Grade X Practice MCQ

Total Time: 3 Hr Total Marks: 287.0

2) What is the common difference of an AP in which

Maths
1) Assertion (A) : Sum of first 19 terms of the AP
18, 16, 14, ........ is zero. a₁₈ − a₁₄ = 32?
Sum of first n terms of an AP a, a+ d, a + 2d, . . . .
a + (n -1) d is given by
A 8 B -8
C -4 D 4

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct expl Correct Answer:A
anation of A
Solution:
B Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
Given, a₁₈ - a₁₄ = 32
D A is false but R is true
Correct Answer:A
Using an = a + (n – 1) d, we have:
Solution:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct a₁₈ = a + (18 − 1) d
explanation for A.

And a₁₃ = a + (13 − 1) d

Thus, a₁₈ – a₁₃ = [a + (18 − 1)d] − [a + (14 − 1) d]

= 32

⟹ a + 17d – a – 13d = 32

⟹ 4d = 32

⟹ d=8

Thus, the required common difference of given AP =

8.

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3) If an AP has a=1, tn=20 and Sn=399, then the
value of n is: 6) The sum of the first 10 terms of an arithmetic
progression is 55 . If the first term is 1, what is the
common difference?
A 20 B 32
C 38 D 40 A 1 B 1.5
C 2 D 2.5
Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:A
Solution:
Solution:
Sn=1/2(a+1)×n
399=(1+20)× n/2 The sum of the first n terms of an AP is given by
399×2=21n
n=399×2/21
n=38 Here, S10=55 , a=1 , and n=10. Substituting these values,
we get:
4) Which term of an AP : 21, 42, 63, 84, ... is 210?
A 9th B 10th
⟹55 = 10+45d⟹ 45d= 45⟹ d=1
C 11th D 12th
Correct Answer:B
7) Choose the correct choice in the following and
Solution: justify :
Let nth term of the given AP be 210. 11th term of the AP: – 3, –½, 2, ….. Is
Here, first term, a = 21
Common difference, d = 42 − 21 = 21 A 28 B 22
And an = 210
Using an = a + (n – 1) d, we have: C – 38 D 48 1/2
210 = 21 + (n - 1) 21 Correct Answer:B

Solution:
⟹ 210 = 21+ 21n – 21

⟹ 210 = 21n

⟹ n = 10

Hence, the 10th term of an AP is 210

5) In an AP if a = 1, an = 20 and Sn = 399, then n is

A 19 B 21
C 38 D 42
Correct Answer:C

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8) If the common difference of an AP is 5, then what 9) If 7 times the 7th term of an AP is equal to 11
times its 11th term, then its 18th term will be

is a₁₈ - a₁₃?
A 7 B 11
C 18 D 0
A 5 B 20 Correct Answer:D
C 25 D 30
Solution:
Correct Answer:C
We know that, the nth term of an AP is given as,
Solution: an = a + (n − 1) d
Now, according to the question,
Given, common difference of an AP, d = 5
Using an = a + (n – 1)d, we have:
7a₇ = 11a11

a₁₈ = a + (18 − 1) d

⟹ 7 [a + (7 − 1) d] = 11 [a + (11-1) d]

And a₁₃ = a + (13 − 1) d

⟹ 7 (a +6d) = 11 (a + 10d)

Thus, a₁₈ – a₁₃ = [a + (18 - 1) d] – [a + (13 -1) d]

= a + 17 × 5 – a – 12 × 5 ⟹ 7a + 42d = 11a + 110d

= 85 – 60 = 25

⟹ 4a + 68d = 0

⟹ 4 (a +17d) = 0

⟹ a + 7d = 0 [4 ≠ 0]

Or a + (18 - 1) d = 0

⟹18th term of an AP, a18 = 0

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10) The common difference of the A.P. 13) The famous mathematician associated with
finding the sum of the first 100 natural numbers is
is
A Pythagoras B Newton
C Gauss D Euclid
A P B –P
Correct Answer:C
C -1 D 1
14) If the sum of the first 10 terms of an arithmetic
Correct Answer:C progression is 320 and the 4th term is 22, what is the
Solution: common difference?
A 5 B 6
C 7 D 8

The correct answer is -1 which is given by option C. Correct Answer:B

11) If nth term of an AP is a + b then its common Solution:

difference is
We can use the formula for the sum of the first n terms
A B B a
of an arithmetic progression , , to find the
C n D -a
common difference. Given S10=320 and a4=22, we can
Correct Answer:B solve for d.

12) The 21st term of an AP whose first two terms are 15) The first term of an arithmetic progression is 2 and
− 3 and 4, is the common difference is 3 . What is the 10th term?
A 17 B 137 A 29 B 30
C 143 D -143 C 31 D 32
Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:A
Solution: Solution:
For an AP, an = a + (n – 1)d …..(i) The nth term of an AP is given by an=a+(n−1)d . Here,
Given, first two terms of an AP are − 3 and a + d = a=2 , d=3 , and n=10. Substituting these values:
4.

a10=2+(10−1)⋅3=2+9⋅3=2+27=29
⟹ a = − 3 and a₁= −3 + d = 4

⟹ Common difference, d = a₁ – a = 4 – (−3) =

4+3 = 7

Therefore, a₂₁ = a + (21 − 1) d [Using (i)]

= − 3 + (20) 7
= − 3 + 140 = 137

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16) In an AP, if a= 15, d = -3 and an = 0, then the 17) Assertion (A): A manufacturer of TV sets
value of n is produced 600 sets in the third year and 700 sets in
the seventh year.
Reason (R): Assuming that the production
A 5 B 6
increases uniformly by a fixed number every year,
C 19 D 4 the production in the 1st year is 550 TV sets.
Correct Answer:B
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct expl
Solution: anation of A
We have, a= 15 and d = -3 B Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
⇒ a + (n-1) d = 0
Correct Answer:A

Solution:

⇒ 15 + (n-1) (-3) = 0 Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation for A.
Since the production increases uniformly by a fixed
number every year, the number of TV sets
manufactured in 1st, 2nd, 3rd, . . ., years will form an
⇒ 15 - 3n +3 = 0 AP.
Let us denote the number of TV sets manufactured in
the nth year by an.

⇒ -3n = -18 Then, a³ = 600 and a₇ = 700

or, a + 2d = 600
and a + 6d = 700
⇒n=6 Solving these equations, we get d = 25 and a = 550.
Therefore, production of TV sets in the first year is
550.
The correct answer is B.

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18) If the 2nd term of an AP is 13 and 5th term is 25, 20) If the sum of n terms of an AP is 3n² + 5n then
what is its 7th term? which of its term is 164.

A 30 B 33 A 26th B 27th
C 37 D 38 C 28th D none of these
Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:B

Solution: 21) If the 7th term of an arithmetic progression is 35and

the common difference is 5, what is the 15th term?

Given, a₂ = 13 and a₅ = 25 A 85 B 90
C 75 D 100
Using an = a + (n - 1) d, we have: Correct Answer:C
a + (2 − 1) d = 13 and a + (5 − 1) d = 25
Solution:
7th term a7 = 35
⟹ a + d = 13 ….(i) and a + 4d = 25 …..(ii) Common difference d = 5
We are to find the 15th term a15
an = a + (n – 1) d
On subtracting equation (i) from equation (ii), we get
From the 7th term:
3d = 25 - 13 = 12
a7 = a + 6d = 35
a + 6 x 5 = 35
⟹d=4 a + 30 = 35
a=5
a15 = a + 14d
Putting value of d in equation (i), we get: = 5 + 14 x 5 = 5 + 70 = 75
a = 13 − 4 = 9
22) Assertion (A): 8th term from the end of the AP
18, 14, 10, 6, ..., −30 is −2.
⟹ a₇ = a + (7 − 1) d = 9 + 6 × 4 = 33 Reason (R): The nth term from the end of an AP
with last term l and common difference d is l −(n
− 1)d.

19) If the sum of the first 10 terms of an arithmetic

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct expl
progression is 150 and the common difference is 3,
anation of A
what is the first term of the progression?
B Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
A 10 B 12 explanation of A
C 14 D 16 C A is true but R is false
Correct Answer:A D A is false but R is true

Solution: Correct Answer:A

The sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic progression Solution:

is given by where a1 is the first term and Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation for A.
an is the nth term. Given S10=150 and d=3, we can find
Here, l = -30, n = 8 and d = -4
a1 using the formula an=a1+(n−1)d. Solving these
8th term from the end = l - (n - 1) d = -30 - (8-1) (-4)
equations gives a1=10.
= -30 + 28 = -2
Hence, Assertion (A) is true and clearly, Reason (R)
gives Assertion (A).

