1.

Which of the following lists best describes the key safety categories to be considered by
a Gas Technician?
A. personal, site, tools, equipment, others, OHSA, deadlines
B. personal, tools, equipment, others, deadlines, Ontario Gas code requirements
C. personal, tools, equipment, others, site, OHSA, Ontario Gas Utilization Code
D. personal, tools, equipment, others, safety rule books, Ontario Gas Utilization Code

2. How would a gas technician demonstrate a concern for the safety of others?
A. By always wearing approved work boots, hard hat and safety glasses.
B. By demonstrating the correct use of a new tool to a co-worker.
C. By letting others climb ladders first.
D. By letting others learn from their mistakes.

3. What should a gas technician do when a new piece of equipment is introduced for use?
A. Carefully examine the equipment and determine how to use it properly.
B. Ask a co-worker to help determine how to use it properly.
C. Get a copy of the user's manual and read it before using the equipment.
D. Refuse to work with new equipment until someone else has used it.

4. What does OHSA stand for?

A. Ontario Health & Standards Act
B. Ontario Health & Safety Act
C. Occupational Health & Safety Act
D. Occupational Health & Standards Act.

5. Which of the following regulates workplace safety?

A. The Province of Ontario
B. The Ontario Gas Utilization Code
C. The National Fire Code
D. The National Building Code

6. What should MSDS sheets be used for by a technician?

A. To be aware of flammable, corrosive, or explosive substances.
B. To know what materials are available for the technicians' use.
C. To know the best brand of product to purchase.
D. To be aware of the best source of lubricants for machinery on site
7. Which phrase is true?
A. The Ontario Gas Utilization Code requires a technician to report a hazardous
installation within three working days of completion.
B. The Occupational Health and Safety Act requires that hazards be reported within 72
hours.
C. The industry does not demand that hazards be reported for correction.
D. The hazard is the responsibility of the person who is aware of it.

8. Which of the following is true?

A. When lifting, it is best to use your back muscles as they are the strongest.
B. When lifting, it is best to lift by bending your knees and using your leg muscles.
C. When lifting with someone else you should be back to back.
D. When lifting a heavy load that is too heavy, lift and carry it small distances at a time.

9. Why should garbage and debris be removed from a job site?

A. To present a neat appearance.
B. To prevent possible slips, trips or falls.
C. To reduce the possibility of tool loss in debris.
D. To reduce the likelihood of rodents on the job site.

10. Which of the following is the safest situation?

A. Debris is stacked against equipment to be worked on.
B. The pathway to equipment is under water.
C. Dim light in work areas making it difficult to read labels on equipment.
D. Scrap metal is stacked in a corner away from your work area.

11. An employer is:

A. responsible for ensuring that safety instruction is provided to workers.
B. not responsible for ensuring that safety instruction is provided to workers.
C. responsible for ensuring that workers arrive safely on the job site.
D. responsible for providing all safety clothing to workers.

12. Which of the following is true?

A. Workers do not have to wear heard hat off a construction site, even if instructed to
do so by the employer.
B. Workers must wear the protective clothing that the employer instructs them to wear
on the job site.
C. Workers do not have to be aware of the contents of the Occupational Health and
Safety Act
D. Unnecessary running or rough or boisterous conduct on job sites is not prohibited by
the Occupational Health and Safety Act.
13. The Workers Compensation Board Act says that in all cases of injury or disease, an
employer must:
A. make sure first aid is given within two hours.
B. make sure there is a record of the first aid treatment or any advice given to the
worker.
C. complete and keep a form if more than first aid treatment or advice is needed.
D. notify worker's family immediately.

14. According to the Workers Compensation Board Act which of the following statements
is part of the worker's obligation in all cases of injury/disease?
A. Obtain first aid promptly.
B. Notify the employer of any injury within eight hours.
C. Notify the employer of the possible onset of a work-related disease/condition within
two working days.
D. Find a doctor or qualified practitioner who will give a second opinion concerning the
injury.

15. How many classes of fire extinguishers are listed?

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

16. Which of the following are the key pieces of personal protective equipment?
A. hard hat, gloves, ear plugs, dust mask, safety glasses, work boots, face shields
B. ladders, hand tools, power tools
C. protective clothing, hand tools, face shields, hats
D. grounded extension cords, safety glasses, safety boots, hard hat
17. What type of fastener would you use to join two electrical conductors?
A. electrical coupling
B. BX connector
C. marrette
D. electrical tape

18. The fastener used to connect a hose to a fan coil unit is:
A. a gear clamp.
B. copper bailing wire.
C. electrical tape.
D. a grappler bar.
 19. Shot for powder activated guns is stored:
A. in a locked, secure compound.
B. in a dry, secure location.
C. in the upright position in a secure compound.
D. in a locked refrigerated cooler.

20. What is the volume of a room measuring 16' x 12' x 7'?

A. 84 square feet
B. 192 cubic feet
C. 1344 cubic feet
D. 16,128 square feet

21. What is the area of a rectangular air supply opening measuring 12" x 10"?
A. 1.0 square feet
B. 1.2 cubic feet
C. 100 cubic inches
D. 120 square inches

22. What is the purpose of a drill gauge?

A. To measure the diameter of a drill bit.
B. To measure the diameter of a drill.
C. To measure the length of a drill.
D. To measure the length of a drill bit.

23. To determine the indicated gas pressure on a water-filled "U" tube manometer.
A. read the amount of water column displaced on the pressure side.
B. read the amount of water column displaced on the atmospheric side.
C. read the amount of water column displaced on the pressure side and add it to
the amount displaced on the atmospheric side.
D. read the amount of water column displaced on the pressure side and subtract it
from the amount displaced on the atmospheric side.

24. A reading of 7.0" w.c. equals:

A. 1/4psig. (1.72 kPa)
B. 1/2 psig. (3.45 kPa)
C. 3/4psig. (5.17kPa)
D. 1 psig. (6.9kPa)
25. The boiling point of water is:
A. 0 °F (-18°C)
B. 68 °F (20°C)
C. 200 °F ( 93°C )
D. 212 °F (100°C)

26. How should an electric drill be disconnected?

A. By pulling on the drill's cord.
B. By pulling the plug at the outlet.
C. By using a pair of insulated channel lock pliers.
D. With the chuck key.

27. A carbide bit is used to drill into:

A. steel.
B. wood.
C. iron.
D. black iron.

28. A carbon bit is used to drill into:

A. stainless steel.
B. wood.
C. plastic.
D. concrete.

29. Lead shields are generally used to anchor fasteners into:

A. steel.
B. wood.
C. plastic.
D. concrete.

30. Copper wire should be skinned with:

A. a knife.
B. pliers.
C. side cutters.
D. a wire stripper

31. By definition, the specific gravity of a gas (vapour) is:

A. the weight of the gas as compared to the weight of air.
B. the weight of the gas as compared to the weight of an equal volume of air.
C. the volume of the gas compared to the equal weight of an equal volume of air.
D. the volume of the gas as compared to the weight of air.
32. The specific gravity of propane vapour is:
A. greater than that of air.
B. less than that of air.
C. the same as that of natural gas.
D. less than that of natural gas.

33. The specific gravity of propane is:

A. 0.6" w.c
B. 1" w.c
C. 1.52" w.c
D. 3.5" w.c

34. The lower and upper flammable limits of propane are:

A. 2.0% - 11.0%
B. 2.4% - 9.5%
C. 4.0% - 14.0%
D. 5.5% - 14.5%

35. The heat content of 1 cubic foot of propane is approximately:

A. 1,000 Btu
B. 2,500 Btu
C. 10,000 Btu
D. 25,000 Btu

36. Propane and natural gas are composed mainly of which of the following elements?
A. carbon and nitrogen
B. carbon and hydrogen
C. carbon and oxygen
D. carbon and sulphur

37. The flame temperature of propane is approximately:

A. 1500 °F (816°C)
B. 1500°C (2732°F)
C. 3650 °F (2010°C)
D. 3650°C (6602°F)

38. The ignition temperature of propane is:

A. 920 °F -1020 °F (493 F - 549°C)
B. 920°C -1020°C. (1688 F-1868 °F)
C. 1210 F - 1260 °F. (654°C - 682°C)
D. 1210°C - 1260°C. (2210°F – 2300°F)
39. The relative density Propane is:
A. equal to the relative density of air.
B. 2 times the relative density of air.
C. 1 1/2 times the relative density of air.
D. the relative density of air.

