Test 1

1. In which of the following conditions would corrosion more readily occur?

a) Cold dry conditions

b) Warm dry conditions

c) Cold wet conditions

d) Warm wet conditions

2. Which of the following is an electrolyte?

a) Salts in solution

b) A solution containing acid

c) A solution containing alkali

d) All of the above are efficient electrolytes

3. At which of the following sites would corrosion occur?

a) The cathodic area

b) The anodic area

c) Where the electrons return to the cathode

d) In the electrolyte on dissociation into ions

4. Which of the following would not accelerate the corrosion reaction?

a) Anaerobic conditions

b) Increased temperatures

c) Presence of some bacteria’s

d) Presence of acids or alkali’s

5. Which of the following metals, in contact with steel, would cause the steel to
corrode?

a) Magnesium

b) Copper

c) Aluminium

d) Zinc

1
6. Which of the following is not present in mill-scale?

a) Perlite

b) Wustite

c) Magnetite

d) Haematite

7. Which of the following pigments do not contribute to the opacity of a film?

a) Metallic pigments

b) Opacifying pigments

c) Extender pigments

d) Laminar pigments

8. Regarding solvents in a paint, which of the following is not true?

a) Solvents are added to reduce viscosity

b) Solvents help to control the drying process

c) Solvents are an aid to application

d) Solvents are added to enable the film to be applied thicker.

9. Which of the following additives is also known as a thixotrope?

a) An anti-skinning agent

b) An oxidant

c) An anti-settling agent

d) A plasticizer

10. Which of the following polymer types is highly unlikely to be utilised in paints
offshore?

a) Linear polymer

b) Branched polymer

c) Cross-linked polymer

d) A co-polymer

11. Which of the following paint types would be impractical for offshore use?

a) Powder paint

2
b) 2 pack paint

c) Epoxy intumescent

d) Solvent free MCL’s

12. Which of the following is false when discussing extenders?

a) Extenders aid inter coat adhesion

b) Extenders contribute to the opacifying properties of a paint

c) Extenders add bulk cheaply to a paint formulation

d) Extenders allow films to be applied thicker

13. Which of the following degrees of cleanliness cannot be achieved on a rust

grade A?

a) Sa 3

b) Sa 2

c) A Fl

d) Sa 1

14. Which of the following is an equivalent standard to Sa 2.5?

a) Flame cleaning

b) St 3

c) St 2

d) There is no equivalent grading by any other method

15. Is it possible to tell the difference between an A Sa 3 and a B Sa 3?

a) Yes, because there is more mill-scale on an A

b) Yes, because a B has rust on it

c) No, not at all

d) Yes because one will have pitting

16. Which of the following rust grades, by definition, May or may not have mill-
scale?

a) Rust grade C

b) Rust grade D

c) Rust grade A
3
d) Rust grade B

17. Onto which of the following substrates would an epoxy intumescent be

applied?

a) Bare steel blasted to Sa 3

b) A normal 4 coat system applied offshore

c) A specially approved anti-corrosive primer

d) Any substrate requiring coating with PFP

18. Which of the following sections would require the thicker coating of PFP?

a) A plate girder with a web thickness of 30mm

b) A 100mm dia. Tube with a wall thickness of 4mm.

c) A column with 55mm thick web and flanges

d) A secondary member of steelwork supporting a cable tray

19. Which of the following is true with regard to cementitious PFP’s

a) Cementitious PFP’s need sealing

b) Cementitious PFP’s need removing after exposure to a fire

c) Cementitious PFP’s need re-inforcing with wire mesh

d) All of the above are true

20. Which factors are considered when deciding the thickness of PFP’s

a) The section factor principle

b) The core temperature of the structural steelwork

c) The Hp/a of the member

d) All of the above are to be considered.

21. Which of the following are acknowledged methods of applying metallization?

a) Wire and pistol

b) Flame sprayed powder

c) Electric arc

d) All of the above are acknowledged methods

4
22. Which of the following is a fault commonly found with zinc silicates?

a) Discolouration due to drying

b) Mud cracking

c) Delamination on thin layers

d) Very slow drying times

23. Which of the following anti-foulant types is based on modern silicon

technology?

a) Self polishing

b) Insoluble matrix

c) Foulant release

d) Soluble matrix

24. Which of the following dimensions would be a typical cladding overlap on

insulation?

a) 50mm

b) 75mm

c) 25mm

d) None of the above.