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23) Find the sum of the first 15 terms of an arithmetic 27) The first four terms of an AP whose first term is −
progression where the first term is 5 and the common 2 and the common difference is − 2 are
difference is 2.
A − 2, 0, 2, 4 B − 2, 4, − 8, 16
A 225 B 240 C − 2, − 4, − 6, − 8
C 285 D 270 D − 2, − 4, − 8, − 16
Correct Answer:C Correct Answer:C
Solution: Solution:
The sum of the first n terms of an AP is given by

. Here, a=5 , d=2 , and n=15.

Given, a₁ = –2 and d = –2
Substituting these values, we get:

Therefore, a₂ = a₁ + d
24) The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms are
-3 and 4, is
A 17 B 137
⟹ a₂ = –2 – 2 = – 4
C 143 D -143
Correct Answer:B

25) Which term of the Ap : 21, 42, 63, 84, ..., is

210 ? Also a₃ = a₂ + d = – 4 + (–2) = –6
A 9th B 10th
C 11th D 12th
Correct Answer:B And a₄ = a³ + d = – 6 + (–2) = –8
26) Assertion (A) : 8th term from the end of the AP
18, 14, 10, ... -30 is -2.
So, the first four terms are –2, –4, –6, –8
Reason (R) : The nth term from the end of an AP
with last term l and common difference d is given 28) In an arithmetic progression, if the 5th term is 17 and
by 1 - (n - 1) d. the 10th term is 32, what is the sum of the first 20
terms?
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct expl A 310 B 320
anation of A
C 330 D 340
B Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A Correct Answer:C
C A is true but R is false
Solution:
D A is false but R is true
We know that the nth term of an arithmetic progression is
Correct Answer:A given by an=a1+(n−1)d. Using the given information, we
can set up two equations with a5=17 and a10=32, and then
Solution:
solve for a1 and d. Once we find a1 and d, we can use
Both A and R are true and R is the correct the formula for the sum of the first n terms of an
explanation for A. arithmetic progression to find the sum of the first 20
terms.

29) In figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle

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 with centre O. If ∠ APB = 60°, then ∠OAB is ⇒ ∠PAB +∠ OAB = 90°

⇒ ∠ OAB = 90° - 60° = 30°

The correct answer is A.

30) Choose the correct choice in the following and
A 30° B 60° justify : 30th term of the AP: 10, 7, 4, . . . , is
C 90° D 15°
A 97 B 77
Correct Answer:A
C –77 D – 87
Solution:
Correct Answer:C
Since PA and PB are tangents to the circle from an
external point O. Solution:
Therefore, PA = PB
Given that
A.P. 10, 7, 4, …
∴ ΔPAB is an isosceles triangle where ∠ PAB = First term, a = 10

Common difference, d = a₂ − a₁ = 7 − 10 = −3

∠PBA
We know that an = a ( n -1 ) d

a₃₀ = 10 + (30 − 1) (−3)

∠ P + ∠PAB +∠ PBA = 180° [angle sum property of

triangle]
a₃₀ = 10 + (29) (−3)

⇒ 60° +2∠ PAB = 180° ⇒ 2 ∠PAB = 180° - 60° =

120° a₃₀ = 10 − 87 = −77

⇒∠PAB = 120/2 = 60° Hence, the correct answer is option C

31) The first four terms of an AP, whose first term is -
2 and the common difference is -2 are
It is known that the radius is perpendicular to the
tangent at the point of contact. A -2, 0, 2, 4 B -2, 4, -8, 16
C -2, -4, -6, -8 D -2, -4, -8, -16

∴ ∠ OAP = 90° Correct Answer:C

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32) The sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is: 35) In an arithmetic progression, the sum of the first n
terms is 3n2+5n, what is the 11th term of the
progression?
A 100 B 210
C 400 D 420
A 149 B 151
Correct Answer:C C 68 D 155
Solution: Correct Answer:C
Odd natural numbers are in the pattern 1,3,5,7,9….. Solution:
These numbers form an A.P. where a = 1, d = 3 – 1 =
2 Given that the sum of the first n terms of the arithmetic
progression is Sn=3n2+5n, we can use this to find the nth
term.
The nth term of an A.P. is found by subtracting the sum
of first n – 1 terms from the sum of first n terms:
=10 [ 2 + 38 ] = =10 x 40 = 400
an = Sn – Sn-1
Thus, the sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is 400.
S11 = 3(11)2 + 5(11) = 418
Hence, the correct answer is C.
S10 = 3 (10)2 + 5(10) = 350
33) The sum of first five multiples of 3 is a11 = 418 – 350 = 68

A 45 B 55
C 65 D 75
Correct Answer:A

34) The list of numbers − 10, − 6, − 2, 2, ... is

A an AP with d = −16
B an AP with d = 4
C an AP with d = − 4
D not an AP
Correct Answer:B

Solution:
Given list of numbers is: −10, − 6, − 2, 2,....

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36) The first three terms of an AP respectively are 3y 37) What is the 20th term of the arithmetic progression
- 1, 3y + 5 and 5y +1. Then y equals 2,5,8,11,…2, 5, 8, 11, …?
A 59 B 60
A -3 B 4 C 61 D 62
C 5 D 2
Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:C
Solution:
Solution:
The given arithmetic progression has a common
The first three terms of an AP are 3y − 1, 3y + 5 and difference of 3 (each term increases by 3). To find the
5y + 1, respectively. 20th term, we can use the formula for the nth term of an
We need to find the value of y. arithmetic progression: an=a1+(n−1)d. Here, a1=2, n=20,
We know that if a, b and c are in AP, then: and d=3. Substituting these values into the formula gives
a20=2+(20−1)×3 =2+19×3
=2+57=59.
b − a = c − b ⇒ 2b = a + c
38) Assertion (A): In a flower bed, there are 23 rose
plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 in the
third, and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last
row.
∴ 2 (3y + 5) = 3y - 1 + 5y +1 Reason (R): There are 10 rows in the flower bed.

A Both A and R are true and R is the correct expl

anation of A
⇒ 6y +10 = 8y B Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
⇒ 10 = 8y -6y Correct Answer:A

Solution:
Both A and R are true and R is the correct
⇒ 2y =10 explanation for A.
The number of rose plants in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, . . .,
rows are :
23, 21, 19, . . ., 5
It forms an AP (Why?). Let the number of rows in
⇒y=5 the flower bed be n.
Then a = 23, d = 21 - 23 = - 2, a
n=5
Hence the correct option is C. As, a
n = a + (n - 1) d
We have, 5 = 23 + (n - 1)(- 2)
i.e., - 18 = (n - 1)(- 2)
i.e., n = 10
So, there are 10 rows in the flower bed.

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39) Two APs have same common difference. The 42) The 4th term from the end of the AP : -11, -8, 5,
first term of one of these is -1 and that of the other ..., 49 is
is - 8. Then the difference between their 4th term
is
A 37 B 40
A -1 B -8 C 43 D 58
C 7 D -9
Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:C
43) Assertion (A): Sum of first n positive integers is
40) The sum of first 16 terms of the AP : 10, 6, 2, ... is given by Sn=1n/2(n+1).
Reason (R): In an AP with first term a and
A -320 B 320
common difference d, the sum of nth terms is
C -352 D -400 given by Sn=n/2[2a+(n−1)d].
Correct Answer:A A Both A and R are true and R is the correct expl
anation of A
41) Two APs have the same common difference.
B Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
The first term of one of these is − 1 and that of the
explanation of A
other is − 8. The difference between their 4th
terms is C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
A -1 B -8
C 7 D -9 Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:C Solution:

Solution: Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation for A.
Let the same common difference of two APs be d. Sn = 1+2+3+4+...+n = n/2[2×1+(n-1)×1]=n/2(n+1)
Given, first term of first AP (a1) = − 1 This proves Assertion (A) and clearly, Reason (R)
and the first term of second AP (a1’) = − 8 gives Assertion (A).
We know that, the nth term of an AP is given as,
an = a + (n − 1) d 44) Which term of the AP 92,88,84,80,.... is zero?
Therefore, 4th term of first AP is,
A 23 B 32
a₄ = a₁ + (4 − 1) d = −1 + 3d C 22 D 24
Correct Answer:D
And 4th term of second AP is, Solution:
an=a + (n-1) × d
a₄’ = a₁’ + (4 − 1) d = − 8 + 3d where d=-4. Let an=0
0=92+(n-1) ×-4
0=92-4n+4
Difference between 4th terms of both APs is: 4n=96
n=96/4
n=24
a₄ − a₄’ = (−1 + 3d) − (− 8 + 3d)

= − 1 + 3d + 8 − 3d = 7
Hence, the required difference is 7.

