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03-08-2025

1001CPA404016250008 PA

MENTAL ABILITY

SECTION-I

1) Arrange the following words in the sequence as you find them in dictionary according to the
alphabetical order and then choose the third word to the sequence?

(1) Invent
(2) Invitation
(3) Irritate
(4) Ignite

2) In the following question, find out how many such pairs of letters are there in the given word each
of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.
SHOULDER

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) More than four
(4) None of these

3) If all the letters of the word "HARASSMENT" are arranged in an alphabetical order then how
many letters will retain at their original position?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) More than three

4) How many vowels are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by
a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant ?
F4@J2E%MS4V9©AQR6UT3Z7#USB8VϕG$YC

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None of these

5)

In the following question, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the
most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below the question.
1. Child 2. Job 3. Marriage
4. Infant 5. Education

(1) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
(2) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
(3) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2
(4) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3

6) In the following question, arrange the given words in a meaningful sequence and then choose the
most appropriate sequence from amongst the alternatives provided below the question. (1)
Autumn
(2) Spring
(3) Monsoon
(4) Winter
(5) Summer

(1) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
(2) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
(3) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
(4) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4

7) How many such 7's are there which is not immediately preceded by 5 but is immediately followed
by either 2 or 3 ? 5 7 2 6 5 7 3 8 3 7 3 2 5 7 2 7 3 4 8 2 6 7 8

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

8) If the following numbers are arranged in descending order, what will be the middle digit of the
number which will be exactly in the middle? 729, 215, 575, 882, 661, 796, 631

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 8

9) In a class of 30, where girls are twice that of boys, Ashish ranked 13th from the top. If there are 5
girls ahead of Ashish, how many boys are after him in rank?

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 5

10) Shalini remembers that her father's birthday was certainly after eighth but before thirteenth of
March. Her sister Nitika remembers that their father's birthday was definitely after ninth but before
fourteenth of March. On which date of March was their father's birthday?
(1) 10th
(2) 11th
(3) 12th
(4) Data inadequate

SECTION-II

1) Ramesh left home for the bus stop 15 minutes earlier than usual. It takes 10 minutes to reach the
stop. He reached the stop at 9:40 AM. What time does he usually leave home for the bus stop?

(1) 9:30 AM
(2) 9:45 AM
(3) 9:55 AM
(4) None of these

2) In a row of boys, P is thirteenth from the left and Q is seventeenth from the right. If in this row P
is eleventh from the right then what is the position of Q from the left?

(1) 6th
(2) 7th
(3) 10th
(4) 12th

3) How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 421579368 each of which has as many
digits between them in the number as when they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) None
(2) one
(3) two
(4) three

4) If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, fifth, eighth and tenth letters of the
word DISTRIBUTE, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can
be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such words can be made, give 'M' as the
answer.

(1) M
(2) R
(3) E
(4) X

5) Rearrange the first four letters, in any way, of the word DECISION. Find how many words can be
formed by using all the four letters, starting with D?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) More than three

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) The period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet depends on

(1) the mass of the planet


(2) the radius of the planet
(3) the mass of the satellite
(4) Both (1) and (2)

2) A planet is moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest away

at a distance of r2. If V1 and V2 are the linear velocities at these points respectively, then the ratio
is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Gravitational potential energy between two masses becomes more negative when:

(1) They are moved farther apart.


(2) One mass is doubled
(3) Distance between them is doubled.
(4) They are moved to space

4) Two astronauts are floating in space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will

(1) move towards each other.


(2) move away from each other
(3) become stationary
(4) keep floating at the same distance between them.

5) The mass of the moon is and the radius is . The value of gravitational
field on the surface is

(1) 1.45 N/kg


(2) 1.55 N/kg
(3) 1.75 N/kg
(4) 1.62 N/kg

6) The gravitational potential energy is maximum at:

(1) infinity
(2) the earth's surface
(3) The centre of the earth
(4) Twice the radius of the earth

7) Which of the following graphs is true for the motion of a satellite revolving round the earth ? (‘T’
is the time period of a satellite and ‘r’ is the distance of the satellite from the centre of earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

A satellite is projected vertically upward from Earth with a speed of 8 km/s. What will happen to the
satellite?

(1) If will escape Earth's gravitational field completely.


(2) If will revolve around the Earth in a circular orbit.
(3) It will rise to a certain height and then fall back to Earth.
(4) It will remain stationary at that height.
9) Assertion : The pressure at the bottom of two tanks of different area of cross sections are equal if
they contain same liquid to same height.
Reason : Pressure of a liquid is independent of shape and width of the container.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

10) The gauge pressure of fluid in a pipe is 70 kPa and the atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa. The
absolute pressure of the fluid in the pipe is

(1) 7 MPa
(2) 30 kPa
(3) 170 kPa
(4) 10/7 kPa

SECTION-II

1) The height of dam is increased from 20 m to 40 m. By what factor does the force on the dam will
increases?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

2) A U-shaped tube open to the air at both ends contains some mercury. A quantity of water is
carefully poured into the left arm of the U-shaped tube until the vertical height of the water column

is 15 cm. Calculate the vertical distance h from the top of the mercury
3
(ρm = 13600 kg/m ) in the right-hand arm of the tube to the top of the water in the left-hand arm.

