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NSEJS 2025
Assignment-01 Chemistry

Structure of Atom
1. An atom has a mass of 0.02 kg and uncertainty in 7. In Balmer series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the
its velocity is 9.218 × 10–6 m/s then uncertainty in third line from the red end corresponds to which
position is: one of the following inter-orbits jumps of the
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
(A) 2.86× 10–28 m (B) 2.86 × 10–32 cm
(A) 2 → 5 (B) 3 → 2
(C) 1.5 × 10–27 m (D) 3.9 × 10–10 m
(C) 5 → 2 (D) 4 → 1
2. Energy of H- atom in the ground state is
–13.6 eV. Hence, energy in the second excited state 8. Which of the following sets of quantum number is
is: correct for an electron in 4f orbital?
(A) –6.8 eV (B) –3.4 eV
1
(C) –1.51 eV (D) –4.3 eV (A) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +
2
1
3. Uncertainty in position of a particle of 25 g in space (B) n = 4, l = 4, m = –4, s = –
is 10–5 m. Hence uncertainty in velocity (ms–1) is: 2
(Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) (C) n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +
1
(A) 2.1 × 10–28 (B) 2.1 × 10–34 2
(C) 0.5 × 10–34 (D) 5.0 × 20–24 1
(D) n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +
2
4. The orbital angular momentum for an electron
h
revolving in an orbit is given by ( + 1) . . 9. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a
2
hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to
This momentum for an s-electron will be given by
stationary state 1, would be:
h 1 2
(A) 2. (B) + . (Rydberg constant = 1.097 × 107 m–1):
2 2 2
h (A) 9.1 × 10–8 nm
(C) zero (D)
2 (B) 192 nm
(C) 406 nm
2+
5. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe (At. no. (D) 91 nm
of Fe = 26) ion is:
(A) 6 (B) 3
10. Which of the following statements in relation to the
(C) 4 (D) 5
hydrogen atom is correct?
6. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass (A) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy
60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per (B) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than
second is approximately: 3d orbitals
(A) 10–25 metres (B) 10–33 metres (C) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital
(C) 10–31 metres (D) 10–16 metres (D) 3s orbitals is lower in energy than 3p orbital

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11. According to Bohr's theory angular momentum of 18. The frequency of light emitted for the transition
th
electron in 5 shell is: n = 4 to n = 2 of He+ is equal to the transition in H-
atom corresponding to which of the following
(A) 1.0 h/ (B) 10 h/
(A) n = 3 to n = 1 (B) n = 2 to n = 1
(C) 2.5 h/ (D) 25 h/
(C) n = 3 to n = 2 (D) n = 4 to n = 3

12. Uncertainty in the position of an electron

19. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and :
(mass = 9.1 × 10–31 Kg) moving with a velocity
300 ms–1, accurate upto 0.001%, will be: (a) n = 4,  = 1 (b) n = 4,  = 0
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
(c) n = 3,  = 2 (d) n = 3,  = 1
(A) 5.76 × 10–2 m (B) 1.92 × 10–2 m
(C) 3.84 × 10–2 m (D) 19.2 × 10–2 m Can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
(A) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
13. The ionziation enthalpy of hydrogen atom is (B) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
1.312 × 106 J mol–1. The energy required to excite (C) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
the electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is: (D) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(A) 8.51 × 105 J mol–1
(B) 6.56 × 105 J mol–1 20. If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased four
(C) 7.56 × 105 J mol–1 times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
(D) 9.84 × 105 J mol–1 associated with it would become:
(A) Two times (B) Half
14. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of (C) One fourth (D) Four times
600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty with
which the position of the electron can be located is 21. If the radius of first orbit of H atom is a0, the
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2 s–1, mass of electron, de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the third
em = 9.1 × 10–31 kg): orbit is:
(A) 1.92 × 10–3 m (B) 3.84 × 10–3 m (A) 6  a0 (B) 8  a0
–4
(C) 1.52 × 10 m (D) 5.10 × 10–3 m (C) 2  a0 (D) 4  a0

15. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated 22. The wave number of the first emission line in the
with a proton moving at 1.0 × 103 ms–1 (Mass of Balmer series of H-Spectrum is:
proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg and h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js): (R = Rydberg constant):
(A) 2.5 nm (B) 14.0 nm 3 9
(A) R (B) R
(C) 0.032 nm (D) 0.40 nm 4 400
5 7
(C) R (D) R
16. Ionisation energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1. 36 6
The energy of the first stationary state (n = 1) of
Li2+ is: 23. The de Broglie wavelength of a car of mass
(A) 8.82 × 10–17 J atom–1 1000 kg and velocity 36 km/hr is:
(B) 4.41 × 10–16 J atom–1 (h = 6.63 × l0–34 Js)
(C) –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1 (A) 6.626 × l0–31 m (B) 6.626 × 10–34 m
(D) –2.2 × 10–15 J atom–1 (C) 6.626 × 10–38 m (D) 6.626 × 10–30 m

17. A gas absorbs a photon of 355 nm and emits at two 24. For which of the following particles will it be most
wavelengths. If one of the emissions is at 680 nm, difficult to experimentally verify the de-Broglie
the other is at: relationship?
(A) 743 nm (B) 518 nm (A) a dust particle (B) an electron
(C) 1035 nm (D) 325 nm (C) a proton (D) an -particle

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25. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen 31. The de-Broglie's wavelength of electron present in
atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the first Bohr orbit of 'H' atom is:
electron from the first excited state of Li++ is: 0.529
(A) Å (B) 2p × 0.529Å
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 30.6 eV 2
(C) 122.4 eV (D) 3.4 eV (C) 0.529Å (D) 4 × 0.529Å

32. Ejection of the photoelectron from metal in the

26. Based on the equation,
photoelectric effect experiment can be stopped by
 1 1  applying 0.5 V when the radiation of 250 nm is
E = –2.0 × 10–18 J  − 
 n 22 n 12  used. The work function of the metal is:
(A) 5 eV (B) 4 eV
The wavelength of the light that must be absorbed
(C) 5.5 eV (D) 4.5 eV
to excite hydrogen electron from level n = 1 to level
n = 2 will be: 33. Which of the following statements is false?
(h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js, C = 3 × 108 ms–1) (A) Photon has momentum as well as wavelength.
(A) 2.650 × 10–7 m (B) 1.325 × 10–7 m (B) Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is
–10
(C) 1.325 × 10 m (D) 5.300 × 10–10 m called Stark effect.
(C) Frequency of emitted radiation from a black
27. If 0 and  be the threshold wavelength and body goes from a lower wavelength to higher
wavelength as the temperature increases.
wavelength of incident light, the velocity of
(D) Rydberg constant has unit of energy.
photoelectron ejected from the metal surface is:
2hc   0 −   2h  1 1 34. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from
(A)   (B)  − 
m   0  m  0   ni = 8 to nf = the plot of wave number
 1 
2h 2hc (v) against  2  will be: (The Rydberg constant,
(C) (0 −  ) (D) (0 −  ) n 
m m RH is in wave number unit).
(A) Linear- with slope - RH
28. Ionization energy of gaseous Na atoms is (B) Linear with intercept - RH
495.5 kJ mol–1. The lowest possible frequency of (C) Non-linear
light that ionizes a sodium atom is: (D) Linear with slope RH
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1)
35. Which of the following combination of statements
(A) 3.15 × 1015 s–1 (B) 4.76 × 1014 s–1
is true regarding the interpretation of the atomic
(C) 1.24 × 1015 s–1 (D) 7.50 × 104 s–1
orbitals?
(a) An electron in an orbital of high angular
29. Which of the following is the energy of a possible momentum stays away from the nucleus than
excited state of hydrogen? an electron in the orbital of lower angular
(A) –3.4 eV (B) +6.8 eV momentum.
(C) +13.6 eV (D) –6.8 eV (b) For a given value of the principal quantum
number, the size of the orbit is inversely
30. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen proportional to the azimuthal quantum number.
(c) According to wave mechanics, the ground
atom is:
h
(Plank's const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js, state angular momentum is equal to .
2
mass of electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg,
(d) The plot of  Vs r for various azimuthal
charge of electron e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C,
quantum numbers, shows peak shifting
permittivity of vaccum 0 = 8.854185 ×10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2) towards higher r value.
(A) 1.65Å (B) 4.76Å (A) (a), (c) (B) (a), (d)
(C) 0.529Å (D) 2.12Å (C) (b), (c) (D) (a), (b)