25. Which of the following insulation materials could be used for hot insulation at
950Oc

a) Polyisocyanurate

b) Mineral wool

c) Polyurethane foam

d) Calcium silicate

26. Which insulation material can be used for hot or cold systems between +450
and –270 ◦C

a) Perlite

b) Cellular glass

c) Calcium silicate

d) Mineral wool

5
Answer Questions

MARKING SCHEME

1D 6A 11 A 16 A 21 D

2D 7C 12 B 17 C 22 B

3B 8D 13 D 18 B 23 C

4A 9C 14 D 19 D 24 A

5B 10 B 15 C 20 D 25 D 26 B

6
1. 1000 um =

a. 1cm

b. 1mm

c. 10mm

d. 0.1mm

2. Which one is non metallic abrasive

a) Iron Silica

b) Steel Shot,

c) Steel Grit,

d) Grit-Shot Mix

3. VS% relate to

a) Volatile

b) Non volatile

c) Total Paint volume

d) Activator

4. Thixotrops are of _____________ type

a) Liquid

b) Solid

c) Gel

d) Gas

5. Addition of thixotropes helps to avoid _________

a) Blistering

b) Sagging

c) Cracking

d) Flaking

6. Which coating fault occurs when over thinning a paint

7
a) Pinholes

b) Run

c) Spot rusting

d) Hair cracking

7. Which fault relate to Peeling

a) Orange peel

b) Flaking

c) Wrinkling

d) Cracking

8. Chemical cleaning is another name for

a) Silver nitrate test

b) Potassium ferry cyanide test

c) Pickling

d) Copper sulphate test

9. Which fault can be avoided when bitumen removed from paint system

a) Bittiness

b) Blistering

c) Cracking

d) Bleeding

10. What is the actual DFT, if banana gauge shows 335um when checked on
galvanizing

a) 335um

b) 265um

c) 235um

d) 435um

11. Ford flow cup nozzle is made of

a) Aluminium alloy

b) Stainless steel

8
c) Nickel

d) Tungsten carbide

12. _______________ can be used to check pressure

a. Hygrometer

b. Surface profile needle gauge

c. Hypodermic needle gauge

d. Touch pyrometer

13. Dolly test used to check _____________

a) Hardness

b) Flexibility

c) DFT

d) Adhesion

14. What will be the unit of viscosity of a thixotropes paint

a) Second

b) Centipoises

c) Ns/m2

d) Stoke

15. How to use comb gauge on a pipe

a) Perpendicularly

b) Circumferentially

c) Longitudinally

d) Not possible

16. If the required DFT is 50um ,then the particle size in the paint should be _____

a) 50um

b) Above 50um

c) Below 50um

d) All the above

9
17. which laminar pigment is best for UV protection

a) Aluminum Flake

b) MIO

c) Glass Flake

d) Graphite

18. Fe++ is ______________

a) An atom

b) Molecule

c) Ion

d) Iron Substrate

19. Which is cathode in corrosion

a) Water

b) Oxygen

c) Substrate

d) Electrons released

20. Which one is more noble

a) Silver

b) Steel

c) Magnesium

d) Zinc

21. Hygroscopic slats cause

a) Rash rusting

b) Pinholes

c) Rogue peak

d) Blisters

22. Which pressure suitable for dry blasting

a) 20psi

b) 100psi

10
c) 220psi

d) 450psi

23. Degree of roughness related to

a) Abrasive blasting

b) Hand and power tool

c) Anchor pattern

d) Abrasive hardness

24. Un fused area in steel is _____________

a) Sliver

b) Rogue Peak

c) Hackle

d) Pinhole

25. Transparent layer in replica tape is ____________

a) Milar

b) Mylex

c) Mylar

d) Testex

26. ______________ NOT SUITABLE FOR PROFILE MEASURMENT

a) Dial micrometer

b) Surface profile needle gauge

c) Surface comparator

d) Corn plaster method

27. Burnishing occurs when

a) High pressure Water blasting

b) Flame cleaning

c) Dry Abrasive blasting

d) Needle Gunning

11
28. Which one is not quantitative

a) Silver nitrate test

b) Dolly test

c) Bristle sample patch test

d) Banana gauge test

29. Which is not a property of binder.

a) Cohesive strength

b) Leafing effect

c) Resist water

d) Hold pigments in suspension

30. Which one is saturated

a) Linceed oil

b) Tung oil

c) Palm oil

d) China wood oil

31. Which one is not a pigment

a) Coal tar

b) Red lead

c) MIO

d) Silicone

32. Which one cannot be used for yellow colour paint

a) Chromium

b) Cobalt

c) Calcium

d) Iron

12
33. Which one is not toxic

a) Zinc chromate

b) Zinc phosphate

c) Calcium plumbate

d) Coal tar

34. Which property of a solvent is not best

a) Low evaporation rate

b) Low toxicity

c) Low flashpoint

d) High evaporation rate

35. Paint is a _________________

a) Solution

b) Solute

c) Solvent

d) Dispersion

36. Which one is convertible

a) CR

b) Vinyl

c) Natural Resin

d) Emulsion

37. Which one is not a direct charge mill

a) Ball mill

b) Attritor Mill

c) Bead mill

d) High Speed Disperser

38. Reccova valve is ____________

a) Control abrasive transfer

b) Stores abrasives

13
c) Removes water

d) Control air from compressor

39. Specular Hematite is other name

a) Rust

b) Millscale

c) MIO

d) Steel flex

40. Toxicity measured in

a) Mph

b) Psi

c) Ppm

d) Cfm

41. Mixing of two pack can be calculated by

a) Pykno meter

b) Closed Abel Cup

c) Pyro meter

d) Crypto meter

42. Approx viscosity of paint is

a) 1 centi poise

b) 1 stoke

c) 2.4 Ns/m2

d) 1.2 gm/cc

43. Air temperature can be calculated by

a) Hygro meter

b) Thermo stat

c) Limpet gauge

d) Strobo scope

14
44. Chalking occurs due to

A) Coating age

b) Weathering

c) Shelf life problem

d) Hygro scopic salts

45. Vaccume blasting is

a) Water blasting

b) Abrasive blasting

c) Closed blasting

d) Air blasting with water

46. Inclusion is defect related to

a) Rogue peak

b) Lamination

c) Hackle

d) High thickness profile

47. Which fault happens when over apply zinc silicate

a) Sagging

b) Run

c) Mud cracking

d) Holidays

48. _______________ not a destructive test

a. PIG

b. Saberg Thickness Drill

c. Koenig Albert

d. Horse Shoe

15
49. How much air suppled, if nozzle size is ½ inch

a. 450 cfm

b. 413 cfm

c. 100 cfm

d. 220 cfm

50. __________ can be applied when Relative humidity = 100%

a. Epoxy

b. CR

c. Poly urethane

d. Zinc Rich Epoxy

1. What is mean by compliant coating?

a. Coating which applied on specified atmosphere condition

b. Coating which suitable with the requirements of the EPA

c. Coating which suitable for the steel substrate

d. Coating with non compliance report

2. Which situation is expressed as damp surface

a. Surface with detectable water

b. Surface temperature below dew point

c. Surface with a noticeable film of water

d. Surface temperature above dew point

3. Which information is not available in MDS

a. Flash point

b. Dew point

c. VS%

d. Recommended Thinner

16
4. Who is having duty of Safety on a Working site

a. HSE (Health & safety executive)

b. Contractor

c. Engineer

d. Employees

5. ___________ used to detect the voltage in Impressed current system

a. National Grid

b. Transformer Rectifier

c. Copper/Copper Sulphate half cell electrode

d. Sodium Chloride

6. A Coating continues protection of 7 years, Which falls in _____________

a. Long term protection

b. Medium term protection

c. Short term protection

d. Fixed term protection

7. In dragger tube number specified is n=5,what is RAQ

a. 500 ppm

b. 5 rpm

c. 500 cfm

d. 500 cc

8. A Galvanized substrate with oxide layer has formed called

a. New Galvanising

b. Weathered Galvanising

c. Unsuitable galvanizing

d. Previously painted Galvanising

17
9. A primer used for pretreatment for zinc metal surfaces.

a. Zinc rich epoxy

b. T.Wash

c. FBE

d. Zinc Phosphate

10. PA 10 specification is suitable for use in the following area:

a. Onshore installations

b. offshore installations

c. internal coatings of pipes

d. below ground (buried)

11. After applying primer on steel surface, Paint got wetted by raining. As a painting
inspector what you do?

a. Wait for water to dry

b. Blast to remove existing primer, recoat

c. Continue next stage after rain

d. Recoat primer without removing existing coat

12. Who is having permission to change a specified paint system

a. Paint technologist

b. Painting inspector

c. Engineer

d. Contractor

13. Which surfaces comes on hot duty surfaces

a. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 340o C

b. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 100o C

c. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 37o C

d. Metal surfaces attaining a temperature above 540o C

18
14. At which temperature aluminium melts

a. 100 o C

b. 240 o C

c. 425 o C

d. 625 o C

15. A Multi component paint dried by

a. Solvent evaporation

b. Oxidation

c. Chemical reaction

d. Coalescense

16. Biscuit Gauge is another name for

a. Hegman’s grind gauge

b. Surface Comparator

c. Banana Gauge

d. Comb Gauge

17. Gold leaf test is used for _________

a. Adhesion

b. Drying

c. Residual tack

d. Dust detection

18. A single pack epoxy paint dry by

a. Coalescence

b. Chemical curing

c. Oxidation

d. Solvent evaporation

19
19. Pull of Adhesion is a term associated with

a. Tinsley pencil

b. Banana Gauge

c. HATE

d. Dolly Test

20. Which is not a property of extender pigments

a. Increase Gloss

b. Increase Adhesion

c. Increase Cohesion

d. Increase film strength

21. ___________ can be used to detect the presence of oil or grease

a. Copper sulphate

b. Transparent Sticking Paper

c. UV Light

d. Brestle Sample Patch

22. A coating fault which resembles holidays

a. Checking

b. Cratering

c. Crazing

d. Cissing

23. Which grade of surface preparation required for hot duty surfaces from above
150◦C

a. Sa1

b. Sa2

c. Sa2½

d. Sa3

20
24. In Electrostatic spray, The thickness of paint as controlled by

a. Time used to spray

b. Velocity of the particles

c. Voltage

d. Degree of dispersion

25. Over thickness of Zinc silicate cause

a. Sagging

b. Mud Cracking

c. Curtaining

d. Cohesive failure

26. Which factor does not affect gloss of a paint film

a. CPVC

b. Flash Point

c. Particle Size

d. Solvent type

27. According to Transco PA10, which metal spray not required a sealer

a. TSA

b. Polysiloxane Inorganic Coating.

c. Poly Vinyl Buterol

d. Inorganic Zinc Silicate

28. It is advisable to apply Moisture curing polyurethane by

a. Airless spray

b. Brushing

c. Roller

d. Padding

21
29. IGE SR 21 is associated with

a. Gas Plant Manufacture

b. Handling of Methanol

c. Abrasive Blasting Safety

d. Using of Sand Abrasive

30. Which paint application have “Insulation” effect

a. Airless Spray

b. Remote Pressure pot

c. Dip coating

d. Electrostatic spray

31. Reflector meter measures _________

a. Aggregate Size

b. Agglomerates Percentage

c. Gloss

d. Colour

32. A Non Destructive test can be done

a. When substrate contain MIO

b. When substrate is non ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic

c. When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic

d. When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non Ferro magnetic.

33. Which one is not included in non ferrous substrate

a. Stainless steel

b. Mild steel

c. New Galvanising

d. Weathered Galvanising

22
34. Which one is not a compound in mill scale .

a. FeO

b. Fe2O3

c. Fe2 O4

d. Fe3O4

35. What is the approximate overlap area in painting

a. 100 mm

b. 100 cm

c. 10mm

d. 100 um

36. In colour attributes, Brightness also referred by the term

a. Chroma

b. Intensity

c. Value

d. Weight

37. What is the minimum time for over coating

a. 30 Minutes

b. 4 Hrs

c. 12 Hrs

d. 24 Hrs

38. Colour of Mill scale

a. Dark Blue

b. Dark Grey

c. Black

d. No Colour

23
39. RAL number represents

a. Batch Number

b. Thinner Code

c. Colour Code

d. Solvent Code

40. Ropiness is fault look like

a. Roller Stiple

b. Rivelling

c. Brush Marks

d. Blisters

41. ____________ Abrasive is preferred for Wheel Abrator

a. Steel Grit

b. Steel Shot

c. Grit and Shot Mixed

d. Copper Slag

42. _____________ flow cup can be used to check viscosity of hot paint

a. Ford

b. Zahn

c. ISO

d. DIN

43. Miser Valve ___________________ in dry blasting

a. Controls the Air Pressure

b. Controls the flow of abrasives

c. Removes oil and water

d. Avoids leakage

24
44. Which solution is used for cathodic disbandment test?