(1) 13.9 cm
(2) 1.1 cm
(3) 1.2 cm
(4) 15 cm

3) The time period of a satellite is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is
increased to 4 times. What will be the new time period?
(1) 20 hours
(2) 10 hours
(3) 80 hours
(4) 40 hours

4) A heavy object of weight 500 N is placed on a large platform of area 0.5 m2. This platform is
connected through a liquid of density 1200 kg/m3 to a smaller piston of area 0.05 m2. The height of
the liquid column is 0.4 m. What force F must be applied on the smaller piston to keep the system is
equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 50 N
(2) 290 N
(3) 26 N
(4) 740 N

5) A cubical block of side 10 cm floats at the interface of an oil and water. The pressure above that of
atmosphere at the lower face of the block is

(1) 200 N/m2


(2) 680 N/m2
(3) 400 N/m2
(4) 800 N/m2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Identify 'X' according to the given Venn diagram.

(1) Cutting of trees


(2) Respiration process
(3) Glowing of an electric bulb
(4) Burning of paper

2) Which of the following mixtures cannot be separated by using water as the solvent ?
(1) copper sulphate and sand
(2) sand and potash alum
(3) sand and sulphur
(4) sugar and sand

3) Which method is used to separate a mercury, ethanol mixture?

Melting Boiling Solubility


point/°C point/°C in water
Mercury –38 357 No
Ethanol –114 78 Yes
(1) Filtration
(2) Distillation
(3) Separating funnel
(4) Paper chromatography

4) Statement-I : In extraction of iron from its ore, the lighter slag is removed from the top and
molten iron from the bottom.
Statement-II : The separation of two immiscible liquids can be done by distillation.

(1) Both statements I & II are true and statement II is a correct explanation for statement I
(2) Both statements I & II are true and statement II is not a correct explanation for statement I
(3) Statement I is true and statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false and statement II is true

5) Find the incorrect Match

(1) Red blood cell from plasma - Centrifugation


(2) Ethanol and water - Fractional distillation
(3) Pieces of steel from engine oil - Chromatography
(4) Coffee grain from coffee solution - Filtration

6)

Column-A Column-B

(A) Sublimation (i) NaCl + Water

(B) Filtration (ii) Iodine + sand

(C) Evaporation (iii) Sawdust + water


(1) A → i, B → iii, C → ii
(2) A → iii, B → i, C → ii
(3) A → iii, B → ii, C → i
(4) A → ii, B → iii, C → i

7) Complete the following table on the basis of separation technique.


Difference Separation
S.No Mixture
in property technique
Mercury,
water
(1) and A B
mustard
oil
(2) C D Chromatography
Identify A, B, C and D
A B C D
Alcohol &
(1) Density Evaporation Volatility
water
Solubility Dyes in
(2) Dissolution Density
in water black ink
Separating Pigments Solubility
(3) Density
funnel of flower in water
Sand in
Solubility Fractional
(4) carbon Density
in water distillation
disluphide
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) The boiling points of some gases found in air are given below.

Gases Krypton Neon Nitrogen Oxygen

Boiling
–152 –246 –196 –183
Point (°C)
If liquid mixture is fractionally distilled, the order of gases distilled out(starting from first) is-
(1) Krypton, neon, nitrogen, oxygen
(2) Neon, nitrogen, oxygen, krypton
(3) Nitrogen, neon, oxygen, krypton
(4) Oxygen, neon, nitrogen, krypton

9) Crystallisation is a better process than evaporation because

(1) Crystallisation process takes lesser time.


(2) The soluble impurities do not get removed in the process of evaporation.
(3) Some solids are decomposed or charred on heating to dryness during evaporation.
(4) Both (2) & (3)

10) Which of the following are physical change?


(i) Heating of iodine crystals.
(ii) Burning of wood.
(iii) Melting of wax.

(1) Only (i) and (ii)


(2) Only (ii) and (iii)
(3) Only (i) and (iii)
(4) Only (ii)

SECTION-II

1) The suitable method is to separate the following components of the mixtures : (A) Two volatile
liquids with appreciable differences in boiling points.
(B) Two or more coloured constituents soluble in same solvent.

(A) → Fractional distillation


(1)
(B) → Decantation
(A) → Simple distillation
(2)
(B) → Evaporation
(A) → Simple distillation
(3)
(B) → Chromatography
(A) → Sublimation
(4)
(B) → Chromatography

2) In which of the following scenarios would centrifugation be the preferred method of separation?

(1) Separating sand from water.


(2) Separating cream from milk.
(3) Isolating colored pigments from ink.
(4) Evaporating saltwater.

3) Formation of water from hydrogen and oxygen is a kind of change

(1) physical change.


(2) chemical change.
(3) neither physical change nor chemical change.
(4) in which no energy is exchanged.

4) Four sample P, Q, R and S were analysed using paper chromatography to check the presence of
three different additives X, Y and Z.
The final chromatography is shown as -

Read the following statement carefully.


I. P contains three components out of which one is X.
II. S contains only one component which is X.
III. Q contains two components which are X and Z.
IV. R contains two components out of which one is Y.
The correct statements are -

(1) II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) I, II and IV
(4) All of these

5)

Riya, Amit, Aman, Seema were given some mixtures to be separated for their practical exam. The
mixtures given were oil and water; plant pigment; salt and water; ethanol and water respectively.
The separation techniques used by them were as follows:
• Riya used separating funnel to separate a mixture of oil and water.
• Amit separated plant pigments using chromatography.
• Aman separated salt and water by filtration.
• Seema separated ethanol and water by using separating funnel.
Who selected the techniques correctly?

