SCIENCE- BIOLOGY

1. Which cellular organelle is responsible for producing ATP through cellular respiration?
A. Ribosome
B. Chloroplast
C. Mitochondrion
D. Golgi apparatus

2. Which of the following best describes the function of the ribosome?

A. Stores genetic information
B. Synthesizes proteins
C. Produces energy
D. Breaks down waste

3. Which sequence correctly represents the flow of genetic information?

A. RNA → DNA → Protein
B. DNA → Protein → RNA
C. DNA → RNA → Protein
D. Protein → RNA → DNA

4. In which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase

5. What type of mutation results in a stop codon appearing prematurely in a gene?

A. Missense
B. Silent
C. Nonsense
D. Frameshift

6. Which biomolecule is primarily responsible for catalyzing metabolic reactions?

A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids

7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living organisms?

A. Reproduction
B. Photosynthesis
C. Response to stimuli
D. Homeostasis
8. Which macromolecule stores genetic information?
A. Protein
B. Lipid
C. DNA
D. Glucose

9. Which structure in a plant cell helps maintain shape by storing water?

A. Nucleus
B. Central vacuole
C. Chloroplast
D. Cell membrane

10. What best describes osmosis?

A. Movement of solutes from high to low concentration
B. Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane
C. Active transport of ions using ATP
D. Diffusion of gases into cells