11
45) In an arithmetic progression, if the first term is 333 48) The 4th term from the end of an AP − 11, − 8, −
and the common difference is 444, what is the 7th 5,..., 49 is
term?
A 37 B 40
A 24 B 25 C 43 D 58
C 26 D 2997
Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:D
Solution:
Solution:
Taking the AP in reverse order: 49,…, −5, −8, −11.
The first term is a=333
The common difference is d=444
The term number is n=7 Here, a₁ = 49
The formula is an =a+(n−1)d
Substitute the values: a7=333+(7−1)×444
a7=333+(6)×444 Common difference, d = − 8 − (− 11)
a7=333+2664 = − 8 + 11= 3
a7=2997 Now, we know that, the nth term of an AP is given
The 7th term of the arithmetic progression is 2997 as:

46) In an AP, if d = − 4, n = 7 and an = 4, then a is

equal to an = a₁ - (n − 1) d
A 6 B 7
C 20 D 28 Therefore, fourth term of AP is,
Correct Answer:D
a₄ = 49 − (4 − 1) 3 = 49 − 9 = 40
Solution:
We know that in an AP,
an = a + (n − 1) d
49) If the 5th term of an arithmetic progression is 20
and the common difference is 4, what is the first term?
⟹ 4 = a + (7 − 1) (− 4) [by given conditions] A 2 B 4
C 6 D 8
Correct Answer:B

⟹ 4 = a + 6 (− 4) Solution:
Using the formula an=a+(n−1)d , where a5=20 , n=5 ,
and d=4 , we can solve for the first term a:

⟹ a = 4 + 24 = 28 20=a+(5−1)⋅4 ⟹ 20=a+16 ⟹ a=20−16=4

47) The 6th term from the end of the AP : 5, 2, -1, -4,
..., -31 is

A -16 B -19
C -22 D 25
Correct Answer:A

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50) In an AP, if a = 3.5, d = 0 and n = 101, then an 3) What is formed when an acid reacts with a base?
will be
A Salt and water
B Salt and hydrogen gas
A 0 B 3.5 C Water and carbon dioxide
C 103.5 D 104.5 D Salt only
Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:A
Solution: Solution:
We know that in an AP, This is a neutralization reaction where an acid reacts with
a base to produce salt and water.
an = a + (n − 1) d⟹ an = 3.5 + (101 − 1) × 0 [by 4) What is the chemical formula of sulfuric acid?
A B
given conditions]
HNO₃ H₂SO₄

⟹ an = 3.5
C HCl D

H₂CO₃
Science
1) An HCl solution has a pH level of 4 this indicates that
the molarity of the solution is Correct Answer:B

Solution:
A 0.04 M B 0.4M
C 4.0M D 0.004M
The chemical formula for sulfuric acid is H₂SO₄.
Correct Answer:C

2) Which base is used in the manufacture of soap?

5) Which of the following can act as both an acid and a
A Sodium hydroxide
base?
B Potassium hydroxide
C Calcium hydroxide A B
D Ammonium hydroxide H₂SO₄ NH₃
Correct Answer:A

Solution: C D NaOH

Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is used in the saponification H₂O

process to manufacture soap.

Correct Answer:C

Solution:

Water (H₂O) is amphoteric; it can act as both an acid and

a base.

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6) The pH of a solution which turns red litmus blue will 9) Which of the following is a weak base?
show what range in the pH paper
A Sodium hydroxide
B Ammonium hydroxide
C Potassium hydroxide
D Calcium hydroxide
A 2 B 6
C 10 D 5 Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:C Solution:
7) An apparatus was set up through which an electrolyte
was passed for electrical conductivity. It will show the
Ammonium hydroxide (NH₄OH) is a weak base because
following results

it partially dissociates in water.

10) The salts of strong bases and weak acids are called
A Basic B Acidic
C Neutral D None of these
(i) NaOH is a strong base and releases ions for Correct Answer:A
conduction which will make the bulb glow
(ii) The circuit isn’t complete, the bulb won’t glow 11)
(iii) Bulb will glow because the electrolyte is an acidic
solution The process of forming water in which a base OH⁻
(iv) Nothing will happen no reaction will take place

A Only (i)
reacts with an acid H⁺ is called as
B Both (ii) & (iv)
C Only (ii)
D Both (i) & (iii)

Correct Answer:A A Ozonization B Sublimation

C Alkalinisation D Neutralization
8) What is the chemical name of the salt formed from the
neutralization of nitric acid and potassium hydroxide? Correct Answer:D

A Potassium chloride 12) Which substance has the chemical property to turn
B Potassium nitrate blue litmus red
C Potassium sulfate A Baking soda B Vinegar
D Potassium carbonate C Water D Salt
Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:B
Solution: 13) 10 mL of solution of NaOH is found to be completely
neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we
take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount
Nitric acid (HNO₃) reacts with potassium hydroxide of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required
to neutralise will be
A 4 mL B 8 mL
C 12 mL D 16 mL
(KOH) to form potassium nitrate (KNO₃) and water.
Correct Answer:D

14
14) What is the nature of a solution with a pH of 3? 18) In the pH paper which substance will indicate pH level
10
A Neutral B Weakly acidic
C Strongly acidic D Weakly basic
Correct Answer:C

Solution:
A Tomato juice B Milk of Magnesia
A pH of 3 indicates a strongly acidic solution. C Sodium Hydroxide solution
15) Which of the following types of medicines is used for D Coffee
treating indigestion?
Correct Answer:B
A Antibiotic B Analgesic
19) Out of the below-mentioned substances Tooth enamel
C Antacid D Antiseptic
is formed of?
Correct Answer:C A Calcium carbonate
16) The pH of lemon juice is approximately 2. What does B Potassium carbonate
this indicate about lemon juice? C Magnesium sulphate
A It is a strong base D Calcium phosphate
B It is a weak acid Correct Answer:D
C It is a strong acid
20) Which substance has the chemical property to turn red
D It is a neutral solution
litmus blue
Correct Answer:C A Solution of baking soda
Solution: B Lemon juice
C Milk D Salt
A pH of 2 indicates that lemon juice is strongly acidic.
Correct Answer:A
17) Which base is used in antacids to neutralize stomach
acid? 21) When a substance releases a pair of electrons to form a
A Sodium hydroxide coordinate covalent bond, the substance is called
B Calcium hydroxide
C Magnesium hydroxide A Lewis base
D Potassium hydroxide B Bronsted-Lowry base
C Lewis acid
Correct Answer:C
D Bronsted-Lowry acid
Solution: Correct Answer:A

Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂) is commonly used in

antacids to neutralize stomach acid.

15
22) Choose the correct chemical formula for plaster of 27) A few statements are mentioned below about a
Paris solution of acid and base. Which of them are correct
(i) Acid is stronger if pH is higher
(ii) Acid is weaker if pH is higher
A B
(iii) Base is stronger if pH is lower
CaSO₄. 5H₂O CaSO₄. 1/2 H₂O (iv) Base is weaker if pH is lower

A Only (ii) is true

C D
B Both (i) and (iii) are true
CuSO₄. 3/2 H₂O CuSO₄. 3H₂O C Both (ii) and (iv) are true
D Only (iii) is true

Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:B
28) The other name given to the metal oxide is
23) When a metal reacts with an acid what type of gas is
released A Basic oxides B Neutral oxides
A Nitrogen gas B Carbon dioxide C Acidic oxides D All of the above
C Hydrogen gas D Oxygen Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:C 29) Which salt is formed when hydrochloric acid reacts
with sodium hydroxide?
24) Which acid is commonly found in vinegar?
A Sodium chloride B Sodium sulfate
A Lactic acid B Citric acid
C Sodium carbonate D Sodium acetate
C Acetic acid D Tartaric acid
Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:C
Solution:
Solution:
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) to form sodium chloride (NaCl) and water.
Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is the main component of
30) Which acid is used in car batteries?
A Nitric acid B Sulfuric acid
vinegar, giving it its sour taste.
C Hydrochloric acid
25) In the pH paper which substance will indicate pH level D Acetic acid
2.2
Correct Answer:B

Solution:

A Vinegar B Lemon juice Sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) is used in car batteries due to its
C Pure water D Carrot juice
Correct Answer:B high reactivity and ability to conduct electricity.