(1) Riya, Aman


(2) Riya, Amit
(3) Aman, Amit
(4) All of them

BIOLOGY

SECTION-I

1) Smooth muscles are different from skeletal muscles in which of the following ways?

(1) Smooth muscles are under voluntary control.


(2) Smooth muscles show cross striations.
(3) Smooth muscles contract slowly and do not fatigue easily.
(4) Smooth muscles are attached to bones.

2) Match the following types of epithelium with their correct location or function:

Column A
Column B
(Epithelium
(Function/Location)
Type)

Found in urinary
Germinal
A 1 bladder, allows
epithelium
stretching

Brush Found in small


B border 2 intestine, increases
epithelium absorption
Covers ovary and
Transitional
C 3 testes involved in
epithelium
gamete formation
(1) A–3, B–2, C–1
(2) A–2, B–1, C–3
(3) A–1, B–3, C–2
(4) A–3, B–1, C–2

3) In the given diagram of epithelial tissue, identify the labelled part X and choose the incorrect

statement about it:

(1) The labelled part X connects epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue.
(2) The labelled part X is non-cellular and acts as a supportive barrier.
(3) The labelled part X is made up of actively dividing cells.
(4) The labelled part X contains collagen and glycoproteins for structural support.

4) Identify the labelled parts X, Z, and W in the connective tissue diagram shown:

(1) X – Macrophage, Z – Fibroblast, W – Collagen fibres


(2) X – Elastic fibres, Z – Adipocytes, W – Artery
(3) X – Macrophage, Z – Mast cells, W – Elastin fibres
(4) X – Collagen fibres, Z – Mast cell, W – Artery

5) Which of the following correctly identifies the tissues with the highest and lowest power of
regeneration in animals?

(1) Epithelial tissue – highest; Nervous tissue – lowest


(2) Muscular tissue – highest; Connective tissue – lowest
(3) Connective tissue – highest; Muscular tissue – lowest
(4) Nervous tissue – highest; Epithelial tissue – lowest

6) Which of the following statements about areolar connective tissue is correct?


A. Areolar connective tissue is a dense tissue with tightly packed collagen fibres.
B. It is found only in bones and provides structural rigidity.
C. It is found beneath the skin, surrounding blood vessels.
D. Areolar tissue helps to keep the organs in place.

(1) A and B
(2) A only
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

7) In the given diagram of the human arm, identify the labelled parts X and Y and choose the
incorrect statement about them.

(1) Part X is a ligament that connects bone to bone.


(2) Part Y is a tendon that connects muscle to bone.
(3) Ligaments are flexible but slightly elastic to allow joint movement.
(4) Tendons are highly elastic and stretchable to help in muscle movement.

8) In the given diagram of a blood vessel, a blood clot is observed. Which of the following agents
should be added to prevent or dissolve the clot inside the blood vessel?

(1) Antiheparin from basophils


(2) Heparin from basophils
(3) Serotonin from mast cells
(4) Calcium ions from monocytes

9) Observe the labelled diagram showing part X on a camel and part Y in a human. Which of the
following statements regarding X and Y is incorrect?

(1) Part X stores fat that helps the camel survive in extreme desert conditions.
Part Y is composed of semi-rigid and flexible connective tissue that supports the structure of the
(2)
ear.
(3) Both parts X and Y are made of solid, rigid and strong connective tissue.
(4) Part Y contains a matrix secreted by chondrocytes which lie in groups of 2 or 3 within lacunae.

10) Which of the following are correct examples of green manure plants used to improve soil health?

(1) Sunhemp and Dhaincha


(2) Mustard and Wheat
(3) Maize and Rice
(4) Pea and Tomato

SECTION-II

1) The given diagram shows a method of crop variety improvement where genes from a bacteria are
inserted into cotton. Which of the following statements about this method are true?

I. The plant from which a foreign gene has been introduced is called a transgenic plant.
II. This method involves genetic modification, which is a modern technique of crop improvement.
III. This method uses chemicals or radiation to cause imprecise alterations to the plant’s genetic
material.
IV. Bt stands for Bacillus thuringiensis.

(1) Only I and II


(2) Only III and IV
(3) I, II and III
(4) Only II and IV
2) Observe the table below showing different plant nutrients and their sources. Which option shows
the correct classification of nutrients?

Nutrients
Macronutrients Micronutrients
from
from Soil from Soil
Air/Water
Nitrogen,
Boron, Chlorine,
Phosphorus,
Carbon, Copper, Iron,
Potassium,
(1) Hydrogen, Manganese,
Calcium,
Oxygen Molybdenum,
Magnesium,
Zinc
Sulphur
Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus,
(2) Hydrogen, Potassium, Zinc, Sulphur,
Oxygen Copper Magnesium
Nitrogen,
Phosphorus,
Carbon, Boron, Chlorine,
Potassium,
(3) Hydrogen, Iron,
Calcium,
Oxygen Magnesium, Zinc
Magnesium,
Sulphur
Boron,
Nitrogen,
Oxygen, Manganese,
(4) Phosphorus,
Zinc, Iron Calcium,
Potassium
Magnesium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of the following are major objectives of crop variety improvement?