40. The boiling point of propane at atmospheric pressure is:

A. -44 °F (-42.2°C)
B. -10 °F (-23.3°C)
C. 0 F°F (-17.7°C)
D. 32 °F (0°C)

41. When propane changes from a liquid to a vapour, it expands and its volume increases
by:
A. 5 times.
B. 17 times.
C. 185 times.
D. 270 times.

42. One imperial gallon of propane weighs:

A. 5.1 pounds.
B. 8.5 pounds.
C. 10.0 pounds.
D. 25.0 pounds.

43. When one pound of propane burns, it releases approximately:

A. 2,500 Btt u.
B. 11,700 Btu.
C. 21,600 Btu.
D. 60,000 Btu.

44. The products of propane combustion are primarily.

A. H and H20 and heat.
B. H20 and CO and heat.
C. H20, CO2 and heat.
D. H and C and heat.
45. As the temperature of liquid propane in a tank increases, the vapour pressure of the
propane:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains the same.
D. fluctuates.

46. The amount of C02 produced per cubic foot of propane burned is:
A. 7.6 cu. ft.
B. 3.0 cu. ft.
C. 18.5 cu. ft.
D. 12.0 cu. ft.

47. The amount of air required to BURN 1 cubic foot (0.028 cu. m.) of
propane is approximately:
A. 5.0 cu. ft. (0.14 cu. m.)
B. 10.0 cu. ft. (0.28 cu. m.)
C. 12.0 cu. ft. (0.34 cu. m.)
D. 25.0 cu. ft. (0.71 cu. m.)

48. The air found in the products of combustion after the complete combustion of
natural gas or propane is called:
A. primary air
B. secondary air
C. excess air
D. dilution air

49. Which of the following is toxic?

A. natural gas
B. propane gas
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon dioxide

50. Air that is mixed with fuel prior to ignition is called:

A. primary air.
B. secondary air.
C. excess air.
D. theoretical air.
51. Air that is mixed with fuel at the point of combustion and around the flame is :
A. primary air.
B. secondary air.
C. excess air.
D. theoretical air.

52. Carbon monoxide is a product of the incomplete combustion of:

A. nitrogen.
B. oxygen.
C. a hydrocarbon.
D. an inorganic compound.

53. Air is about:

A. 50% nitrogen and 50% oxygen
B. 60% nitrogen and 40% oxygen
C. 70% nitrogen and 30% oxygen
D. 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen

54. A luminous flame is caused by:

A. premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
B. not premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
C. a low ignition temperature.
D. the presence of carbon monoxide.

55. A Bunsen flame is caused by:

A. premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
B. not premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
C. a low ignition temperature.
D. the presence of carbon monoxide.

56. The specific gravity of natural gas is:

A. greater than that of air.
B. less than that of air.
C. the same as that of propane.
D. greater than that of propane.

57. Natural gas and propane are composed mainly of:

A. carbon and nitrogen.
B. carbon and hydrogen.
C. carbon monoxide and nitrogen.
D. carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
58. The flame temperature of natural gas is approximately:
A. 2500 °F (1371°C)
B. 2500 °C (4532 °F)
C. 3500 °F (1927°C)
D. 3500°C (6332 °F)

59. The theoretical boiling point of natural gas at atmospheric pressure is:
A. -259°F (-162°C)
B. -44°F (- 42°C)
C. 0°F (-18°C)
D. 32°F (0°C)

60. The products of complete combustion of natural gas and propane are primarily:
A. hydrogen, water (vapour), and heat.
B. carbon, carbon monoxide, and heat.
C. water (vapour), carbon dioxide, and heat.
D. hydrogen, carbon, and heat.

61. The amount of air required to bum 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately:
A. 5.0 cu. ft. (0.14 cu. m.)
B. 10.0 cu. ft. (0.28 cu. m.)
C. 12.0 cu. ft. (0.34 cu. m.)
D. 25.0 cu. ft. (0.71 cu. m.)

62. The odorant added to natural gas for detection purposes is:
A. sulphur.
B. mustard.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. mercaptan.

63. What is the approximate ignition temperature of natural gas?

A. 800°F (427°C)
B. 1,200°F(649°C)
C. 2,100°F (1,149°C)
D. 3,000°F(1649°C)

64. The specific gravity of natural gas is:

A. 0.60
B. 1.00
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
65. The major constituents of flue gases after the proper combustion of natural gas in air
are:
A. CO, H20, N2, excess air, and heat.
B. H20, N2, primary air, and heat.
C. C02, H20, N2, 02, and heat.
D. 02, CO, N2, H20, and heat.

66. A Bunsen flame is characterized by its:

A. blue appearance.
B. yellow appearance.
C. orange appearance.
D. green/orange appearance.

67. The two main hydrocarbons which form natural gas are:
A. methane and ethane.
B. butane and propane.
C. ethane and butane.
D. methane and propane.

68. What theoretical gas to air ratio is necessary to achieve perfect combustion with an
atmospheric natural gas burner?
A. 1 part of natural gas to 10 parts of air
B. 5 parts of natural gas to 5 parts of air
C. 5 parts of natural gas to 15 parts of air
D. 20 parts of natural gas to 1 part of air

69. Carbon monoxide is produced through:

A. perfect combustion.
B. complete combustion with excess air present.
C. incomplete combustion.
D. incomplete mixing of theoretical air and primary air.

70. The products of complete combustion of natural gas in air are:

A. carbon monoxide, water vapour, and heat
B. carbon dioxide, water vapour, and heat
C. aldehydes, water vapour, and heat
D. nitrous oxide, water vapour, and heat
71. If a natural gas flame is adjusted to produce more than 10% carbon dioxide:
A. carbon monoxide may be produced.
B. combustion efficiency will decrease.
C. the flame will be very noisy and will lift off of the burner.
D. there will be little overall effect.

72. What could result if a flame is adjusted with too much primary air?
A. flame quenching
B. a luminous flame
C. flame lift
D. flame dilution

73. Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen are:

A. explosive gases.
B. inert gases.
C. neutralizers.
D. toxins.

74. Natural gas is 85% to 90%:

A. ethane.
B. pentane.
C. methane.
D. butane.

75. How much air is required to bum 1,000 cubic feet of natural gas per hour?
A. 100 cu.ft. (2.83 cu. m.)
B. 1,000 cu.ft. (28.3 cu. m.)
C. 10,000 cu.ft. (283.1 cu. m.)
D. 100,000 cu.ft. (2831.7 cu. m.)

76. One boiler horsepower is approximately:

A. 20,000 Btuh (5.8 kW).
B. 25,000 Btuh (7.3 kW).
C. 34,000 Btuh (10 kW).
D. 54,000 Btuh (15 kW).

77. Two undesirable products of incomplete combustion are:

A. CO and aldehydes.
B. CO and N2.
C. C02 and aldehydes.
D. CO and heat.
78. Which substance is inert and passes through the combustion zone absorbing heat
during the combustion process?
A. carbon dioxide
B. ethyl mercaptan
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen

79. The relative density of liquid propane is approximately:

A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2.0

80. Propane is a:
A. manufactured gas.
B. hydrocarbon.
C. distillate fuel.
D. naphthalene fuel.

81. At 60 F (15.5°C) a pound of propane produces how many cubic feet of gas?
A. 2.12
B. 4.30
C. 8.50
D. 10.10

82. Propane shall have a distinctive odour content to ensure it is readily detectable in
the atmosphere down to concentrations of:
A. 5% of the lower explosive limit.
B. 20% of the lower explosive limit.
C. 35% of the upper explosive limit.
D. 50% of the upper explosive limit.

83. In a natural gas and air mixture, what are the approximate lower and upper limits of
flammability?
A. 2% to 10%
B 4% to 14%
C. 5% to 40%
D. 10% to 20%
84. Carbon monoxide is:
A. an inert gas which is heavier than air.
B. an inert gas which is lighter than air.
C. a toxic gas which is combustible.
D. a toxic gas which is non-combustible.

