
C. ?3th full
D. -4th full

Answer => C

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321. Assuming L as the length of over land flow in kilometers

from the critical point to the mouth of the drain, and H the total
fall of level, then the time of concentration
A.0.885
B.0.3851
C.0.385
D.0.885

Answer => A

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322. While laying of the sewer pipes, an offset line parallel to the
proposed alignment of the sewer line is set out on the ground at a
distance of (1th trench width) plus
A. 0.2 m
B. 0.4 m
C. 0.6 m
D. 1.0 m

Answer => C

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323. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. Before laying the sewer line, location of manholes is decided
B. The sewer pipes are laid starting from their out fall ends
C. The offset line is laid on the surface on the side which is not likely to be
disturbed during digging
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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324. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The upper portion of a deep man hole is called access shaft
B. The lower portion of the man hole is known as the working chamber
C. The invert portion of the man hole is called the benching
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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325. Solids in sewage are in the form of

A. suspended solids
B. dissolved solids
C. colloidal solids
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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326. In sewage, the organic matter is found as
A. Carbohydrates
B. Fats and oils
C. Nitrogenous compounds
D. All of these.

Answer => D

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327. The strength of sewage depends upon

A. volatile solids
B. fixed solids
C. suspended solids
D. none of these.

Answer => A

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328. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. Sulphides and sulphates cause aerobic, and/or anaebic decomposition
B. In sewage, sulphides and sulphates are formed due to the decomposition
of substances containing sulphur
C. In the initial decomposition of sulphur substances, the hydrogen sulphide
gas is evolved
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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329. Matheomolobinemia, a blue baby disease is caused due to

the presence in potable water of
A. sulphides
B. sulphates
C. nitrates
D. free ammonia.

Answer => C

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330. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. It is ensured that at least 4 pprn of D.O. is available while discharging the
treated sewage in natural drainage
B. The solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% of that in distilled water
C. Potassium dichromate, an oxidising agent is generally used to destroy the
organic method
D. All the above.
Answer => D
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331. The first 20 days demand required for the oxidation of

organic matter, is called
A. the first stage demand
B. the initial demand
C. carbonaceous demand
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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332. BOD5 is biochemical oxygen demand at a temperature of

A. 0?C
B. 10?C
C. 20?C
D. 30?C

Answer => C
Discuss in Forum

333. Pick up the bacteria found in abundance from the following :

A. anaerobic
B. saprophytic
C. pathogenic
D. parasitic.

Answer => B

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334. Sewage disposal by dilution is resorted to, if

A. water body discharge is not low
B. strong forward winds occur
C. the sewage at outfall is fresh and non-septic
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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335. Sea water contains less oxygen as compared to fresh river

water
A.10%
B.20%
C.30%
D. None of these.

Answer => B

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336. The flowing river water in natural drainage gets cleaned by
A. oxidation
B. photosynthesis
C. self purification
D. None of these.

Answer => C

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337. In sludge digestion tank, the gas evolves, is

A. methane
B. hydrogen sulphide
C. ammonia
D. nitrogen
Answer => A
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338. The most efficient method of BOD removal, is

A. oxidation ditch
B. trickling filter
C. oxidation pond
D. aerated lagoon

Answer => D

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339. Pick up the correct statement from the following :

A. The flow velocity in Imhoff tanks is limited to 0.3 m/min
B. The effluent of a septic tank is not fit for discharge any open drain
C. A septic tank can be used either as a settling tank or a digestion tank
D. All the above.

Answer => D

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340. Consider the following statements regarding the peaks in
the sewers 1. The peaks get damped because of the storage space
in the sewers 2. The peaks get damped because time is required
for the sewage to the point of gauging 3. The peak flow is quite
pronounced near its origin 4. The peak hourly flows decrease as
the tributary area increases Of these statements:
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 3 and 4 are correct
D. All of these are correct

Answer => D

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341. Consider the following statements regarding water supply

pipes and sewer pipes 1. The water supply pipes carry pure water
without any contamination 2. The sewer pipes carry particles in
suspension and the heavier ones settle down at(the bottom of the
sewer resulting in the clogging of the sewers 3. The water supply
pipes carry water under gravity 4. The sewer pipes carry sewage
under pressure Of these statements:
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 3 and 4 are correct
D. None of these is correct

Answer => A

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342. Consider the following statements regarding swears 1. The

sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.7 m dia are designed as running
half full at maximum discharge 2. The sewer pipes of sizes
greater than 0.7 m dia, are designed as running 2/3rd or 3/4th
full at maximum discharge 3. The extra space aboveffie?designed
full supply line, acts as a factor of safety for unexpected increase
of sewage 4. The flow in the sewers is under gravity Of these
statements:
A. land 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 4 are correct
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer => D

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343. Consider the following statements : A. The flow velocities in

the sewers should be such that neither the suspended materials
in sewage get silted up nor the sewage pipe materials get scoured
out. R. The first condition limits the minimum velocity and second
condition limits the maximum velocity. Of these statements:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer => A

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344. Consider the following statements regarding the self

cleansing velocity in the sewers: 1. For the removal of the
inorganic sand particles of diameter 1 mm and specific gravity
2.65, 0.45 m/sec velocity is required 2. For the removal of organic
particles of 5 mm diameter and specific gravity 1.2,0.45 in/sec
velocity is required 3. For the removal of inorganic sand particles
1 mm dia and organic particles 5 mm dia with respective specific
gravity 2.65 and 1.2,0.30 m/sec velocity is required Of these
statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 2 and 3 are correct
Answer => B
Discuss in Forum

345. According to National Building Organisation (N.B.O.) of

India, gradients for preventing interference of sewage solids in
small sized sewers are : 1.Dia. of the sewer (mm)2. Gradient for
self cleansing velocity Of these statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 2 alone is correct
C. 1 and 2 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => D

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346. Consider the following statements regarding the sewers 1.

Manholes are generally provided in plane areas 2. Drop man holes
are generally required in hilly areas 3. Lamp holes are generally
provided at the bend of the sewer Of these statements: (a) 1
alone is correct
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 2 alone is correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => D

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347. Consider the following specification need be checked while

designing the sewers 1. The minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec is
maintained at the 1/3rd of sewage flow 2. The velocity of 0.9
m/sec should be at least at the time of maximum flow 3. At the
time of maximum flow, the velocity should not exceed the
scouring values. Of these statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => D

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348. Consider the following statements regarding flow in circular

sewers A. The decline in proportionate velocities is less as
compared to the decline in discharge in sewers running less than
half the full depth R. The area reduces much faster than the
hydraulic mean depth. Of these statements:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.