11. In the food chain, what is the role of decomposers?

A. Capture sunlight
B. Consume producers
C. Break down dead organisms
D. Compete for resources

12. What process allows genetic variation during sexual reproduction?

A. Binary fission
B. Mitosis
C. Crossing-over
D. Cytokinesis

13. Which taxonomic group is the most specific?

A. Phylum
B. Class
C. Order
D. Species

14. What happens during photosynthesis?

A. Glucose is broken down into ATP
B. Oxygen is absorbed and carbon dioxide is released
C. Light energy is used to produce glucose
D. ATP is converted to ADP
15. Which organ system is responsible for transporting nutrients and gases in animals?
A. Respiratory system
B. Nervous system
C. Circulatory system
D. Digestive system
16. Which of the following structures is found only in plant cells?
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosomes
C. Cell wall
D. Nucleus
17. What is the primary purpose of mitosis?
A. Production of gametes
B. Genetic variation
C. Growth and repair
D. Energy production
18. What term refers to organisms that make their own food through photosynthesis?
A. Heterotrophs
B. Consumers
C. Saprotrophs
D. Autotrophs
19. What type of ecological interaction occurs when two species benefit from each other?
A. Parasitism
B. Competition
C. Mutualism
D. Predation
20. What best describes the role of insulin in the human body?
A. Breaks down proteins
B. Stimulates muscle contraction
C. Lowers blood glucose levels
D. Increases red blood cell count
21. Which part of the human brain controls involuntary actions like breathing?
A. Cerebellum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Cerebrum
22. During aerobic respiration, what are the end products?
A. Oxygen and glucose
B. Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
C. Lactic acid and ATP
D. Glucose and nitrogen
23. What happens in the alveoli of the lungs?
A. Digestion of fats
B. Absorption of water
C. Gas exchange
D. Filtration of blood
24. What is the function of the xylem in plants?
A. Transports water
B. Stores energy
C. Carries out photosynthesis
D. Protects from predators
25. Which part of the flower is responsible for producing pollen?
A. Stigma
B. Anther
C. Style
D. Ovary
26. What is the basic unit of heredity?
A. Chromosome
B. Protein
C. Gene
D. Allele
27. Which process leads to the formation of gametes?
A. Mitosis
B. Fertilization
C. Meiosis
D. DNA replication
28. What is the function of enzymes in biological systems?
A. Destroy harmful cells
B. Store energy
C. Speed up chemical reactions
D. Transport oxygen
29. What blood type is considered the universal donor?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
30. Which of the following represents the correct order of biological organization from
simplest to most complex?
A. Organ → Tissue → Cell → Organ System
B. Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ System
C. Tissue → Cell → Organ → System
D. System → Organ → Cell → Tissue
31. Which of the following processes contributes most to genetic variation during meiosis?
A. Cytokinesis
B. DNA replication
C. Independent assortment
D. Cell elongation
32. Which structure in the human body is responsible for filtering nitrogenous waste from the
blood?
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
33. What happens to a red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution?
A. It swells and bursts
B. It shrinks (crenates)
C. It remains unchanged
D. It multiplies
34. Which of the following hormones is most directly involved in regulating metabolism?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Estrogen
D. Oxytocin
35. What is the result of a nondisjunction during meiosis?
A. Formation of cancer cells
B. A zygote with a mutation in DNA
C. Gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers
D. Death of the cell
36. Which of the following organisms is a pioneer species in primary succession?
A. Oak tree
B. Mushroom
C. Lichen
D. Fern
37. Which of the following is true about plasmids?
A. They are linear strands of eukaryotic DNA
B. They are proteins used in transcription
C. They are circular DNA found in bacteria
D. They are cell wall components
38. What type of selection favors both extremes of a trait over the average phenotype?
A. Stabilizing selection
B. Directional selection
C. Disruptive selection
D. Artificial selection
39. What would be the immediate effect of destroying all decomposers in an ecosystem?
A. Increased biodiversity
B. Faster plant growth
C. Accumulation of waste and dead organisms
D. More carnivores would appear
40. What cellular process is disrupted in cancer?
A. Translation
B. Mitosis regulation
C. Osmosis
D. Glycolysis
41. Which of the following best describes the endosymbiotic theory?
A. DNA replicates inside the nucleus
B. Eukaryotic cells evolved by engulfing prokaryotic cells
C. Cells evolved from fungi
D. RNA came before DNA
42. In gel electrophoresis, how are DNA fragments separated?
A. By pH
B. By electrical charge and size
C. By temperature
D. By density
43. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Malaria
C. Dengue
D. Ringworm
44. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?
A. Blood oxygenation
B. Hormone secretion
C. Immune defense and fluid balance
D. Digestion of proteins
45. Which condition results from the body’s immune system attacking its own cells?
A. Hemophilia
B. Autoimmune disorder
C. Anemia
D. Immunodeficiency
46. What best describes the relationship between mRNA and tRNA during translation?
A. mRNA builds ribosomes
B. tRNA reads the mRNA in reverse
C. tRNA brings amino acids matching the mRNA codons
D. mRNA is made by tRNA
47. Which stage of embryonic development is characterized by the formation of germ layers?
A. Fertilization
B. Cleavage
C. Gastrulation
D. Blastulation
48. Which process converts nitrogen gas (N₂) into a usable form for plants?
A. Denitrification
B. Nitrogen fixation
C. Transpiration
D. Photosynthesis
49. What property of water allows it to regulate Earth's temperature?
A. Its high specific heat
B. Its polarity
C. Its ability to dissolve salt
D. Its freezing point
50. Which of the following best explains the presence of similar bone structures in the limbs
of whales, cats, and humans?
A. Analogous structures
B. Convergent evolution
C. Homologous structures due to common ancestry
D. Coincidental similarity
51. What is the primary role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?
A. Splits the double helix
B. Joins Okazaki fragments
C. Synthesizes new DNA strands using existing strands as templates
D. Seals gaps in DNA
52. Which enzyme is responsible for “unzipping” the DNA helix during replication?
A. Ligase
B. Helicase
C. Polymerase
D. Transcriptase
53. What is a major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?
A. Prokaryotes use DNA while eukaryotes use RNA
B. Transcription and translation occur simultaneously in prokaryotes
C. Eukaryotes don't have promoters
D. Prokaryotes undergo mitosis
54. The process by which mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids is called:
A. Transcription
B. Replication
C. Translation
D. Transformation
55. What is a codon?
A. A group of three DNA bases on tRNA
B. A segment of a chromosome
C. A three-nucleotide sequence in mRNA that codes for an amino acid
D. A protein subunit
56. A biologist wants to produce insulin using bacteria. What process will they most likely
use?
A. Cloning
B. Recombinant DNA technology
C. Gene therapy
D. DNA fingerprinting
57. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, thirst, and hunger?
A. Medulla
B. Cerebellum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pituitary gland
58. Which component of the immune system is responsible for producing antibodies?
A. Macrophages
B. B lymphocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. Natural killer cells
59. What characteristic distinguishes a stem cell from other body cells?
A. It cannot divide
B. It can differentiate into any cell type
C. It has multiple nuclei
D. It only exists in embryos
60. The Hardy-Weinberg principle predicts allele frequencies remain constant unless:
A. The population is in equilibrium
B. The population is small
C. Natural selection occurs
D. Genetic drift is eliminated
61. What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?
A. Transcribes DNA into RNA
B. Translates mRNA codons into amino acids
C. Carries mRNA to ribosomes
D. Copies DNA into proteins
62. What is the function of the epiglottis?