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36. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 41. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected
–13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state from a metal surface after the irradiation of light
He+ ion in eV is: having wavelength , then for 1.5 p momentum of
(A) –54.4 (B) –6.04 the photoelectron, the wavelength of the light
(C) –3.4 (D) –27.2 should be: (Assume kinetic energy of ejected
photoelectron to be very high in comparison to
37. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation work function):
of wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line 3 4
(A)  (B) 
of H-atom is suitable for this purpose? 4 9
[RH = 1 × 105 cm–1, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, 1 2
(C)  (D) 
c = 3 × 108 ms–1] 2 3

(A) Paschen, 5 → 3
42. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two special
(B) Balmer,  → 2
series of hydrogen spectrum is found to be about 9.
(C) Lyman,  → 1 The spectral series are:
(D) Paschen,  → 3 (A) Paschen and Pfund
(B) Balmer and Brackett
38. What is the work function of the metal if the light (C) Lyman and Paschen
of wavelength 4000 Å generates photoelectrons of (D) Brackett and Pfund
velocity 6 × 105 ms–1 form it?
(Mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg 43. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the
Velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms–1 Bohr radius, a 0 , in Li 2 + is:
Planck's constant = 6.626 × 10–34 Js 2a 0 4a 0
(A) (B)
Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10–19 Je V–1) 3 3
(A) 2.1 eV (B) 3.1 eV 2a 0 4a 0
(C) (D)
(C) 0.9 eV (D) 4.0 eV 9 9

39. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in nth 44. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th
Bohr orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 Bohr orbit is:
a0(a0 is Bohr radius), then the value of n/z is: (A) 6a0 (B) 8a0
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.75 (C) 2a0 (D) 4a0
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.50
45. For the Balmer series in the spectrum of H atom,
40. The quantum number of four electrons are given  1 1 
v = R H  2 − 2  , the correct statements among
below:  n 1 n 2 
1 (I) to (IV) are:
I. n = 4, l = 2, m l = −2, m s = −
2 (I) As wavelength decreases, the lines in the
1 series converge
II. n = 3, l = 2, m l = 1, m s = +
2 (II) The integer n 1 is equal to 2
1 (III) The lines of longest wavelength corresponds
III. n = 4, l = 1, m l = 0, m s = +
2 to n 2 = 3
1 (IV) The ionization energy of hydrogen can be
IV. n = 3, l = 1, m l = 1, m s = −
2 calculated from wave number of these lines
(A) I < III < II < IV (B) IV < III < II < I (A) (I), (III), (IV) (B) (I), (II), (III)
(C) I < II < III < I (D) IV < II < III < I (C) (II), (III), (IV) (D) (I), (II), (IV)

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46. Which of the following sub shells are present in 1

(III) (a) n = 4,1 = 2, m1 = 2, m s = + ;
atom? 2
(A) s, p, d, f (B) a, b, c, d
1
(C) s, d, n, g (D) None of these (b) n = 3,1 = 2, m1 = 2, m s = +
2

47. The region in the electromagnetic spectrum where The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals
the Balmer series lines appear is: is/are:
(A) Visible (B) Microwave (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Ultraviolet (D) Infrared (C) Only III (D) (II) and (III)

48. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the Lyman 53. The minimum energy that must be possessed by
series is –1. The longest wavelength in the Balmer
photons in order to produce the photoelectric effect
series of He+ is:
with platinum metal is:
9 1 51
(A) (B) [Given: The threshold frequency of platinum is
5 9
36  1 27 1 1.3 × 1015 s–1 and h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s.]
(C) (D)
5 5 (A) 3.21 × 10–14 J
(B) 6.24 × 10–16 J
49. The difference between the radii of 3rd and 4th orbits (C) 8.58 × 10–19 J
of Li2+ is –R1. The difference between the radii of (D) 9.76 × 10–20 J
3rd and 4th orbits of He+ is –R2. Ratio –R1 : –R2 is:
(A) 3 : 8 (B) 8 : 3
54. The number of radial and angular nodes in
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2
4d-orbital are respectively:
50. The correct statement about probability density (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 2
(except at infinite distance from nucleus) is: (C) 1 and 0 (D) 2 and 1
(A) It can negative for 2p orbital
(B) It can be zero for 1s orbital 55. If the radius of the 3rd Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom
(C) It can never be zero for 2s orbital is r3 and the radius of 4th Bohr's orbit is r4. Then:
(D) It can be zero for 3p orbital
9 16
(A) r4 = r3 (B) r4 = r3
16 9
51. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of
wavelength 300 nm is: 3 4
(C) r4 = r3 (D) r4 = r3
(Given: h = 6.63×10–34 Js, NA = 6.02 ×1023 mol–1, 4 3
c = 3×108 ms–1
(A) 235 kJ mol–1 (B) 325 kJ mol–1 56. Structure of nuclei of three atoms X, Y and Z are as
(C) 399 kJ mol–1 (D) 435 kJ mol–1
follows:
(1) X has 90 Protons and 146 Neutrons.
52. Consider the following pairs of electrons
(2) Y has 92 Protons and 146 Neutrons.
1
(I) (a) n = 3,1 = 1, m1 = 1, m s = + ; (3) Z has 90 Protons and 148 Neutrons.
2
1 Which of the following statement is correct based
(b) n = 3,1 = 2, m1 = 1, m s = + on above data?
2
1 (A) X and Z are isotopes; Y and Z are isobars.
(II) (a) n = 3,1 = 2, m1 = −2, m s = − ;
2 (B) X and Y are isotopes; X and Z are isobars.
1 (C) Y and Z are isobars; X and Z are isobars.
(b) n = 3,1 = 2, m1 = −1, m s = −
2 (D) X and Z are isotopes; X and Y are isobars.

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57. Consider the following statements: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) The principal quantum number 'n' is a positive explanation of A.
integer with values of 'n' = 1, 2, 3, …. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) The azimuthal quantum number 'l' for a given explanation of A.
'n' (principal quantum number) can have (C) A is true but R is false.
values as 'l' = 0, 1, 2, …. n (D) A is false but R is true.
(c) Magnetic orbital quantum number 'ml' for a
particular 'l' (azimuthal quantum number) has 61. Given below are the quantum numbers for
(2l + 1) values. 4 electrons.
(d) ±1/2 are the two possible orientations of (a) n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 1, ms = +1/2
electron spin. (b) n = 4, l = 1, m1 = 0, ms = +1/2
(e) For l = 5, there will be a total of (c) n = 4, l = 2, m1 = –2, ms = –1/2
9 orbital. (d) n = 3, l = 1, m1 = –1, ms = +1/2
Which of the above statements are correct? The correct order of increasing energy is:
(A) (a), (b) and (c) (A) d < b < a < c
(B) (a), (c), (d) and (e) (B) d < a < b < c
(C) (a), (c) and (d) (C) b < d < a < c
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (D) b < d < c < a

58. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is 62. What is the correct electronic configuration of Cr?
not allowed? (At. No. : 24)
1 (A) [Ar]4s13d5 (B) Ar]4s23d4
(A) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, s = +
2 (C) Ar]4s°3d6 (D) None of these
1
(B) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –3, s = + 63. Isotopes of an element have -
2
1
(A) same physical properties
(C) n = 3, l = 3, ml = –3, s = − (B) different chemical properties
2
(C) different no. of neutrons
1
(D) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, s = − (D) different atomic number
2

64. The electronic configuration of an ion M2+ is

59. The correct decreasing order of energy, for the
2,8,14. If its mass is 56, the number of neutrons in
orbitals having, following set of quantum numbers:
its nucleus is:
(a) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
(A) 30 (B) 32
(b) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0
(C) 34 (D) 42
(c) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0
(d) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
65. Structure of nuclei of three atoms I, II and III are
(A) (d) > (b) > (c) > (a)
given below-
(B) (b) > (d) > (c) > (a)
I has 90 protons and 146 neutrons
(C) (c) > (b) > (d) > (a)
II has 92 protons and 146 neutrons
(D) (b)> (c) > (d) > (a)
III has 90 protons and 148 neutrons
Based on the above data, which of these atoms are
60. Assertion (A): Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen
isotopes and which are isobars?
atom is greater than that of 2s orbital of lithium.
(A) I and III are isotopes II and III are isobars
Reason (R): Energies of the orbitals in the same
(B) I and II are isotopes I and III are isobars
subshell decrease with increase in the atomic
(C) II and III are isobars I and II are isotopes
number.
(D) I and III are isotopes I and II are isobars