85. The heat content of 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately:

A. 1,000 Btu
B. 2,520 Btu
C. 10,000 Btu
D. 25,000 Btu

86. How often should a fire extinguisher be inspected ?

A. Once a year
B. Once every 2 years
C. Once every 3 years
D. Once every 4 years

87. Which organization is responsible for administering fuel regulations for the installation
of gas and oil appliances in Ontario:
A. Technical Standards and Safety Authority
B. Canadian Gas Association
C. Energy Mines & Resources
D. Canadian Standards Association

88. Which of the following are accredited to certify gas appliances, equipment, and
accessories:
A. Canadian Gas Association, Underwriters' Laboratories of Canada, the Canadian
Standards Association, and the Technical Standards and Safety Authority
B. Canadian Gas Association, Underwriters' Laboratories of Canada, and the local
utility
C. Canadian Gas Association, Underwriters' Laboratories of Canada, and the Propane
Gas Association
D. Canadian Gas Association, Underwriters' Laboratories of Canada, and the Ministry
of Energy Mines and Resources
89. Which of the following is the ultimate authority under The Technical Standards and
Safety Act as it applies to the installation of natural gas & propane appliances and
equipment:
A. Federal Government
B. Ontario Government
C. National Energy Board
D. Ontario Ministry of Energy

90. Propane cylinders used in Ontario must be manufactured and approved to the
requirements established by:
A. Transport Canada
B. The Compressed Gas Association and the Ministry of Energy
C. The Propane Gas Association of Canada and the Ontario Propane Association
D. The Ontario Propane Association and the Compressed Gas Association

91. The requalification of refillable propane cylinders used in Ontario must be done in
accordance with the procedures for cylinders as established by the:
A. Ministry of Transportation of Ontario
B. Compressed Gas Association
C. Propane Gas Association
D. Ontario Propane Association

92. Which organization registers certified gas and oil technicians in Ontario?
A. The Canadian Standards Association
B. The Ministry of Energy
C. The Canadian Gas Association
D. The Technical Standards and Safety Authority

93. A steam boiler shall conform to the requirements of which of the following agencies or
organizations:
A. The Technical Standards and Safety Authority
B. The Heating, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Institute of Canada
C. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Technical Standards Division
D. The Interprovincial Gas Advisory Council
94. The section of the Ontario Gas Utilization Code allowing a 1 psi (6.89 kPa) drop in a
tubing system operating at 2 psig (13.79 kPa) is:
A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8

95. Propane cylinders manufactured in Canada after January 1, 1993 are to be built and
marked to the specifications of:
A. The Boiler and Pressure Vessels Code
B. The Canadian Standards Association
C. Transport Canada
D. The Ministry of Consumer and Business Services

96. Which of the following is covered in the B149.1 installation code:

A. marine and pipeline terminals
B. underground storage systems
C. installation of appliances
D. propane used on boats

97. Which of the following is covered in the B149.1 installation code:

A. installation of feedstock gas in chemical plants
B. installation of venting systems
C. petroleum refineries
D. distribution pipelines
98.The holder of a G.1 certificate is permitted to work:
A. only on appliances with inputs under 200,000 Btuh
B. only on appliances with inputs up to 400,000 Btuh
C. only on appliances with inputs from 400,000 Btuh. to 1,000,000 Btuh
D. on appliances with any input in vapour phase

99. What action shall a person holding a gas technician certificate take, if an installation does
not conform to the requirements of the Gaseous Fuels Regulation but doesn't ' present an
immediate danger:
A. the person shall immediately turn off the supply of gas to the appliance
B. the person shall turn off the supply of gas to the appliance and lock the gas meter
C. the person shall notify the distributor and the owner in writing of the condition
D. the person shall inform the owner that the code infraction should be attended to
100. A G3 Technician is allowed to:
A. activate all new appliances
B. initially activate appliances up to 400,000 Btuh input
C. reactivate existing installations of appliances up to 400,000 Btuh
D. activate residential appliances only

101. What is a Category I Appliance:

A. an appliance with a power burner
B. a natural gas or propane-fired water heater or central furnace
C. an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and a flue loss
of not less than 17%
D. an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of not
less than 17%

102. What is a Category III Appliance:

A. an appliance with a power burner
B. a natural gas or propane-fired water heater or central furnace
C. an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and a flue loss
of not less than 17%
D. an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of
not less than 17%

103. What is a Category IV Appliance:

A. an appliance with a power burner
B. a natural gas or propane-fired water heater or central furnace
C. an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of
less than 17%
D. an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of not
less than 17%

104. What is a Category II Appliance:

A. an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and a flue loss
of less than 17%
B. an appliance with a power burner
C. an appliance requiring a separate combustion air supply
D. an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss not
less than 17%
105. Which term is used to describe a stationary device used to divert the flow of flue gases:
A. baffle
B. gas burner
C. automatic vent damper
D. air shutter

106. What is the name of the part of a piping or tubing system which conveys gas from the
main supply piping, tubing, or header to an appliance or appliances:
A. header
B. branch line
C. gas main
D. individual feed line

107. Which code expression is used to describe a structure used in connection with direct trade or
service to the public:
A. service building
B. industrial building
C. commercial building
D. institutional building

108. Which code expression describes a building used in connection with production or process work, or
with storage or warehousing:
A. warehouse
B. utility building
C. process building
D. industrial building

109. Which of the following code expressions describes a building used by a gathering of persons for
civic, political, travel, religious, social, educational, recreational, or like purposes, or for the consumption
of food and drink:
A. commercial building
B. assembly building
C. industrial building
D. care or detention occupancy building

110. Which burner supplies combustion air at sufficient pressure to overcome the resistance of the
burner only:
A. power burner
B. combustion burner
C. forced draft burner
D. fan assisted burner
111. Which of the following burners is NOT equipped with a mechanical device for supplying
combustion air:
A. natural draft burner
B. combustion burner
C. power burner
D. non-mechanical burner

112. Which burner supplies combustion air with a mechanical device such as a fan or
blower at sufficient pressure to overcome the resistance of the burner and the
appliance:
A. mechanical burner
B. fan assisted burner
C. high pressure burner
D. forced draft burner

113. Which term is used to describe an appliance intended to supply hot liquid or vapour for space
heating, processing, or power purposes:
A. water heater
B. commercial water heater
C. space heater
D. boiler

114. Which type of appliance has the combustion products or flue gases mixed with the
medium being heated:
A. direct fired appliance
B. space heater
C. immersion appliance
D. indirect fired appliance

115. A damper is a:
A. device used to keep a gasket moist and malleable
B. plate or valve for regulating the flow of air or flue gas
C. device used to cool and divert flue gases
D. fixed flue gas diverter

116. Which type of appliance is constructed so that all the combustion air is supplied directly from, and
the products of combustion are vented directly to the outdoors by independent enclosed passageways
connected directly to the appliance:
A. direct vent appliance
B. indirect fired appliance
C. indoor / outdoor appliance
D. direct fired appliance
117. Which term is used to describe the natural draft of the chimney measured at or near the base of
the chimney:
A. static pressure draft
B. neutral pressure point draft
C. base pressure draft
D. chimney draft

118. Which type of draft is produced by a device upstream of the combustion zone of an appliance:
A. pre draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. atmospheric draft

119. Which type of draft is produced by a device downstream of the combustion zone of an appliance:
A. pre draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. atmospheric draft

120. Which of the following is an appliance draft control device:

A. a baffle used to control air to a burner
B. a control used to control air for combustion
C. a draft hood or draft regulator
D. a variable damper in the circulating air supply system

121. What is the expression for a housekeeping unit, used or intended to be used as a domicile by one
or more persons, and usually containing cooking, eating, living, sleeping, and sanitary facilities:
A. residential occupancy
B. dwelling unit
C. bed-sitting room
D. non-commercial building

122. What is the name of the device that is installed either externally or internally to a
venting system to extract heat from flue gases:
A. draft hood
B. draft control device
C. heat diverter
D. heat reclaimer
123. An intermittent ignition source:
A. continues to function during the entire period that the flame is present
B. ceases to function after the initial ignition period
C. always functions, regardless if there is a call for heat
D. is manually activated

124. An interrupted ignition source:

A. continues to function during the entire period that the flame is present
B. ceases to function after the trial for ignition period
C. always functions, regardless if there is a call for heat
D. is manually activated