Answer => A

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349. Consider the following statements regarding the circular

sewers 1. These require highly technical method of manufacturing
2. These provide maximum area for a given perimeter 3. These
provide most efficient section when running full or half full Of
these statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 2 alone is correct
C. 1 and 2 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => D

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350. Consider the following statements regarding the asbestos
cement sewers 1. Light in weight and easy to transport 2. Easy
assembly without skilled labour 3. The interior surface is very
smooth 4. Ability to bear the large compressive stresses induced
by the heavy external loads Of these statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B.1 and 3 are correct
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer => C

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351. Consider the following statements regarding cast iron

sewers 1. These are used for out fall sewers for rising mains of
pumping stations 2. These are used under heavy traffic loads 3.
These are used over trestles in low lying areas 4. These are 100%
leak proof Of these statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B.1 and 3 are correct
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Answer => D
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352. Consider the following statements regarding the laying of

the sewer pipes :Assertion A: The sewer pipes are generally laid
starting from their outfall ends towards their starting ends
Reason R : Tail sewers can be used during the initial periods of
the construction Of these statements:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.

Answer => A

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353. Consider the following statements regarding the design of
inverted siphon in the sewers 1. Inlet chamber and outlet
chambers are provided at either end of the inverted siphon 2. A
self cleansing velocity of 0.45 m/sec even during minimum
discharge is ensured 3. For sanitary sewers, two pipe lines are
provided, one for minimum dry weather and the other for
maximum dry weather flow 4. In long inverted siphon, hatch
boxes at interval of about 30 m are provided. Of these
statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. All of these are correct

Answer => C

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354. Consider the following statements regarding the foul gases

in the sewers 1. Hydrogen sulphide (112S) is evolved 2. Carbon
dioxide (CO2) is evolved 3. Methane is evolved 4. Oxygen is
evolved Of these statements:
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 3 and 4 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => D

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355. Consider the following statements regarding ventilating

column of sewers : I. A covel is provided at the top of the shaft for
the escape of gases into the atmosi:there 2. A ventilating column
is used near the street lamp posts 3. The diameter of the
ventilating column is preferably kept equal to one third of the
diameter of the sewer 4. The ventilating columns are generally
kept lower than the height of noarby structures Of these
statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct 1 and 4 are correct
C. 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => C

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356. Consider the following statements regarding the bacteria

present in municipal sewage 1. Aerobic bacteria flourish in the
presence of free oxygen 2. Anaerobic bacteria flourish in the
absence of free oxygen 3. Facultative bacteria flourish both in the
presence as well as absence of free oxygen Of these statements:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 2 alone is correct
C. 1 and 2 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer => D

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357. Consider he following stages in Nitrogen cycle under aerobic

oxidation 1. Formation of Nitraes 2. Formation of Ammonia 3.
Formation of Nitrites 4. F'hotosynthsis The correct sequence of
the stages is
A. 1,4,2,3
B. 2,3,1,4
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 4,3,2,1

Answer => B

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358. Consider the following stages in Sulphur cycle under aerobic
oxidation 1. Formation of hydrogen sulphide 2. Formation of
sulphates 3. Formation of sulphur 4. Photosynthesis The correct
sequence of the stages is:
A. 1, 2,3,4
B. 2,4,3, 1
C. 1, 4,3, 2
D. 4,3,2,1
Answer => A
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359. Consider the following staes of Carbon cycle under aerobic

conditions: 1. Oxidation of carbonaceous organic matter 2.
Release of carbon dioxide 3. Carbon dioxide through
photosynthesis gest converted into plant carbohydrates 4. The
wastes produced by animals and their dead bodies from
cabonaceous organic matter Of these stages, the correct
sequence is :
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,4,3,,1
C. 1,4,3,2
D. 4,3,2,1

Answer => A

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360. Consider the following statements regarding the

decomposition of sewage A well oxidised sewage contains.1.
Nitrates in excess 2. Sulphates in excess 3. Ammonia in excess 4.
Hydrogen sulphide in excess Of these statements :
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 2 1one is correct
C. 1 and 2 are correc
D. 3 and 4 are correct

Answer => C
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361. Consider the following statement regarding the

decomposition of sewage 1. Pathogens are harmful to man 2.
Non-pathogens are useful to man 3. Aeration tanks and contact
beds work on oxidation 4. Septic tanks and imhoff tanks work on
putrefaction Of these statements
A.. One alone is correct
B.. 1 and 2 are correct
C.. 1 and 3 are correct
D.. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer => D

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362. Consider the following statements regarding the

characteristics of sewage1. The turbidity of sewage is-directly
proportional to the strength of sewage 2. The yellowish, grey or
light brown colour indicates the freshness of the sewage 3. Fresh
sewage is practically odourless 4. At higher temperature, the
dissolved oxygen content (D.0.) of sewage gets reduced Of these
statements:
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 3 and 4 are correct
D. All are correct

Answer => D

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363. Consider the following statements regarding self

purification of river water. 1. In clean conditions in a river stream,
the oxygen deficit must be nil. 2. The D.O. content goes on
increasing due to decomposition of volatile organic matter. 3. In
the process of re-oxygenation, consumption of D.O. due to
deoxygenation is counter balanced by the atmospheric supplies of
oxygen to the water. 4. If the D.O. content becomes zero, aerobic
conditions are replaced by putrefaction conditions. Of these
statement:
A. 1 alone is correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer => D

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364. Consider the following statements regarding dilution of

sewage in sea water 1. The sea water contains 80% of oxygen
contained in fresh river stream. 2. The sea water can absorb
sewage solids more than the fresh water of a stream. 3. Sewage
solids chemically react with the dissolved matters of sea water
and thus form sludge banks 4. The sludge banks are free from
hydrogen sulphide gas Of these statements:
A. 1 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct
C. 1 and 4 are correct
D. 3 and 4 are correct

Answer => A

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10/20/2020 Environmental Engineering Objective Questions with Answers

Home / Engineering / Civil / Civil Set-1 / Environmental Engineering

Environmental Engineering Objective Questions with Answers

1) Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.Reason R :
Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.Select your answer according to the
coding system given below

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true.