A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
B. Helps with vocalization
C. Pumps air into the lungs
D. Triggers swallowing
63. Which part of a neuron receives signals from other neurons?
A. Axon
B. Synapse
C. Dendrite
D. Myelin sheath
64. What is the major waste product of aerobic respiration?
A. Ethanol
B. Lactic acid
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide
65. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D. Cortisol
66. Which gas is taken in during photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Methane
67. What kind of bond holds the two DNA strands together?
A. Covalent bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Ionic bonds
D. Peptide bonds
68. What is the most direct cause of muscle contraction at the cellular level?
A. The release of neurotransmitters
B. Binding of ATP to actin
C. Sliding of actin over myosin filaments
D. Absorption of calcium into the mitochondria
69. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
A. Produces ATP
B. Packages and ships proteins and lipids
C. Destroys toxins
D. Stores genetic material
70. Why are viruses not considered living organisms?
A. They do not evolve
B. They do not contain proteins
C. They cannot reproduce without a host
D. They are made of only carbohydrates
71. Which of the following correctly describes an operon in prokaryotes?
A. A group of genes regulated individually
B. A single gene transcribed into many mRNAs
C. A group of genes regulated under one promoter
D. A gene that controls eukaryotic DNA replication
72. Which of the following is a polygenic trait in humans?
A. Blood type
B. Tongue rolling
C. Skin color
D. Widow’s peak
73. Which ecological pyramid can never be inverted?
A. Pyramid of numbers
B. Pyramid of biomass
C. Pyramid of energy
D. All pyramids can be inverted
74. What substance is secreted by the pancreas to raise blood sugar levels?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine
D. Glycogen
75. What is the primary function of bile in the digestive system?
A. Digest proteins
B. Neutralize stomach acid
C. Emulsify fats
D. Absorb water
76. The Bohr effect explains the relationship between:
A. pH and enzyme activity
B. pH and hemoglobin's oxygen-binding capacity
C. Temperature and enzyme activity
D. Blood pressure and heart rate
77. What is the role of myelin in neurons?
A. Absorb neurotransmitters
B. Speed up nerve impulse transmission
C. Generate energy for the brain
D. Facilitate DNA replication
78. Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies?
A. They are created by bacteria for immunity
B. They are identical antibodies produced from a single B-cell clone
C. They are genetically varied and come from plasma
D. They are naturally occurring in all individuals
79. A vaccine works by:
A. Killing all pathogens in the body
B. Injecting a live virus to trigger a fever
C. Stimulating the immune system to produce memory cells
D. Blocking white blood cells
80. A zygote with 47 chromosomes most likely results from:
A. Crossing-over
B. Nondisjunction
C. Mutation
D. Fertilization by two sperm
81. Which component of the blood is primarily responsible for clotting?
A. Plasma
B. Platelets
C. White blood cells
D. Hemoglobin
82. Which of the following best describes biomagnification?
A. Increase in oxygen as you go up the food chain
B. Accumulation of toxins in higher trophic levels
C. Amplification of traits through natural selection
D. Enhancement of biodiversity by energy transfer
83. What is the term for an allele that only expresses its phenotype when paired with an
identical allele?
A. Dominant
B. Codominant
C. Recessive
D. Polygenic
84. The central dogma of molecular biology is:
A. DNA → RNA → Protein
B. Protein → DNA → RNA
C. RNA → Protein → DNA
D. DNA → Enzyme → Protein
85. What is the product of fermentation in muscle cells under anaerobic conditions?
A. Ethanol
B. Lactic acid
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Carbon dioxide
86. What does PCR (polymerase chain reaction) do?
A. Replaces mutated DNA
B. Amplifies DNA segments
C. Measures enzyme levels
D. Cuts DNA into fragments
87. Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Subcutaneous tissue
88. What characteristic is shared by all viruses?
A. Cell walls
B. Ribosomes
C. Capsid
D. Nucleus
89. What is the role of the loop of Henle in the nephron?
A. Filtration of blood
B. Reabsorption of nutrients
C. Water and salt reabsorption
D. Secretion of enzymes
90. Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor in a population?
A. Disease
B. Competition
C. Predation
D. Natural disasters
91. What is the role of topoisomerase in DNA replication?
A. Creates RNA primers
B. Prevents overwinding of DNA
C. Joins Okazaki fragments
D. Synthesizes DNA
92. Which molecule carries genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome?
A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. ATP
93. Which part of the flower develops into the fruit?
A. Ovule
B. Petal
C. Ovary
D. Stamen
94. Which phase of mitosis involves chromosomes aligning at the center of the cell?
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
95. What is the end product of transcription?
A. Protein
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Amino acids
96. Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor?
A. Bacteria
B. Temperature
C. Fungi
D. Grass
97. Which of the following increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine?
A. Villi and microvilli
B. Enzymes
C. Capillaries
D. Mucus
98. Which two body systems are directly involved in regulating homeostasis?
A. Circulatory and skeletal
B. Muscular and digestive
C. Nervous and endocrine
D. Respiratory and immune
99. What is the result of transcription?
A. A new DNA strand
B. A protein
C. A strand of mRNA
D. A ribosome
100. What happens during cytokinesis?
A. DNA is copied
B. The nucleus reforms
C. The cytoplasm divides
D. Chromosomes condense
101. In a genetic engineering experiment, a gene from a jellyfish is inserted into a tomato.
What is the resulting tomato best classified as?
A. Hybrid organism
B. Synthetic organism
C. Transgenic organism
D. Clone
102. Which of the following is the primary reason why antibiotics do not work against viruses?
A. Viruses are too small
B. Viruses are made of carbohydrates
C. Viruses do not have cell walls or metabolic processes
D. Viruses replicate slowly
103. Which ecological concept is best demonstrated when two species compete for the same
food resource until one is eliminated from the habitat?
A. Mutualism
B. Sympatric speciation
C. Competitive exclusion
D. Resource partitioning
104. What is the likely result if DNA ligase is inhibited during genetic recombination?
A. DNA strands will not unwind
B. Okazaki fragments will not be joined
C. mRNA will not be formed
D. Ribosomes will not be activated
105. In experimental biology, what is the importance of a control group?
A. It receives additional variables
B. It validates that results are caused by the independent variable
C. It enhances statistical error
D. It prevents ethical issues
106. A scientist exposes bacteria to increasing levels of antibiotics. Over time, only those with
resistance survive and reproduce. This is an example of:
A. Artificial selection
B. Genetic drift
C. Natural selection
D. Mutation
107. What is one major advantage of stem cells in medicine?
A. They are virus-resistant
B. They have high ATP output
C. They can differentiate into many cell types
D. They grow faster than cancer cells
108. In a food chain, the highest concentration of toxic substances like mercury is found in:
A. Primary producers
B. Herbivores
C. Apex predators
D. Decomposers
109. Why is mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) used in tracing maternal lineage?
A. It recombines frequently
B. It mutates every generation
C. It is only inherited from the mother
D. It is found in all cells
110. What ethical issue is raised by the use of CRISPR to edit human embryos?
A. It improves agriculture
B. It can be used to create harmful viruses
C. It may lead to “designer babies” and unequal access to enhancement
D. It helps correct diseases easily
111. Which condition is characterized by the absence of an enzyme that breaks down
phenylalanine, leading to intellectual disability if untreated?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
D. Hemophilia
112. If two heterozygous individuals for a recessive trait have a child, what is the probability