26) A solution turns red litmus blue. Its pH is likely to be

A 2 B 4
C 7 D 10
Correct Answer:D

16
31) Which of the following is a common property of 36) Which of the following salts is used in making plaster
bases? of Paris?
A Sour taste A Sodium chloride B Calcium sulfate
B Turn red litmus blue C Sodium carbonate
C React with metals to produce hydrogen gas D Potassium nitrate
D Turn blue litmus red
Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:B
Solution:
Solution: Plaster of Paris is made from calcium sulfate hemihydrate
Bases turn red litmus paper blue, which is a common
characteristic used to identify them.
(CaSO₄·0.5H₂O).
32) A visually impaired person can use which acid-base as
an indicator
A Vanilla essence B Litmus 37) In a human which is the hardest substance that we can
have
C Alkali solution D Common salt
A Femur B Skeletal bone
Correct Answer:A
C Tooth enamel D Knee bone
33) Which acid is produced in the stomach to aid
Correct Answer:C
digestion?
A Sulfuric acid 38) The substance Caustic potash has the chemical
formula:
B Hydrochloric acid
C Acetic acid D Citric acid A B KOH

Correct Answer:B NH₄OH

Solution:
C D NaOH
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is produced in the stomach to
help digest food by breaking down proteins. Ca(OH)₂
34) Which of the following is a strong acid?
A Acetic acid B Citric acid Correct Answer:B
C Hydrochloric acid
D Carbonic acid 39) 6 ml of HCl solution has completely Neutralised 12 ml
of NaOH solution so what quantity of HCl solution
Correct Answer:C will be required to neutralise 24 ml of NaOH

Solution: A 10 ml B 15 ml
C 6 ml D 12 ml
Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid because it
completely dissociates into its ions in an aqueous Correct Answer:D
solution.

35) A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas

that turns lime water milky. The solution contains

A NaCl B HCl
C LiCl D KCl
Correct Answer:B

17
40) What is the main constituent of baking soda? 44) Which of the following solution has a pH level of 8?
A Sodium carbonate
B Sodium bicarbonate A Basic B Acidic
C Sodium hydroxide D Sodium sulfate C Neutral D None of these

Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:A

Solution: 45) In an acidic solution when Phenolphthalein is added it

becomes
Baking soda is primarily composed of sodium
A Green coloured B Yellow coloured
C Colourless D Red coloured
bicarbonate (NaHCO₃).
Correct Answer:C

46) What gas is evolved when zinc reacts with

41) When an equal amount of NaOH and HCl solutions hydrochloric acid?
are mixed having the same concentration and then
compared to the pH paper then what we will get A Oxygen B Carbon dioxide
C Hydrogen D Chlorine
Correct Answer:C

Solution:
A Greenish blue B Red When zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is
C Yellowish green D Yellowish orange evolved.
Correct Answer:C 47) A solution turns blue litmus red. What is the nature of
the solution?
42) A gas is evolved when acetic acid reacts with sodium
hydrogen carbonate. What is the property of the A Basic B Acidic
evolved gas C Neutral D Salt solution
Correct Answer:B
A A burning flame can be extinguished by it
B It can turn lime water milky Solution:
C Solution of NaOH can be dissolved by it Acidic solutions turn blue litmus paper red.
D All of the above
48) In plain water when we put acids they produce ions
Correct Answer:D and helps in conduction of electricity, this process is
called
43) The chemical composition for lime water is given as
A B A Ionization B Vulcanization
CaCl₂ Ca₃(PO₄)₂ C Galvanization D Dissociation
Correct Answer:D
C D

Ca(OH)₂ CaCO₃

Correct Answer:C

18
49) Which hormone is responsible for regulating blood 52) What is the primary function of the hypothalamus in
sugar levels? the brain?
A Adrenaline B Thyroxine A Sensory processing
C Insulin D Testosterone B Emotional regulation
C Homeostasis and hormone regulation
Correct Answer:C
D Memory formation
Solution:
Correct Answer:C
Insulin, produced by the pancreas, helps regulate blood
sugar levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into Solution:
cells.
The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in maintaining
50) A nastic movements are? homeostasis by regulating various bodily functions and
controlling the release of hormones from the pituitary
gland.
A Non-directional B Directional
C Both a and b D None of these 53) The plant’s responses are regulated through

Correct Answer:A
A Gravity B Sunlight
51) Which is the following is a nerve cell? C Phytohormone D Air
Correct Answer:C

54) What part of the brain regulates essential functions

A such as heart rate and breathing?
A Cerebrum B Cerebellum
C Medulla oblongata
D Hypothalamus
Correct Answer:C
B
Solution:
The medulla oblongata controls vital autonomic functions
such as heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing.

55) Pick out the substance, whose deficiency can cause

C dwarfism.

A GH B FSH
D None of these C LH D All of the above

Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:A

56) What is the basic functional unit of the nervous

system?
A Muscle B Neuron
C Bone D Gland
Correct Answer:B

Solution:
Neurons are the basic functional units of the nervous
system, responsible for transmitting nerve impulses.

19
57) Which part of the neuron is responsible for 62) Which of the following is termed as the growth
transmitting electrical impulses to other cells? inhibitor of plant?
A Dendrites B Axon
C Cell body D Synapse A Ascorbic acid B Gibberellins
C Abscisic acid D Auxin
Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:C
Solution:
63) What is the function of the corpus callosum?
The axon conducts electrical impulses away from the
neuron's cell body and transmits them to other neurons, A Controls voluntary movements
muscles, or glands. B Connects the two hemispheres of the brain
58) A ________ is an unpaired gland. C Processes visual information
D Regulates the endocrine system

A Pituitary B Testis Correct Answer:B

C Adrenal D Ovary
Solution:
Correct Answer:A
The corpus callosum is a large bundle of nerve fibers that
59) Which hormone is primarily involved in regulating the connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres, enabling
body's metabolism? communication between them.

A Insulin B Thyroxine 64) Which of the following is a sensitive plant?

C Glucagon D Estrogen A
Correct Answer:B B
C
Solution:
D
Thyroxine, produced by the thyroid gland, plays a key
Correct Answer:A
role in regulating the body's metabolism, influencing
growth, development, and metabolic rate. 65) Which of the following best describes a reflex action?
60) Which of the following controls the rate of basal A Voluntary response
metabolism in animals? B Involuntary and rapid response
C Slow and deliberate response
A Thyroxin B Aldosterone D None of the above
C Adrenaline D Oxytocin
Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:A
Solution:
61) Which of the following is responsible for biological
Reflex actions are automatic, involuntary, and rapid
maintenance?
responses to specific stimuli, designed to protect the body
from harm.
A Pineal B Kidney
C Adrenal D Thyroid
Correct Answer:A

20
66) Which part of the autonomic nervous system is 71) What is the role of the myelin sheath in the nervous
responsible for the "rest and digest" activities? system?
A Sympathetic nervous system A Produces neurotransmitters
B Parasympathetic nervous system B Insulates axons and speeds up nerve impulses
C Central nervous system C Connects neurons to muscles
D Enteric nervous system D Maintains the blood-brain barrier

Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:B

Solution: Solution:
The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for The myelin sheath insulates axons and increases the
conserving energy and promoting "rest and digest" speed at which electrical impulses travel along the nerve
activities, such as digestion and relaxation. cells.