A. Higher yield
B. Resistance to biotic and abiotic stresses
C. Improved quality
D. Early and uniform maturity
E. Water pollution control
Choose the correct set of options:

(1) A, C, D, E
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) D and C only
(4) B, C, D, E

4) Match the Following Cell/Tissue with their Function/Feature:-

Column A Column B
(Cell/Tissue) (Function/Feature)

Helps in immune
A Neuron 1 response and
transport of fats
Involved in blood
B Basophil 2
clotting

Contains
intercalated discs
C Neutrophil 3
for rhythmic
contractions

Performs
Cardiac
D 4 phagocytosis to fight
Muscle
infections

Transmits electrical
E Lymph 5
impulses

Releases histamine
F Platelets 6 during allergic
reactions
(1) A-4, B-6, C-1, D-3, E-2, F-5
(2) A- 5, B-6, C-4, D-3, E-1, F-2
(3) A-5, B-4, C-6, D-3, E-2, F-1
(4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-5, E-2, F-6

5) Kathakali is a classical dance form in which performers convey emotions and narrative through
intricate facial expressions. These dynamic expressions change continuously as the story progresses.

Which type of tissue is primarily responsible for enabling these facial movements?

(1) Epithelial tissue- Columnar epithelium


(2) Connective tissue- Non striated muscles
(3) Muscular tissue- Striated muscles
(4) Muscular tissue- Non striated muscles

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) In the given figure (not drawn to scale), ABCD is a quadrilateral. If AE || DC, BE || AD and AE
intersects BC at F, then find ∠EBF.

(1) 43°
(2) 72°
(3) 51°
(4) 27°

2) If bisectors of ∠A and ∠B of a parallelogram ABCD intersect each other at P, bisectors of ∠B and


∠C at Q, bisectors of ∠C and ∠D at R and bisectors of ∠D and ∠A at S, then PQRS is a

(1) Rectangle
(2) Rhombus
(3) Square
(4) None of these

3) In a triangle ABC, P, Q and R are the midpoints of side BC, CA and AB respectively. If AC = 21
cm, BC = 29 cm and AB = 30 cm, then perimeter of the quadrilateral ARPQ is b cm. The value of

is

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 52
(4) 51

4) Find ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R + ∠S + ∠T.

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 180°

5) If angles of a quadrilateral are (x)°, (3x – 40)°, (2x)° and (4x + 20)°. The measure of each angle of
the quadrilateral will be
(1) 38°, 74°, 76°, 172°
(2) 100°, 79°, 118°, 63°
(3) 110°, 84°, 106°, 60°
(4) 75°, 89°, 128°, 68°

6) ABCD is a parallelogram. 'P' is a point on AD such that AP = AD and Q is a point on BC such

that CQ = BC. Then the quadrilateral AQCP formed is

(1) parallelogram
(2) rhombus
(3) rectangle
(4) square

7) In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. PO and QO are respectively, the bisectors of ∠P and

∠Q. Line LOM is drawn parallel to PQ. Then PL is equal to

(1) PQ
(2) QR
(3) QM
(4) OQ

8) ABCD is parallelogram. The diagonals AC and BD intersect at a point "O". If E, F, G and H are the
mid-points of AO, DO, CO and BO respectively, then the ratio of (EF + FG + GH + HE) to (AD + DC
+ CB + BA) is

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

9) In the given figure, sides of a ΔABC are 13 cm, 15 cm and 14 cm, PBC is a right angled triangle
right angled at P in which BP = 9 cm. Find the area of shaded region.

(1) 20 cm2
(2) 15 cm2
(3) 30 cm2
(4) 25 cm2

10) A square is inscribed in a circle of radius 7 cm. Find area of the square.

(1) 98 cm2
(2) 147 cm2
(3) 196 cm2
(4) 49 cm2

11) If in fig. ABCD is a parallelogram, AL ⊥ CD and AM ⊥ BC. If AB = 12cm, AD = 8 cm and AL =

6cm, then AM = ______.

(1) 15 cm
(2) 9 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 12 cm

12) A pond 100 m in diameter is surrounded by a circular grass walk 2 m wide. How many square
meters of grass is there on the walk?

(1) 98 π
(2) 100 π
(3) 204 π
(4) 202 π

13) The radius of a circle is so increased that its circumference increases by 5%. Then the area of
the circle will increase by :

(1) 10%
(2) 25%
(3) 10.25%
(4) 10%

14) If area of a parallelogram with sides "ℓ" and "b" is "A" and that of a rectangle with sides "ℓ" and
"b" is "B", then

(1) A < B
(2) A = B
(3) A > B
(4) None of these

15) A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26
cm. what is the area of the circle.

(1) 88 cm2
(2) 154 cm2
(3) 616 cm2
(4) 1250 cm2

16) The perimeter of an isosceles right angled triangle is 16(2 + ) cm, then area of this isosceles
triangle is

(1) 255 cm2


(2) 128 cm2
(3) 54 cm
(4) 56 cm2

17) Fill in the blanks.


(i) The triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of an isosceles triangle is __P__.
(ii) The triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of a right triangle is __Q__.
(iii) The figure formed by joining the mid-points of consecutive sides of a quadrilateral is __R__.