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2) The per capital consumption of a locality is affected by i) climatic conditions ii) quality of water iii)
distribution pressure The correct answer is

only (i)

both (i) and (ii)

both (i) and (iii)

all (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
all (i), (ii) and (iii)

3) Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

use of metering system

good quality of water

better standard of living of the people

hotter climate

Answer Explanation

mytutorialworld.com/objective-questions/questions_view.php?table_name=civil_set_1_environmental_engineering&title=Environmental Engineering Objective Questions with Answers 1/46

10/20/2020 Environmental Engineering Objective Questions with Answers

Answer is:
use of metering system

4) The hourly variation factor is usually taken as

1.5

1.8

2.7

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
1.5

5) If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily con¬sumption on peak
hourly demand will be

100000m3

150000m3

180000m3

270000 m3

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
270000 m3

6) The distribution mains are designed for

maximum daily demand

maximum hourly demand

average daily demand

maximum hourly demand on maxi¬mum day

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
maximum hourly demand on maxi¬mum day

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10/20/2020 Environmental Engineering Objective Questions with Answers

7) As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical increase method

gives

lesser value

higher value

same value

accurate value

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
lesser value

8) The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The
population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method is

9500

9800

10100

10920

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
10920

9) The suitable method of forecasting popu¬lation for a young and rapidly increasing city is

arithmetical increase method

geometrical increase method

incremental increase method

graphical method

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
geometrical increase method

10) , The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum[where R is the radius of
influence]

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at a distance R from the well

close to the well

at a distance R/2 from the well

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
close to the well

11) The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called

aquifers

aquiclude

filters

intakes

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
intakes

12) Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention (R)

N=y+R

y=N+R

R=N+y

R > (N + y)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
N=y+R

13) The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is

air relief valve

reflux valve

pressure relief valve

sluice valve

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
reflux valve

14) The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about

5 litres/sec

50 litres/sec

500 litres/sec

1000 litres/see

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
50 litres/sec

15) As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have

more depth

less depth

more discharge

less discharge

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
more discharge

16) Ground water is usually free from

suspended impurities

dissolved impurities

both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
suspended impurities

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17) The polluted water is one which

contains pathogenic bacteria

consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use

is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use

is contaminated

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use

18) Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?

dysentery

cholera

typhoid

maleria

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
maleria

19) The most common cause of acidity in water is

carbon dioxide

oxygen

hydrogen

nitrogen

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
carbon dioxide

20) The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than

0.1 ppm

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0.01 ppm

0.001 ppm

0.0001 ppm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
0.001 ppm

21) The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is

0.1 mg/litre

1.5 mg/litre

5 mg/litre

10 mg/litre

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
1.5 mg/litre

22) Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine the

hardness in water

residual chlorine in water

turbidity in water

dissolved oxygen in water

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
hardness in water

23) If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted is i)
presumptive coliform test ii) confirmed coliform test iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is

only (i)

both (i) and (ii)

both (i) and (iii)

all (i), (ii) and (iii)

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
all (i), (ii) and (iii)

24) Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent

calcium carbonate

magnesium carbonate

sodium carbonate

calcium hydroxide

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
calcium carbonate

25) Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?

10

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
2

26) Turbidity is measured on

standard silica scale

standard cobalt scale

standard platinum scale

platinum cobalt scale

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
standard silica scale

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27) On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to

10 ppm

20 ppm

30 ppm

50 ppm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
10 ppm

28) Residual chlorine in water is determined by

starch iodide method

orthotolidine method

both (a) & (b)

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
both (a) & (b)

29) Orthotolidine test is used for determination of

dissolved oxygen

residual chlorine

biochemical oxygen demand

dose of coagulant

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
residual chlorine

30) If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal to

total alkalinity

total hardness

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total hardness - total alkalinity

non carbonate hardness

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
total alkalinity

31) The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is about

0.01 to 0.05 ppm

0.05 to 0.5 ppm

0.5 to 1.0 ppm

1.0 to 5.0 ppm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
0.05 to 0.5 ppm

32) The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order
of

1 mg/litre

10 mg/litre

100 mg/litre

1000 mg/litre

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
10 mg/litre

33) The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about

5 to 10 cm/sec.

15 to 30 cm/sec.

15 to 30 cm/minute

15 to 30 cm/hour

Answer Explanation
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Answer is:
15 to 30 cm/minute

34) The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than [where B is the width of the tank]

2B

4B

8B

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
4B

35) The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about

500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2

1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2

1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2

1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2

36) Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is
about

10 to 25

50

75

100

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
75

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37) The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on

depth of tank

surface area of tank

both depth and surface area of tank

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
surface area of tank

38) The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if

particle size is decreased

the surface area of tank is increased

the depth of tank is decreased

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
none of the above

39) For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by

increasing the depth of tank

decreasing the depth of tank

increasing the surface area of tank

decreasing the surface area of tank

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
increasing the surface area of tank

40) The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to
sedimentation with coagulation are generally

less and more

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less and less

more and less

more and more

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
more and less

41) The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with i)increase in turbidity of water
ii)decrease in turbidity of water iii)increase in temperature of water iv)decrease in temperature of water
Thecorrect answer is

(i) and (ii)

(i)and(iv)

(ii) and (iii)

(ii) and (iv)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
(i)and(iv)

42) Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is

2 to 4

4 to 6

6 to 8

8 to 10

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
6 to 8

43) The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as

1 to 2 minutes

30 to 45 minutes

2 to 6 hours

2 to 6 days

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
2 to 6 hours

44) The alum, when added as a coagulant in water

does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation

does not affect pH value of water

increases pH value of water

decreases pH value of water

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
decreases pH value of water

45) The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is

sulphuric acid

copper sulphate

lime

sodium permanganate

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
lime

46) In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove

dissolved organic substances

dissolved solids and dissolved gases

floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids

bacteria and colloidal solids

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
bacteria and colloidal solids

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47) The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about

50 to 60

100 to 150

500 to 600

1400 to 1500

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
50 to 60

48) The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is

0.25 to 0.35 mm

0.35 to 0.60 mm

0.60 to 1.00 mm

1.00 to 1.80 mm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
0.25 to 0.35 mm

49) As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give i) slower filtration rate ii) higher filtration rate iii)
lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is

(i) and (ii)

(ii) and (iii)

(i) and (iv)

(ii) and (iv)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
(i) and (iv)

50) Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters.Reason R :
The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.Select your answer based on the
coding system given below:

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Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

A is true but R is false.

