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Cell Division MCQ Session Solved

The document is an assignment on the cell cycle and cell division, containing multiple-choice questions that cover various aspects of mitosis and meiosis, including DNA synthesis, chromosome behavior, and the phases of the cell cycle. It addresses concepts such as the stages of cell division, genetic variation, and the roles of specific enzymes and structures. The questions are designed to test knowledge on the processes and characteristics of cell division in biological organisms.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views6 pages

Cell Division MCQ Session Solved

The document is an assignment on the cell cycle and cell division, containing multiple-choice questions that cover various aspects of mitosis and meiosis, including DNA synthesis, chromosome behavior, and the phases of the cell cycle. It addresses concepts such as the stages of cell division, genetic variation, and the roles of specific enzymes and structures. The questions are designed to test knowledge on the processes and characteristics of cell division in biological organisms.

Uploaded by

asmitasahaviib9
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Biology Topic : Cell cycle and Cell division Assignment

Dr. U. Haldar, MBBS


70032 45909
Q.1 Compare the statements A and B
Statement A: Synthesis of DNA takes place in the S-phase of interphase.
Statement B: Every chromosome, during metaphase, has two chromatids.
Choose the correct description:
(1) Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B.
(2) Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B.
(3) Statement A is wrong and B is correct.
(4) Statement A is correct and B is wrong.

Q.2 Mitotic stages are not observed in –


(1) Cosmarium (2) E.coli
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Chlorella

Q.3 Visible expression of the genetic phenomenon of crossing over is called –


(1) Chiasmata
(2) Spiralization
(3) Recombination
(4) Condensation

Q.4 A bivalent of meiosis I consist of


(1) Four chromatids and two centromeres.
(2) Two chromatids and one centromeres.
(3) Two chromatids and two centromeres.
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres.

Q.5 Statement A: For a particular character in an individual, each gamete gets only one allele.
Statement B: Chromatids of a chromosome split (separate) and move towards opposite pole during
anaphase of mitosis.
(1) Both the statements are correct & B is the reason for A.
(2) Both the statements are correct & B is not the reason for A.
(3) Statement (A) is correct and statement (B) is wrong
(4) Statement (B) is correct and statement (A) is wrong

Q.6 The centrosome duplicates during the


(1) S – phase of cell cycle (2) G1 – phase of cell cycle
(3) G2 – phase of cell cycle (4) Prophase of cell cycle

Q.7 What is the function of the enzyme ‘recombinase’ during meiosis?


(1) Condensation of chromosomes
(2) Formation of synaptonemal complex
(3) Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on equatorial plate
(4) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids

Q.8 Meiosis results in


(1) Production of gametes
(2) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(3) Introduction of variation
(4) all of the above

Q.9 At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided
(1) Metaphase I (2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase I

Q.10 Meiosis occurs in organisms during


(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Vegetative reproduction
(3) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(4) None of the above
Q.11 Mitosis is charecterised by
(1) Reduction division
(2) Equal division
(3) Both reduction and equal division
(4) None of the above

Q.12 Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at


(1) G1 (2) G2
(3) G0 (4) S phase

Q.13 Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis?
(1) Chromatin condensation
(2) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
(3) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere.
(4) Crossing over
Q.14 Identify the wrong statement about meiosis
(1) Pairing of homologus chromosomes
(2) Four haploid cells are formed
(3) At the end of meiosis the number of chromosomes are reduced to half
(4) Two cycle of DNA replication occurs

Q.15 Select the correct statement about G1 phase


(1) Cell is metabolicaly inactive
(2) DNA in the cell does not replicate
(3) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
(4) Cell stops growing

Q.16 Select the incorrect statement regarding S phase of interphase.


(1) Occurs between G1 and G2
(2) DNA replicates in the nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(4) As DNA is doubled, number of chromosomes also
doubles

Q.17 Human cells in culture show a cell cycle to be completed in approximately


(1) 42 hours (2) 24 hours
(3) 24 minutes (4) 24 seconds.

Q.18 Yeast cell divides once in approximately every


(1) 90 minutes (2) 9 minutes
(3) 24 hours (4) 24 days

Q.19 Which one is the correct sequence of a cell cycle?


(1) G2  M  G1  S (2) S  G2  M  G1
(3) G1  S  G2  M (4) M  G1  S  G2

Q.20 The cells that do not divide further, exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called ____ of the cell cycle.
(1) G1 stage (2) G2 stage
(3) S stage (4) G0 stage

Q.21 Which typical stage is known for DNA replication?