P Q R

A. Isosceles Scalene Parallelogram

B. Equilateral Equilateral Trapezium

C. Isosceles Right triangle Parallelogram

D. Equilateral Right triangle Trapezium


(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

18) A convex polygon has 44 diagonals. The number of its sides is_____
(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13

19) The ratio of the measure of an interior angle of a regular octagon to the measure of its exterior
angle is

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 4

20) In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and E is the mid-point of DF. Also, DE and AB

produced such that they intersect at F. Then,

(1)

(2) AF = 2AB
(3) AF = 3AB
(4) AF2 = 2AB2

SECTION-II

1) ABCD is a trapezium in which AB||CD and P, Q are the mid-points of the diagonals AC and BD

respectively. Then PQ is equal to

(1)
(AB)

(2)
(CD)

(3)
(AB – CD)

(4)
(AB + CD)
2) In a rectangle ABCD diagonals intersect at 'O'. OP ⊥ AB and OQ ⊥ BC and OP = 10 cm, OQ = 20
cm then perimeter of rectangle ABCD = ______

(1) 50 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 90 cm
(4) 120 cm

3) In the given figure, ABCD is a trapezium with parallel sides AB = a cm, and CD = b cm. E and F
are the mid-points of non parallel sides. What is the ratio of ar(EFCD) and ar(ABFE)?

(1) b : a
(2) (a + 3b) : (3a + b)
(3) (1 + 3b) : (3a + b)
(4) (2a + b) : (3a + b)

4) In the given figure, ABCD is a trapezium in which, AB = 7 cm, AD = BC = 5 cm, DC = x cm, and
distance between AB and DC is 4 cm. The area of trapezium ABCD is ℓ sq.cm. The value of ℓ/8 is

(1) 3
(2) 40
(3) 4
(4) 5

5) A garden is 24 m long and 14 m wide. There is a path 1 m wide outside the garden along its sides.
If path is to be constructed with square marbles tiles 20 cm × 20 cm, find the number of tiles
required to cover the path.

(1) 1800
(2) 2000
(3) 200
(4) 2150

6) A park, in the shape of quadrilateral ABCD, has ∠C = 90°, AB = 9 m, BC = 12 m, CD = 5 m and


AD = 8 m. How much area does it occupy ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The sides of a triangular field are 51 m, 37 m and 20 m. Find the number of flower beds that can
be prepared, if each bed is to occupy 9 m2 of space.

(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 34
(4) 33

8) A cow is tied with a rope of length 14 m at the corner of a rectangular field of dimensions 20 m ×
16 m. The area of the field in which the cow can graze is :

(1) 77 m2
(2) 140 m2
(3) 90 m2
(4) 154 m2

9) The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 60 cm and its base is 15 cm. The approximate area of the
triangle is

(1) 160.75 cm2


(2) 159.09 cm2
(3) 156.75 cm2
(4) 195.72 cm2

10) In the given figure, ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD, then AC2 + BD2 is equal to

(1) AD2 + BC2 – 2AB. CD


(2) AD2 + BC2 + 2AB. CD
(3) AD2 – BC2 + 2AB. CD
(4) AD2 – BC2 – 2AB. CD
ANSWER KEYS

MENTAL ABILITY

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A. 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 1 3 4

SECTION-II

Q. 11 12 13 14 15
A. 2 2 4 1 1

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
A. 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 3

SECTION-II

Q. 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 1 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 3

SECTION-II

Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

SECTION-I

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
A. 3 1 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 1
SECTION-II

Q. 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 1 2 2 3

MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 1 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 2 2 2

SECTION-II

Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 2
SOLUTIONS

MENTAL ABILITY

1) Ignite → Invent → → Irritate

2)

3) Given word : HARASSMENT


Alphabetical order : AAEHMNRSST
Thus, there are two letters 'A' and 'T' which retain their original position.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

4) Vowels preceded by symbol and followed by consonant.


Following are the pairs.
© A Q, # U S,

5) The meaningful sequence of the given words are


4. Infant → 1. Child → 5. Education → 2. Job → 3. marriage

6)

The words are the different seasons on earth.


So, the correct sequence is 2, 5, 3, 1, 4.

7) In the given series,


57265738373257273482678, there are 2 such 7’s that are not immediately followed by 5 but
are immediately followed by 2 or 3. So, the answer is 2.

8) Here, the descending order of numbers is as follows:


882, 796, 729, 661, 631, 575, 215
The middle number here is 661 and its middle digit is 6.
So, the answer is 6.

9) Let the number of boys be x


Then number of girls = 2x
∴ x + 2x = 30 or 3x = 30 or x = 10
So, number of boys = 10 and number of girls = 20
Number of students behind Ashish in rank (30 – 13) = 17
Number of girls ahead of Ashish in rank = 5
Number of girls ahead Ashish in rank = (13 – 5) = 8 [including Ashish]
∴ Number of boys behind Ashish in rank = (10 – 8) = 2
So, the answer is 2.

10) According to Shalini, the father’s birthday falls on one of the days among 9th, 10th, 11th and
12th March. According to Nikita, the father’s birthday falls on one of the days among 10th, 11th,
12th and 13th March. The days common to both the groups are 10th, 11th and 12th December. So,
the father’s birthday falls on any one of these days. So, the answer is - data inadequate.

11) He reached bus stop at 9:40 AM and as mentioned, it takes 10 mins for him to reach there,
which implies that he left home at 9:30 AM As stated, he left home 15 mins earlier than his
normal time, which means normally he used to leave at 9:45 AM. So, the answer is 9:45 AM.

12) Clearly, P is 13th from the left and 11th from the right end of the row. So, number of boys in
the row =(12 + 1 + 10) = 23. Now, Q is 17th from the right. Number of boys to the left of Q =
(23 – 17) = 6.
Hence, Q is 7th from the left end of the row.
So, the answer is 7th.