125. Which type of appliance does not have the flue gases mixed with the medium being
heated:
A. direct-fired appliance
B. non vented space heater
C. immersion appliance
D. indirect fired appliance

126. What is the expression for the maximum pressure to which any component or portion
of the fuel system can be subjected:
A. maximum allowable operating pressure
B. ultimate stress pressure
C. relief pressure
D. maximum working pressure

127. What is the term for an appliance which is supplied as a complete unit including
burner, controls, and integral wiring:
A. package unit
B. unit heater
C. combination unit
D. boiler

128. Which type of pilot burns without turndown throughout the entire time the burner is in service,
whether the main burner is firing or not:
A. continuous pilot
B. interrupted pilot
C. intermittent pilot
D. expanding pilot
129. Which type of pilot burns at low turndown throughout the entire time the burner is in service,
whether or not the main burner is firing, except that upon a call for heat, the fuel flow to the pilot is
automatically increased to produce a flame which will reliably
ignite the main burner fuel:
A. turndown pilot
B. throttling pilot
C. expanding pilot
D. cycling pilot

130. Which type of pilot is supervised by a primary safety control which must sense the presence of the
pilot flame prior to gas being admitted to the main burner:
A. proved pilot
B. flame safeguard control
C. intermittent pilot
D. monitored pilot system

131. What is the term for a device that is installed between the appliance and the vent termination and
provides mechanical draft:
A. mechanical inducer
B. power burner
C. vent exhauster
D. power venter

132. A "relief device" in a piping system is a/ an:

A. device used to divert the flow of gas in the event of a runaway condition
B. device used to relieve high temperatures that could cause over-pressure
C. device designed to open to prevent a rise of gas pressure in excess of a specified value due to
emergency or abnormal conditions
D. assembly installed in the outlet plenum of a forced air furnace, which opens in the event of high static
pressure

133. What is meant by "purging" a pipe system:

A. painting the pipe, or identifying it with markings or yellow bands (tape)
B. reaming the ends of the pipe to eliminate all burrs
C. filling the piping with nitrogen or carbon dioxide to ensure there is no air trapped within
D. replacing the existing (gaseous or liquid) fluid in the piping or tubing with a desired fluid
134. Which type of burner is equipped with a constant ignition source and a flame arrestor and is
intended to burn the escaping gas during operations to replace the air in piping
with natural gas or propane:
A. premix burner
B. power burner
C. conversion burner
D. purge burner

135. A "quick-disconnect device" is:

A. an emergency shut off valve used to shut off all the gas to a building
B. a solenoid-actuated automatic valve having a quick shut off function
C. a flare type fitting
D. a hand-operated device which provides for connecting and disconnecting an appliance to a gas
supply

136. An appliance pressure regulator is:

A. located immediately downstream of the main burner
B. located in the valve train of an appliance
C. located immediately upstream of an appliance
D. used to control the pressure of the gas delivered to the customer

137. What is the term for a device used to control and maintain within acceptable limits, a
uniform outlet pressure:
A. pressure control
B. pressure transducer
C. pressure regulator
D. uniform pressure device

138. What is the term for a pressure regulator installed in a piping or tubing system
downstream of the service regulator and upstream of the appliance regulator:
A. appliance pressure regulator
B. master regulator
C. emergency shut off regulator
D. system regulator

139. Which expression best describes a control intended to prevent an unsafe condition of temperature,
pressure or liquid level:
A. roll out switch
B. safety limit control
C. fan control
D. high / low pressure switch
140. What is the name for a valve which is normally closed and allows flow in only one direction:
A. flow valve
B. no-flow valve
C. solenoid valve
D. back check valve

141. What is the name for a valve designed to close when the liquid or vapour passing through it
exceeds a prescribed flow rate as determined by a pressure drop across the valve:
A. maximum capacity valve
B. pressure limiting valve
C. excess flow valve
D. differential pressure valve

142. What is the B149.1 term for an automatic valve that has a closing time of less than 5 seconds upon
being de-energized:
A. quick shut off valve
B. fast closing valve
C. safety shut off valve
D. 5 second valve

143. Which valve automatically shuts off the supply of gas when de-energized by a combustion safety
control, safety limit control, or the loss of the actuating medium:
A. emergency shut off valve
B. safety shut-off valve
C. main shut-off valve
D. test firing valve

144. A valve train is a:

A. combination of valves and regulators piped and wired in series
B. combination of valves, controls, piping and tubing, downstream from the appliance
manifold by which gas is controlled
C. combination of valves, controls, piping and tubing, upstream from the appliance manifold by which
gas is controlled
D. combination of valves configured such that gas can be controlled in a number of
different ways

145. What is the term for that part of a venting system that conducts the flue gases from the flue collar
of an appliance to a chimney or vent, and may include a draft control device:
A. double wall vent
B. double acting vent
C. vent connector
D. draft connector
146. What is the term for a regulating device that is adjusted to deliver gas at atmospheric pressure
within its flow rating:
A. zero governor
B. pressure regulating controller
C. atmospheric pressure regulator
D. pressure / flow valve

147. An appliance shall be installed with a minimum service clearance of:

A. 12 inches (0.3 m)
B. 24 inches (0.6 m)
C. 36 inches (1 m)
D. 48 inches (1.2 m)

148. An under-fired storage water heater shall always:

A. be vented in a chimney
B. be direct vented
C. have a temperature and pressure relief device
D. have a clearance of 6 inches (150 mm) from combustible material

149. The air supply for central heating furnaces, boilers and water heaters that have an input of less
than 400,000 Btu/h (120 kW) shall be provided in accordance with:
A. clauses 8.2 & 8.3 of the B149.1 gas code
B. clause 8.4 of the B149.1 gas code
C. clause 8.13 of the B149.1 gas code
D. Annex F of the B149.1 gas code

150. Vent sizing for central heating furnaces, boilers and water heaters that have an input of less than
400,000 Btu/h (120 kW) may be provided in accordance with:
A. clauses 8.2 & 8.3 of the B149.1 code
B. clause 8.4 of the B149.1 code
C. clause 8.14 of the B149.1 code
D. clause 8.13 of the B149.1 code

151. When is a certificate required in order to install or service a propane appliance?

A. always
B. when servicing a portable appliance for one's own use
C. when installing an appliance in one's own single-family detached dwelling
D. when installing or servicing an appliance in other than one's own residence
152. Where an appliance cannot be installed in accordance with the regulations, what is required to be
done?
A. prior to the installation, a deviation from the regulations must be applied for and accepted by the
Technical Standards and Safety Authority
B. the appliance may be installed and the installer must certify that the installation is safe
C. the appliance may be installed if authorized by the gas distributor
D. a deviation from the regulations must be applied for prior to completion of the installation, and the
start up of the appliance

153. Is the holder of a valid G.2 certificate certified to work on the carburation system of a propane
powered highway vehicle:
A. yes
B. no
C. yes, but only up to the fuel lock-off
D. no, unless under the direct supervision of a Class "A" mechanic

154. The holder of a G.2 certificate may install and service gas-fired equipment with inputs up to:
A. 500,000 Btuh (150 kW)
B: 400,000 Btuh (120 kW)
C. 1,000,000 Btuh (300 kW)
D. 250,000 Btuh (75 kW)

155. To determine the specific purpose an appliance is to be used for, the __________________ should
be consulted.
A. appliance name plate or rating plate
B. customer's maintenance instructions manual
C. contract between the user and the installer
D. appliance owner

156. When referring to appliance manufacturer's instructions, the natural gas and propane installation
code:
A. recommends that they be left with the owner
B. requires that they be kept by the installer for future reference
C. recommends that they be kept by the installer for future references
D. requires that they be left with the end user
157. When the installation of an appliance constitutes a conversion from another form of energy to gas,
the installer must:
A. advise the user in writing of the procedures to followed in discontinuing the supply of the former
form of energy
B. remove all aspects of the previous installation
C. remove the electrical supply wiring from the panel
D. advise the previous energy supplier of the change

158. By covering a piece of wood with 1/4" (6 mm) of insulating millboard and 28 gauge (0.3mm) sheet
metal, a person may reduce the side clearance of an appliance that requires 6 inches (150 mm)
clearance from combustible material:
A. by 4 inches (100 mm)
B. to 4 inches (100 mm)
C. by 3 inches (75 mm)
D. to 3 inches (75 mm)