67) Which of the following produce growth hormone? 72) Which gland is often referred to as the "master gland"?
A Pancreas B Pituitary A Thyroid gland B Adrenal gland
C Adrenal D Thyroid C Pituitary gland D Pineal gland
Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:C

68) Which of the following generates growth hormone? Solution:

The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland"
because it controls the functions of many other endocrine
glands.
A
73) The peripheral nervous system consists of:
A Brain and spinal cord
B Spinal cord only
B C Nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cor
d
D Only sensory neurons
Correct Answer:C
C Solution:
The peripheral nervous system includes all the nerves and
D None of these ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord, facilitating
communication between the central nervous system and
Correct Answer:A the rest of the body.
69) Which of the following is an involuntary action? 74) A brain is preserved within a _______ which generates
A Hand movement while eating shock absorption.
B Salivation A Water filled skull
C Movement of leg D All of the above B Fluid-filled balloon
C Air-filled balloon
Correct Answer:B
D None of these
70) Name the birth hormone?
Correct Answer:B
A Prolactin B Oxytocin
C FSH D ADH
Correct Answer:B

21
75) What is the main control center of the human body? 80) Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating
voluntary movements?
A Heart B Kidney
C Brain D Liver A Cerebrum B Cerebellum
C Medulla D Thalamus
Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:B
Solution:
Solution:
The brain is the primary control center of the body,
responsible for processing sensory information and The cerebellum coordinates voluntary movements such as
controlling movement, coordination, and various bodily posture, balance, and coordination.
functions.
81) The flow of the blood to the digestive system get
76) Which structure in the brain is primarily involved in reduced due to human hormone
processing and relaying sensory information to the
cerebral cortex?
A Adrenaline B Insulin
A Hypothalamus B Thalamus C Thyroxin D Growth hormone
C Hippocampus D Amygdala
Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:B
82) Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in
Solution: muscle contraction?
The thalamus acts as a relay station, processing and A Dopamine B Serotonin
transmitting sensory information to the appropriate areas C Acetylcholine D GABA
of the cerebral cortex.
Correct Answer:C
77) Which is the target organ of both adrenaline and
insulin ? Solution:
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial
A heart B kidney role in the activation of muscle action.
C liver D pancreas 83) Which of the following organ control the entire
Correct Answer:C involuntary actions?
A Kidney B Heart
78) The Ripening of fruits is accelerated through
C Pituitary gland D Medulla

A Phototropism B Gibberellins Correct Answer:D

C Chemotropism D Hydrotropism 84) Movement of ovule towards the pollen tubes is an
Correct Answer:B instance of

79) A diabetic patient never generates

A Hydrotropism B Chemotropism
C Phototropic D Geotropic
A Thyroxin B Insulin
C Estrogen D Adrenaline Correct Answer:B

Correct Answer:B 85) The shoot tips get bend towards the direction of the
sun light is called

A Geotropism B Chemotropism
C Phototropism D Hydrotropism
Correct Answer:C

22
86) The leaves of the mimosa plant often droops 91) Which type of neuron carries impulses away from the
central nervous system to muscles or glands?
A Due to turgidity loss
B Due to growth dependence A Sensory neurons B Interneurons
C Movement independent of growth C Motor neurons D Afferent neurons
D Both a and b Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:C Solution:
87) Which hormone is released by the adrenal medulla Motor neurons transmit nerve impulses from the central
during a fight-or-flight response? nervous system to effectors such as muscles or glands.
A Cortisol B Aldosterone 92) What is the main role of glial cells in the nervous
C Adrenaline (epinephrine) system?
D Insulin A Transmit electrical signals
Correct Answer:C B Support and protect neurons
C Generate action potentials
Solution:
D Facilitate muscle contraction
Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is released by the
adrenal medulla during the fight-or-flight response, Correct Answer:B
preparing the body for rapid action.
Solution:
88) Hormone which is related to gonads Glial cells provide structural support, protection, and
A Testosterone B Auxin nourishment to neurons, as well as maintaining
C Estrogen D Both (a) and (b) homeostasis and forming myelin.

Correct Answer:D 93) Which of the following results in downward growth of

roots?
89) Person who consume more sea food has least chance
to develop
A Negative phototropic
B Negative geotropic
A Goiter B Diabetes C Positive phototropic
C Heart Disease D Both a and b D None of the above
Correct Answer:A Correct Answer:B
90) What is the main driving force for the movement of 94) Which part of the neuron receives incoming signals?
water in plants?
A Axon B Dendrites
A Evaporation through the leaves
C Cell body D Synapse
B Amount of enzyme
C Nature of plasma membrane Correct Answer:B
D All of the above Solution:
Correct Answer:A Dendrites are tree-like structures that receive signals from
other neurons and conduct them toward the cell body.

95) The defects caused due to astigmatism can be rectified

using which type of lens?

A Convex lens B Concave lens

C Cylindrical lens D None of these
Correct Answer:C

23
96) What kind of image is formed on the retina of the 101) Which type of lens is used to correct myopia?
human eye?
A Convex lens B Concave lens
A Virtual and erect C Cylindrical lens D Bifocal lens
B Real and inverted
Correct Answer:B
C Real and erect
D Virtual and inverted Solution:
Correct Answer:B Myopia, or nearsightedness, is corrected using a concave
lens, which diverges light rays before they reach the eye,
Solution: allowing the image to form on the retina.
The image formed on the retina is real and inverted. The 102) A person is unable to see clearly the objects that are
brain processes this image and perceives it as erect. placed beyond 50 cm. For correct vision, what will be
97) the power of the lens?
For focusing on the objects placed either nearby or at a
distant, what changes in the eye?
A - 0.5 D B -2D
A The retina moves in / out C +2D D +5D
B The lens becomes thinner / thicker Correct Answer:B
C The size of the pupil changes
103) Which part of the eye is responsible for adjusting the
D The lens moves in / out
focus to view near or distant objects?
Correct Answer:B A Iris B Retina
98) A person is suffering from colour blindness. From the C Cornea D Ciliary muscles
following statements choose the one correct in respect
Correct Answer:D
to the person’s condition.
Solution:
A The person cannot see the fundamental colours ? re The ciliary muscles change the shape of the lens to
d , green and blue adjust the focus for near or distant vision, a process called
B The person can see only in black and white accommodation.
C The person will gradually suffer from blindness
104) Which phenomenon is responsible for the splitting of
D None of the above
white light into seven different component colours?
Correct Answer:A A Interference B Dispersion
99) Which colour deviates the least when white light is C Reflection D Refraction
passed through the prism? Correct Answer:B
A Violet B Red
C Green D Blue
Correct Answer:B

100) Which optical phenomenon is used in the movie

projectors?

A Interference
B Short sightedness
C Reflection
D Persistence of vision

Correct Answer:D

24
105) The figures a, b, and c given below, respectively, 109) Which of the following is not a type of cone cell in the
indicates the point when the case is human eye?
A Red-sensitive B Green-sensitive
C Blue-sensitive D Yellow-sensitive
Correct Answer:D

Solution:
The human eye has three types of cone cells sensitive to
red, green, and blue light, but not specifically to yellow.
A The normal eye, the myopic eye and the hypermetr 110) What is the main cause of hypermetropia?
opic eye
B The normal eye, the hypermetropic eye and the my A Elongation of the eyeball
opic B Shortening of the eyeball
C The hypermetropic eye, the myopic eye and the nor C Irregular curvature of the cornea
mal eye D Weakening of the ciliary muscles
D The myopic eye, the normal eye and the hypermetr
opic eye Correct Answer:B

Correct Answer:B Solution:

Hypermetropia, or farsightedness, occurs when the
106) Which part of the eye causes the change of the focal
eyeball is too short or the lens is too flat, causing light to
length?
focus behind the retina.

A Ciliary muscles B Retina 111) Which layer of the eye contains photoreceptor cells?
C Pupil D Iris A Sclera B Cornea
Correct Answer:A C Retina D Choroid
Correct Answer:C
107) The human eye forms the image of an object at its
Solution:
A cornea B iris The retina contains photoreceptor cells (rods and cones)
C pupil D retina that detect light and color.
Correct Answer:D 112) Which phenomenon explains the formation of a
rainbow?
108) The danger signals placed at various locations are red
in colour because the colour red can be seen from a A Reflection B Refraction
distance. This is because C Diffraction D Dispersion
Correct Answer:D
A The colour red is scattered least by smoke or fog
B The colour red is absorbed most by smoke or fog Solution:
C The colour red is scattered most by smoke or fog A rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of sunlight by
D None of the following water droplets in the atmosphere, separating the light into
its constituent colors.
Correct Answer:A
113) The image of any object is formed in which part of the
human eye?
A Cornea B Pupil
C Retina D Iris
Correct Answer:C

25
114) A graph has been plotted in which the angle of 118) What is the reason behind the red color of the sun
incidence is along the x axis and the angle of deviation during sunrise and sunset?
along the y axis. From the below given figures choose
A Scattering of blue light
the figure that represents the variation correctly.
B Scattering of red light
C Dispersion of light
D Absorption of blue light