a. Slightly acidic liquid

b. Salt water

c. Alkaline liquid

d. Distilled water

45. Concentration and temperature of sulphuric acid in pickling process

a. 5-10% , 65-70o C

b. 65-70% , 5-10o C

c. 2%, 80o C

d. 80%, 65-75o C

46. Which one is not a laminar pigment

a. Graphite

b. Aluminium flake

c. Glass flake

d. China Clay

47. Phosphating process of steel structure is termed as

a. Pickling

b. Passivation

c. Cathodic protection

d. Salt Detection

48. Millscale test done , when Blast grade is

a. Sa1

b. Sa2 and Above

c. Sa2½ and Above

d. Sa3

25
49. Which one is not a Paint fault

a. Grinning through

b. Efflorescence

c. Cracking

d. Bittiness

50. What is the total thickness of compliant epoxy-based paint

a. 325 um

b. 225um

c. 265um

d. 365um

51. Which term is not related with binder

a. VOC

b. Film former

c. Vehicle

d. Non volatile

52. Internal coating of pipeline come under

a. PA7

b. PA8

c. PA9

d. PA10

53. If a comb gauge shows 120-140 µm, then the actual DFT is

a. 120 um

b. 130um

c. 140 um

d. 120 / 140 um

26
54. De-lamination is a fault occurs when using

a. Epoxy

b. CR

c. Micaceous Iron Oxide

d. Poly Urethane

55. Nuts and Bolts can be coated by

a. Calorising

b. Galvanising

c. Sheradizing

d. Anodising

56. ________________are examples for natural resin

a. Amber, Laq

b. Soya Oil, Tung Oil

c. Bitumen, Coal tar

d. Phenolic resin, Cellulosic resin

57. If Paint in a density cup weighs 135gm, Relative Density is ______

a. 135

b. 13.5gm/cc

c. 1.35

d. 1.35 gm/cc

58. Which paint from below, can be applied over Phenolics

a. CR

b. Epoxy

c. Alkyd

d. None of these

27
59. Which warning symbol represents Toxic –

60. If more pigments added in a paint, then the surface should be ___________

a. Gloss

b. Matt

c. Grinning

d. Fast Drying

61. ____________ is an example for aliphatic HC solvents

a. Water

b. Xylene

c. Turpentine

d. Acetone

62. Non drying oils can be used in paints, for __________

a. Fast drying

b. Slow drying

c. Activate Chemical reaction

d. Flexibility

63. Which additive used in paints to stop settlements

a. Drying oils

b. Non Drying oils

c. Wax

d. Anti skinning agents

28
64. If an airless spray pump ratio 35:1 delivery pressure 2800.howmuch the inlet
pressure

a. 100psi

b. 90psi

c. 80psi

d. 70psi

65. How atomization is achieved in conventional spray

a. Two air channels outside the nozzle

b. Air pressure applied before nozzle

c. Paint forced at high pressure

d. Hydraulic pressure

66. Which term is used when heat applied over 65 o C for Drying of Paint

a. Metal Spray

b. Air Drying

c. Stoving

d. Forced Drying

67. The following is not an information of Daily report sheet

a. Dew point

b. Relative Humidity

c. Relative Density

d. Air Temperature

68. Which one is thermoplastic

a. Poly ethylene

b. Poly urethane

c. Epoxy

d. Natural Resin

29
69. Steel temperature can be measured by

a. Psychro meter

b. Limpet Gauge

c. Thermometer

d. Horseshoe gauge

70. What is the solution, if damage occurs to a galvanizing

a. T Wash

b. Zinc Rich Epoxy

c. CR

d. Water Borne Acrylic

71. Which mill widely used for producing thick paint

a. Ball Mill

b. Pearl Mill

c. Triple Roll Mill

d. Single Roll Mill

72. Which one is suitable for steel work

a. Short oil paint

b. Medium oil paint

c. Long Oil paint

d. Full Oil paint

73. Pigment, which dissolve in a binder called

a. Lacquer

b. Dyer

c. Varnish

d. Solute

30
74. If 11 Litres Paint Weighs 18 Kg then density =

a. 1.8 gm/cm

b. 1.6 gm/cm

c. 1.1 gm/cc

d. 1.6 gm/cc

75. Ford Flow cup made of ___________

a. Stainless Steel

b. Aluminium Alloy

c. Mild Steel

d. Glass Reinforced Plastic

76. When temperature increases, __________

a. Viscosity increases

b. Viscosity decreases

c. Viscosity Stable

d. Drying time increases

77. What is the approximate induction period of CR

a. 20 minutes

b. 30 minutes

c. 6-8 hrs

d. Not Applicable

78. Stroboscope checks

a. Rotation

b. Polarity

c. Potential

d. Aggregate count

31
79. Which paint mill produce expensive materials

a. Triple roll mill

b. Single roll mill

c. Sand mill

d. Ball mill

80. High speed stone mill is another name for

a. High speed disperser

b. Pearl mill

c. Colloid mill

d. Attritor Mill

81. Which paint is not suitable for EPA

a. Water borne

b. High volume solid

c. Solvent Based

d. Solvent free

82. By which polymerisation method a 2-pack epoxy paint dry

a. Cross linked Polymer

b. Branched Polymer

c. Solution Polymer

d. Linear Polymer

83. Transco Specification PA9 Specifies

a. New and Maintenance painting at work and site for AGI

b. Paint Properties and Performance

c. Internal coating of steel small bore pipe

d. Preparation of steel substrate before application of paint

32
84. Which term cannot be used for solid particles in binder

a. Aggregates

b. Emulsion

c. Degree of dispersion

d. Fineness of grind

85. Which one is more suitable for CR paint to increase flexibility

a. Alkyd resin

b. Linceed oil

c. Bentones

d. Coconut oil

86. __________ is not a unit of viscosity

a. Stoke

b. Poise

c. Littre

d. Second

87. Which type of Comb gauge is not available

a. Square

b. Circle

c. Triangular

d. Rectangular

88. Which application method used to apply paints on damp surface

a. Brush

b. Roller

c. Airless Spray

d. Dip coating

33
89. What is BS 4800 specifying

a. Colour co-ordination

b. Specification of abrasive size sieves

c. Methods of test for paints

d. Glossary of paint and related terms

90. Which application greatly reduce pinholes

a. Brush

b. Spray

c. Aerosol

d. Roller

91. Spray tip with adjustable aperture size known as

a. Carbide

b. Venturi

c. Titan

d. Taber

92. Pyro meter is an instrument to check

a. Adhesion

b. Hardness

c. Steel Temp

d. Density

93. Graticule scale is a part of

a. PIG

b. Hegman Grind Gauge

c. Eccentric Wheel

d. Tough type Pfund Crypto meter

34
94. MDS shows a two pack paint density is 1.35 gm/cc, when the density check
completed it shows the density as 1.25.Which one is true

a. Base Part is High

b. Activator Part is High

c. Mix ratio on MDS is incorrect

d. Activator Part is Low

95. In which temperature Density, Viscosity etc tests of Paints done

a. 20 ºC ± 0.5 ºC

b. 37 ºC ± 0.5 ºC

c. 100 ºC ± 0.5 ºC

d. Temperature not affected

96. If metal spray applied on a thin steel plate,

a. Plate should not be heated

b. Plate should be preheated

c. Plate should be post heated

d. Cannot be applied

97. BS 7079 does not contain

a. Rust Grades

b. Blast Grades

c. Hand and Power tool Grades

d. Salt tests on Substrate

98. Wa1, Wa2 are grades of

a. Abrasive blasting

b. Closed blasting

c. Water Blasting

d. Weathering Grades

35
99. When using replica tape 50um deducted because _________

a. Thickness of paper

b. Thickness of transparent layer

c. Thickness of Testex

d. Dial micrometer Criteria

100. Which blasting is suitable for non-ferrous substrates

a. Thorough abrasive blasting

b. Sweep blasting

c. Sa2½

d. Not Applicable

36
1. How many cleaning grades available by using tools according to BS 7079

a. 14

b. 6

c. 4

d. 16

2. Example for paint involving barrier principle

a. Zinc rich epoxy

b. Zinc or aluminium

c. Urethane

d. Rust inhibitive primers

3. According to Transco, an Engineer is

a. Appointed by a contractor and notified in writing to client

b. Appointed by Client and notified in writing to contractor

c. Responsible for coating and records

d. Higher authority

4. If 7.5 Liters Paint weighs 9.75 Kg, Relative Density is ______

a. 13.0 gm/cc

b. 13.0

c. 1.30 gm/cc

d. 1.3

5. Fineness of grind is a term used for

a. Premixing

b. Aggregate size

c. Profile roughness

d. PVC

37
6. Very thorough blast cleaning is refers to

a. Sa1

b. Sa2

c. Sa2½

d. Sa3

7. RAQ is an abbreviation of

a. Required Area Quantity

b. Repaired Area Quality

c. Required Air Quantity

d. Report and Quality Record

8. If Profile thickness is higher than specified, result will be

a. Rash rusting

b. Cause Paint adhesion

c. Blisters

d. Mill scale

9. What result will get by Temperature Cycling test

a. Cracking

b. Blistering

c. Chalking

d. Discoloration

10. Why an inspector uses PIG Gauge

a. When substrate is non ferromagnetic, and coating is non-Ferro magnetic

b. When substrate is non ferromagnetic, and coating is Ferro magnetic

c. When substrate is Ferro magnetic, and coating is Ferro magnetic

d. When substrate is ferromagnetic, and coating is non-Ferro magnetic

38
11. High pressure abrasive blasting operates at which pressure

a. 100 psi

b. 2500 psi

c. 20000 psi

d. 30000 psi

12. Too much binder to solid ratio gives

a. Good Opacity

b. Good Gloss

c. Cohesive Strength

d. Porous Film

13. Specular Hematite is commonly called

a. Mill scale

b. Rust

c. MIO

d. Iron Sulphate

14. Which application method provides uniform film thickness

a. Stripe coat

b. Airless Spray

c. Conventional spray

d. Electrostatic spray

15. Which paint is more suitable for hot duty surface above 150ᵒ C

a. Zinc Silicate

b. High Solid Epoxy

c. Urethane

d. CR

39
16. Which surface preparation is used for weathered galvanising

a. Sweep Blast

b. Stiff Bristle Brushing

c. Through Blast

d. Sa2½

17. Amplitude is a term associated with

a. Dry film thickness

b. Wet film thickness

c. Matt Film

d. Peak to trough height

18. Which solvent group is suitable for chlorinated rubber paints

a. Xylene

b. Ketones

c. Water

d. White Spirit

19. Which coating fault will look like discoloration

a. Chalking

b. Bleeding

c. Cissing

d. Curtaining

20. Which one is a direct charge mill

a. Sand Mill

b. Single roll mill

c. Triple roll mill

d. Attritor Mill

40
1. Two examples of Hygroscopic salts would be:

(a) Iron Phosphates and Iron Chromates

(b) Iron Chlorates and Iron Oxides

(c) Iron Sulphates and Iron Chlorides

(d) Iron Sulphides and Iron Silicates

2. What is an electrolyte?

(a) It is a mixture of salts and water

(b) A substance which will conduct electricity and cause rusting

(c) Oxidising liquid which will attack steel

(d) A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it

3. Corrosion is defined as:

(a) Rusting of the Cathode by electrophysical means

(b) Oxidation of a metal in contact with water

(c) Degradation of a material by chemical or electrochemical means

(d) Breakdown of the metal by hydrogen

4. Hydrogen is evolved at:

(a) The Anode at all times

(b) The Cathode at all times

(c) The Cathode as a by-product of the corrosion reaction

(d) The Anode as corrosion takes place

5. The “degradation of material by chemical or electrochemical means” is:

(a) Pickling followed by passivation

(b) Acid cleaning

(c) Corrosion

(d) An Electrolyte

41
6. The BGas specification for site application of paint systems is

(a) BGC/PS/PA10

(b) BGC/PS/CW5

(c) BGC/PS/PA8

(d) BS 7079

7. Another name for the Galvanic List, is:

(a) The Corrosion List

(b) Electro Negative List

(c) Electrical Corrosive Properties Series

(d) Electromotive Forces Series

8. In the corrosion circuit, electrons travel from:

(a) Anode to cathode

(b) Cathode to Anode

(c) Electrolyte to both cathode & anode

(d) None of the above

9. If Zinc and Aluminium were in close contact, in the presence of electrolyte:

(a) Aluminium would corrode

(b) They would corrode equally

(c) Zinc would corrode

(d) None of the above

10. When the electrolyte is water, what occurs at the cathode during a corrosion
reaction?

(a) Rusting of the surface would begin

(b) Oxygen is given off

(c) Electrons are entering the material

(d) Hydrogen is evolved

42
11. MEM’s are also known as:

(a) Moisture Enriched Materials

(b) Metal Eating Microbes

(c) Maximum Evolved Moistures

(d) Material Electron Mobility

12. When checking surface profile using X-Course replica tape:

(a) 50 micron must be added to the final reading

(b) The average number of readings must be taken

(c) 50 microns must be deducted from the reading

(d) A minimum of ten readings must be taken

13. Which of the following is not a sub-atomic particle?

(a) Proton

(b) Neutron

(c) Micron

(d) Electron

14. Three factors which can affect the rate of corrosion are:

(a) Temperature, Time, and Coating system

(b) Bi-metallic contact, Hygroscopic Salts, and Bacteria

(c) Coating system, Pipe diameter, and Ultra Violet light

(d) Blasting Grades, Rust Grades, and Surface Profile

15. How many Abrasive Blast Cleaning photographs are in BS 7079 part A?

(a) 4

(b) 14

(c) 8

(d) 16

43
16. The thickness of Millscale is approximately:

(a) 25 μm to 100 μm

(b) 100 to 150 μm

(c) zero

(d) Dependant upon the material thickness

17. The three compressed oxides which form Mill scale are:

(a) Iron oxide, Rust, and Iron sulphate

(b) Wustite, Haematite, and Magnetite

(c) Iron Sulphate, Iron Chloride, and Iron Phosphate

(d) RSC, RSJ, and RSA

18. When preparing stainless steel, what abrasive should be used?

(a) Copper Slag

(b) Steel Shot

(c) Aluminium Oxide

(d) Angular Chilled Iron

19. A Banana gauge works on which principle

(a) Magnetic resistance

(b) Conductive resistance

(c) Tension reluctance

(d) Viscosity relativity

20. Rust Grade A can be described as

(a) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with evident heavy pitting

(b) Clean white metal

(c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion

(d) Mill scale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away

44
21. Which Blasting Grade best describes “Thorough Blast cleaning”?

(a) Sa 2

(b) Sa 2½

(c) Sa 3

(d) Sa 1

22. The two factors to consider when inspecting a surface preparation:

(a) Degree of cleanliness, and time taken

(b) Surface Profile, and material condition

(c) Surface Profile and degree of cleanliness

(d) Degree of cleanliness, and surface contamination

23. Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be:

(a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost

(b) Stored correctly prior to use

(c) Expendable

(d) Used up to a maximum of three times only.

24. Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?

(a) Copper and Tungsten

(b) Aluminium and Graphite

(c) Zinc and Aluminium

(d) Lead and Tin

25. Name a sub-atomic particle

(a) Atom

(b) Micron

(c) Electron

(d) Moron

45
1. Two examples of Hygroscopic Salts would be:

(a) Iron Phosphates and Iron Chromates

(b) Iron Chlorates and Iron Oxides

(c) Iron Sulphates and Iron Chlorides

(d) Iron Sulphides and Iron Silicates

2. What is an electrolyte?

(a) It is a mixture of salts and water

(b) A substance which will conduct electricity and cause rusting

(c) Oxidising liquid which will attack steel

(d) A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it

3. Corrosion is defined as:

(a) Rusting of the Cathode by electrophysical means

(b) Oxidation of a metal in contact with water

(c) Degradation of a material by chemical or electrochemical means

(d) Breakdown of the metal by hydrogen

4. Hydrogen is evolved at:

(a) The Anode at all times

(b) The Cathode at all times

(c) The Cathode as a by-product of the corrosion reaction

(d) The Anode as corrosion takes place

5. Which Blasting Grade best describes “Thorough Blast cleaning”?

(a) Sa 2

(b) Sa 2½

(c) Sa 3

(d) Sa 1

46
6. What is the minimum standard of surface cleanliness specified by BGC/PS/PA
10?

(a) Rust Grade C

(b) St 3

(c) Sa 2 1/2

(d) 30 to 75 microns

7. In a corrosion Circuit, Electrons flow from:

(a) Anode to Cathode, via Electrolyte

(b) Positive to Negative

(c) Electrolyte to Steel

(d) Anode to Cathode, via metallic path

8. Rust Grade A can be described as:

(a) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with evident heavy pitting

(b) Clean white metal

(c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion

(d) Mill scale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away

9. Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be:

(a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost

(b) Dried in an oven prior to use

(c) Expendable

(d) Used up to a maximum of three times only.

10. Which is the more noble metal:

(A) Steel

(B) Aluminium

(C) Magnesium

(D) Tin

47
11. Mill scale is made up of which three oxide compounds?

(A) Rust, Iron oxide, and Scale

(B) RSJ, RSC, and RSA

(C) Wustite, Magnetite, and Haematite

(D) Iron Sulphate, Iron Chloride, and Iron Phosphate

12. Two factors to be considered when inspecting a Surface Preparation, are:

(A) Cleanliness and Roughness

(B) Rust Grade and material type

(C) Abrasive type and Time

(D) Surface area and type of contamination

13. The Galvanic List is also known as:

(A) The Metallic Corrosion Potential Chart

(B) The Electromotive Forces Series

(C) The Element Forces Order

(D) The Electronic Chemical Series

14. When using a Venturi Nozzle at 100psi, the abrasive exits at approximately what
speed?

(A) 200 mph

(B) 450 mph

(C) 1200 mph

(D) 100 mph

15. Copper Slag is also known as :

(A) Garnet

(B) Black sand

(C) Iron Silica

(D) Steel Grit

48
16. The thickness of Mill scale is approximately:

(A) 25 μm to 100 μm

(B) 100 to 150 μm

(C) zero

(D) Dependant upon the material thickness

17. ‘The force required to separate two surfaces in contact’, can also be termed:

(A) Viscosity

(B) Profile

(C) Adhesion

(D) Blasting

18. Blasting in one area for too long, produces what?

(A) Hackles

(B) Rogue Peaks

(C) Slivers D) Laminations

19. Metallic Shot also has which affect upon the material?

(A) Stress relieves

(B) Physically deforms

(C) Work hardens

(D) Causes Slivers

20. What is the main cause of flash rusting on a substrate?

(A) Rogue Peaks

(B) Moisture

(C) Hackles

(D) Hygroscopic Salts

49
21. What is the main advantage of using ‘Testex’ papers for surface profile
measurement?

(A) It also measures cleanliness

(B) Most accurate over a large area

(C) Easy to use

(D) Permanent record

22. Which of the following could be classified as a major cause of microbial

corrosion:

(A) Sulphur Eating Metal

(B) Sulphate Reducing Bacteria

(C) Rust inhibitive salts

(D) Iron Phosphates

23. Three factors which accelerate the rate of corrosion are:

(A) Temperature, Time, and Coating system

(B) Bi-metallic contact, Hygroscopic Salts, and Bacteria

(C) Coating system, Pipe diameter, and Ultraviolet light

(D) Blasting Grades, Rust Grades, and Surface Profile

24. How many Abrasive Blast Cleaning photographs are in BS 7079-part A?

(A) 4

(B) 14

(C) 8

(D) 16

25. British Gas PA 10 specifies a surface profile of:

(A) 30 microns to 75 microns

(B) 100 microns to 150 microns

(C) 10 microns to 40 microns

(D) More than 90 microns

50
1. Which of the following is Rust Grade C?