159. Where the heat exchanger of an appliance installed in a dwelling unit is found to be defective:
A. the appliance must be replaced
B. the heat exchanger must be repaired
C. the manufacturer must be notified
D. the heat exchanger must be replaced

160. Which of the following observations is true:

A. appliances must be installed with a minimum 24 inches (600 mm) clearance on the side(s) where
service is required
B. appliances must be installed with a minimum 24 inches (600 mm) clearance on every side
C. appliances installed outdoors must have a minimum 24 inches (600 mm) service clearance to the
burner access panel only
D. appliances must be installed with a minimum 36 inches (1 m) clearance on the side(s) where service is
required

161. When an appliance is installed on a roof, the minimum clearance between the appliance and the
edge of the roof shall be:
A. 4 feet (1.3 m)
B. 6 feet (2.0 m)
C. 8 feet (2.5 m)
D. 10 feet (3.0 m)
162. Instructing the user in the safe and correct operation of newly installed appliances or equipment is
the responsibility of the:
A. installation inspector
B. appliance manufacturer
C. installing contractor
D. appliance installer

163. Where premises are connected to a supply of gas for the first time, no person shall initially activate
an appliance until:
A. the fuel distributor has been notified
B. the fuel distributor has examined and accepted the installation
C. the owner has examined and accepted the installation
D. the Technical Standards and Safety Authority has examined and accepted the installation

164. Which of the following establishes minimum standards for the repair and servicing of gas
appliances:
A. Natural Gas and Propane Installation Code
B. Underwriters Laboratories of Canada
C. National Building Code
D. Canadian Standards Association
165. In a situation that constitutes an immediate hazard, a gas technician shall:
A. shut off the gas supply and inform the gas distributor of the situation immediately
B. shut off the gas supply and inform the Technical Standards and Safety Authority of the situation
immediately
C. shut off the gas supply and inform the Ontario Fire Marshal's Office of the situation immediately
D. shut off the gas supply and inform the Department of Labour of the situation immediately

166. A person who has to work on a boiler where asbestos has to be handled must refer to
the:
A. National Building Code
B. Occupational Health and Safety Act and Regulations
C. Technical Standards and Safety Act
D. Dangerous Goods Transportation Act and Regulations

167. Welded gas piping must comply with the:

A. National Building Code
B. Occupational Health and Safety Act and Regulations
C. Technical Standards and Safety Act
D. Dangerous Goods Transportation Act and Regulations
168. When manufacturer's instructions do not state the required clearances between combustible
materials and the base of a factory built chimney, the installer may refer to the:
A. Ontario Building Code
B. Occupational Health and Safety Act and Regulations
C. Technical Standards and Safety Act
D. Dangerous Goods Transportation Act and Regulations

169. A G.2 Technician:

A. may replace a defective residential automatic gas-fired water heater
B. must advise the user of the appliance that a plumber is required to replace the defective automatic
water heater
C. may recharge an add-on central air conditioner with refrigerant
D. may design and install the duct work required for a new installation

170. When a new appliance is to be installed where the municipality requires work permits and
inspections for every installation:
A. the installer may proceed with the installation and apply for the installation permit and the inspection
once the work has started
B. it is the responsibility of the home owner to secure the necessary permits and the inspections
C. it Is the responsibility of the installer to secure the necessary permits and the inspections
D. it is the responsibility of the municipality to inform the installer that an installation permit and an
inspection are required

171. The installation of gas-burning appliances in mobile homes shall be in accordance with:
A. CSA Standard Z240.4.1
B. CSA Standard Z240.4.2
C. CSA Standard B139
D. CGA Standard B149.2

172. The installation of gas burning appliances in recreational vehicles shall be in accordance with:
A. CSA Standard Z240.4.1
B. CSA Standard Z240.4.2
C. CSA Code B139
D. CSA Code B149.2

173. What is the largest size of propane cylinder manufactured:

A. 240 lbs. WC (109 kg)
B. 300 lbs. WC (136 kg)
C. 420 lbs. WC (190 kg)
D. 1,000 lbs. WC (454 kg)
174. When cylinders are being transported, they shall be secured:
A. vertically with chains and straps and a relief valve, in a well ventilated space
B. in an upright position with chains and straps and a relief valve, in a well-ventilated space
C. in an upright position, in a well-ventilated location with the relief valve communicating with the
vapour space only
D. in an upright position, in a well-ventilated location with the relief valve communicating with the liquid
space only

175. Where in the B149.1 code book will a person find the table required to size a propane tubing
system that is to be operated at a pressure of 11" w.c. (2.7 kPa), based on a pressure drop of 1" w.c.
(250 Pa):
A. Annex A, Table A.8
B. Annex A, Table A.10
C. Annex B, Table B.6
D. Annex B, Table B.7

176. What code or regulation applies to a propane supplied mobile home that has been converted to a
permanent home:
A. CAN/CSA-Z240.4.1
B. B149.1
C. B149.2
D. National Building Code

177. On a roof with a 12/12 pitch and no obstructions, the minimum vent height is:
A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet

178. On a roof with a 10/12 pitch, and a wall 4 feet high and 6 feet away from the vent opening, what is
the minimum vent height?
A. 2 feet
B. 3 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet

179. The Ontario Natural Gas Utilization Code is used to determine:

A. the best method to clean gas appliances.
B. the input of gas appliances.
C. regulations for installing gas appliances.
D. the gas pressure for gas entering a house.
180. All furnace appliance manufacturers' literature gives the name of the manufacturer, the:
A. physical dimensions, fan motor electrical resistance data, and the Btuh input.
B. Btuh input, fan size, CFM, voltage, fuse size, and the physical dimensions.
C. fuse size, Btuh output, amount of heat required to heat the building, and the size of wire.
D. size of chimney or vent riser, Btuh output, fuse size, and the physical dimensions.

181. Gas piping regulations are in section ___________ of the B149.2 propane code.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8

182. Individual equipment installation regulations are in section_____________ of the Ontario Natural
Gas Utilization Code(B149.1).
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7

183. Equipment service bulletins are normally issued by the:

A. local utility or fuel supplier.
B. manufacturer.
C. Canadian Gas Association.
D. Canadian Standards Association.

184. Safety directives and bulletins are published by:

A. the local utility or fuel supplier.
B. the manufacturer.
C. TSSA
D. the Underwriters' Laboratories of Canada

185. Which information is in both the Natural Gas and Propane code books?
A. responsibility of the installer, individual installation data for each type of appliance, clearances
from combustibles, piping practices, pipe sizing charts, venting tables
B. individual appliance installation instructions, clearances form other equipment, fan size, venting
tables, piping types, responsibility of fuel supplier
C. what an installer can do, who can weld 2 inch pipe, who can install underground piping, who can
install more than one appliance, clearances from combustibles
D. pipe sizing, regulator sizing, vent sizing, water pipe sizing, responsibility of the installer, piping
practices, clearances form combustibles
186.The word "symptom" is used manufacturers literature to describe:
A. how a piece of equipment functions.
B. problems arising because of equipment venting.
C. problems arising because of equipment wiring.
D. abnormal operation of the equipment.

187.To correct a symptom such as a fluctuating flame:

A. notify the local utility or fuel supplier.
B. contact the equipment supplier.
C. consult the manufacturer's check list.
D. exchange the appliance and contact the manufacturer.