that the child will exhibit the trait?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
113. Which immune cells are primarily responsible for attacking infected host cells?
A. B cells
B. Helper T cells
C. Cytotoxic T cells
D. Plasma cells
114. Which laboratory technique is used to separate macromolecules based on size and
charge?
A. CRISPR
B. Gel electrophoresis
C. Gram staining
D. PCR
115. The fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of:
A. Ribosomes
B. Nucleus
C. Cell membrane
D. Cytoplasm
116. What role do stomata play in plants?
A. Absorb sunlight
B. Facilitate gas exchange
C. Transport nutrients
D. Prevent seed dispersion
117. In ecological succession, what typically follows the colonization of lichens and mosses?
A. Large mammals
B. Hardwood forests
C. Grasses and herbaceous plants
D. Aquatic life
118. Which part of the female reproductive system is the usual site of fertilization?
A. Uterus
B. Ovary
C. Cervix
D. Fallopian tube
119. Which process increases the number of mitochondria in muscle cells due to regular
exercise?
A. Differentiation
B. Glycolysis
C. Mitochondrial biogenesis
D. Fermentation
120. Which biotechnology tool allows scientists to "cut and paste" specific DNA sequences?
A. Ligase
B. Helicase
C. Restriction enzyme
D. RNA polymerase
121. Which of the following best explains why viruses are considered obligate intracellular
parasites?
A. They only infect bacteria
B. They have nuclei but no ribosomes
C. They can’t reproduce outside a host cell
D. They perform photosynthesis inside cells
122. Which evolutionary mechanism leads to random changes in allele frequencies in small
populations?
A. Gene flow
B. Genetic drift
C. Natural selection
D. Adaptive radiation
123. In a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the dominant allele
is 0.7, what is the frequency of the heterozygous genotype?
A. 0.21
B. 0.42
C. 0.49
D. 0.09
124. Which of the following describes a keystone species?
A. The species with the largest population
B. A producer that provides energy to all consumers
C. A species that has a disproportionately large effect on its ecosystem
D. An invasive species that replaces native species
125. Which organelle in plant cells contains its own DNA and is thought to have evolved via
endosymbiosis?
A. Vacuole
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplast
126. Which checkpoint in the cell cycle prevents the cell from entering mitosis if DNA is
damaged?
A. G1 checkpoint
B. G2 checkpoint
C. S phase
D. M checkpoint
127. In gene therapy, which vector is most commonly used to insert functional genes into
human cells?
A. E. coli
B. Retrovirus
C. Plasmid
D. Transposon
128. What structure ensures the mitotic spindle attaches properly to each chromatid?
A. Kinetochore
B. Centriole
C. Centrosome
D. Chromatid
129. Which organ system maintains long-term control over growth and development using
chemical messengers?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Immune system
D. Digestive system
130. Which of the following is a consequence of increased atmospheric CO₂ levels on marine
ecosystems?
A. Ocean alkalinization
B. Ocean acidification
C. More oxygen availability
D. Increased salinity
131. What is the function of the corpus callosum in the human brain?
A. Control muscle movement
B. Connect the two hemispheres
C. Regulate breathing
D. Produce cerebrospinal fluid
132. What is an example of epigenetic regulation?
A. A mutation in the DNA sequence
B. A deletion of a chromosome
C. Methylation of DNA to silence gene expression
D. An increase in gene copy number
133. Which of the following tools can be used to compare evolutionary relationships based on
molecular similarities?
A. Karyotyping
B. Cladogram
C. Punnett square
D. Pedigree
134. What would happen to a cell in a hypotonic solution?
A. Shrink
B. Lyse (burst)
C. Stay the same
D. Undergo mitosis
135. What is the role of integrins in animal cells?
A. DNA replication
B. Cell-cell communication
C. Anchoring cells to the extracellular matrix
D. Signal deactivation
136. Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing glucose, amino acids, and most
nutrients?
A. Loop of Henle
B. Collecting duct
C. Distal tubule
D. Proximal tubule
137. Which molecule initiates transcription by binding to a gene’s promoter region?
A. RNA polymerase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Ligase
D. Helicase
138. In what situation would sympatric speciation most likely occur?
A. Two populations become geographically isolated
B. Genetic drift affects a small group
C. Reproductive isolation occurs in the same environment
D. A predator wipes out most of the population
139. Which genetic disorder is caused by trisomy 21?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Huntington’s disease
C. Down syndrome
D. Sickle cell anemia
140. Which process occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane and produces the most ATP?
A. Glycolysis
B. Krebs cycle
C. Electron transport chain
D. Fermentation
141. Which of the following genetic technologies allows for precise editing of genes at specific
locations in the genome?
A. Southern blotting
B. PCR
C. CRISPR-Cas9
D. Recombinant plasmid insertion
142. Why are mitochondria maternally inherited in most animals?
A. Sperm contribute cytoplasm with mitochondria
B. Egg cells destroy paternal DNA
C. Mitochondria from sperm are typically degraded after fertilization
D. Mitochondria only replicate in the female reproductive system
143. Which of the following best explains antagonistic pleiotropy in evolutionary biology?
A. One gene affects multiple traits, all beneficial
B. One gene has different effects depending on the environment
C. A gene is beneficial early in life but harmful later on
D. A mutation is lethal in some individuals but harmless in others
144. Which physiological system is most directly affected by multiple sclerosis (MS)?
A. Digestive system
B. Nervous system
C. Circulatory system
D. Muscular system
145. What is the primary function of histones in eukaryotic cells?
A. Transport proteins across membranes
B. Regulate ribosome formation
C. Package and condense DNA
D. Unwind DNA for replication
146. If a cell is in G0 phase, what does this mean?
A. It is preparing for mitosis
B. It has completed meiosis
C. It is metabolically active but not dividing
D. It is undergoing apoptosis
147. Which of the following disorders results from a defect in hemoglobin causing sickle-
shaped red blood cells?
A. Hemophilia
B. Thalassemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Leukemia
148. The presence of analogous structures in unrelated species is evidence of:
A. Divergent evolution
B. Convergent evolution
C. Common ancestry
D. Co-evolution
149. Which structure in the chloroplast is the site of the light-dependent reactions of
photosynthesis?
A. Stroma
B. Thylakoid membrane
C. Outer membrane
D. Nuclear envelope
150. Which hormone directly stimulates the reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys, helping
regulate blood pressure?
A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B. Aldosterone
C. Insulin
D. Glucagon
151. What experimental method is used to determine the function of a gene by turning it off?
A. Transfection
B. RNA interference (RNAi)
C. Western blotting
D. Immunoprecipitation
152. Which cellular process is regulated by cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)?
A. Transcription
B. Protein folding
C. Cell cycle progression
D. DNA repair
153. A person with blood type AB has which antigens on their red blood cells?
A. A only
B. B only
C. Both A and B
D. None
154. In gene expression, what is the role of an enhancer region?
A. Blocks RNA polymerase binding
B. Prevents transcription
C. Increases transcription when activated
D. Terminates translation
155. In enzyme kinetics, what does the Michaelis constant (Km) represent?
A. The maximum velocity of the reaction
B. The rate of product formation
C. The substrate concentration at half-max velocity
D. The amount of enzyme in the system
156. Which phenomenon is responsible for the exchange of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes during meiosis?
A. Independent assortment
B. Crossing-over
C. Transduction
D. Mutation
157. Which macromolecule contains nitrogen, phosphorus, and a sugar backbone?
A. Protein
B. Lipid
C. Nucleic acid
D. Carbohydrate
158. Why is ATP considered the universal energy currency of the cell?
A. It can be stored in fat cells
B. It contains more energy than glucose