(A) Tightly adhering Millscale which can be brushed clean

(B) Loosely adhering Millscale with no evident pitting

(C) Millscale almost totally removed, visible rust, no heavy pitting

(D) Heavy pitting clearly visible, heavy corrosion

2. The optimum pressure to achieve 100% efficiency in abrasive blast cleaning is?

(A) 75 psi

(B) 450 psi

(C) 100 psi

(D) 220 psi

3. Sand is not permitted as a dry blast abrasive, as directed by:

(A) BGC/PS/PA10

(B) BS 7079 Part A

(C) COSHH

(D) BS 410

4. How many times can Garnet be used as an abrasive for BGas site use?

(A) Up to 3 times, if cleaning of abrasive is possible

(B) None

(C) It must be expendable

(D) 20 times

5. The correct ratio of a “working mix” would be:

(A) 70-80% Grit : 20-30% Shot

(B) 50% Grit :50% Shot

(C) 70-80% Shot : 20-30% Grit

(D) 20-25% Sand : 75-80% Copper Slag

51
6. Flame cleaning uses which mechanisms?

(A) Expansion, Decontamination, and Force

(B) Oxidation, Penetration, and De-lamination

(C) Heat Penetration, Expansion, and Dehydration

(D) Oxidation, Weathering, and Pressurisation

7. Carbon Impregnated hoses are used to:

(A) Create static electricity

(B) Prevent Static electricity

(C) Reduce Friction

(D) Discharge static electricity

8. One of the most important safety items of equipment in abrasive blasting is:

(A) Dry abrasive mix

(B) The banana gauge

(C) Dead man’s handle

(D) 100 psi compressor

9. What is the approximate speed of the abrasive particles exiting a wheel-abrator?

(A) 450 mph

(B) 220 mph

(C) Mach 3

(D) 100 psi

10. Where would you normally use a comparator gauge?

(A) To check surface cleanliness

(B) To determine surface roughness

(C) To control cleaning of abrasives

(D) To assess the rust grade of a material

52
11. “Amplitude” refers to what?

(A) The ‘peak-to-trough’ height of a blast profile

(B) The amount of noise a blasting operation creates

(C) the velocity of the abrasive particles

(D) the roughness of an abrasive particle

12. What is the material used in surface replica tape, used to measure profile?

(A) Mylex

(B) Testex

(C) Mylar

(D) Mylon

13. How do we remove hygroscopic salts from the substrate:

(A) Water blasting

(B) Silver nitrate

(C) Dry abrasive blast cleaning

(D) Chalk or Talc

14. The test for the presence of Hygroscopic Salts, is:

(A) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate test

(B) Copper Sulphate test

(C) Iron Phosphate test

(D) Iron Chromate test

15. How many photographs of flame cleaning standards are shown in BS 7079 Part A?

(A) 4

(B) 14

(C) 8

(D) 16

53
16. Which abrasive has the effect of stress relieving the substrate?

(A) Copper Slag

(B) Metallic Shot

(C) Steel Grit

(D) Garnet

17. Where would it be advisable to use Steel Grit as an abrasive?

(A) When a fine profile is required

(B) On high pressure pipework

(C) In enclosed blasting units

(D) On offshore installations

18. What is the minimum number of readings required for a Dial Micrometer?

(A) Minimum of 10

(B) Minimum of 12

(C) One only

(D) As many as you wish, but the average reading is recorded

19. Which test would be used to determine for soluble salts in a marine
environment?

(A) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate

(B) Copper Sulphate

(C) Iron Phosphate

(D) Silver Nitrate

20. The standard for the test sieves used for the sizing of abrasives is:

(A) BS 7079 Part A

(B) BS 410

(C) BGC / PS / PA10

(D) SI 1657

54
21. The most common type of abrasive used for BGas site work is:

(A) Copper Slag

(B) Grit & Shot mix

(C) Garnet

(D) Metallic Shot

22. Compared to a Venturi Nozzle, a Straight Bore Nozzle would give:

(A) Better paint application

(B) More speed

(C) larger area coverage

(D) Greater accuracy

23. Anchor Pattern, Key, Peak-to-trough, are names given to what?

(A) The abrasive properties

(B) The cross section of a blast

(C) The total area of blasted substrate

(D) The potential of adhesion

24. What is a “knock out pot”?

(A) A drum used for mixing paint and thinners

(B) The area on the equipment where static electricity can build up and be hazardous

(C) A vessel for removing oil and moisture from the air stream

D) A container where any blockages of the nozzle can be tapped free

25. High Pressure blasting operates up to which pressure?

(A) 100 psi

(B) 450 psi

(C) 30,000 psi

(D) 2,250 Mph

55
1. Which of the following is not a drying mechanism?

(A) Coalescence

(B) Oxidation

(C) Stove drying

(D) Chemical curing

2. A solution is:

(A) The resultant liquid in a polymerisation event

(B) The resultant liquid after dispersing a solid

(C) The resultant liquid after dissolving a material in another liquid

(D) The resultant liquid after dispersing a liquid in another liquid

3. Which of the following is a natural oil?

(A) Dammar

(B) Alkyd

(C) Castor

(D) Xylene

4. Which of the following are said to be “reversible”?

(A) Cross-Linked Polymer

(B) Branched Polymer

(C) Linear Polymer

(D) Convertible coating

5. Which of the following are Quantitative tests?

(A) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate

(B) Copper Sulphate

(C) Silver Nitrate test

(D) Bristle Sample Patch

56
6. A Whirling Hygrometer is also called a :

(A) Pfund Crypto meter

(B) A Psychrometer

(C) A Pycnometer

(D) A Rotational Viscometer

7. What is the meaning of “compliant”?

(A) In accordance with PA 10

(B) In accordance with Environmental Protection Act

(C) As per engineer’s instructions

(D) As per manufacturers recommendations

8. What is the recommended stand-off distance and speed at which the abrasive
leaves a Venturi Nozzle?

(A) 450 mm and 220 mph

(B) 220 mm and 450 mph

(C) 220 mm and 220 mph

(D) 450 mm and 450 mph

9. A typical remedy for burnishing would be:

(A) Power brushing

(B) Emery Paper or similar

(C) Needle gun

(D) Addition of thinners

10. Which of the following is part of the Footners Duplex System?

(A) 1-2% Sulphuric Acid @ 65-800 C for 5-25 mins

(B) 5-10% Sulphuric Acid @ 70-800 C for 5-10 mins

(C) 5-10% Sulphuric Acid @ 65-700 C for 5-25 mins

(D) 5-10% Chromic / Phosphoric Acid @ 65-700 C for 1-2 mins

57
11. Which of the following is not a natural resin?

(A) Copal

(B) Amber

(C) Dammar

(D) Linseed

12. Which of the following is not a natural Oil?

(A) Castor

(B) Amber

(C) Olive

(D) Linseed

13. Which of the following is an extender?

(A) Graphite

(B) Mica

(C) Glass Flake

(D) China Clay

14. Which of the following is an opaque pigment?

(A) Graphite

(B) Compound of Chromium

(C) Zirconium Octoate

(D) Zinc Phosphate

15. Which of the following is an “additive”?

(A) Opaque pigments

(B) Rust Inhibitive pigments

(C) Thickening agents

(D) Thinners

58
16. What is the specified minimum standard of cleanliness required by BGas for
non-ferrous substrates?

(A) Sa 2 1/2

(B) Sa 3

(C) St 1

(D) Sa 1

17. Which of the following binders are reversible?

(A) Epoxy

(B) Urethane

(C) Chlorinated Rubber

(D) Silicone

18. What is the maximum allowable time lapse between surface preparation, and
painting?

(A) 24 hours

(B) 4 hours

(C) 20-30 minutes

(D) 7 days

19. Which of the following is not a commonly used binder?

(A) Epoxy

(B) Zinc

(C) Urethane

(D) Vinyl

20. Wire brushes used for BGas hand & power tool cleaning, must be made from
which material?

(A) Tungsten or Stainless Steel

(B) Copper or Brass

(C) Beryllium Bronze or Phosphor Bronze

(D) The same material as the pipe

59
21. What is the cause of rash rusting?

(A) Moisture

(B) Rogue Peaks

(C) Hackles

(D) Hygroscopic Salts

22. Which of the following are commonly used as anti-settling agents?

(A) Heavy metal salts

(B) Bentones & Waxes

(C) Saturated oils

(D) Extender pigments

23. A paint drying by chemical reaction is said to be:

(A) Linear polymer

(B) Convertible

(C) Non-Convertible

(D) Reversible

24. Which of the following is not a laminar pigment?

(A) Graphite (

B) Glass flake (

C) Magnesium Silicate

(D) Mica

25. Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?