188. The manufacturer's installation instructions and equipment packing list normally advise an installer
to have which of the following items to complete an installation?
A. hand tools, gas pressure test gauge, leak detector, stop watch, pipe threader, electrical wire,
thermostat wire, torch, solder, grease for joining pipe threads, heavy gauge venting material, and sheet
metal screws
B. gas pressure test gauge, leak detector, sheet metal screws, gas pipe, wiring, stop watch, manometer,
voltmeter, appropriate gauge vent material, CSA approved pipe joining compound, hand tools, and pop
rivets
C. hand tools, extension cord, drill, pipe wrenches, pipe threader, approved pipe joining compound,
sheet metal screws, a list of required pipe and fittings, a list of required wiring materials, a list of
required venting materials
D. hand tools, drill, pipe wrenches, wiring materials, duct tape for venting joints, approved pipe
joining compound, voltmeter, extension cord, manometer, stop watch, multimeter, gas pressure
gauge

189. A broken or dotted line on a manufacturer's wiring diagram normally indicates:

A. factory installed wiring.
B. a white conductor only.
C. an optional accessories.
D. field installed wiring.

190. Equipment specifications indicate mainly:

A. dimensions required to install the appliance, weight of the equipment, electrical characteristics,
size and location of the vent outlet, piping inlet size, model number
B. size of building required to accommodate the equipment, parts list, weight of equipment, installation
clearances, piping outlet size, serial number
C. address of installation, required appliance output, electrical characteristics, weight of equipment,
branch piping size, model number
D. physical dimensions required to install the appliance, weight of the equipment, amount of fuel
consumed, CO of the fuel consumed, electrical characteristics, size and location of the vent outlet
191. Drawings that show multiple views of an object for clarification are called:
A. pictorial drawings.
B. orthographic drawings.
C. schematic drawings.
D. rotational drawings.

192. The heat content of 1 cubic foot of propane is approximately:

A. 1,000 Btu
B. 2,500 Btu
C. 10,000 Btu
D. 25,000 Btu

193. Propane and natural gas are composed mainly of which of the following elements?
A. carbon and nitrogen
B. carbon and hydrogen
C. carbon and oxygen
D. carbon and sulphur

194. The flame temperature of propane is approximately:

A. 1500 °F (816°C)
B. 1500°C (2732°F)
C. 3650 °F (2010°C)
D. 3650°C (6602°F)

195. The ignition temperature of propane is:

A. 920 °F-1020 °F (493 F - 549°C)
B. 920°C-1020°C. (1688 F-1868 °F)
C. 1210 F-1260 °F.(654°C - 682°C)
D. 1210°C-1260°C. (2210°F – 2300°F)

196. The relative density Propane is:

A. equal to the relative density of air.
B. 2 times the relative density of air.
C. 1 1/2 times the relative density of air.
D. the relative density of air.

197. The boiling point of propane at atmospheric pressure is:

A. -44 °F (-42.2°C)
B. -10 °F (-23.3°C)
C. 0 F°F (-17.7°C)
D. 32 °F (0°C)
198. When propane changes from a liquid to a vapour, it expands and its volume increases by:
A. 5 times.
B. 17 times.
C. 185 times.
D. 270 times.

199. One imperial gallon of propane weighs:

A. 5.1 pounds.
B. 8.5 pounds.
C. 10.0 pounds.
D. 25.0 pounds.

200. When one pound of propane burns, it releases approximately:

A. 36,000 Btu.
B. 11,700 Btu.
C. 21,600 Btu.
D. 60,000 Btu.

201. The products of propane combustion are primarily.

A. H and H20 and heat.
B. H20 and CO and heat.
C. H20, CO2and heat.
D. H and C and heat.

202. As the temperature of liquid propane in a tank increases, the vapour pressure of the propane:
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. remains the same.
D. fluctuates.

203. The amount of C02produced per cubic foot of propane burned is:
A. 7.6 cu. ft.
B. 3.0 cu. ft.
C. 18.5 cu. ft.
D. 12.0 cu. ft.

204. The amount of air required to BURN 1 cubic foot (0.028 cu. m.) of propane is approximately:
A. 5.0 cu. ft. (0.14 cu. m.)
B. 10.0 cu. ft. (0.28 cu. m.)
C. 12.0 cu. ft. (0.34 cu. m.)
D. 25.0 cu. ft. (0.71 cu. m.)
205. The air found in the products of combustion after the complete combustion of natural gas or
propane is called:
A. primary air
B. secondary air
C. excess air
D. dilution air

206. Which of the following is toxic?

A. natural gas
B. propane gas
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon dioxide

207. Air that is mixed with fuel prior to ignition is called:

A. primary air.
B. secondary air.
C. excess air.
D. theoretical air.

208. Air that is mixed with fuel at the point of combustion and around the flame is :
A. primary air.
B. secondary air.
C. excess air.
D. theoretical air.

209. Carbon monoxide is a product of the incomplete combustion of:

A. nitrogen.
B. oxygen.
C. a hydrocarbon.
D. an inorganic compound.

210. Air is about:

A. 50% nitrogen and 50% oxygen
B. 60% nitrogen and 40% oxygen
C. 70% nitrogen and 30% oxygen
D. 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen

211. A luminous flame is caused by:

A. premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
B. not premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
C. a low ignition temperature.
D. the presence of carbon monoxide.
212. A Bunsen flame is caused by:
A. premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
B. not premixing air and fuel prior to combustion.
C. a low ignition temperature.
D. the presence of carbon monoxide.

213. The specific gravity of natural gas is:

A. greater than that of air.
B. less than that of air.
C. the same as that of propane.
D. greater than that of propane.

214. Natural gas and propane are composed mainly of:

A. carbon and nitrogen.
B. carbon and hydrogen.
C. carbon monoxide and nitrogen.
D. carbon dioxide and hydrogen.

215. The flame temperature of natural gas is approximately:

A. 2500 °F (1371°C)
B. 2500 °C (4532 °F)
C. 3500 °F (1927°C)
D. 3500°C (6332 °F)

216. The theoretical boiling point of natural gas at atmospheric pressure is:
A. -259°F (-162°C)
B. -44°F (-42°C)
C. 0°F (-18°C)
D. 32°F (0°C)

217. The products of complete combustion of natural gas and propane are primarily:
A. hydrogen, water (vapour), and heat.
B. carbon, carbon monoxide, and heat.
C. water (vapour), carbon dioxide, and heat.
D. hydrogen, carbon, and heat.

218. The amount of air required to burn 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately:
A. 5.0 cu. ft. (0.14 cu. m.)
B. 10.0 cu. ft. (0.28 cu. m.)
C. 12.0 cu. ft. (0.34 cu. m.)
D. 25.0 cu. ft. (0.71 cu. m.)
219. The odorant added to natural gas for detection purposes is:
A. oil
B. mustard.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. mercaptan.

220. What is the approximate ignition temperature of natural gas?

A. 800°F (427°C)
B. 1,200°F (649°C)
C. 2,100°F (1,149°C)
D. 3,000°F (1649°C)

221. The specific gravity of natural gas is:

A. 0.60
B. 1.00
C. 1.50
D. 2.00

222. The major constituents of flue gases after the proper combustion of natural gas in air are:
A. CO, H20, N2, excess air, and heat.
B. H20, N2, primary air, and heat.
C. C02, H20, N2, 02, and heat.
D. 02, CO, N2, H20, and heat.

223. The two main hydrocarbons which form natural gas are:
A. methane and ethane.
B. butane and propane.
C. ethane and butane.
D. methane and propane.

224. What theoretical gas to air ratio is necessary to achieve perfect combustion with an
atmospheric natural gas burner?
A. 1 part of natural gas to 10 parts of air
B. 5 parts of natural gas to 5 parts of air
C. 5 parts of natural gas to 15 parts of air
D. 20 parts of natural gas to 1 part of air

225. Carbon monoxide is produced through:

A. perfect combustion.
B. complete combustion with excess air present.
C. incomplete combustion.
D. incomplete mixing of theoretical air and primary air.
226. The products of complete combustion of natural gas in air are:
A. carbon monoxide, water vapour, and heat
B. carbon dioxide, water vapour, and heat
C. aldehydes, water vapour, and heat
D. nitrous oxide, water vapour, and heat

227. If a natural gas flame is adjusted to produce more than 10% carbon dioxide:
A. carbon monoxide may be produced.
B. combustion efficiency will decrease.
C. the flame will be very noisy and will lift off of the burner.
D. there will be little overall effect.

228. What could result if a flame is adjusted with too much primary air?
A. flame quenching
B. a luminous flame
C. flame lift
D. flame dilution

229. Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen are:

A. explosive gases.
B. inert gases.
C. neutralizers.
D. toxins.

230. Natural gas is 85% to 90%:

A. ethane.
B. pentane.
C. methane.
D. butane.

231. How much air is required to bum 1,000 cubic feet of natural gas per hour?
A. 100 cu.ft. (2.83 cu. m.)
B. 1,000 cu.ft. (28.3 cu. m.)
C. 10,000 cu.ft. (283.1 cu. m.)
D. 100,000 cu.ft. (2831.7 cu. m.)