C. It releases usable energy when phosphate bonds are broken
D. It regulates body temperature
159. Which of the following immune responses is primarily mediated by cytotoxic T cells?
A. Production of antibodies
B. Release of histamines
C. Destruction of virus-infected cells
D. Clotting of wounds
160. What is the effect of a nonsense mutation?
A. Substitutes one amino acid for another
B. Causes no change in the amino acid sequence
C. Introduces a premature stop codon
D. Deletes multiple base pairs
161. Which of the following best describes the function of a signal transduction pathway?
A. Directly creates new organelles
B. Synthesizes enzymes
C. Converts an extracellular signal into a specific cellular response
D. Destroys foreign DNA in the nucleus
162. Which organ produces most of the plasma proteins found in human blood?
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Kidney
163. Which enzyme is used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from an mRNA template?
A. DNA polymerase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Ligase
164. In electrophoresis, DNA fragments travel toward the positive electrode because:
A. DNA is positively charged
B. DNA is hydrophobic
C. DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate groups
D. DNA is magnetic
165. Which immune cell type bridges the innate and adaptive immune responses by
presenting antigens to T cells?
A. Macrophages
B. Natural killer cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. Basophils
166. Which neurotransmitter is most associated with reward and pleasure pathways in the
brain?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Epinephrine
167. Which of the following best describes quorum sensing in bacteria?
A. A type of photosynthesis
B. Population-dependent regulation of gene expression
C. A viral infection mechanism
D. A hormonal feedback loop
168. What type of mutation results in a different amino acid being coded due to a single
nucleotide change?
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
169. Which of the following is the correct order of blood flow through the nephron for
filtration?
A. Glomerulus → Loop of Henle → Bowman’s capsule → Collecting duct
B. Bowman’s capsule → Glomerulus → Proximal tubule → Loop of Henle
C. Glomerulus → Bowman’s capsule → Proximal tubule → Loop of Henle
D. Proximal tubule → Glomerulus → Loop of Henle → Distal tubule
170. Which hormone causes the endometrial lining of the uterus to thicken during the
menstrual cycle?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. FSH
D. LH
171. Which bacterial process allows the uptake of foreign DNA from the environment?
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. Translation
172. What is the immediate consequence of depolarization in a neuron?
A. Closure of sodium channels
B. Influx of potassium ions
C. Action potential is generated
D. Myelin sheath formation
173. In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, what is the effect of a competitive inhibitor?
A. Binds to allosteric site, altering the enzyme's shape
B. Lowers the enzyme’s activation energy
C. Competes with the substrate for the active site
D. Permanently deactivates the enzyme
174. Which structure in a virus determines its host specificity?
A. Capsid
B. Envelope lipids
C. Surface glycoproteins
D. Reverse transcriptase
175. What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump in maintaining resting membrane
potential?
A. It depolarizes the membrane
B. It moves sodium into the cell
C. It pumps 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in, maintaining negative internal charge
D. It halts all ionic movement across the membrane
176. Which of the following causes muscle fatigue due to anaerobic respiration?
A. Buildup of lactic acid
B. Excess ATP
C. Accumulation of carbon dioxide
D. Overoxygenation
177. In gene regulation, what is the function of a repressor protein?
A. Enhances RNA polymerase binding
B. Blocks the operator region to prevent transcription
C. Activates gene expression
D. Promotes translation
178. A patient exhibits symptoms of high blood sugar, frequent urination, and blurred vision.
Which hormone is likely underproduced?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Thyroxine
D. Cortisol
179. What does the term “semi-conservative replication” mean regarding DNA synthesis?
A. One new strand is made while the other is degraded
B. Each new DNA molecule consists of one old and one new strand
C. DNA is replicated once and never again
D. Both DNA strands are entirely new
180. Which of the following technologies allows scientists to “amplify” a specific DNA
sequence in vitro?
A. Southern blotting
B. PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
C. Northern blotting
D. DNA ligation
181. Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells in bone marrow?
A. Insulin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
182. Which phase of meiosis is responsible for increasing genetic diversity through
independent assortment?
A. Prophase I
B. Anaphase I
C. Metaphase I
D. Telophase II
183. Which cellular organelle detoxifies alcohol and drugs in liver cells?
A. Rough ER
B. Lysosome
C. Smooth ER
D. Golgi apparatus
184. Which of the following diseases is caused by a prion?
A. HIV/AIDS
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D. Malaria
185. Which structure in plant cells regulates gas exchange and water loss?
A. Chloroplast
B. Xylem
C. Stomata
D. Phloem
186. What property of water allows it to move up through the xylem of plants?
A. High specific heat
B. Capillary action via cohesion and adhesion
C. Low density
D. Surface tension
187. The primary structure of a protein refers to:
A. The sequence of amino acids
B. The folding into alpha helices and beta sheets
C. The interaction of polypeptides
D. Its 3D conformation
188. Which organ system is primarily responsible for removing nitrogenous wastes from the
blood?
A. Endocrine
B. Respiratory
C. Excretory
D. Circulatory
189. Which structure in the male reproductive system is the site of sperm maturation?
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Epididymis
C. Vas deferens
D. Urethra
190. What causes the S-shaped curve in a logistic population growth graph?
A. Unlimited resources
B. Abiotic factors only
C. Carrying capacity of the environment
D. Constant birth and death rates
191. What happens to oxygen in cellular respiration?
A. It is used in glycolysis
B. It is used to accept electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
C. It is released during fermentation
D. It is used to break down glucose directly
192. Which part of the brain regulates homeostasis, including body temperature and hunger?
A. Thalamus
B. Cerebellum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla oblongata
193. What is the effect of increased progesterone during the menstrual cycle?
A. Maturation of the egg
B. Thinning of endometrial lining
C. Maintenance of the uterine lining
D. Ovulation
194. Which phase of the cell cycle includes DNA replication?
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
195. Which process allows bacteria to develop antibiotic resistance and pass it to other
bacteria?
A. Replication
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transcription
196. A frameshift mutation is caused by:
A. Substitution of one base for another
B. Insertion or deletion not in multiples of 3
C. Duplication of an entire gene
D. Translocation of chromosomes
197. What is a hallmark feature of Type I diabetes mellitus?
A. Cells become insulin-resistant
B. Pancreas produces excess insulin
C. Immune system destroys insulin-producing cells
D. Insulin is overproduced but ineffective
198. In photosynthesis, the Calvin Cycle occurs in the:
A. Thylakoid membrane
B. Stroma
C. Grana
D. Cytoplasm
199. Which part of the antibody binds specifically to an antigen?
A. Constant region
B. Hinge region
C. Variable region
D. Light chain backbone
200. Which of the following correctly describes totipotent stem cells?
A. Can become only blood and nerve cells
B. Can differentiate into any type of cell, including extra-embryonic tissues
C. Are only found in adult tissues
D. Can only replicate without differentiation
ANSWER KEY
1. Which cellular organelle is responsible for producing ATP through cellular respiration?
C. Mitochondrion
Explanation: The mitochondrion is often called the "powerhouse" of the cell because it produces ATP through
aerobic cellular respiration.