(A) Copper and Tungsten

(B) Aluminium and Graphite

(C) Zinc and Aluminium

(D) Lead and Tin

60
1. What is a pycnometer?

a) Opacity testing equipment

b) Whirling Hygrometer

c) Density Cup

d) Windspeed measuring equipment

2. What is the name of the mill used to produce mastics, fillers, and putties?

a) Triple Roll Mill

b) Ball Mill

c) Single Roll Mill

d) Bead Mill

3. Which of the following is not an adhesion test?

a) Dolly test

b) Cross hatch

c) Krebs Stormer

d) HATE

4. Which of the following is not a drying test?

a) Koenig Albert

b) Beck Koller

c) Mechanical Thumb

d) Ballotini

5. What is the name given to the drying test involving the use of glass beads?

a) Wolff Wilborne

b) Taber

c) Ballotini

d) Erichsson

61
6. What type of machinery is used to produce large production runs of popular paints?
a) Triple Roll Mill

b) Colloid Mill

c) Ball Mill

d) Sand Mill

7. A typical pot life of a paint used in BGas specifications would be:

a) 20 - 30 minutes

b) 12 - 24 hours

c) 6 - 8 hours

d) 3 - 7 days

8. What is the specified temperature at which a Flash Point Determination test

must be carried out?

a) 200 C

b) Up to 4500 C

c) There is no specific temperature

d) 250 C in seawater

9. HATE is an abbreviation of what?

a) High Adhesive Tension Equipment

b) Humidity Affected Electrical Tolerance

c) Hydraulic Adhesion Test Equipment

d) Hardness And Temperature Evaluation

10. In paint testing, why is temperature cycling carried out?

a) To check for water absorption

b) To check flexibility

c) To check contraction cracking

d) To prove the service life of the coating system

62
11. Which of the following would not affect the degree of Gloss?

a) Surface profile

b) Critical Pigment Volume Concentration

c) Solvent type

d) Degree of dispersion

12. What diameter is the conical mandrel, which is used in the flexibility test?

a) 8 mm to 25 mm

b) 12mm to 18mm

c) 5mm to 50mm

d) 3mm to 37mm

13. Which specification covers the internal coating of small-bore steel pipes?

a) BGC PS PA 10

b) BGC PS PA 9

c) BGC PS PA 8

d) BGC PS PA 7

14. What product should be used for repairs to pipe coatings in damp conditions?

a) Moisture sensitive isocyanates

b) Water-Borne Acrylics

c) Moisture curing polyurethane

d) Chlorinated Rubber

15. What surface preparation is specified in PA 10 for weathered galvanised steel?

a) Sa 2 1/2, followed by “T-Wash” mordant primer

b) Sa 3, followed by etch primer

c) Hand abrasion with a stiff bristled brush only

d) Sa 1 followed by water washing.

63
16. What would be the correct course of action upon discovering that the
contractor has applied a coat of paint, out of sequence?

a) Blast and re-coat

b) Apply the correct coating over the top

c) Inform the Engineer

d) add an extra protective coating

17. The function of a finish coat is mainly to provide:

a) impermeability and adhesion

b) aesthetic properties and water shedding

c) cathodic protection and passivation

d) increased thickness at low cost

18. What is the name of the vessel used to determine the viscosity of hot fluids, as
per BGas specifications?

a) Ford Flow cup No 4

b) Zahn cup

c) Abel cup

d) Pycnometer

19. Which of the following is not a test for contaminants?

a) Sellotape

b) Banana gauge

c) Talcum powder

d) Solvent

20. The BGas specified site painting conditions is:

a) Maximum wind speed 4 m/sec, Relative Humidity maximum 95%

b) Maximum 90% Relative Humidity, Dew Point 3◦ C above Steel

c) Maximum 90% Relative Humidity, Dew Point 3◦ C less than Steel

d) Maximum 27 o C, Relative Humidity 95% maximum

64
21. Which test would be used to determine for soluble salts in a marine
environment?

a) Potassium Hexacyanoferrate

b) Sulphuric Acid

c) Iron Phosphate

d) Silver Nitrate

22. Which of the following is an extender pigment?

a) Magnesium Silicate

b) Aluminium Oxide

c) Manganese Napthanate

d) Barium Metaborate

23. With every 11 degree rise in temperature, the air’s ability to hold water:

a) Would rise by 11%

b) Would half

c) Would double

d) Would decrease by 11%

24. According to PA10, what is the correct course of action upon discovering foreign
bodies embedded in the paint film?

a) Apply an extra protective barrier coat

b) Re-blast, and re-coat

c) Lightly abrade with emery paper, apply stripe coat

d) Make a report to the engineer only

25. According to PA10, is the addition of Thinners allowed?

a) yes, at the engineer’s discretion, up to 20% max.

b) only if the paint is difficult to apply

c) yes, in accordance with the product data sheets

d) No, under no circumstances

65
1. This paint defect is referred to as:

a) Flaking

b) Chalking

c) Grinning

d) Cissing

2. The main difference between Airless and conventional spray is:

a) Conventional spray gives better deposition rate

b) Conventional spray gives less waste

c) Airless spray gives better quality finish

d) Conventional spray gives better atomization

3. What is the name of the equipment used to determine particle aggregate size?

a) Beck-koller

b) Hegman gauge

c) Wolfe-Wilborne

d) Krebs-Stormer

4. What are the 3 attributes, which make up the colour of a paint?

a) White, black, and primary colour

b) Hue, brightness and saturation

c) Red, yellow, and blue

d) Contrast, density, and definition

5. What voltage settings are commonly used for sponge test holiday detection?

a) 5 Kv to 15 Kv

b) 15 Kv maximum

c) 9v to 90 v

d) 110v or 240v

66
6. This is the hazard warning symbol for:

a) Toxic or Very Toxic

b) Harmful or Irritant

c) Corrosive

d) Explosive

7. Another name for a Vapour Trap is?

a) Air wash cup

b) Dry out pot

c) Knock out pot

d) Pressure regulator

8. Beryllium Bronze is a material used in the manufacture of:

a) Welding electrodes

b) Power wire brushes

c) Comb gauges

d) Venturi Nozzle liners

9. Which of the following are Primary Colours?

a) Blue Yellow and Green

b) Red Green and White

c) Red White and Blue

d) Red Yellow and Blue

10. When carrying out holiday detection using the sponge tester, what can we add
to the water?

a) Salt

b) Detergent

c) Xylene

d) Inhibitor

67
11. What would be the main problem of a low CPVC?

a) High opacity

b) Permeability

c) Low Gloss

d) Low opacity

12. BGC/PS/PA10 contains which table, specifying the preferred coating systems?

a) Spa 6a

b) Spa 1e

c) Spa 4a

d) spa 3c

13. Thermally Sprayed Aluminium is normally applied by which system?

a) Electric arc spray

b) Sheradising

c) Wire & Pistol

d) Electro-plating

14. ‘Padding’ refers to what?

a) Protection for pipes during transport & storage

b) Protective clothing for TSA application

c) A paint application method

d) Material used to soak spillages

15. Which of the following is not a system for paint colour classification?

A) BS 4800

B) BS 5252

C) Munsell

D) BGC/PS/CW5

68
16. When testing for Xylene using a Drager Bellows, the crystals will change colour :

a) Orange to Black

b) White to Red/Brown

c) White to Green

d) White to Black

17. Which pH range covers Acids?

a) 7 to 14

b) 0 to 7

c) 0 to 14

d) 5 to 10

18. What is the specified abrasive overlap requirement on repair areas?

a) 250 mm

b) twice pipe diameter

c) 100 mm

d) 1 metre

19. The specified method of removal of this of type (algae and mould) of
contamination is:

a) Dry abrasive blasting

b) Hand abrasion

c) Xylene

d) High pressure washing

20. Where a silicone sealer is applied to an Inorganic Zinc Silicate coating system,
how is the sealer cured?

a) Propane torch

b) Electric induction pads

c) It cures when the system begins to operate

d) it does not require curing

69
21. Which would be considered to be the most toxic?

a) Acetone

b) Xylene

c) Ethanol

d) Toluene

22. The document issued by the HSE listing all known harmful substances, is:

a) COSHH

b) SI 1657

c) EH40

d) IGE SR 21

23. In the electrostatic spray painting process, the component must be:

a) Positively charged

b) Negatively charged

c) 9 volts DC

d) 15 Kv DC

24. Where Bleeding is evident on a pipe which was previously coated with Coal Tar,
the staining would be which colour?

a) Black

b) Brown

c) Yellow

d) Red

25. This is caused by:

a) Expansion and contraction

b) Age and environment

c) Solvent strength

d) Surface contamination

70
1. Using a 35:1 ratio pump, an inlet pressure of 60 psi would result in which of the
following

a) 1800 psi spraying pressure

b) 1500 psi spraying pressure

c) 2100 psi spraying pressure

d) 2500 psi spraying pressure

2. Why is steel grit and shot mixture used on some applications

a) Because it is cheaper and more economical than other abrasives

b) Because it gives a cleaner blast

c) Because it gives a more controlled uniform profile

d) Because it is not heavy and is easily handled

3. Tiny spots of oil on a surface to be painted could result in which of the following
faults a) Bleeding

b) Cissing

c) Blisters

d) Any of the above

4. Which of the following would be used to check the pressure on a blast hose
whilst working

a) A pressure gauge

b) A hypodermic needle gauge

c) A hygrometer

d) None of the above

5. How many lines go to an airless spray gun ( not electrostatic )

a) 3

b) 2

c) 1

d) It depends upon the paint being used

71
6. Which of the following is the estimated speed of particles leaving a venturi nozzle at
100 psi