A is false but R is true.

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

51) Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to

excessive negative head

mud ball formation

higher turbidity in the effluent

low temperature

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
excessive negative head

52) The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is about

0.2 to 0.4

0.4 to 1.0

2 to 4

5 to 7

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
2 to 4

53) Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about

24 - 48 hours

10-12 days

2-3 months

1-2 year

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
2-3 months

54) The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is

less than that of slow sand filters

in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters

greater than that of rapid sand filters

equal to that of slow sand filters

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
greater than that of rapid sand filters

55) Double filtration is used

to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of

to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of

for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming

all of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of

56) Cleaning is done by i)scraping and removal in filtersslow sand ii)back washing in slow sand filters
iii)scraping and removal in filtersrapid sand iv)back washing in rapid sand filters The correct answer is

(i) and (ii)

(ii) and (iii)

(i) and (iv)

(ii) and (iv)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
(i) and (iv)

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57) Disinfection of water results in

removal of turbidity

removal of hardness

killing of disease bacteria

complete sterilisation

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
killing of disease bacteria

58) The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by i) decreasing the time of contact ii) decreasing the
temperature of water iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is

only (i)

both (i) and (ii)

both (i) and (iii)

only (iii)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
only (iii)

59) Chlorine demand of water is equal to

applied chlorine

residual chlorine

sum of applied and residual chlorine

difference of applied and residual chlorine

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
difference of applied and residual chlorine

60) The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as

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prechlorination

post chlorination

super chlorination

break point chlorination

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
super chlorination

61) The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about

10 to 15

20 to 25

30 to 35

40 to 50

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
30 to 35

62) The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as

prechlorination

super chlorination

dechlorination

hypochlorination

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
hypochlorination

63) The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is

ultra violet rays treatment

lime treatment

by using potassium permanganate

chlorination

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
ultra violet rays treatment

64) Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?

carbon dioxide

bleaching powder

sulphur dioxide

chloramines

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
sulphur dioxide

65) In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria

increases

decreases

remains unaffected

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
increases

66) As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH values
is

smaller

larger

same

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
smaller

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67) Disinfection efficiency is

reduced at higher pH value of water

unaffected by pH value of water

increased at higher pH value of water

highest at pH value equal to 7

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
reduced at higher pH value of water

68) In lime-soda process

only carbonate hardness is removed

only non-carbonate hardness is re-moved

lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate hardness

lime reduces the non-carbonate hard-ness and soda-ash removes the carbo¬nate hardness

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate hardness

69) The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that

it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

70) Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?

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sodium sulphate

copper sulphate

sodium chloride

calcium chloride

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
copper sulphate

71) Activated carbon is used for

disinfection

removing hardness

removing odours

removing corrosiveness

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
removing odours

72) As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are

heavier

stronger

costlier

less susceptible to corrosion

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
stronger

73) The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is

dead end system

grid iron system

radial system

ring system

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
dead end system

74) The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is

ring system

dead end system

radial system

grid iron system

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
radial system

75) The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is

grid iron system

dead end system

ring system

radial system

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
grid iron system

76) The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily
corroded and long life but is heavy and brittle is

steel

cast iron

copper

reinforced cement concrete

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
cast iron

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77) Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system i) involves successive trials ii) takes economic
aspects into account iii) is time consuming The correct answer is

only (i)

(i)and(ii)

(i) and (iii)

all are correct

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
(i) and (iii)

78) The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand
is considered is

circle method

equivalent pipe method

electrical analysis method

Hardy cross method

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
circle method

79) Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and
narrow pipe system ?

circle method

equivalent pipe method

Hardy cross method

electrical analysis method

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
equivalent pipe method

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80) The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners
and where the pipe lines intersect is

check valve

sluice valve

safety valve

scour valve

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
sluice valve

81) The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction
is

reflux valve

sluice valve

air relief valve

pressure relief valve

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
reflux valve

82) Scour valves are provided

at street corners to control the flow of water

at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there

at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water

at every summit of rising mains

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there

83) A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called

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house sewer

lateral sewer

intercepting sewer

submain sewer

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
lateral sewer

84) A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of
immediate disposal is called

house sewer

lateral sewer

main sewer

submain sewer

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
house sewer

85) For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system
will be

separate system

combined system

partially combined system

partially separate system

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
separate system

86) Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is

100 litres

135 litres

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165 litres

200 litres

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
135 litres

87) Sewerage system is usually designed for

10 years

25 years

50 years

75 years

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
25 years

88) Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?

circular sewer

egg shaped sewer

rectangular sewer

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
egg shaped sewer

89) The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is

separate system

combined system

partially separate system

partially combined system

Answer Explanation

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Answer is:
combined system

90) The water carriage system of collection of waste product

is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system

requires treatment before disposal

creates hygenic problem

all of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
requires treatment before disposal

91) If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of
Health formula will be

4 mm/hr

lOmm/hr

20 mm/hr

40 mm/hr

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
40 mm/hr

92) The time of concentration is defined as

the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer

the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration

sum of [a] and [b]

difference of [a] and [b]

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
sum of [a] and [b]

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93) The specific gravity of sewage is

much greater than 1

slightly less than 1

equal to 1

slightly greater than 1

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
slightly greater than 1

94) The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually

less than 1.0 m/sec

1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec

1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec

3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec

95) The slope of sewer shall be

given in the direction of natural slope of ground

given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground

zero

steeper than 1 in 20

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
given in the direction of natural slope of ground

96) The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as

equal to dry weather flow (DWF)

2xDWF

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3 x DWF

6xDWF

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
6xDWF

97) The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as

equal to rainfall

rainfall + DWF

rainfall + 2 DWF

rainfall + 6 DWF

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
rainfall + 2 DWF

98) The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be

15 cm and 100 cm

15 cm and 300 cm

30 cm and 450 cm

60 cm and 300cm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
15 cm and 300 cm