2. Which of the following best describes the function of the ribosome?

B. Synthesizes proteins
Explanation: Ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into proteins, a process known as protein
synthesis.

3. Which sequence correctly represents the flow of genetic information?

C. DNA → RNA → Protein
Explanation: This is known as the central dogma of molecular biology:
DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into protein.
4. In which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
B. S phase
Explanation: DNA replication takes place during the S (Synthesis) phase of the cell cycle, where the cell
duplicates its DNA in preparation for cell division.

5. What type of mutation results in a stop codon appearing prematurely in a gene?

C. Nonsense
Explanation: A nonsense mutation changes a codon to a premature stop codon, leading to an incomplete,
usually nonfunctional, protein.

6. Which biomolecule is primarily responsible for catalyzing metabolic reactions?

C. Proteins
Explanation: Proteins, specifically enzymes, act as catalysts in metabolic reactions, speeding up chemical
processes in the cell.
7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living organisms?
B. Photosynthesis
Explanation: Not all living organisms perform photosynthesis. Only certain organisms like plants, algae, and
some bacteria do. However, reproduction, response to stimuli, and homeostasis are characteristics shared
by all living things.

8. Which macromolecule stores genetic information?

C. DNA
Explanation: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the molecule that carries genetic information in all known
living organisms.

9. Which structure in a plant cell helps maintain shape by storing water?

B. Central vacuole
Explanation: The central vacuole stores water and maintains turgor pressure, helping the plant cell keep its
shape.

10. What best describes osmosis?

B. Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane
Explanation: Osmosis is the passive transport of water molecules, moving from a region of low solute
concentration to high solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
11. In the food chain, what is the role of decomposers?
C. Break down dead organisms
Explanation: Decomposers like bacteria and fungi break down dead plants and animals, returning nutrients
to the soil and ecosystem.