(1) Metaphase (2) G1-phase
(3) S-phase (4) G2-phase

Q.22 Synthesis of histone proteins occurs in


(1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(3) anaphase (4) G0 phase
Q.23 One cycle of cell division in human cells takes 24 hours. Which phase occupies the maximum part of cell
cycle?
(1) Mitotic phase (2) Meiotic phase
(3) Interphase (4) Cytokinesis

Q.24 The DNA content of individual cells and the number of cells in each phase of a "cell cycle" can be
determined using flow cytometry. Which of the following combinations of "phase of a cell cycle and its
corresponding DNA content" can be considered normal?
(i) Diploid cells found in the Go or G1 phase.
(ii) Cells with twice the normal DNA content in the early M phase.
(iii) Cells with intermediate amounts of DNA in the S phase.
(iv) Cells with twice the normal DNA content in the G2 phase.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q.25 _______ is the best stage to count the number and study the morphology of chromosomes.
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

Q.26 At which stage of mitosis, the two daughter chromatids separate from each other, migrate towards the
opposite poles and are now referred to as chromosomes of the future daughter nuclei?
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase

Q.27 During anaphasic movements of chromosomes, ____ of each chromosome is/are towards the pole and ____
of the chromosome trail(s) behind.
(1) centromere, arms (2) arms, centromere
(3) chromatids, centromere (4) none of these

Q.28 Which of the following statements is not correct regarading colchicine?


(1) It prevents assembly of microtubules.
(2) It inhibits chromosome replication.
(3) It is an alkaloid.
(4) It is called as mitotic poison.

Q.29 What is true about telophase stage?


(1) Chromosomes lose their identity as discrete elements
(2) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
(3) Nuclear envelope, nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
(4) All of these

Q.30 Spindle usually persists in the form of ____ during ____ method of cytokinesis.
(1) phragmoplast, cleavage
(2) phragmoplast, cell plate
(3) cell plate, cell plate
(4) cell plate, cleavage

Q.31 The given diagram depicts cell plate method of cytokinesis in plant cells. Identify A, B and C.

A
B
C

(1) A-Daughter nucleus, B-Phragmoplast, C-Vesicles


(2) A-Daughter nucleus, B-Vesicles, C-Phragmoplast
(3) A-Parent nucleus, B-Vesicles, C-Phragmoplast
(4) A-Parent nucleus, B-Phragmoplast, C-Vesicles
Q.32 During cell division, the spindle fibres get attached to condensing chromosome at a highly differentiated
region, this region is called as
(1) chromomere (2) chromocentre
(3) centriole (4) kinetochore

Q.33 If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell
undergone?
(1) 512 (2) 10
(3) 1024 (4) 256

Q.34 Identify the structures indicated by labels (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) and select the correct option.
(ii)
(i) (iv)

(iii)

(1) (i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centriole,


(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromosome
(2) (i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centriole,
(iii)-Centromere, (iv)-Chromatid
(3) (i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centromere,
(iii)-Centriole, (iv)-Chromosome
(4) (i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centromere,
(iii)-Centriole, (iv)-Chromatid

Q.35 The separation of two chromatids of each chromosome at early anaphase is initiated by
(1) the interaction of centromere with the chromosomal fibres.
(2) the elongation of metaphasic spindle
(3) the force of repulsion between the divided kinetochores
(4) all of these

Q.36 Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption


(1) once it has entered the S phase
(2) once it has entered the G2 phase
(3) at any time during cell division activity
(4) none of these

Q.37 Crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for


(1) dominance of genes
(2) linkage between genes
(3) segregation of alleles
(4) recombination of alleles

Q.38 An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many PMCs must have been there to produce them?
(1) 1200 (2) 300
(3) 150 (4) 2400

Q.39 The members of a homologous pair of chromosomes


(1) are identical in size and appearance
(2) contain identical genetic information
(3) separate and move to opposite poles of the cell during
mitosis
(4) are found only in haploid cells.
Q.40 The figure given below shows a cell undergoing meiosis.
Chiasma

Which of the options below shows the next stage in the process?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Q.41 At what phase of meiosis are there two cells, each with separated sister chromatids that have been moved
to opposite spindle poles?
(1) Anaphase - II (2) Anaphase - I
(3) Telophase - II (4) Telophase - I

Q.42 If gametes are produced after reduction division, they are termed as
(1) coenogametes (2) mitogametes
(3) pseudogametes (4) meiogametes

Q.43 The process of crossing over is assisted by which of the following enzymes?
(1) Endonuclease (2) Polymerase
(3) Ligase (4) Both (1) and (3)

Q.44 Disjunction refers to


(1) the separation of homologous chromosomes at
anaphase - I
(2) the type of chromosomal aberration in which there is
loss of a part of a chromosome
(3) incompatibility in fungi and other thallophytes
(4) modification of gene action by a nonallelic gene.

Q.45 In animals meiotic division occurs during gamete formation. This gametic meiosis results in
(1) haplontic life cycle (2) diplontic life cycle
(3) diplohaplontic life cycle (4) none of these

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