99) The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is

less strength

difficulty in construction

difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight

less life

Answer Explanation

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Answer is:
difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight

100) Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is

rectangular section

circular section

standard form of egg shaped sewer

modified egg shaped section

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
circular section

101) An egg shaped section of sewer

is economical than circular section

provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges

is more stable than circular section

is easy to construct

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges

102) The velocity of flow does not depend on

grade of sewer

length of sewer

hydraulic mean depth of sewer

roughness of sewer

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
length of sewer

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103) The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is

none of the below

equal to HMD when flowing full

less than HMD when flowing full

greater than HMD when flowing full

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
less than HMD when flowing full

104) The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is

to decrease it

to increase it

fluctuating

nil

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
to increase it

105) The most commonly used sewer under culverts is

circular brick sewer

circular cast iron sewer

semi-elliptical sewer

horse-shoe type sewer

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
circular brick sewer

106) The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is

circular sewer

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egg shaped sewer

horse-shoe type sewer

semi-elliptical sewer

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
egg shaped sewer

107) The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are

acidic and alkaline

alkaline and acidic

both acidic

both alkaline

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
alkaline and acidic

108) The pathogens can be killed by

nitrification

chlorination

oxidation

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
chlorination

109) Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?

higher temperature

sunlight

satisfying oxygen demand

none of the above

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
none of the above

110) Sewage treatment units are normally designed for

5-10 years

15-20 years

30-40 years

40-50 years

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
15-20 years

111) Settling velocity increases with

specific gravity of solid particles

size of particles

depth of tank

temperature of liquid

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
depth of tank

112) Standard BOD is measured at

20°C - 1day

25°C- 3day

20°C - 5day

30°C- 5day

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
20°C - 5day

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113) Select the correct statement.

5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.

5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.

5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.

BOD does nof depend on time.

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.

114) If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg,
then population equivalent of town is

100000

1000

4000

400000

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
400000

115) The rate of BOD exerted at any time is

directly proportional to BOD satisfied

directly proportional to BOD remain-ing ,

inversely proportional to BOD satisfied

inversely proportional to BOD re-maining

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
directly proportional to BOD remain-ing ,

116) The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about

1-Mar

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2-Mar

3-Apr

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
43892

117) In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of
diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.The
BOD of raw sewage will be

100 ppm

200 ppm

300 ppm

400 ppm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
200 ppm

118) The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic
life is

1 ppm

4 ppm

10 ppm

40 ppm

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
4 ppm

119) The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required
to satisfy BOD, is

100

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infinite

zero

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
100

120) Dissolved oxygen in streams is

maximum at noon

minimum at noon

maximum at midnight

same throughout the day

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
maximum at noon

121) Facultative bacteria are able to work in

presence of oxygen only

absence of oxygen only

presence as well as in absence of oxygen

presence of water

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
presence as well as in absence of oxygen

122) The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as

inlet

manhole

drop manhole

catch basin

Answer Explanation

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Answer is:
manhole

123) Sewerage system is designed for

maximum flow only

minimum flow only

average flow only

maximum and minimum flow

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
maximum and minimum flow

124) Sewage treatment units are designed for

maximum flow only

minimum flow only

average flow only

maximum and minimum flow

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
average flow only

125) Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of

a theodolite

a compass

sight rails and boning rods

a plane table

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
sight rails and boning rods

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126) Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by

septic conditions

dissolved oxygen

chlorine

nitrogen

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
septic conditions

127) If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in

grit chambers

detritus tanks

skimming tanks

sedimentation tanks

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
skimming tanks

128) Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as

1 minute

5 minutes

2-4 hours

12 hours

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
1 minute

129) Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?

sludge digestion tank

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sedimentation tank

activated sludge treatment

trickling filters

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
sludge digestion tank

130) Septic tank is a i) settling tank ii) digestion tank iii) aeration tank The correct answer is

only (i)

(i) and (ii)

(i) and (iii)

only (iii)

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
(i) and (ii)

131) The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in

oxidation pond

oxidation ditch

aerated lagoons

trickling filters

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
oxidation ditch

132) The working conditions in imhoff tanks are

aerobic only

anaerobic only

aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment

anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment

133) In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by

aerobic bacteria only

algae only

dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria

sedimentation

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria

134) The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as

4-8 hours

24 hours

10 to 15 days

3 months

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
10 to 15 days

135) Composting and lagooning are the methods of

sludge digestion

sludge disposal

sedimentation

filtration

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
sludge disposal

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136) The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that

large area is required for construction

maintenance and operation cost are high

BOD removal is very low

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
large area is required for construction

137) For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be
maintained as

4.5 to 6.0

6.5 to 8.0

8.5 to 10.0

10.5 to 12.0

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
6.5 to 8.0

138) Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of

percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight

percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight

percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume

percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight

139) For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is

0 to 50

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50 to 150

150 to 350

350 to 500

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
150 to 350

140) When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is

infinity

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
1

141) For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity
of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be

X/4

X/2

2X

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
X/2

142) A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called

vent pipe

antisiphonage pipe

waste pipe

soil pipe

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Answer Explanation

Answer is:
antisiphonage pipe

143) The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is
called

waste pipe

soil pipe

vent pipe

antisiphonage pipe

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
waste pipe

144) The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of

nitrogen

carbon dioxide

hydrogen sulphide

methane

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
methane

145) Most of the bacteria in sewage are

parasitic

saprophytic

pathogenic

anaerobic

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
saprophytic

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146) The process of lagooning is primarily a means of

reducing the excessive flow in sewers

disposing of sludge

increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs

increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
disposing of sludge

147) The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of

oxidation

dehydration

reduction

alkalinization

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
oxidation

148) Residual chlorine in water is determined by

starch iodide method

orthotolidine method

both (a) & (b)

none of the above

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
both (a) & (b)

149) The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is

ultra violet rays treatment

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lime treatment

by using potassium permanganate

chlorination

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
ultra violet rays treatment

150) The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually

less than 1.0 m/sec

1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec

1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec

3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec

Answer Explanation

Answer is:
1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec

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10/20/2020 TOP 150+ Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

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Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions & Answers

Posted On:February 2, 2019, Posted By: Latest Interview Questions, Views: 962, Rating :

Best Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

Dear Readers, Welcome to Environmental Engineering Objective Questions have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of
questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of Environmental Engineering MCQs. These objective type Environmental
Engineering questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any
particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT & Non IT Industries.