12. What process allows genetic variation during sexual reproduction?

C. Crossing-over
Explanation: Crossing-over occurs during meiosis, where homologous chromosomes exchange genetic
material. This increases genetic variation in offspring.

13. Which taxonomic group is the most specific?

D. Species
Explanation: In taxonomy, species is the most specific classification, referring to a group of organisms that
can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

14. What happens during photosynthesis?

C. Light energy is used to produce glucose
Explanation: During photosynthesis, plants use light energy, carbon dioxide, and water to produce
glucose and release oxygen.
15. Which organ system is responsible for transporting nutrients and gases in animals?
C. Circulatory system
Explanation: The circulatory system (including the heart, blood, and blood vessels) transports oxygen,
carbon dioxide, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body.

16. Which of the following structures is found only in plant cells?

C. Cell wall
Explanation: The cell wall provides structural support and is found in plant cells, but not in animal cells.

17. What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

C. Growth and repair
Explanation: Mitosis produces genetically identical cells, used for growth, repair, and maintenance in
multicellular organisms.

18. What term refers to organisms that make their own food through photosynthesis?
D. Autotrophs
Explanation: Autotrophs (like plants and algae) produce their own food through photosynthesis.

19. What type of ecological interaction occurs when two species benefit from each other?
C. Mutualism
Explanation: Mutualism is a relationship where both species benefit, such as bees pollinating flowers.

20. What best describes the role of insulin in the human body?
C. Lowers blood glucose levels
Explanation: Insulin is a hormone that helps cells absorb glucose, thus lowering blood sugar levels.

21. Which part of the human brain controls involuntary actions like breathing?
C. Medulla oblongata
Explanation: The medulla oblongata controls involuntary functions such as breathing, heart rate, and
digestion.
22. During aerobic respiration, what are the end products?
B. Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
Explanation: Aerobic respiration uses oxygen to break down glucose, producing carbon dioxide, water, and
ATP (energy).
23. What happens in the alveoli of the lungs?
C. Gas exchange
Explanation: The alveoli are tiny air sacs where oxygen diffuses into the blood and carbon dioxide
diffuses out during respiration.

24. What is the function of the xylem in plants?

A. Transports water
Explanation: Xylem tissue carries water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.

25. Which part of the flower is responsible for producing pollen?

B. Anther
Explanation: The anther, part of the stamen, produces pollen, which contains the male gametes.

26. What is the basic unit of heredity?

C. Gene
Explanation: A gene is a segment of DNA that contains instructions for making proteins and determines traits.

27. Which process leads to the formation of gametes?

C. Meiosis
Explanation: Meiosis is the cell division process that produces gametes (sperm and eggs) with half the usual
number of chromosomes.

28. What is the function of enzymes in biological systems?

C. Speed up chemical reactions
Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts that accelerate chemical reactions without being consumed.

29. What blood type is considered the universal donor?

D. O
Explanation: Type O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens, making it the universal donor.

30. Which of the following represents the correct order of biological organization from simplest to
most complex?
B. Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ System
Explanation: This is the correct sequence of biological organization in multicellular organisms.

31. Which of the following processes contributes most to genetic variation during meiosis?
C. Independent assortment
Explanation: Independent assortment is the random distribution of homologous chromosomes, creating
genetic diversity.

32. Which structure in the human body is responsible for filtering nitrogenous waste from the blood?
C. Kidney
Explanation: The kidneys filter urea and other nitrogenous wastes from the blood to form urine.

33. What happens to a red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution?

B. It shrinks (crenates)
Explanation: In a hypertonic solution, water moves out of the cell, causing it to shrink.
34. Which of the following hormones is most directly involved in regulating metabolism?
B. Thyroxine
Explanation: Thyroxine, produced by the thyroid gland, regulates the body’s metabolic rate.

35. What is the result of a nondisjunction during meiosis?

C. Gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers
Explanation: Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate properly, leading to conditions like
Down syndrome.

36. Which of the following organisms is a pioneer species in primary succession?

C. Lichen
Explanation: Lichens are often the first organisms to colonize bare rock during primary succession.

37. Which of the following is true about plasmids?

C. They are circular DNA found in bacteria
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules separate from the bacterial chromosome and often
carry genes for antibiotic resistance.

38. What type of selection favors both extremes of a trait over the average phenotype?
C. Disruptive selection
Explanation: Disruptive selection favors individuals at both extremes, potentially leading to speciation.

39. What would be the immediate effect of destroying all decomposers in an ecosystem?
C. Accumulation of waste and dead organisms
Explanation: Without decomposers, dead matter and waste wouldn’t be broken down, disrupting nutrient
cycles.

40. What cellular process is disrupted in cancer?

B. Mitosis regulation
Explanation: Cancer results from uncontrolled cell division due to failure in the regulation of mitosis.

41. Which of the following best describes the endosymbiotic theory?

B. Eukaryotic cells evolved by engulfing prokaryotic cells
Explanation: This theory explains the origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells.

42. In gel electrophoresis, how are DNA fragments separated?

B. By electrical charge and size
Explanation: DNA fragments move through a gel when an electric current is applied; smaller fragments travel
farther.

43. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

C. Dengue
Explanation: Dengue is caused by the dengue virus, transmitted by mosquitoes.

44. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

C. Immune defense and fluid balance
Explanation: The lymphatic system helps defend against pathogens and returns fluid to the bloodstream.