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66. Which of the following will have equal number of 73. Electronic configuration of copper (atomic No.
electrons? Cu-29) is:
(A) Cl and Br (B) Na+ and Mg2+ (A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d84s24p1
(C) Ar and Ne (D) Mg2+ and Ca2+ (B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d94s14p1
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p63s23p63d84s14p1
67. Three elements A, B and C have atomic number (D) 1s2 2s2 2p63s23p63d104s14p°
Z − 1, Z and Z + 2 respectively. B is a noble gas.
74. Atomic number of which element is 19 ?
The compound between A and C will be:
(A) Mg (B) K
(A) CA2 (B) CA
(C) Ar (D) Ca
(C) C2A (D) CA3

75. Which of the following pair is isoelectronic?

68. The distribution of electrons in different shells in
(A) Na+, Ar
the element with atomic number 25 is: (B) Mg++, Ca++
(A) 2, 8, 15 (B) 2, 18, 5 (C) K+, Ar
(C) 2, 8, 13, 2 (D) 2, 8, 8, 7 (D) Na+, K

69. When two atoms combine to form molecule then: 76. False statement for second period elements is:
(A) energy is released (A) change in number of electrons produces ions
(B) energy is abosrbed (B) numbers of protons and electrons are equal in
(C) energy is neither released nor absorbed neutral atom
(D) energy may either be released or absorbed (C) number of neutrons is less than the number of
protons in atoms
70. The electronic structure of four elements a, b c, d (D) change in the number of neutrons in atom
respectively are: produces isotopes
(a) 1s2 (b) 1s2,2s2,2p2
(c) 1s2,2s2,2p5 (d) 1s2,2s2,2p6 77. Neutronless neutral atom is:
The tendency to form electrovalent bond will be (A) H (B) He
(C) Na (D) K
largest in:
(A) a (B) b
78. Neutron was discovered by
(C) c (D) d
(A) Thomson
(B) Rutherford
71. Which statement is correct about a proton?
(C) Chadwick
(A) It is nucleus of deuterium.
(D) Niels Bohr
(B) it is ionised hydrogen molecule.
(C) it is ionised hydrogen atom. 79. How many times weight of proton is greater than
(D) it is -particle. the mass of the electron?
(A) 1838 (B) 1836
72. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (C) 1338 (D) 136
(A) Charges on an electron and proton are equal
and opposite. 80. ‘Proton’ is
(B) Neutron have no charge. (A) Nucleus of Deuterium
(C) Electron and proton have same mass. (B) Ionised hydrogen molecule
(D) Masses of proton and neutron are nearly the (C) Ionised hydrogen atom
same. (D) An alpha particle

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81. Which of the following do not represent Electronic 87. How many orbitals can have the following set of
configuration correctly? quantum numbers:
n = 3, l = 2, m1 = –2
(A) 1 (B) 8
(a) (b) (C) 2 (D) 4

88. An ion with mass number 56 contains 3 units of

positive charge and 30.4% more neutrons than
(c) (d) electrons. Atomic number of the element is:
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 26 (D) 27
(A) (a) & (b) (B) (b) & (d)
(C) (b) & (c) (D) (a) & (d) 89. Number of valence electrons in Magnesium is:
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 2
82. Arrange of the following consist of one electron,
one proton and zero neutron?
90. Number of which among the following is same in
(A) H2 (B) 1H
1
Al+3 and F– ?
(C) 1H3 (D) 2H4 (A) Proton (B) Neutron
(C) Atomic mass (D) Electron
e
83. The ascending order of (charge/mass) value for
m 91. Electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 1.
electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) and alpha () Which of the following elements is similar with it
in chemical reactivity?
particle is:
(A) K (B) Cl
(A) e, p, n,  (B) n, p, e, 
(C) N (D) Ar
(C) n, , p, e (D) n, p, , e
92. Electron was discovered by:
84. Which is the correct answer, if n = 4 (where n is (A) J.J. Thomson (B) Chadwick
number of shell) then number of orbitals and (C) E. Goldstein (D) Rutherford
electrons present in atom?
(A) 16,32 (B) 32,16 93. Electronic configuration of Na+ is:
(A) 2, 8, 1 (B) 2, 8, 8
(C) 32,32 (D) 16,16
(C) 2, 8 (D) 2, 8, 8, 1