1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.

Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.

Select your answer according to the coding system given below

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Ans: a

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10/20/2020 TOP 150+ Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

2. The per capita consumption of a locality is affected by

i) climatic conditions

ii) quality of water

iii) distribution pressure

The correct answer is

a) only (i)

b) both (i) and (ii)

c) both (i) and (iii)

d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: d

3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

a) use of metering system

b) good quality of water

c) better standard of living of the people

d) hotter climate

Ans:a

4. The hourly variation factor is usually taken as

a) 1.5

b) 1.8

c) 2.0

d) 2.7

Ans:a

5. If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily consumption on peak hourly demand will be
a) 100000m3

b) 150000m3

c) 180000m3

d) 270000 m3

Ans:d

6. The distribution mains are designed for

a) maximum daily demand

b) maximum hourly demand

c) average daily demand

d) maximum hourly demand on maximum day

Ans:d

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7. As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical increase method gives
a) lesser value

b) higher value

c) same value

d) accurate value

Ans:a

8. The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The population of the town in the fourth
consecutive year according to geometrical increase method is
a) 9500

b) 9800

c) 10100

d) 10920

Ans:d

9. The suitable method of forecasting population for a young and rapidly increasing city is
a) arithmetical increase method

b) geometrical increase method

c) incremental increase method

d) graphical method

Ans:b

10. The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum
a) at a distance R from the well

b) close to the well

c) at a distance R/2 from the well

d) none of the above

where R is the radius of influence

Ans:b

11. The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called
a) aquifers

b) aquiclude

c) filters

d) intakes

Ans:d

12. Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention (R)
a) N=y+R

b) y=N+R

c) R=N+y

d) R > (N + y)

Ans:a

13. The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is

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a) air relief valve

b) reflux valve

c) pressure relief valve

d) sluice valve

Ans:b

14. The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about

a) 5 litres/sec

b) 50 litres/sec

c) 500 litres/sec

d) 1000 litres/see

Ans:b

15. As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have

a) more depth

b) less depth

c) more discharge

d) less discharge

Ans:c

16. Ground water is usually free from

a) suspended impurities

b) dissolved impurities

c) both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties

d) none of the above

Ans:a

17. The polluted water is one which

a) contains pathogenic bacteria

b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use

c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use

d) is contaminated

Ans:b

18. Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?

a) dysentery

b) cholera

c) typhoid

d) maleria

Ans:d

19. The most common cause of acidity in water is

a) carbon dioxide

b) oxygen

c) hydrogen

d) nitrogen

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Ans:a

20. The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than
a) 0.1 ppm

b) 0.01 ppm

c) 0.001 ppm

d) 0.0001 ppm

Ans:c

21. The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is

a) 0.1 mg/litre

b) 1.5 mg/litre

c) 5 mg/litre

d) 10 mg/litre

Ans:b

22. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine the
a) hardness in water

b) turbidity in water

c) dissolved oxygen in water

d) residual chlorine in water

Ans:a

23. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted is
i) presumptive coliform test

ii) confirmed coliform test

iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is

a) only (i)

b) both (i) and (ii)

c) both (i) and (iii)

d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans:d

24. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent

a) calcium carbonate

b) magnesium carbonate

c) sodium carbonate

d) calcium hydroxide

Ans:a

26. Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?

a) 2

b) 5

c) 7

d) 10

Ans:a

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27. Turbidity is measured on

a) standard silica scale

b) standard cobalt scale

c) standard platinum scale

d) platinum cobalt scale

Ans:a

28. On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to
a) 10 ppm

b) 20 ppm

c) 30 ppm

d) 50 ppm

Ans:a

29. Residual chlorine in water is determined by

a) starch iodide method

b) orthotolidine method

c) both (a) and (b)

d) none of the above

Ans:c

30. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of

a) dissolved oxygen

b) residual chlorine

c) biochemical oxygen demand

d) dose of coagulant

Ans:b

31. If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal to
a) total alkalinity

b) total hardness

c) total hardness - total alkalinity

d) non carbonate hardness

Ans:a

32. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is about
a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm

b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm

c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm

d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm

Ans:b

33. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order of
a) 1 mg/litre

b) 10 mg/litre

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c) 100 mg/litre

d) 1000 mg/litre

Ans:b

34. The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about

a) 5 to 10 cm/sec.

b) 15 to 30 cm/sec.

c) 15 to 30 cm/minute

d) 15 to 30 cm/hour

Ans:c

35. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
a) B

b) 2B

c) 4B

d) 8B

where B is the width of the tank

Ans:c

36. The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about

a) 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2

b) 1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2

c) 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2

d) 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2

Ans:a

37. Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is about
a) 10 to 25

b) 50

c) 75

d) 100

Ans:c

38. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on

a) depth of tank

b) surface area of tank

c) both depth and surface area of tank

d) none of the above

Ans:b

39. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if

a) particle size is decreased

b) the surface area of tank is increased

c) the depth of tank is decreased

d) none of the above

Ans:d

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40. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
a) increasing the depth of tank

b) decreasing the depth of tank

c) increasing the surface area of tank

d) decreasing the surface area of tank

Ans:c

41. The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to sedimentation with coagulation are
generally
a) less and more

b) less and less

c) more and less

d) more and more

Ans:c

42. The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with
i) increase in turbidity of water

ii) decrease in turbidity of water

iii) increase in temperature of water

iv) decrease in temperature of water

The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (i)and(iv)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans:b

43. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is

a) 2 to 4

b) 4 to 6

c) 6 to 8

d) 8 to 10

Ans:c

44. The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as

a) 1 to 2 minutes

b) 30 to 45 minutes

c) 2 to 6 hours

d) 2 to 6 days

Ans:c

45. The alum, when added as a coagulant in water

a) does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation

b) does not affect pH value of water

c) increases pH value of water

d) decreases pH value of water

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Ans:d

46. The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
a) sulphuric acid

b) copper sulphate

c) lime

d) sodium permanganate

Ans:c

47. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove

a) dissolved organic substances

b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases

c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids

d) bacteria and colloidal solids

Ans:d

48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60

b) 100 to 150

c) 500 to 600

d) 1400 to 1500

Ans:a

49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm

b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm

c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm

d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm

Ans:a

50. As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give

i) slower filtration rate

ii) higher filtration rate

iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria

iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans:c

51. Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters.
Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.