13) Hence the required pairs are 49, 12 and 16

14) Here, in the given word DISTRIBUTE, the third, fifth, eighth and tenth letters are
respectively S, R, U, E.
The meaningful word that can be formed from these alphabet are SURE and USER.
So, more than one such word can be made therefore the answer is M.
So, the answer is M.

15) The first four letters are D, E, C, I and only word DICE can be formed.

PHYSICS

16) Time period of a satellite does not depend on the mass of the planet, the radius of the
planet.

Here

17) From kepler's 2nd law


v1r1 = v2r2

18) U =
i.e., greater the masses more negative the energy, closer the bodies more negative the energy
and if distance increases energy become less negative.

19) Both the astronauts are in the condition of weightlessness. Gravitational force between
them pulls towards each other. Hence Astronauts move towards each other under mutual
gravitational force.

20)

21) Ep = , when r → ∞, Ep = 0 (max.)

22)

Conceptual

23)

Given speed = 8 km/s


Escape velocity = 11.2 km/s
Since 8 < 11.2, the satellite will not escape Earth's gravity.

24) As pressure depends upon height of the column in which liquid filled and simultaneously
pressure is independent of shape and width of the container in which liquid filled.

25) Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + atmosphere pressure


100 + 70 = 170 Pa

26)

Force ∝ H2
when F changes from 20 m to 40 m

27)
1000 × 10 × 15 = 13600 × 10 (15 – h) h 13.97 cm

28) From kepler's law


T2 ∝ R3.
Initial time period T1 = 5 hours.
Let initial separation R1 = S
Given final separation R2 = 4 S
final new time period T2

Solving we get T2 = 40 hours.

29)
Pn is Pr due to liq. column
Pn = pgh
Pn = 1200 × 9.8 × 04
= 4704 Pa
For system to be in equilibrium
PS = PL + Ph
PSmall = 1000 + 4704 = 5704
∴ Force on smaller piston is
F = Psmall × Asmall
= 5704 × 0.05 = 285.2 N

30)
Pressure at lower face of block = Pressure at lower face of block
= Pressure due to oil + Pressure due to water
= roil g hoil + rw g hw
= (0.6 x 103 x 10 x 0.1) + (1 x 103 x 10 x 0.02)
= 800 N/m2

CHEMISTRY

31)

Cutting of trees
32)

sand and sulphur

33)

Mercury-ethanol is an immiscible liquid mixture. Hence, it can be separated by a separating


funnel.
(i) Distillation is the process of heating a liquid to form vapour, and then cooling the vapour to
get back the liquid e.g., salt water. Both salt and water can be recovered by this process.
(ii) Fractional distillation is the process of separating two or more miscible liquids based on
the difference in their boiling points. Mercury-ethanol is an immiscible liquid mixture which
cannot be separated either by distillation or fractional distillation.

34)

In extraction of iron from its ore, the lighter slag is removed from the top and molten iron from
the bottom.
The separation of two immiscible liquids can be done by distillation.

35) Pieces of steel from engine oil can be separated by Magnetic separation

36)

A → ii, B → iii, C → i

37)

A-Density, B-Separating funnel, C-Pigments of flower, D-Solubility in water.

38)

Liquid mixture which is at –200°C is fractionally distilled then the order of gases distilled
out(starting from first) is –
Neon, nitrogen, oxygen, krypton

39)

The soluble impurities do not get removed in the process of evaporation.


Some solids are decomposed or charred on heating to dryness during evaporation.

40)

(i) Heating of iodine crystals.


(iii) Melting of wax.
41)

(A) → Simple distillation


(B) → Chromatography

42)

Separating cream from milk.

43) Chemical change as chemical reaction takes place between hydrogen and oxygen.

44) Q contains two components in which only one component of Q match with X.

45)

To separate a mixture of oil and water, separating funnel is used and plant pigment can be
separated by using chromatography.

BIOLOGY

46)

Smooth muscles contract slowly and do not fatigue easily.

47) A–3, B–2, C–1


Germinal epithelium: Covers the ovary and testes, but doesn't produce germ cells.
Brush border epithelium: Has microvilli, found in the intestine for absorption.
Transitional epithelium: Found in bladder and ureters, stretches to hold urine.

48)

The labelled part X is made up of actively dividing cells.

49)

X – Macrophage, Z – Fibroblast, W – Collagen fibres

50)  Epithelial tissue has the highest power of regeneration due to rapid cell division (e.g.,
skin, intestinal lining).
 Nervous tissue (especially neurons in the brain and spinal cord) has the lowest
regenerative ability.

51) Areolar connective tissue is a loose connective tissue made up of a semi-fluid matrix
containing fibroblasts (fibre-producing), mast cells (involved in inflammation), and
macrophages (engulf pathogens).
It is found layers, beneath epithelial around blood vessels, and between muscles, providing
support, flexibility, and defense.

52)  X = Ligament → connects bone to bone.


 Y = Tendon → connects muscle to bone.
 While ligaments are slightly elastic, tendons are tough and inelastic, meant to transmit force,
not stretch.
 Option D is incorrect because tendons are not highly elastic.

53)  Heparin is a natural anticoagulant that prevents the formation of blood clots inside blood
vessels.
 Fibrin helps in clot formation, not prevention.
 Serotonin is vasoconstrictor.
 Calcium ions are required in the clotting, hence promote clotting and not prevent it.