85. What are the electronic configurations of Na+ and 94. If there are 12 neutrons in an atom and its atomic
Cl– ions? number is 11. Then how many electrons are present
(A) Na+ = 2, 8,1 and Cl– = 2, 8, 7 in it:
(B) Na+ = 2, 8 and Cl– = 2, 8, 8 (A) 23 (B) 12
(C) Na+ = 2, 8,2 and Cl– = 2, 8, 6 (C) 10 (D) 11
(D) Na+ = 2, 8 and Cl– = 2, 8, 7
95. Chlorine atom does not differ from the chloride ion
in which of the following context?
86. In the helium atom, the number of electrons in L-
(A) Electron
shell will be:
(B) Volume
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) Proton
(C) 8 (D) 6 (D) Chemical reactivity

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96. Which of the following group below represents a Choose the most appropriate answer from the
set of isoelectronic species? options given below:
(A) N3–, F–, Na+ (B) Na, Ca2+, Mg2+ (A) (c) only
(C) Be, Al3+, Cl– (D) K+, Na+, Al3+ (B) (a) only
(C) (a), (c) and (d) only
97. Which of the following elements has an electronic (D) (a) and (d) only
configuration 2, 8, 6?
(A) Sulphur (B) Oxygen 99. The work function of sodium metal is 4.41 × 10–19 J.
(C) Phosphorus (D) Chlorine If photons of wavelength 300 nm are incident on
the metal, the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons
will be:
98. According to Bohr's atomic theory:
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 J s; c = 3 × 108 m/s) ____ × 10–21 J.
Z2
(a) Kinetic energy of electron is  .
n2 100. Consider the following set of quantum numbers
(b) The product of velocity (v) of electron and n  m
principal quantum number (n), 'vn'  Z 2 .
(A) 3 3 −3
(c) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit
(B) 3 2 −2
Z3
is  . (C) 2 1 +1
n3 (D) 2 2 +2
(d) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron The number of correct sets of quantum numbers is
Z3 _______.
is  .
n4

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Answer Key
1. (A) 26. (B) 51. (C) 76. (C)
2. (C) 27. (A) 52. (B) 77. (A)
3. (A) 28. (C) 53. (C) 78. (C)
4. (C) 29. (A) 54. (A) 79. (B)
5. (A) 30. (D) 55. (B) 80. (C)
6. (B) 31. (D) 56. (A) 81. (C)
7. (C) 32. (D) 57. (C) 82. (B)
8. (C) 33. (C) 58. (C) 83. (C)
9. (D) 34. (D) 59. (A) 84. (A)
10. (A) 35. (A) 60. (A) 85. (B)
11. (C) 36. (B) 61. (B) 86. (A)
12. (B) 37. (D) 62. (A) 87. (A)
13. (D) 38. (A) 63. (C) 88. (C)
14. (A) 39. (B) 64. (A) 89. (D)
15. (D) 40. (B) 65. (A) 90. (D)
16. (C) 41. (B) 66. (B) 91. (A)
17. (A) 42. (C) 67. (A) 92. (A)
18. (B) 43. (B) 68. (C) 93. (C)
19. (C) 44. (B) 69. (A) 94. (D)
20. (B) 45. (B) 70. (C) 95. (A)
21. (A) 46. (A) 71. (C) 96. (A)
22. (C) 47. (A) 72. (C) 97. (A)
23. (C) 48. (A) 73. (D) 98. (C, D)
24. (A) 49. (C) 74. (B) 99. (222.00)
25. (A) 50. (D) 75. (C) 100. (2)

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