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10/20/2020 TOP 150+ Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Ans:a

52. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to

a) excessive negative head

b) mud ball formation

c) higher turbidity in the effluent

d) low temperature

Ans:a

53. The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is about
a) 0.2 to 0.4

b) 0.4 to 1.0

c) 2 to 4

d) 5 to 7

Ans:c

54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about

a) 24 - 48 hours

b) 10-12 days

c) 2-3 months

d) 1-2 year

Ans:c

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55. The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is
a) less than that of slow sand filters

b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters

c) greater than that of rapid sand filters

d) equal to that of slow sand filters

Ans:c

56. Double filtration is used

a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of

b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of

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c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming

d) all of the above

Ans:a

57. Cleaning is done by

i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand

ii) back washing in slow sand filters

iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand

iv) back washing in rapid sand filters

The correct answer is

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (ii) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv)

d) (ii) and (iv)

Ans:c

58. Disinfection of water results in

a) removal of turbidity

b) removal of hardness

c) killing of disease bacteria

d) complete sterilisation

Ans:c

59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

i) decreasing the time of contact

ii) decreasing the temperature of water

iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is

a) only (i)
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b) both (i) and (ii)

c) both (i) and (iii)

d) only (iii)

Ans:d

60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

a) applied chlorine

b) residual chlorine

c) sum of applied and residual chlorine

d) difference of applied and residual chlorine

Ans:d

61. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination

b) post chlorination

c) super chlorination

d) break point chlorination

Ans:c

62. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about

a) 10 to 15

b) 20 to 25

c) 30 to 35

d) 40 to 50

Ans:c

63. The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as

a) prechlorination

b) super chlorination

c) dechlorination

d) hypochlorination

Ans:d

64. The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is

a) ultra violet rays treatment

b) lime treatment

c) by using potassium permanganate

d) chlorination

Ans:a

65. Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
a) carbon dioxide

b) bleaching powder

c) sulphur dioxide

d) chloramines

Ans:c

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66. In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria
a) increases

b) decreases

c) remains unaffected

d) none of the above

Ans:a

67. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH values is
a) smaller

b) larger

c) same

d) none of the above

Ans:a

68. Disinfection efficiency is

a) reduced at higher pH value of water

b) unaffected by pH value of water

c) increased at higher pH value of water

d) highest at pH value equal to 7

Ans:a

69. In lime-soda process

a) only carbonate hardness is removed

b) only non-carbonate hardness is re-moved

c) lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate hardness

d) lime reduces the non-carbonate hard-ness and soda-ash removes the carbo¬nate hardness

Ans:c

70. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that
a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water

b) huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem

c) the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness

d) it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness

Ans:b

71. Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
a) sodium sulphate

b) copper sulphate

c) sodium chloride

d) calcium chloride

Ans:b

72. Activated carbon is used for

a) disinfection

b) removing hardness

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c) removing odours

d) removing corrosiveness

Ans:c

73. As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are

a) heavier

b) stronger

c) costlier

d) less susceptible to corrosion

Ans:b

74. The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is
a) dead end system

b) grid iron system

c) radial system

d) ring system

Ans:a

75. The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is
a) ring system

b) dead end system

c) radial system

d) grid iron system

Ans:c

76. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is
a) grid iron system

b) dead end system

c) ring system

d) radial system

Ans:a

77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily corroded and long life but
is heavy and brittle is
a) steel

b) cast iron

c) copper

d) reinforced cement concrete

Ans:b

78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system

i) involves successive trials

ii) takes economic aspects into account

iii) is time consuming

The correct answer is

a) only (i)

b) (i)and(ii)
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c) (i) and (iii)

d) all are correct

Ans:c

79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand is considered is
a) circle method

b) equivalent pipe method

c) electrical analysis method

d) Hardy cross method

Ans:a

80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and narrow pipe system ?
a) circle method

b) equivalent pipe method

c) Hardy cross method

d) electrical analysis method

Ans:b

81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners and where the pipe lines
intersect is
a) check valve

b) sluice valve

c) safety valve

d) scour valve

Ans:b

82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction is
a) reflux valve

b) sluice valve

c) air relief valve

d) pressure relief valve

Ans:a

83. Scour valves are provided

a) at street corners to control the flow of water

b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there

c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water

d) at every summit of rising mains

Ans:b

84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
a) house sewer

b) lateral sewer

c) intercepting sewer

d) submain sewer

Ans:b

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85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of immediate disposal is called
a) house sewer

b) lateral sewer

c) main sewer

d) submain sewer

Ans:a

86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system will be
a) separate system

b) combined system

c) partially combined system

d) partially separate system

Ans:a

87. Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is
a) 100 litres

b) 135 litres

c) 165 litres

d) 200 litres

Ans:b

88. Sewerage system is usually designed for

a) 10 years

b) 25 years

c) 50 years

d) 75 years

Ans:b

89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer

b) egg shaped sewer

c) rectangular sewer

d) none of the above

Ans:b

90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is
a) separate system

b) combined system

c) partially separate system

d) partially combined system

Ans:b

91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product

a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system

b) requires treatment before disposal

c) creates hygenic problem

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d) all of the above

Ans:b

92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of Health formula will be
a) 4 mm/hr

b) lOmm/hr

c) 20 mm/hr

d) 40 mm/hr

Ans:d

93. The time of concentration is defined as

a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer

b) the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration

c) sum of (a) and (b)

d) difference of (a) and (b)