a) 450 km per hour

b) 220 km per hour

c) 450 miles per hour d

) 220 miles per hour

7. Which of the following would be a typical spraying pressure using an airless spray

a) 100 psi

b) 1500 psi

c) 2500 psi

d) 4000 psi

8. What is meant by the term ‘ pot life’ of a paint

a) It’s the time, after mixing, in which the paint must be used

b) It’s the time allowed before pouring into another container

c) It’s the length of time that the material can be left in storage

d) None of the above

9. Which is the highest degree of cleanliness that can be assessed using a surface
comparator

a) Sa 3

b) NACE 1

c) SSPC SP 5

d) None, because the comparators are for surface profile assessment only

10. Which of the following could not be used to measure the dry film of a paint

a) A horseshoe gauge

b) A comb gauge

c) A banana gauge

d) A Tinsley pencil gauge

72
11. Which of the following could be considered to be an advantage of using wet
blasting

a) No sparks are produced

b) The substrate only corrodes slightly

c) Rogue peaks are easily removed

d) There is no restriction on the type of paint which can be applied over it

12. Which of the following components would not be expected in industrial paints

a) Binders

b) Solvents

c) Resins

d) Dyes

13. In BS 7079 Pt A, which of the following profiles are referred to in the Sa grades

a) 50-100 um

b) 25-75 um

c) 25- 100 um

d) None of the above, the photographs show degree of cleanliness only

14. If a paint with a VS OF 60% was applied at 100 um WFT, what would be the DFT

a) 120 um

b) 90 um

c) 60 um

d) 40 um

15. The photographs in BS 7079 Pt A show steel plates blast cleaned with which of
the following abrasives

a) Copper slag

b) Garnet

c) Clean sand

d) Metallic abrasives

73
16. When using an airless spray gun it is advisable to do which of the following

a) De-pressurise the system prior to changing the tip

b) Apply the paint with the gun passing parallel to the substrate

c) Apply the paint perpendicular to the substrate

d) All of the above are advisable practices

17. Which of the following would most likely be used on an airless spray

a) A beryllium tip

b) A phosphor bronze tip

c) A reversible tip

d) All of the above could be used

18. Which of the following is true regarding high pressure pure water blasting at
30,000 psi

a) Almost all of the hygroscopic salts would be removed from the substrate

b) A medium profile would be obtained

c) There would be no surface corrosion

d) The abrasives would easily wash away

19. When mixing inorganic zinc silicate for spray application, which of the following
is not true

a) The solid component must be added slowly to the liquid, continually agitating

b) The liquid component must be added slowly to the solid, continually agitating

c) The resulting mixture should be continually agitated during application

d) The agitation should preferably be by mechanical means

20. Which of the following have an effect on the degree of cleanliness obtained on a
substrate

a) The particle size of the abrasive

b) The shape of the abrasive particle

c) The density of the abrasive material

d) None of the above have any effect on the degree of cleanliness

74
1. Which of the following would be a typical spraying pressure using an airless
spray.

a) 100 p.s.i.

b) 1500 p.s.i.

c) 2500 p.s.i.

d) 4000 p.s.i.

2. How is atomisation achieved on a conventional spray

a) By air jets converging on the paint stream

b) By expansion of the paint stream due to a drop in pressure

c) By operator spraying technique

d) By all of the above mechanisms

3. How many lines go to an airless spray gun, not electrostatic.

a) 3.

b) 2.

c) 1.

d) It depends upon the paint being applied.

4. When using an airless spray, if a blockage occurs in the tip, causing ‘fingering’,

(a jet of paint rather than an atomised stream,) which of the following faults could
occur.

a) Blistering

b) Cissing

c) Bleeding

d) Runs sags and tears

5. Tiny spots of oil on a surface to be painted could result in which of the following
faults a) Bleeding

b) Cissing

c) Blisters

d) Any of the above

75
6. In which of the following situations would bleeding most likely occur

a) Applying solvent free MCL over coal tar

b) Applying coal tar epoxy over a solvent free MCL

c) Applying a water based epoxy over a bitumen

d) Applying a 60% VS epoxy over a bitumen

7. Using a 35:1 ratio pump, an inlet pressure of 60psi would result in which of the
following

a) 1800 psi spraying pressure

b) 1500 psi spraying pressure

c) 2100 psi spraying pressure

d) 2500 psi spraying pressure

8. When using an airless spray it is advisable to do which of the following

a) De-pressurise the system prior to changing the tip

b) Apply the paint with the gun passing parallel to the substrate

c) Apply the paint perpendicular to the substrate

d) All of the above are advisable practices

9. A ‘stripe’ coat is which of the following

a) A decorative system involving the use of masking tape

b) A special coat applied to areas of difficult access

c) A chemical method of removing paint

d) None of the above

10. If a paint with a VS of 60% was applied at 100um WFT, what would be the DFT

a) 120um

b) 90um

c) 60um

d) 40um

76
11. Which of the following components is not found in industrial paints

a) Binders

b) Solvents

c) Resins

d) Dyes

12. Why would an inspector use a whirling hygrometer on site during paint
application

a) To check that the weather conditions were within the specification requirements

b) To help with the drying of the paint

c) To measure the steel temperature

d) To check whether or not it is likely to rain.

13. Which of the following could not be used to measure the dry film of a paint

a) A horseshoe gauge

b) A comb gauge

c) A banana gauge

d) A Tinsley pencil gauge

14. When mixing a two-pack paint which of the following is true

a) Pack A should be added slowly to pack B

b) Part of pack B should be mixed with part of pack A

c) It doesn’t matter which way it’s done

d) It should be mixed according to the instructions on the data sheet

15. What is meant by the term ‘pot life’ of a paint

a) It’s the time, after mixing, in which the material must be used

b) It’s the time allowed before pouring into another container

c) The length of time that the material can be left in storage

d) None of the above

77
16. What do you understand from the term ‘shelf life’

a) The paint must be used before this date

b) The paint must stay in storage until that date before being used

c) The paint must not be kept in boxes or cupboards

d) None of the above give the meaning of shelf life

17. When mixing inorganic zinc silicate for spray application, which of the following
is not true

a) The solid component must be added slowly to the liquid, continually agitating

b) The liquid component should be added slowly to the solids, continually agitating

c) The resulting mixture should be continually agitated during application

d) The agitation should preferably be by mechanical means

18. From a safety aspect which is the better solvent to work with

a) One with a short name

b) One with a hazard warning on the can

c) One with a high flash point

d) One with a low flash point

19. Which of the following statements is true

a) Protective clothing should be worn at all times

b) When applying water-based paints there is no need to wear protective clothing

c) Airless spray guns have no intrinsic dangers

d) All hydrocarbon solvents are perfectly safe

20. Which of the following would most likely be used on an airless spray

a) A beryllium tip

b) A phosphor bronze tip

c) A reversible tip

d) All of the above could be used

78
1. Dew point is defined "the temperature at which the water vapor will…"

A. Will evaporate

B. Will condense

C. Will dry

D. Will cause osmotic blisters.

2. As define by national grid, Transco, the engineer is the person…?

A. Appointed by a contractor and notified in writing to client.

B. Appointed by a client and notified to a contractor.

C. Responsible for compiling site records.

D. Delegates the compilation of site records to a contractor.

3. A newly galvanized substrate has a surface:

A. Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed and which lacking in metallic
sheen.

B. On which a cohesive oxide layer has been formed and which lacking in metallic
sheen.

C. Where a cohesive oxide layer has not been formed, showing a bright surface.

D. Where a cohesive oxide layer has been formed, showing a bright surface.

4. “Compliant” coating is one that complies with requirement of the…?

A. The health and safety at work act.

B. The COSHH Regulation.

C. The Contract Requirements

D. The Environmental Protection Act.

5. When measuring acidity and alkality, distiller water…

A. 1

B.?

C. 7

D.?

79
6. ...Which British standard?

A. BS?

B. BS?

C. BS?

D. BS?

7. What are the total paint systems DFT requirements for the 2 prefer system in
table SPA 1e of PA10?

A. 255 and 225 um.

B. 265 and 235 um.

C. 265 and 225 um.

D. 255 and 235 um.

8. Which British standard covers the color coding of pipework?

A. BS 5493

B. BS 1710

C. BS 6072

D. BS 3900

9. In accordance with PA10 table SPA 3e where TSA or IZS have been used as the
preferred coating for surface operating above 340°C:

A. They should be cured by chemical reaction

B. The coating must be immediately heated to 340° C

C. They should be sealed with polysiloxane inorganic coating

D. They must be further protected by the application of silicone sealer.

10. Which of following substrates are not dealt with in table SPA A6 of PA10?

A. Concrete

B. Stainless Steel

C. Galvanized surfaces

D. They are all dealt with under that section

80
11. During the corrosion reaction, the cathode primarily contains:

A. Negative iron ions, dissociated from the electrolyte.

B. Positive iron protons, dissociated from the electrolyte.

C. Positive electrons, dissociated from the electrolyte.

D. Negative protons, dissociated from the electrolyte.

12. "Aerobic condition" would refer to highest proportion …?

A. Hydrogen

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Water

13. An additive that gives a paint material its opacity is…?

A. A plasticizer

B. A thixotrope

C. A stabilizer

D. A pigment

14. Which of the following is considered to be a Laminar pigment?

A. Mica

B. Coal tar

C. Zinc chromate

D. Red lead

15. Which of the following is not an example of a direct charge mill

A. A single roll mill

B. A ball mill

C. An attritor mill

D. A high speed disperser

81
16. A test that use glass bead to confirm the drying time?