54)  Part X (Camel’s hump): Contains adipose tissue, storing fat as an energy reserve.
 Part Y (External ear): Made of elastic cartilage, a type of semi-rigid connective tissue that
allows flexibility.
 Chondrocytes, the cartilage cells, lie in lacunae and secrete the cartilage matrix —
accurately described in option D.

55) Sunhemp and Dhaincha

56) A plant that carries a foreign gene is called a transgenic plant.


Genetic modification (GM) is a modern and precise method of crop improvement.
The use of chemicals or radiation refers to mutation breeding, not GM.

57)

58)

A. Higher yield
B. Resistance to biotic and abiotic stresses
C. Improved quality
D. Early and uniform maturity

59) A- 5, B-6, C-4, D-3, E-1, F-2

60)

Muscular tissue- Striated muscles


MATHEMATICS

61) Since AE||DC, AD is transversal


⇒ ∠EAD + 110° = 180° [Co-interior angles]
⇒ ∠EAD = 70°
And ∠AFC + 97° = 180°
∠AFC = 180° – 97
⇒ ∠AFC = 83°
∠AFC = ∠BFE = 83° [Vertically opposite angles]
Also BE||AD and AE is transversal [Given]
⇒ ∠EAD = ∠BEF = 70° (Alternate angles)
In ΔBEF
∠BEF + ∠BFE + ∠EBF = 180°
83° + 70° + ∠EBF = 180°
⇒ ∠EBF = 180° – 153°
⇒ ∠EBF = 27°

62)
For parallelogram ABCD,
2x + 2y = 180°
⇒ x + y = 90°
In ΔAPB,
x + y + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ ∠APB = 180° – 90° = 90°
Similarly, In ΔDRC, ∠DRC = 90°
∠CQB = 90° and ∠ASD = 90°
⇒ ∠PQR = ∠CQB = 90°
and ∠PSR = ∠ASD = 90°
Since all angles of quadrilateral PQRS are 90° so this quadrilateral is rectangle.

63) By mid point theorem →

QR = BC =
PR = AC =

PQ = AB = 15
Perimeter of = AR + PR + PQ + AQ

b = 15 + + 15 +
b = 51

so value of +1= +1 = 4

64)
From figure in ΔPAE
∠PAE = ∠S + ∠Q .......(1) (Exterior angle)
∠PEA = ∠T + ∠R (Exterior angle)
∠PAE + ∠PEA + ∠P = 180° (Angle sum property)
⇒ ∠S + ∠Q + ∠T + ∠R + ∠P = 180°
⇒ ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R + ∠S + ∠T = 180°

65) As per angle sum property, we know:


x + 3x – 40° + 2x + 4x + 20° = 360°
⇒ 10x – 20° = 360°
⇒ x = 38°
Hence, angles are
x = 38°
3x – 40° = 3 (38°) – 40° = 74°
2x = 2(38°) = 76°
4x + 20° = 4(38°) + 20° = 172°

66)

AP = AD [given] ……(i)

CQ = BC [given] ……(ii)
AD = BC [ABCD is parallelogram and opposite sides are equal]
From (i) and (ii) AP||CQ
AP = CQ
AQCP is quadrilateral with one pair of opposite sides are parallel and equal.
Hence, AQCP is a parallelogram

67) PQRS is a parallelogram.


PQ || RS, PS || QR
And
LOM || PQ (Given)
LP || QM
So, PQML is a parallelogram.
⇒ PQ = LM and PL = QM

68) using Mid-point theorem

FG =

Adding all the equation, we get

69) In ΔBPC, BC2 = BP2 + CP2 (By Pythagoras theorem)


(15)2 = (92) + CP2
⇒ CP2 = 225 – 81
⇒ CP = ⇒ CP = 12

So area of ΔBPC × BP × CP × 9 × 12 = 54 cm2

Now In ΔABC;
Area of ΔABC
So Area of shaded region = Area of ΔABC – Area of ΔBPC = 84 – 54 = 30 cm2

70)

Let the side of the square be ‘a’ cm.


A square when inscribed in a circle then the diameter of the circle must be diagonal of the
square.
Therefore,
Diagonal of square = =
Now,
Diameter of the circle = 2 × 7 = 14 cm
⇒ = 14

a=
a= cm
Therefore
Area of square = a2
=( cm)2
2
= 98 cm

71) Area of || ABCD = Area of || ABCD


Base × height = Base × height
CD × AL = BC × AM
AB × AL = AD × AM
12 × 6 = 8 AM

= AM
AM = 9cm

72) Area of grass on the walk = π[(52)2 – (50)2]


= 204π
73) Let original radius = 'r' units
original area = πr2 sq. units.
Increase in circumference of circle = 5%
Increase in radius is also = 5%

then New radius = units

New area = sq. units

% Increasing in area =

= = 10.25%

74) Area of parallelogram = ar(||gm ABCD) = b × h


ar(rectangular PQRS) = ℓ × b
here, ℓ > h (∵ ℓ is hypotenuse in ||gm ABCD which is greater)
So, ar(rect. PQRS) > ar(||gm ABCD)
⇒A<B

75)

The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm.


Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 (18 + 26) = 88 cm
Circumference of circle = 88 cm.