Ans:c

94. The specific gravity of sewage is

a) much greater than 1

b) slightly less than 1

c) equal to 1

d) slightly greater than 1

Ans:d

95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec

b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec

c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec

d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec

Ans:b

96. The slope of sewer shall be

a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground

b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground

c) zero

d) steeper than 1 in 20

Ans:a

97. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)

b) 2xDWF

c) 3 x DWF

d) 6xDWF

Ans:d

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98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to rainfall

b) rainfall + DWF

c) rainfall + 2 DWF

d) rainfall + 6 DWF

Ans:c

99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be

a) 15 cm and 100 cm

b) 15 cm and 300 cm

c) 30 cm and 450 cm

d) 60 cm and 300cm

Ans:b

100. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is

a) less strength

b) difficulty in construction

c) difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight

d) less life

Ans:c

101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is

a) rectangular section

b) circular section

c) standard form of egg shaped sewer

d) modified egg shaped section

Ans:b

102. An egg shaped section of sewer

a) is economical than circular section

b) provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges

c) is more stable than circular section

d) is easy to construct

Ans:b

103. The velocity of flow does not depend on

a) grade of sewer

b) length of sewer

c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer

d) roughness of sewer

Ans:b

104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full

b) less than HMD when flowing full

c) greater than HMD when flowing full

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d) none of the above

Ans:c

105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it

b) to increase it

c) fluctuating

d) nil

Ans:b

106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is

a) circular brick sewer

b) circular cast iron sewer

c) semi-elliptical sewer

d) horse-shoe type sewer

Ans:a

107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer

b) egg shaped sewer

c) horse-shoe type sewer

d) semi-elliptical sewer

Ans:b

108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are

a) acidic and alkaline

b) alkaline and acidic

c) both acidic

d) both alkaline

Ans:b

109. The pathogens can be killed by

a) nitrification

b) chlorination

c) oxidation

d) none of the above

Ans:b

110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?

a) higher temperature

b) sunlight

c) satisfying oxygen demand

d) none of the above

Ans:d

111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for

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a) 5-10 years

b) 15-20 years

c) 30-40 years

d) 40-50 years

Ans:b

112. Settling velocity increases with

a) specific gravity of solid particles

b) size of particles

c) depth of tank

d) temperature of liquid

Ans:c

113. Standard BOD is measured at

a) 20°C - 1day

b) 25°C- 3day

c) 20°C - 5day

d) 30°C- 5day

Ans:c

114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical oxygen demand
(COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD

b) TOD>COD>BOD

c) BOD>COD>TOD

d) COD>BOD>TOD

Ans:b

115. Select the correct statement.

a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.

b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.

c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.

d) BOD does nof depend on time.

Ans:c

116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population equivalent of town is
a) 1000

b) 4000

c) 100000

d) 400000

Ans:d

117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is

a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied

b) directly proportional to BOD remain-ing ,

c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied

d) inversely proportional to BOD re-maining

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Ans:b

118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about

a) 1/3

b) 2/3

c) 3/4

d) 1.0

Ans:b

119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at the beginning
was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C. The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm

b) 200 ppm

c) 300 ppm

d) 400 ppm

Ans:b

120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm

b) 4 ppm

c) 10 ppm

d) 40 ppm

Ans:b

121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD, is
a) 1

b) 100

c) infinite

d) zero

Ans:b

122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is

a) maximum at noon

b) minimum at noon

c) maximum at midnight

d) same throughout the day

Ans:a

123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in

a) presence of oxygen only

b) absence of oxygen only

c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen

d) presence of water

Ans:c

124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as

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a) inlet

b) manhole

c) drop manhole

d) catch basin

Ans:b

125. Sewerage system is designed for

a) maximum flow only

b) minimum flow only

c) average flow only

d) maximum and minimum flow

Ans:d

126. Sewage treatment units are designed for

a) maximum flow only

b) minimum flow only

c) average flow only

d) maximum and minimum flow

Ans:c

127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of

a) a theodolite

b) a compass

c) sight rails and boning rods

d) a plane table

Ans:c

128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by

a) septic conditions

b) dissolved oxygen

c) chlorine

d) nitrogen

Ans:a

129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers

b) detritus tanks

c) skimming tanks

d) sedimentation tanks

Ans:c

130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as

a) 1 minute

b) 5 minutes

c) 2-4 hours

d) 12 hours

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Ans:a

131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?

a) sludge digestion tank

b) sedimentation tank

c) activated sludge treatment

d) trickling filters

Ans:a

132. Septic tank is a

i) settling tank

ii) digestion tank

iii) aeration tank

The correct answer is

a) only (i)

b) (i) and (ii)

c) (i) and (iii)

d) only (iii)

Ans:b

133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in

a) oxidation pond

b) oxidation ditch

c) aerated lagoons

d) trickling filters

Ans:b

134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are

a) aerobic only

b) anaerobic only

c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment

d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment

Ans:d

135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by

a) aerobic bacteria only

b) algae only

c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria

d) sedimentation

Ans:c

136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as

a) 4-8 hours

b) 24 hours

c) 10 to 15 days

d) 3 months

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Ans:c

137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of

a) sludge digestion

b) sludge disposal

c) sedimentation

d) filtration

Ans:b

138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that

a) large area is required for construction

b) maintenance and operation cost are high

c) BOD removal is very low

d) none of the above

Ans:a

139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0

b) 6.5 to 8.0

c) 8.5 to 10.0

d) 10.5 to 12.0

Ans:b

140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of

a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight

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b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight

c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume

d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume

Ans:a

141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50

b) 50 to 150

c) 150 to 350

d) 350 to 500

Ans:c

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142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is
a) 0

b) 1

c) infinity

d) none of the above

Ans:b

143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with moisture
content of 96% will be
a) X/4

b) X/2

c) X

d) 2X

Ans:b

144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe

b) antisiphonage pipe

c) waste pipe

d) soil pipe

Ans:b

145. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe

b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe

Ans:c

146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe

b) soil pipe

c) vent pipe

d) antisiphonage pipe

Ans:a

147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of

a) nitrogen

b) carbon dioxide

c) hydrogen sulphide

d) methane

Ans:d

148. Most of the bacteria in sewage are

a) parasitic

b) saprophytic

c) pathogenic

d) anaerobic

Ans:b

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149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of

a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers

b) disposing of sludge

c) increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs

d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks

Ans:b

150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of

a) oxidation

b) dehydration

c) reduction

d) alkalinization

Ans:a

151. To divert excessive flow from combined sewers, the most commonly used weir is a
a) cipoletti weir

b) broadcrested weir

c) leaping weir

d) submerged weir

Ans:c

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