232. One boiler horsepower is approximately:

A. 20,000 Btuh (5.8 kW).
B. 25,000 Btuh (7.3 kW).
C. 34,000 Btuh (10 kW).
D. 54,000 Btuh (15 kW).
233. Two undesirable products of incomplete combustion are:
A. CO and aldehydes.
B. CO and N2.
C. C02and aldehydes.
D. CO and heat.

234. Which substance is inert and passes through the combustion zone absorbing heat during the
combustion process?
A. carbon dioxide
B. ethyl mercaptan
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen

235. The relative density of liquid propane is approximately:

A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2.0

236. Propane is a:
A. manufactured gas.
B. hydrocarbon.
C. distillate fuel.
D. naphthalene fuel.

237. At 60 F (15.5°C) a pound of propane produces how many cubic feet of gas?
A. 2.12
B. 4.30
C. 8.50
D. 10.10

238. Propane shall have a distinctive odour content to ensure it is readily detectable in the atmosphere
down to concentrations of:
A. 5% of the lower explosive limit.
B. 20% of the lower explosive limit.
C. 35% of the upper explosive limit.
D. 50% of the upper explosive limit.
239.In a natural gas and air mixture, what are the approximate lower and upper limits of flammability?
A. 2% to 10%
B 4% to 14%
C. 5% to 40%
D. 10% to 20%

240. Carbon monoxide is:

A. an inert gas which is heavier than air.
B. an inert gas which is lighter than air.
C. a toxic gas which is combustible.
D. a toxic gas which is non-combustible.

241. The heat content of 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately:

A. 1,000 Btu
B. 2,520 Btu
C. 10,000 Btu
D. 25,000 Btu

242. A reading of 7.0" w.c. equals:

A. 1/4psig. (1.72 kPa)
B. 1/2 psig. (3.45 kPa)
C. 3/4psig. (5.17kPa)
D. 1 psig. (6.9kPa)

243. The boiling point of water is:

A. 0 °F (-18°C)
B. 68 °F (20°C)
C. 200 °F ( 93°C )
D. 212 °F (100°C)

244. By definition, the specific gravity of a gas (vapour) is:

A. the weight of the gas as compared to the weight of air.
B. the weight of the gas as compared to the weight of an equal volume of air.
C. the volume of the gas compared to the equal weight of an equal volume of air.
D. the volume of the gas as compared to the weight of air.

245. The specific gravity of propane vapour is:

A. greater than that of air.
B. less than that of air.
C. the same as that of natural gas.
D. less than that of natural gas.
246. The specific gravity of propane is:
A. 0.6" w.c.
B. 1" w.c.
C. 1.52" w.c.
D. 3.5" w.c.

247. The lower and upper flammable limits of propane are:

A. 2.0% - 11.0%
B. 2.4% - 9.5%
C. 4.0% - 14.0%
D. 5.5% - 14.5%

248. On a roof with a 12/12 pitch and no obstructions, the minimum vent height is:
A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet

249. On a roof with a 10/12 pitch, and a wall 4 feet high and 6 feet away from the vent opening, what is
the minimum vent height?
A. 2 feet
B. 3 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 10 feet

250. The Ontario Natural Gas Utilization Code is used to determine:

A. the best method to clean gas appliances.
B. the input of gas appliances.
C. regulations for installing gas appliances.
D. the gas pressure for gas entering a house.

251. All furnace appliance manufacturers' literature gives the name of the manufacturer, the:
A. physical dimensions, fan motor electrical resistance data, and the Btuh input.
B. Btuh input, fan size, CFM, voltage, fuse size, and the physical dimensions.
C. fuse size, Btuh output, amount of heat required to heat the building, and the size of wire.
D. size of chimney or vent riser, Btuh output, fuse size, and the physical dimensions.

252. Gas piping regulations are in section ___________ of the B149.2 propane code.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
253. Individual equipment installation regulations are in section_____________ of the Ontario
Natural Gas Utilization Code(B149.1).
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7

254. Equipment service bulletins are normally issued by the:

A. local utility or fuel supplier.
B. manufacturer.
C. Canadian Gas Association.
D. Canadian Standards Association.

255. Safety directives and bulletins are published by:

A. the local utility or fuel supplier.
B. the manufacturer.
C. TSSA
D. the Underwriters' Laboratories of Canada

256. Which information is in both the Natural Gas and Propane code books?
A. responsibility of the installer, individual installation data for each type of appliance, clearances
from combustibles, piping practices, pipe sizing charts, venting tables.
B. individual appliance installation instructions, clearances form other equipment, fan size, venting
tables, piping types, responsibility of fuel supplier.
C. what an installer can do, who can weld 2 inch pipe, who can install underground piping, who can
install more than one appliance, clearances from combustibles.
D. pipe sizing, regulator sizing, vent sizing, water pipe sizing, responsibility of the installer, piping
practices, clearances form combustibles.

257. The word "symptom" is used manufacturers literature to describe:

A. how a piece of equipment functions.
B. problems arising because of equipment venting.
C. problems arising because of equipment wiring.
D. abnormal operation of the equipment.

258. To correct a symptom such as a fluctuating flame:

A. notify the local utility or fuel supplier.
B. contact the equipment supplier.
C. consult the manufacturer's check list.
D. exchange the appliance and contact the manufacturer.
259. The manufacturer's installation instructions and equipment packing list normally advise an installer
to have which of the following items to complete an installation?
A. hand tools, gas pressure test gauge, leak detector, stop watch, pipe threader, electrical wire,
thermostat wire, torch, solder, grease for joining pipe threads, heavy gauge venting material, and sheet
metal screws.
B. gas pressure test gauge, leak detector, sheet metal screws, gas pipe, wiring, stop watch, manometer,
voltmeter, appropriate gauge vent material, CSA approved pipe joining compound, hand tools, and pop
rivets.
C. hand tools, extension cord, drill, pipe wrenches, pipe threader, approved pipe joining compound,
sheet metal screws, a list of required pipe and fittings, a list of required wiring materials, a list of
required venting materials.
D. hand tools, drill, pipe wrenches, wiring materials, duct tape for venting joints, approved pipe
joining compound, voltmeter, extension cord, manometer, stop watch, multimeter, gas pressure
gauge.

260. A broken or dotted line on a manufacturer's wiring diagram normally indicates:

A. factory installed wiring.
B. a white conductor only.
C. an optional accessories.
D. field installed wiring.

261. Equipment specifications indicate mainly:

A. dimensions required to install the appliance, weight of the equipment, electrical characteristics,
size and location of the vent outlet, piping inlet size, model number.
B. size of building required to accommodate the equipment, parts list, weight of equipment, installation
clearances, piping outlet size, serial number.
C. address of installation, required appliance output, electrical characteristics, weight of equipment,
branch piping size, model number.
D. physical dimensions required to install the appliance, weight of the equipment, amount of fuel
consumed, CO content of the fuel consumed, electrical characteristics, size and location of the vent
outlet.

262. Drawings that show multiple views of an object for clarification are called:
A. pictorial drawings.
B. orthographic drawings.
C. schematic drawings.
D. rotational drawings.

263. Wiring diagrams indicate which of the following?

A. supply voltage, wire size from panel, fuse size, internal wiring
264. A "bill of materials" is a:
A. list sent by the manufacturer as a check list of the materials delivered to the site.
B. purchase order copy indicating the materials which were ordered.
C. list indicating the materials required to complete an installation.
D. list of all the materials used manufacturing the equipment.

265. Mechanical drawings are used to:

A. give the building address, show the equipment location, piping layout, panel locations, duct sizing and
duct layout. structures, piping layout, and show equipment location
C. give the building address, indicate the building size, show its elevations, list the mechanical
equipment, and show its location, show all permits.
D. give the building address, show the owner's name, installer's name, permit numbers, the equipment
list and the warranty.

266. A residential central forced air gas furnace heating system works on the principle of drawing:
B. cold air from central areas of the house, then forcing this air across a heat exchanger and back into
the house.
C. cold supply air from central areas of the house then forcing it across a heat exchanger and back into
the house through the return air ducts.
D. conditioned air from a central area of the house then forcing it across a heat exchanger and
returning it back into the house through the supply air ducts.