A B Correct Answer:A

Solution:
During sunrise and sunset, the light has to pass through a
larger distance in the atmosphere, scattering shorter
wavelengths (blue and violet) and allowing the longer
wavelengths (red and orange) to reach the observer.
C D
119) Which phenomenon is responsible for the ability of the
human eyes to focus on objects placed at different
distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens?
Correct Answer:B
A Accommodation
115) What causes the twinkling of stars? B Persistence of vision
A Reflection of starlight by the Earth's atmosphere C Near sightedness D Long sightedness
B Refraction of starlight by the Earth's atmosphere Correct Answer:A
C Dispersion of starlight by the Earth's atmosphere
120) ABC, a prism with BC as its base is placed in four
D Diffraction of starlight by the Earth's atmosphere
different ways and a narrow light is incident on the
Correct Answer:B prism. From the given figures, choose the one where,
following dispersion, the third colour from top will be
Solution: blue?
The twinkling of stars is caused by the refraction of
starlight as it passes through the various layers of the
Earth's atmosphere.
A B
116) The time difference between actual and apparent
sunset is

A 20 seconds B 20 minutes
C 2 seconds D 2 minutes C D

Correct Answer:D

117) The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by Correct Answer:B
the action of the

A pupil B retina
C ciliary muscles D iris
Correct Answer:C

26
121) What is the term for the minimum distance at which 125) Among the following options, which are the primary
the eye can see objects clearly without strain? colours?
A Near point B Far point
C Focal length D Accommodation A Red, Green, Violet
B Yellow, Blue, Green
Correct Answer:A
C Red, Green, Blue
Solution: D Red, Blue, Yellow
The near point is the closest distance at which the eye can Correct Answer:D
focus on an object clearly, typically around 25 cm for a
normal eye. 126) From the below given figures, choose the one which is
the correct representation of the passage of white light
122) Which phenomenon is primarily responsible for the through a prism?
blue color of the sky?
A Reflection B Refraction
C Dispersion D Scattering
A B
Correct Answer:D

Solution:
The blue color of the sky is due to Rayleigh scattering, C D
where shorter wavelengths of light (blue) are scattered
more than longer wavelengths (red) by the molecules in
the atmosphere. Correct Answer:C
123) A man is having difficulty reading the odometer on his 127) Which part of the human eye controls the amount of
dashboard of the car but can easily see and read a light entering it?
distant road sign. From the below given statements
which one is correct?
A Retina B Cornea
C Iris D Lens
A The near point of the man’s eyes has come closer to Correct Answer:C
him
Solution:
B The far point of the man’s eyes has receded
C The near point of the man’s eyes has receded away The iris controls the size of the pupil and thus the amount
D The far point of the man’s eyes has come closer to of light that enters the eye.
him 128) The human eye can, focus objects at different
Correct Answer:C distances by adjusting the focal length of the eyelens.
This is due to
124) The term “accommodation”, when it is used in relation
to the eyes, refers to the ability of the light to
A presbyopia B accommodation
C near-sightedness D far-sightedness
A Erect the inverted image that has been formed on th
e retina Correct Answer:B
B Change the focal length of the lens of the eyes 129) For a young adult, with normal vision, what is the least
C Control the light intensity that falls on the retina distance of distinct vision?
D Change the distance between retina and lens
Correct Answer:B A 2.5 cm B 25 cm
C 3.5 m D 15 m
Correct Answer:B

27
130) What is the far point of a normal human eye? 134) Which defect of vision can be corrected using
cylindrical lenses?
A 10 cm B 25 cm
C 1 meter D Infinity A Myopia B Hypermetropia
C Astigmatism D Presbyopia
Correct Answer:D
Correct Answer:C
Solution:
Solution:
The far point of a normal human eye is at infinity,
meaning it can see distant objects clearly without Astigmatism, which is caused by an irregular curvature of
accommodation. the cornea or lens, can be corrected using cylindrical
lenses.
131) When humans look at the stars they see them
twinkling. Which phenomenon is responsible for 135) From the below given statements, choose the correct
twinkling of stars? one.
A Reflection A A person suffering from hypermetropia can see cle
B Total internal reflection arly, the objects placed nearby
C Atmosphere reflection B A person suffering from hypermetropia is unable to
see distant objects clearly
D Atmosphere refraction
C A person suffering from myopia can see the objects
Correct Answer:D placed at a distant clearly

132) How does the eye lens change to focus on near D A person suffering from myopia can see the nearby
objects clearly
objects?
A Becomes thinner B Becomes thicker Correct Answer:D
C Moves forward D Moves backward 136) From the below given options, choose the case where
Correct Answer:B no dispersion will occur at all when sunlight passes
through it?
Solution:
To focus on near objects, the ciliary muscles contract,
making the eye lens thicker, thereby increasing its focal
length and allowing for clear vision of nearby objects. A

133) A person got his eye tested and the optician prescribed
the following spectacles read - Left eye: -3 D, Right
eye: +3.50 D. the person is suffering from
B
A Myopia B Astigmatism
C Hypermetropia D Presbyopia
Correct Answer:C

C D

Correct Answer:C

28
137) A person who is suffering from Presbyopia should be 5) What is meant by 'terms of credit'?
using
A Mode of repayment
B Interest rate
A Concave lens B Bifocal lens
C Collateral requirement
C Cylindrical lens D All of the above
D None of the above
Correct Answer:D
Correct Answer:B
Solution:
SST Economics
Terms of credit include interest rate, collateral
1) ______ is one of the biggest success stories in
requirement, and the mode of repayment.
reaching the poor to meet their credit needs at
reasonable rates. 6) What facilities does an Informal lender provide?
A Dena Gujarat Gramin Bank
B Chhattisgarh Rajya Gramin Bank A They are often willing to give a loan without collat
C Grameen bank of Bangladesh eral
D None of the above B The borrowers can, if necessary, approach the mon
eylenders even without repaying their earlier loans
Correct Answer:C C Option a and b
2) What do the banks in India do with the deposits which D None of the above
they accept from the public? Correct Answer:C
A Banks holds 15 per cent of the deposits by public,
with themselves as cash 7) Which one of the following is a modern form of
currency?
B Banks holds 10 per cent of the deposits by public,
with themselves as cash A Gold B Silver
C Banks hold 20 per cent of the deposits by public, w C Copper D Paper notes
ith themselves as cash
Correct Answer:D
D Banks hold 5 per cent of the deposits by public, wit
h themselves as cash 8) Double coincidence of wants means:
Correct Answer:A A What a person desires to sell is exactly what the oth
er person wishes to buy
3) Krishak Cooperative has how many farmers as
B What a person desires to sell is exactly what the oth
members?
er person also wishes to sell
C What a person desires to buy is exactly what the ot
A 2400 B 2100 her person also wishes to buy
C 2300 D 2000 D None of the above
Correct Answer:C Correct Answer:A
4) In which one of the following systems exchange of
goods is done without use of money?
A Credit system B Barter system
C Banking system
D Collateral system
Correct Answer:B

29
9) Which of the following is not a function of money? 14) What is meant by 'creditworthiness'?
A Medium of exchange A The value of collateral
B Unit of account B The amount of money borrowed
C Store of value C The ability of a borrower to repay a loan
D Distribution of wealth D The interest rate on a loan

Correct Answer:D Correct Answer:C

Solution: Solution:
Money primarily serves as a medium of exchange, a unit Creditworthiness refers to a borrower's ability and
of account, and a store of value. reliability to repay a loan.

10) The Informal source of credit does not include which 15) What kind of loan Krishak Cooperative provides?
one of the following?
A Loans for cultivation and agricultural trade
A Traders B Friends B Fishery loans
C Cooperative Societies C Loans for construction of houses and for a variety o
D Moneylenders f other expenses
D All of the above
Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:D
11) When do the farmers take crop loans and when do they
repay? 16) In a barter system:
A Take loan at the beginning of the season and repay A Goods are exchanged for money
the loan after harvest
B Goods are exchanged for foreign currency
B Take loan at the end of the season and repay the loa C Goods are exchanged without the use of money
n after harvest
D Goods are exchanged on credit
C Take loan at the beginning of the season and repay
the loan before harvest Correct Answer:C
D Take loan at the mid of the season and repay the lo
an after harvest 17) In India, which type of loan carries the highest rate of
interest?
Correct Answer:A
A Personal loan B Education loan
12) Full form of SHG is: C Home loan D Car loan
A Self-Help group B Solo-Help group Correct Answer:A
C Self-Help Gang
Solution:
D None of the above
Personal loans typically have higher interest rates
Correct Answer:A compared to secured loans like home loans and car loans.
13) Banks use the ______ portion of the deposits to extend 18) What is the disadvantage of taking loan from Money
loans. lenders?