A. ?

B. ?

C. Ballotini test

D. The cryptometer test

17. Rust inhibitive primer operates by?

A. Oxidation to protect the substrate

B. Pigmentation

C. Passivation

D. Direct encapsulation

18. The correct voltage setting for wet sponge for 265 um is?

A. 9 volts

B. 67.5 volts

C. 90 volts

D. 125 volts

19. Most tips used on airless spray equipment are Reversible, that is …?

A. Tip life is prolonged

B. Costs can be kept down

C. Blockages can be cleaned

D. All of the above

20. What is the volume of paint required to cover a circular area ...material has a
specified WFT 176 um?

A. 76.38 litres

B. 124.40 litres

C. 214.34 litres

D. 321.56 litres

82
1. Which of the following material is the most electronegative?

A. Copper

B. Tin

C. Aluminum

D. Zinc

2. The institute of gas engineers Safety Recommendation for safety operation is:

A. IGE/SR/12

B. IGE/SR/21

C. IGE/SR/23

D. IGE/SR/25

3. How many microns in an mm?

A. 100

B. 1000

C. 10000

D. 100000

4. The new and maintenance painting ...painting application…?

A. SPA 1

B. SPA 3

C. SPA 4

D. SPA 6

5. The paint ingredient that has the most influence on the opacity of a paint?

A. The Binder

B. The Solvent

C. The Pigment

D. An additive is used to influence opacity

83
6. When considering environmental conditions prior to paint application
recommended dew point, air temperature and metal temperature should be?

A. Within 3 o C of dew point

B. More than 3 o C below dew point

C. More than 3 o C above dew point

D. Greater than 10 o C

7. If a crack like indication is observed following the blast cleaning of substrate:

A. It should be assessed ultrasonically to determine its size

B. It should be subject to a magnetic particle assessment to determine its size

C. It should be subject to a grind and investigation to remove it

D. It should be reported to the engineer

8. Which is the larger mesh size

A. G12

B. G16

C. S18

D. S20

9. What is an ion?

A. Part of an atom

B. A positively charged electron

C. An electron no longer orbiting an atom

D. An electrically charged particle

10. The person of organization responsible for the site designed to write procedures
from site is:

A. The contractor foreman

B. The site engineer

C. The contractor

D. The senior pipeline inspector

84
11. It is only necessary to brush down a weathered galvanized surface with a stiff
brush prior to painting because:

A. A suitable key for paint it provided by the zinc oxides on the surface

B. We only need to remove dust and loose particle of abrasive prior to painting

C. A key for adhesion is not necessary on galvanized surface

D. Weathered galvanized provides its own key

12. What WFT would be required to provide a DFT 75 um of the paint 65% volume
solids?

A. 90 um

B. 110 um

C. 115 um

D. There is insufficient information to provide an answer

13. A rotational viscometer assesses a material:

A. Ability to flow

B. Dynamic viscosity

C. Kinematic viscosity

D. Free flowing viscosity

14. The continent that has the most influence on paint impermeability is

A. The pigment

B. The solvent

C. The binder

D. An additive is used to influence impermeability

15. Paint containing natural oil and resin will dry by

A. Solvent evaporation alone

B. Oxidation

C. Coalescence

D. A chemical reaction

85
16. The recognized test for detecting mill scale on substrate:

A. The silver nitrate test

B. The copper sulphate test

C. The xylene test

D. The ballotini test

17. If paint is being applied by conventional spray the point at which atomization is?

A. In the container

B. At the aperture or nozzle

C. 25mm outside the aperture/ nozzle

D. On the substrate

18. What is the activity should be carried out to assess safety aspect prior to work ?

A. A safety work around

B. A safety review

C. A rick assessment

D. A rick review

19. Before daily work activities being on a pipeline project?

A. The inspector should carry the safety assessment

B. A permit to work should be applied

C. The weather forecast should be considered

D. The senior inspector should have a meeting with the contractor and representative.

20. The wet sponge holiday detector setting for a paint coat 600um final DFT would
be?

A. 9 volts

B. 67 volts

C. 90 volts

D. The wet sponge detector is not generally used on this thickness of pain

86
Master

TEST: 1 (1-26)
1. In which of the following conditions would corrosion more readily occur?
1. D 6. A 11. A 16. A 21. D 26. B
2. D 7. C 12. B 17. C 22. B
3. B 8. D 13. B, D 18. B 23. C
4. A 9. C 14. D 19. D 24. A
5. B 10. B 15. C 20. D 25. D

TEST: 2 (1-50)
1. 1000 um =
1. B 6. B 11. A 16. C 21. D
2. A 7. B 12. C 17. A 22. B
3. B 8. C 13. D 18. C 23. C
4. C 9. D 14. D 19. C 24. A
5. B 10. C 15. C 20. A 25. C

26. C 31. D 36. C 41. A 46. A

27. D 32. B 37. C 42. C 47. C
28. A 33. B 38. D 43. A 48. D
29. B 34. C 39. C 44. B 49. B
30. C 35. D 40. C 45. C 50. C

TEST: 3 (1-100)
1. What is mean by compliant coating?
1. B 6. B 11. B 16. D 21. C
2. B 7. D 12. C 17. C 22. D
3. B 8. B 13. B 18. D 23. D
4. D 9. B 14. D 19. D 24. C
5. C 10. A 15. C 20. A 25. B

26. B 31. C 36. C 41. B 46. D

27. B 32. D 37. B 42. B 47. B
28. B 33. B 38. A 43. B 48. D
29. C 34. C 39. C 44. B 49. B
30. D 35. A 40. C 45. A 50. C

87
51. A 56. A 61. C 66. C 71. C
52. B 57. C 62. D 67. C 72. A
53. D 58. C 63. C 68. A 73. B
54. C 59. D? 64. C 69. B 74. D
55. C 60. B 65. A 70. B 75. B

76. B 81. C 86. C 91. C 96. C

77. D 82. A 87. B 92. C 97. D
78. A 83. B 88. A 93. A 98. C
79. B 84. B 89. A 94. B 99. B
80. C 85. A 90. A 95. A 100. B

TEST 4 : (20)
1. How many cleaning grades available by using tools according to BS 7079
1. B 6. C 11. C 16. B 21.
2. C 7. C 12. B 17. D 22.
3. B 8. A 13. C 18. A 23.
4. D 9. A 14. D 19. B 24.
5. B 10. C 15. A 20. D 25.

TEST 5 : (25)
1. Two examples of Hygroscopic salts would be:
1. C 6. A 11. B 16. A 21. A
2. D 7. D 12. C 17. B 22. C
3. C 8. B 13. C 18. C 23. C
4. C 9. C 14. B 19. A 24. C
5. C 10. D 15. B 20. C 25. C

TEST 6 : (25)
1. Two examples of Hygroscopic Salts would be:
1. C 6. C 11. C 16. A 21. D
2. D 7. D 12. A 17. C 22. B
3. C 8. C 13. B 18. B 23. B
4. C 9. C 14. B 19. C 24. B
5. A 10. D 15. C 20. A 25. A

88
TEST 7: (25)
1. Which of the following is Rust Grade C?
1. C 6. C 11. A 16. C 21. A
2. C 7. D 12. C 17. C 22. D
3. C 8. C 13. A 18. C 23. B
4. C 9. B 14. A 19. D 24. C
5. C 10. B 15. A 20. B 25. C

TEST 8: (25)
1. Which of the following is not a drying mechanism?
1. C 6. B 11. D 16. D 21. A
2. C 7. B 12. B 17. C 22. B
3. C 8. D 13. D 18. B 23. B
4. C 9. B 14. B 19. B 24. C
5. D 10. C 15. C 20. C 25. C

TEST 9: (25)
1. What is a pyknometer?
1. C 6. D 11. A 16. C 21. D
2. A 7. C 12. D 17. B 22. A
3. C 8. C 13. C 18. B 23. C
4. A 9. C 14. C 19. B 24. B
5. C 10. C 15. C 20. C 25. C

TEST 10: (25)

1. This paint defect is referred to as:
1. B 6. B 11. D 16. B 21. D
2. D 7. C 12. B 17. B 22. C
3. B 8. B 13. C 18. C 23. B
4. B 9. D 14. C 19. D 24. C
5. C 10. B 15. D 20. C 25. C

TEST 11: (20)

1.Using a 35:1 ratio pump, an inlet pressure of 60 psi would result in which of the
following
1. C 6. C 11. A 16. C 21.
2. C 7. C 12. D 17. C 22.
3. B 8. A 13. D 18. A 23.
4. B 9. D 14. C 19. ? 24.
5. C 10. B 15. D 20. D 25.

89
TEST 12: (20)
1. Which of the following would be a typical spraying pressure using an airless
spray.
1. C 6. D 11. D 16. A 21.
2. A 7. C 12. A 17. B 22.
3. C 8. C 13. B 18. C 23.
4. D 9. B 14. D 19. A 24.
5. B 10. C 15. A 20. C 25.
TEST 13: (20)
1. Dew point is defined "the temperature at which the water vapor will…"
1. B 6. ? 11. C 16. C 21.
2. B 7. C 12. B 17. C 22.
3. C 8. B 13. D 18. A 23.
4. D 9. D 14. A 19. C 24.
5. C 10. D 15. D 20. ? 25.

TEST 14: (20)

1. Which of the following material is the most electronegative?
1. D 6. C 11. D 16. B 21.
2. B 7. D 12. C 17. C 22.
3. B 8. D 13. A 18. C 23.
4. A 9. ? 14. C 19. ? 24.
5. C 10. B 15. B 20. D 25.

90
91