2πr = = 88
r = 14 cm

Area of circle = πr2 = = 616 cm2

76)
Consider right angled triangle (fig)
Using Pythagoras theorem
AB2 + BC2 = AC2
a2 + a2 = AC2
AC = a cm
Perimeter = a + a + a
(2 + ) (a) = ( 2 + ) 16
a = 16 cm

Area of triangle ABC = × AB × BC

=
= 128 cm2

77) (i) Let ΔABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB = AC

ΔPQR is formed by joining mid points of ΔABC.


By mid point theorem

PQ = AC and QR = AB, PR = BC
But AC = AB
⇒ PQ = QR
So ΔPQR is an isosceles triangles.
(ii) Let ΔDEF is right angled Δ in which ∠E = 90°

By mid point theorem,

LM||EF and LM = EF .....(1)

and MN||DE and MN = DE ......(2)


By (1) & (2), we have
LM||EN and MN||LE
So, LMNE is parallelogram.
⇒ ∠DEF = ∠LMN = 90°
So ΔLMN is right angle Δ.
(iii) In ΔABC, By mid point theorem
PQ||AC and PQ = AC ......(1)
Similarly, In ΔADC

RS || AC and RS = AC .......(2)
By (1) & (2)
PQ || RS and PQ = RS
⇒ PQRS is parallelogram
So, ans. (3)

78)
n2 – 3n – 88 = 0
n2 – 11n + 8n – 88 = 0
n(n – 11) + 8(n – 11) = 0
n = –8, n = 11 (Rejected)

79) Each interior angle of regular octagon

= = 135°

Each exterior angle = = 45°

Ratio

80)
In ΔADF
E is the mid-point of FD & EB||DA as ABCD is a parallelogram.
So, by mid-point theorem
B will also be the mid-point of AF
Hence, AB = BF
AF = 2AB

81)
Join DP and produce it such that it intersect AB at R.
In ΔARP and ΔPDC
∠1 = ∠2 (Alternate angles)
∠APR = ∠DPC (Vertically opposite angles)
AP = PC (P is mid point of AC)
By ASA rule ΔAPR ≅ ΔCPD
DP = PR, CD = AR (By CPCT) .....(1)
we can say P is also mid point of DR.
In ΔDRB, P and Q are mid points of DR and DB respectively

⇒ PQ||RB and PQ = RB (By mid point theorem)

PQ = (AB–AR)

PQ = (AB–CD) from (1)

82) BC = AD = 2PO = 20 cm
AB = DC = 2 × OQ = 40 cm
Perimeter of rectangle = 2(AB +BC)

= 120 cm

83)
∴ E & F are mid points of AD & BC
∴ h1 = h2

Area of trapezium ABFE = (a + x) h1

Area of trapezium EFCD = (b + x) h2

Area of trapezium ABCD = (a + b) (h1 + h2) = (a + b) h


Now,

(a + b) h = (a + x) h1 + (b + x) h2
(a + b) h = ah1 + xh1 + bh2 + xh2
(a + b) h = ah1 + bh2 + x(h1 + h2)
(a + b) h = ah1 + bh2 + xh

(a + b) h =

(a + b) h = (a + b) + xh
= xh

x=

84) In ΔALD, By Pythagoras theorem


⇒ DL2 + AL2 = AD2

Similarly In ΔBMC ⇒ CM = 3 cm
then x = DL + LM + CM
x = 3 + 7 + 3 = 13 cm

So Area of trapezium ABCD = × (7 + 13) × 4


ℓ = 20 × 2 = 40

Then the value of

85)
Area of path = Area of outer rectangle – Area of inner rectangle
Area of path = 26 × 16 – 24 × 14
Area of path = 416 – 336 = 80 m2

The number of tiles = 2000

86) Area of park = Area of ΔBCD + Area of ΔABD

Area of ΔBCD = × 12 × 5 m2 = 30 m2

In ΔABD, we have
2s = 9 + 8 + 13 = 30
⇒ s = 15
∴ Area of ΔABD =
=
=
∴ Area of park
= 30 m2 +
=

87)

Semiperimeter of triangle field ABC (s) = = 54


Then by heron's formula area of ΔABC =
= = 306 m2

so no. of flower beds = = 34

88)

A cow tied by a rope BP = BQ = 14 m at B, is grazing.


Here the cow grazes an area A = Area of sector with central Angle 90° and radius 14 m.

∴ A= where q = 90, r = 14 m.

∴ A= = 154 m2

89) Let length of equal sides of isosceles triangle = x cm


Then perimeter of isosceles triangle = (2x + 15) cm
⇒ 60 = 2x + 15 [given base (b) = 15 cm]

⇒ 2x = 45 ⇒ x =

Area of triangle =

= = 159.09 cm2
90)
In ΔACL
AC2 = AL2 + LC2
AC2 = (AM + ML)2 + LC2
= AM2 + ML2 + LC2 + 2AM.ML ....(1)
In ΔBMD
BD2 = DM2 + MB2
= DM2 + (ML + LB)2
= DM2 + ML2 + LB2 + 2ML.LB ....(2)
By adding (1) & (2), we get
AC2 + BD2 = AM2 + ML2 + LC2 + 2AM.ML + DM2 + ML2 + LB2 + 2ML.LB
= (AM2 + DM2) + (LC2 + LB2) + 2LM2 + 2ML(AM + LB)
= AD2 + BC2 + 2LM2 + 2ML.(AM+LB)
= AD2 + BC2 + 2ML(LM + AM + LB)
= AD2 + BC2 + 2LM.AB
= AD2 + BC2 + 2CD.AB (as LM = CD)

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