A Major B Small A Money lenders charge very high rates of interest

C Half D All of the above B Keep no records of the transactions
Correct Answer:A C Harass the poor borrowers
D All of the above

Correct Answer:D

30
19) Consider the statements given below and choose the 24) Identify the incorrect option from the statements given
correct answer below regarding ‘bank deposits’
Statement I: The formal sector still meets only about
A Banks accept the deposits and also pay an amount a
half of the total credit needs of the rural people.
s interest on the deposits.
Statement II: SHGs are the building blocks of
organization of the rural poor B People’s money is safe with the banks and it earns
an amount as interest
C People do not have the provision to withdraw the m
A Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect
oney from the bank as and when they require
B Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct
D Bank deposits are called demand deposits
C Both (I) & (II) are incorrect
D Both (I) & (II) are correct Correct Answer:C

Correct Answer:D 25) Rich urban households take _____ per cent loan from
formal sources.
20) Which of the following has an essential feature of
A 85 B 90
double coincidence?
C 80 D 58
A Money system B Barter system
C Financial system D Banking system Correct Answer:B

Correct Answer:B 26) Which of the following is an asset that the borrower
owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is repaid to
21) Which one of the following is the new way of the lender?
providing loans to the rural poor?
A Property B Money
A Co-operative societies C Collateral D Deposits
B Traders
Correct Answer:C
C Relatives and friends
D SHG’s 27) The _____ Bank of India supervises the functioning of
formal sources of loans.
Correct Answer:D
A Reserve B State
22) ____ is an asset that the borrower owns. C Union D All the above
Correct Answer:A
A Collateral B Security
C Both a and b 28) Choose the correct kind of transaction taking place in
D None of the above our everyday life.

Correct Answer:A
A Goods are being bought and sold with the use of m
23) What does crop production involves? oney
B Services are being exchanged with money
A Costs on seeds
C Might not be any actual transfer of money taking pl
B Fertilisers, pesticides
ace now but a promise to pay money later
C Water, electricity, repair of equipment
D All of the above
D All of the above
Correct Answer:D
Correct Answer:D
29) A typical SHG has _____ members

A 10-20 B 15-20
C 25-30 D 5- 20
Correct Answer:B

31
30) Currency in India is issued by? 35) Which one of the following is the main source of
credit for rich urban households in India?
A Reserve Bank of India
B State Bank of India A Formal sector B Informal sector
C Union Bank of India C Moneylenders D Traders
D Punjab National Bank Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:A 36) Which one of the following is not a part of the formal
31) sector credit in India?
What is barter system?
A Commercial banks B Money lenders
A Exchange of goods for money
C Cooperative banks
B Exchange of goods for goods
D Regional rural banks
C Exchange of goods for services
D Exchange of money for services Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:B Solution:
Solution: Money lenders are part of the informal sector.

The barter system involves direct exchange of goods and 37) What role do commercial banks play in the economic
services without using money. development of a country?

32) What is the major source of cheap credit in rural areas? A Promoting inflation
B Reducing savings
A Banks C Facilitating investment
B Co-operative societies D Decreasing foreign exchange reserves
C Zamindars D All of the above Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:B Solution:
Solution: Commercial banks facilitate investment by providing
Co-operative societies pool members' resources to offer loans to businesses and individuals, thereby contributing
low-interest loans in rural areas, making them a major to economic development.
source of cheap credit. 38) What is the main source of Income of the banks?
33) One of the major reasons which prevent the poor from A The amount that is paid by the depositors
getting bank loans is: B The interest that bank gets from granting loans
A Illiteracy C The amount that is left in the bank after account hol
B Absence of collateral der’s demise
C Poor D The difference between what is charged from borro
wers and what is paid to depositors
D None of the above
Correct Answer:D
Correct Answer:B
39) Choose from below the formal sector loans.
34) In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for?
A Banks B moneylenders
A Education B Crop production
C Traders D employers
C Land purchasing D Building home
Correct Answer:A
Correct Answer:B

32
40) Why do banks keep a small proportion of the deposits 45) Which among the following authorities issues currency
as cash with themselves? notes?
A To extend loan to the poor A Government of India
B To extend loan facility B The State Bank of India
C To pay salary to their staff C Central Bank
D To pay the depositors who might come to withdraw D Reserve Bank of India
money
Correct Answer:D
Correct Answer:D
46) What is a self-help group (SHG)?
41) Which institution supervises the functioning of formal
A A government organization providing loans
sources of loans in India?
B A group of people saving money together
A SEBI B RBI C An NGO providing educational services
C NABARD D SIDBI D A corporate entity investing in shares
Correct Answer:B Correct Answer:B
Solution: Solution:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) supervises the
Self-help groups are informal groups of people who save
functioning of formal financial institutions.
and borrow among themselves.
42) Which bank issues currency notes on behalf of the 47) Which of the following is considered as modern form
Central Government in India?
of money?
A State Bank of India
A Gold B Silver
B All nationalized banks
C Paper currency D Barter
C Reserve Bank of India
D Bank of India Correct Answer:C

Correct Answer:C Solution:

Modern forms of money include paper currency and bank
43) Which one of the following statements is most
deposits.
appropriate regarding a transaction made in money?
A It is the easiest way 48) What happens if the borrower fails to repay the loan?
B It is the safest way
C It is the cheapest way A If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender ha
D It promotes trade s no right to sell the asset or collateral
B If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender ha
Correct Answer:A s the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain pa
yment
44) Before the introduction of coins a variety of objects
was used as money. Choose the correct option: C If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender ha
s the right to sell the asset or collateral partially to o
btain payment
A Grains and cattle D If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender w
B Gold coin aits till the borrowers make the full payment
C Metal coins D a and b
Correct Answer:B
Correct Answer:A
Solution:
Solution:
Collateral is a security. If the borrower defaults, the
In the earliest forms of exchange, grains and cattle were lender is legally entitled to recover the dues by selling the
used as money collateral.

33
49) The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes 4) Which problem arises due to water pollution?
it possible to directly settle payments _______.
A Water-borne diseases
B Spawning of aquatic life
A Without the use of cash
C Sedimentation of water bodies
B With the use of cash
D Discharge of industrial water
C Without the parties
D With the parties Correct Answer:A

Correct Answer:A 5) Which technology is primarily used for desalination of

seawater?
50) Almost all of the borrowers of Grameen bank are
A Filtration B Reverse osmosis
_____ and belong to _____ sections of the society.
C Chlorination D Aeration
A Men, Poorest B Women, Poorest
C Men, Richest D Women, richest Correct Answer:B

Correct Answer:B Solution:

SST Geography Reverse osmosis is a common method used for

desalination, which involves forcing seawater through a
1) Which state has made roof top rainwater harvesting membrane to remove salts and impurities.
structure compulsory to all the houses across the state?
6) Which one of the following is not the cause of water
A Kerala B Karnataka
scarcity?
C Tamil Nadu D Andhra Pradesh
A Rapid growth of population
Correct Answer:C B Uneven distribution of water resources
2) Which factor is primarily responsible for the C Constructions of dams and reserves
contamination of groundwater in many parts of India? D Increase in demand
A Acid rain Correct Answer:C
B Industrial effluents
7) On which river Nagarjuna Sager Dam has been
C Agricultural runoff
constructed?
D Marine water intrusion
A River Koyna B River Krishna
Correct Answer:C C River Godavari D river Tapti
Solution: Correct Answer:B
Agricultural runoff containing fertilizers and pesticides is 8) Which of the following places has earned the rare
a major factor contaminating groundwater in many parts
distinction of being rich in harvested rainwater?
of India.