267. What process takes place at the heat exchanger?

B. Return air is heated.
C. The combustion process takes place.
D. The flue gases are stored.

286. Boilers transfer heat to water through:

A. conduction.
B. radiation.
C. convection.
D. a latent process.

287. Air which is mixed with fuel in a burner prior to combustion is:
A. primary air.
B. secondary air.
C. excess air.
D. theoretical air.
288. Which type of pilot burns at low turndown throughout the entire time the burner is in service,
whether or not the main burner is firing, except that upon a call for heat, the fuel flow to the pilot is
automatically increased to produce a flame which will reliably ignite the main burner fuel?
A. turndown pilot
B. throttling pilot
C. expanding pilot
D. cycling pilot

289. Which type of pilot is automatically lighted each time there is a call for heat and burns during the
entire period that the main burners firing?
A. continuous pilot
B. interrupted pilot
C. intermittent pilot
D. non-cycling pilot

290. An orifice for a propane appliance with the same input as a natural gas appliance is:
A. the same size as the natural gas orifice.
B. smaller than the natural gas orifice.
C. larger than the natural gas orifice.
D. interchangeable with the natural gas orifice.

291. Spillage of flue gases at the appliance draft diverter is an indication of:
A. an updraft condition in the appliance venting system.
B. under firing.
C. normal operation.
D. a restriction in the venting system.

292. A yellow flame at an atmospheric burner could be the result of:

A. low gas pressure.
B. insufficient primary air.
C. pilot outage.
D. excessive primary air.

293. No one may initially activate a 300,000 Btuh input appliance connected to a piping system:
A. unless the installation is inspected by a G.1 technician or higher.
B. unless the installation is inspected by a G.2 technician or higher.
C. unless the installation is inspected by a G.3 technician or higher.
D. unless the installation is inspected by a GP technician or higher.
294. An indication of excessive primary air is a:
A. quenched flame.
B. lifting flame.
C. luminous flame.
D. yellow flame.

295. A draft hood will:

A. eliminate back drafts coming down a chimney.
B. eliminate negative pressure in a building.
C. prevent positive pressure in a building.
D. prevent down a draft from entering the appliance.

296. If upon reactivation of an appliance a G.3 technician notices flame roll out, the technician should:
A. remove and clean the burners.
B. turn off the gas supply and call a qualified technician to repair the problem.
C. remove and clean the vent system.
D. turn off the gas supply and lower the gas pressure before proceeding.

297. An appliance which incorporates a glow bar has a ______________ ignition system.
A. standing
B. spark
C. manual
D. hot surface

298. A Bunsen flame is characterized by its:

A. blue appearance
B. yellow appearance.
C. orange appearance.
D. green/orange appearance

268. The purpose of a burner in a forced air gas furnace is to:

A. ignite the gas.
B. mix the air and gas.
C. heat the combustion air so that it is lighter to allow it to flow out the exhaust
D. to direct the gas into the heat exchanger so that it can be mixed with air and ignited
269. The configuration of a "Hi Boy" forced air gas furnace has:
A. supply air exiting at the top and return air entering at the top.
B. return air entering at the top and supply air exiting at the bottom.
C. supply air entering at the bottom and return air exiting at the top.
D. supply air exiting at the top and return air entering at the bottom.

270. If the return and supply air plenum are both located on the top of the furnace, the furnace is a:
A. high boy.
B. low boy.
C. counter flow, or down flow.
D. horizontal.

271. Decorative appliances to be installed in vented fireplaces mounted on a grating system are usually
referred to as:
A. directed vented "wall furnaces".
B. vented room heaters.
C. fireplace.
D. gas logs.

272. Infrared heaters may not be used in:

A. warehouses.
B. loading docks.
C. occupied residences.
D. factories.

271. If the gas / air velocity is too great at the port of an atmospheric burner, the flame will have a
tendency to:
A. flash-back.
B. lift off the port.
C. be too large.
D. be too small.

274. Atmospheric burners are designed to operate under:

A. normal atmospheric pressure with low gas pressure.
B. high air pressure with low gas pressure.
C. atmospheric pressure with high gas pressure.
D. compressed air pressure with high gas pressure.
275. The purpose of the high limit switch found on many gas-fired appliances is to:
A. establish safe operating temperatures on start up.
B. regulate the plenum temperature above a preset minimum.
C. shut off the main gas valve should overheating occur.
D. turn on the fan motor to cool down the heat exchanger.

276. A bunsen-type flame is identified by its appearance as being:

A. a blue flame.
B. a yellow flame.
C. a green / orange flame.
D. an orange flame.

277. What would the likely cause be if orange flashes were evident in a natural gas flame?
A. dust burning in the flame.
B. carbon dioxide burning in the flame.
C. hydrogen burning in the flame.
D. nitrogen burning in the flame.

278. A noisy, lifting, blowing pilot flame is usually the result of:
A. the recirculation of combustion products.
B. excessive gas to the main burner.
C. a high percentage of H20 in the flue gases.
D. excessively high pilot gas pressure.

279. A G.3 technician is allowed to:

A. activate all new appliances.
B. initially activate appliances up to 400,000 Btuh input.
C. reactivate existing installations of appliances up to 400,000 Btuh input.
D. activate residential appliances only.

280. If an appliance is spilling at the draft hood, an unsupervised G.3 is permitted to:
A. leave the appliance as it is.
B. turn off the appliance and notify a superior.
C. repair the problem with the vent.
D. adjust the manifold pressure to reduce the overfiring.

281. Which method of heat transfer is used in an open barbeque?

A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. thermal
282. Which method of heat transfer is used in a standard gas-fired oven?
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D thermal

283. Which method of heat transfer is used in a clothes dryer?

A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. thermal

284. Air passing over a heat exchanger is heated by:

A. conduction
B. radiation
C. convection
D. thermal

285. Infrared and tube heaters transfer heat by:

A. conduction.
B. radiation.
C. convection.
D. a latent process.

286. Boilers transfer heat to water through:

A. conduction.
B. radiation.
C. convection.
D. a latent process.

287. Air which is mixed with fuel in a burner prior to combustion is:
A. primary air.
B. secondary air.
C. excess air.
D. theoretical air.
288. Which type of pilot burns at low turndown throughout the entire time the burner is in service,
whether or not the main burner is firing, except that upon a call for heat, the fuel flow to the pilot is
automatically increased to produce a flame which will reliably ignite the main burner fuel?
A. turndown pilot
B. throttling pilot
C. expanding pilot
D. cycling pilot

289. Which type of pilot is automatically lighted each time there is a call for heat and burns during the
entire period that the main burners firing?
A. continuous pilot
B. interrupted pilot
C. intermittent pilot
D. non-cycling pilot

290. An orifice for a propane appliance with the same input as a natural gas appliance is:
A. the same size as the natural gas orifice.
B. smaller than the natural gas orifice.
C. larger than the natural gas orifice.
D. interchangeable with the natural gas orifice.

291. Spillage of flue gases at the appliance draft diverter is an indication of:
A. an updraft condition in the appliance venting system.
B. under firing.
C. normal operation.
D. a restriction in the venting system.

292. A yellow flame at an atmospheric burner could be the result of:

A. low gas pressure.
B. insufficient primary air.
C. pilot outage.
D. excessive primary air.

293. No one may initially activate a 300,000 Btuh input appliance connected to a piping system:
A. unless the installation is inspected by a G.1 technician or higher.
B. unless the installation is inspected by a G.2 technician or higher.
C. unless the installation is inspected by a G.3 technician or higher.
D. unless the installation is inspected by a GP technician or higher.
294. An indication of excessive primary air is a:
A. quenched flame.
B. lifting flame.
C. luminous flame.
D. yellow flame.

295. A draft hood will:

A. eliminate back drafts coming down a chimney.
B. eliminate negative pressure in a building.
C. prevent positive pressure in a building.
D. prevent down a draft from entering the appliance.

296. If upon reactivation of an appliance a G.3 technician notices flame roll out, the technician should:
A. remove and clean the burners.
B. turn off the gas supply and call a qualified technician to repair the problem.
C. remove and clean the vent system.
D. turn off the gas supply and lower the gas pressure before proceeding.

297. An appliance which incorporates a glow bar has a ______________ ignition system.
A. standing
B. spark
C. manual
D. hot surface