3) Which of the following is a source of fresh water? A Phalodi B Gendathur

C Bikaner D Barmer
A Frozen water B Precipitation
Correct Answer:B
C Ground water D All of the above
Correct Answer:D

34
9) What is integrated water resources management 13) How does afforestation help in water conservation?
(IWRM)?
A Reduces the need for irrigation
A A method of constructing dams B Increases surface runoff
B A strategy for managing water resources holisticall C Enhances groundwater recharge
y
D Decreases transpiration
C A technology for water purification
D A policy for restricting water use Correct Answer:C

Correct Answer:B Solution:

Afforestation increases the amount of water that
Solution:
infiltrates the ground, enhancing groundwater recharge
Integrated Water Resources Management (IWRM) is a and reducing surface runoff.
process that promotes coordinated development and
management of water, land, and related resources to 14) Which of these is not a major source of fresh water?
maximize economic and social welfare without A Ocean water B Ground water
compromising the sustainability of vital ecosystems.
C Waterfalls D Tanks
10) Which States have raised the Krishna-Godavari Correct Answer:A
dispute?
15) Dams are built for the following purposes:
A Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh A Flood control B Recreation
B Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh C Fish breeding D All of these
C Gujarat and Rajasthan
Correct Answer:D
D Karnataka and Maharashtra
16) In some States, the purest form of rainwater is called:
Correct Answer:A

11) Narmada Bachao Andolan was: A Tanka B Palar Pani

C Johad D Khadin
A Water movement
Correct Answer:B
B Movement for construction of a dam
C A social movement 17) Which of the following hydraulic structures is not a
D Industrial workers movement feature of ancient times?

Correct Answer:B
A Reservoirs or lakes
12) Which one of the following statements is not an B Embankments and canals
argument in favour of multipurpose river projects? C Multipurpose river valley projects
D Dams built of stone rubble
A Multipurpose projects bring water to those areas w
hich suffer from water scarcity Correct Answer:C
B Multipurpose projects by regulating water flow hel 18) Which hydraulic structure is built on river basins?
p to control floods
A Dams B Tanks
C Multipurpose projects lead to large scale displacem
ents and loss of livelihood C Lakes D Ponds
D Multipurpose projects generate electricity for our in Correct Answer:A
dustries and our homes

Correct Answer:C

35
19) Which treaty regulates the sharing of water between 24) Which Indian state has implemented the successful
India and Pakistan? Pani Panchayat initiative?
A Ganga Water Treaty A Maharashtra B Rajasthan
B Indus Water Treaty C Tamil Nadu D Karnataka
C Brahmaputra Water Treaty
Correct Answer:A
D Narmada Water Treaty
Solution:
Correct Answer:B
The Pani Panchayat initiative in Maharashtra focuses on
Solution: community-managed water resources and equitable water
distribution.
The Indus Water Treaty, signed in 1960, regulates water
sharing between India and Pakistan concerning the Indus 25) Which State has made it compulsory for all houses to
river system. do rainwater harvesting?
20) Which of the multipurpose project is found on the
Satluj-Beas river basins? A Kerala B Karnataka
A Damodar Valley Corporation C Telangana D Tamilnadu
B Bhakra-Nangal Project Correct Answer:D
C Rihand Project
26) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?
D Hirakud Project
A Chenab B Mahanadi
Correct Answer:B
C Krishna D Satluj
21) Which dam is built on River Krishna?
Correct Answer:C

A Tehri Dam 27) Which of the following is the largest artificial lake of
ancient Indian in the 11th century?
B Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
C Mettur D Hirakud A Hauz Khas B Dal Lake
C Bhopal Lake
Correct Answer:B
D Govind Sagar Lake
22) Hauz Khas tank was built in which present Indian
Correct Answer:C
state?
A Bihar B Punjab 28) What percentage of the Earth's surface is covered by
water?
C Chhattisgarh D Delhi
A 29% B 50%
Correct Answer:D
C 71% D 85%
23) The oldest rainwater harvesting systems of India is in:
Correct Answer:C

A Nagarjunakonda, Andhra Pradesh Solution:

B Kalinga Odisha About 71% of the Earth's surface is covered by water,
C Sringaverapura Uttar Pradesh mostly in the form of oceans.
D Bennur, Karnataka

Correct Answer:C

36
29) Which of the following is a major cause of 33) Which among the following is the reason of water
groundwater depletion? scarcity?
A Excessive rainfall A Industrialization
B Over-irrigation B Urbanization
C Natural aquifer recharge C Modernization D All of these
D Limited agricultural activities
Correct Answer:D
Correct Answer:B
34) The first multi-purpose project of India was
Solution: A Sivasamudram B Damodar Valley
Over-irrigation can lead to groundwater depletion as C Hirakud D Rajasthan Canal
water is pumped out faster than it can be naturally
replenished. Correct Answer:B

30) Which process in the water cycle involves the 35) Which hydraulic structure was constructed by
conversion of water vapor to liquid water? Iltutmish in the 14th century for supplying water to the
Siri Fort area?
A Evaporation B Condensation
C Precipitation D Transpiration A Irrigation work at Nagarjunakonda
Correct Answer:B B Bhopal Lake
C Water harvesting at Sringaverapura near Allahabad
Solution:
D Tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi
Condensation is the process where water vapor cools and
changes back into liquid water, forming clouds. Correct Answer:D

31) What is the main purpose of constructing dams? 36) On which of the issues did the Narmada Bachao
Andolan first focus on?
A Preventing soil erosion
B Providing habitat for wildlife
A Environmental issues relating to submergence of tr
C Storing water for irrigation and drinking ees under the dam water
D Increasing rainfall B Economic issues of wastage of money for the const
Correct Answer:C ruction of the dam
C Benefits of irrigation for landless farmers
Solution: D Rehabilitation of the people displaced due to contra
Dams are constructed to store water for various uses, ction of the dam
including irrigation, drinking, and generating
Correct Answer:D
hydroelectric power.
37) Which of the following reasons does not lead to water
32) It is a 200-year-old system of tapping stream and
scarcity?
spring water by using bamboo pipes in Meghalaya.
A Large-growing human population
A under ground water storage system
B Excess use of water
B bamboo drip irrigation system
C Building of large dams
C roof top rain water harvesting
D Over exploitation of water resources
D rain water harvesting system
Correct Answer:C
Correct Answer:B

37
38) Which of the following is NOT a form of 44) Which river project provides hydroelectricity to the
precipitation? industries of Maharashtra?
A Rain B Snow
C Dew D Hail A Nagarjuna Sagar Project and Tunghabadra Project
B Hirakud Project
Correct Answer:C
C Pravara Project and Koyna Project
Solution: D Ghatprabha Project and Mettur Project
Dew is water vapor that condenses on cool surfaces at Correct Answer:C
night, not precipitation which falls from the atmosphere.
45) Roof top rainwater harvesting is the most common
39) In which area, the farmers got agitated when higher practice in
priority was given to water supply in urban areas?
A Shillong B Guwahati
C Imphal D Patna
A Koyna basin, Maharashtra
B Krishna-Godavari basin Correct Answer:A
C Rihand basin, Uttar Pradesh 46) Name the dam on the Narmada River.
D Sabarmati basin, Gujarat

Correct Answer:D A Bhakra Nangal Dam

B Hirakud
40) Which environmental damage is not induced by
multipurpose projects? C Sardar Sarovar Dam
D Bhavani Sagar Dam

A Water-borne diseases and pests Correct Answer:C

B Pollution resulting from excessive use of water
47) What is the name given to agricultural fields that were
C Volcanic activity converted to rain-fed storage structures in the semi-
D Earthquakes arid regions of Rajasthan?
Correct Answer:C
A Khadins B Tankas
41) How much percent of the total volume of water in the
C Guls D Kuls
word is of fresh water?
Correct Answer:A
A 4.5% B 3.5% 48) Which river is known as the 'lifeline of India' due to its
C 2.5% D 5.5% extensive basin and utility?
Correct Answer:C A Yamuna B Ganga
C Godavari D Narmada
42) In which Indian state is the Tehri dam located?
Correct Answer:B
A Gujarat B Madhya Pradesh Solution:
C Uttaranchal D Uttar Pradesh
The Ganga river is often referred to as the 'lifeline of
Correct Answer:C India' because of its extensive basin, providing water for
drinking, irrigation, and other purposes.
43) Which of the following shows the percentage of the
global precipitation that is received by India?
A 4% B 30%
C 96.5% D 2.5%
Correct Answer:A

38
49) Which one of the following is not a disadvantage of a
dam?
A Inland navigation
B Sedimentation of the reservoir
C Submergence of land
D Stops migration of aquatic animals

Correct Answer:A

50) Which are would you immediately associate with

water scarcity?
A Ganga plains
B Hills of North-East India
C Deserts of Rajasthan
D Coastal areas of Odisha

Correct Answer:C

39