45. Which condition results from the body’s immune system attacking its own cells?
B. Autoimmune disorder
Explanation: In autoimmune disorders, the immune system mistakenly targets the body’s own tissues.
46. What best describes the relationship between mRNA and tRNA during translation?
C. tRNA brings amino acids matching the mRNA codons
Explanation: tRNA molecules match their anticodons to mRNA codons and bring the correct amino acids for
protein synthesis.

47. Which stage of embryonic development is characterized by the formation of germ layers?
C. Gastrulation
Explanation: During gastrulation, three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) form.

48. Which process converts nitrogen gas (N₂) into a usable form for plants?
B. Nitrogen fixation
Explanation: Nitrogen fixation converts N₂ gas into ammonia or nitrates, usable by plants.

49. What property of water allows it to regulate Earth's temperature?

A. Its high specific heat
Explanation: Water’s high specific heat allows it to absorb and release heat slowly, helping regulate
temperature.

50. Which of the following best explains the presence of similar bone structures in the limbs of whales,
cats, and humans?
C. Homologous structures due to common ancestry
Explanation: These structures share a common evolutionary origin, even if they serve different functions.

51. What is the primary role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?

C. Synthesizes new DNA strands using existing strands as templates
Explanation: DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to form a new complementary strand.

52. Which enzyme is responsible for “unzipping” the DNA helix during replication?
B. Helicase
Explanation: Helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between DNA strands, unwinding the double helix.

53. What is a major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression?
B. Transcription and translation occur simultaneously in prokaryotes
Explanation: In prokaryotes, transcription and translation are coupled because there is no nuclear
membrane.

54. The process by which mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids is called:
C. Translation
Explanation: Translation is the process where ribosomes synthesize proteins using the sequence in mRNA.

55. What is a codon?

C. A three-nucleotide sequence in mRNA that codes for an amino acid
Explanation: A codon is a set of three bases in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid during
translation.

56. A biologist wants to produce insulin using bacteria. What process will they most likely use?
B. Recombinant DNA technology
Explanation: Recombinant DNA technology involves inserting the insulin gene into bacterial DNA so
bacteria can produce human insulin.

57. Which part of the brain regulates body temperature, thirst, and hunger?
C. Hypothalamus
Explanation: The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis, regulating temperature, thirst, hunger, and other
vital functions.

58. Which component of the immune system is responsible for producing antibodies?
B. B lymphocytes
Explanation: B cells (B lymphocytes) produce antibodies in response to foreign antigens.

59. What characteristic distinguishes a stem cell from other body cells?
B. It can differentiate into any cell type
Explanation: Stem cells are unspecialized and can develop into many different cell types.

60. The Hardy-Weinberg principle predicts allele frequencies remain constant unless:
C. Natural selection occurs
Explanation: Allele frequencies change when evolutionary forces like natural selection, mutation, or
genetic drift act on the population.

61. What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?

B. Translates mRNA codons into amino acids
Explanation: tRNA carries specific amino acids and matches them to the corresponding mRNA codons
during translation.

62. What is the function of the epiglottis?

A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
Explanation: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing, directing food to
the esophagus.

63. Which part of a neuron receives signals from other neurons?

C. Dendrite
Explanation: Dendrites are branch-like structures that receive electrical signals from other neurons.

64. What is the major waste product of aerobic respiration?

D. Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is a byproduct of aerobic respiration and is expelled from the body via
the lungs.

65. Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood?
C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Explanation: PTH increases blood calcium levels by acting on bones, kidneys, and intestines.

66. Which gas is taken in during photosynthesis?

C. Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is absorbed by plants during photosynthesis to help produce glucose.

67. What kind of bond holds the two DNA strands together?
B. Hydrogen bonds
Explanation: The two DNA strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary nitrogen
bases (A-T, G-C).

68. What is the most direct cause of muscle contraction at the cellular level?
C. Sliding of actin over myosin filaments
Explanation: Muscle contraction occurs when actin filaments slide past myosin filaments, shortening the
muscle fiber.
69. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
B. Packages and ships proteins and lipids
Explanation: The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for delivery inside or
outside the cell.

70. Why are viruses not considered living organisms?

C. They cannot reproduce without a host
Explanation: Viruses lack cellular structures and must infect a host cell to reproduce, which is why they're
not classified as living.
71. Which of the following correctly describes an operon in prokaryotes?
C. A group of genes regulated under one promoter
Explanation: An operon is a cluster of genes in prokaryotes that are transcribed together under control of a
single promoter.

72. Which of the following is a polygenic trait in humans?

C. Skin color
Explanation: Polygenic traits are controlled by multiple genes, and skin color is influenced by the combined
effects of several genes.

73. Which ecological pyramid can never be inverted?

C. Pyramid of energy
Explanation: Energy pyramids cannot be inverted because energy decreases at each trophic level due to
heat loss (2nd law of thermodynamics).

74. What substance is secreted by the pancreas to raise blood sugar levels?
B. Glucagon
Explanation: Glucagon raises blood sugar by triggering the breakdown of glycogen into glucose in the liver.

75. What is the primary function of bile in the digestive system?

C. Emulsify fats
Explanation: Bile, produced by the liver, breaks down large fat droplets into smaller ones to aid in fat
digestion.

76. The Bohr effect explains the relationship between:

B. pH and hemoglobin's oxygen-binding capacity
Explanation: The Bohr effect describes how lower pH (more acidic) reduces hemoglobin's affinity for
oxygen, helping release it in tissues.

77. What is the role of myelin in neurons?

B. Speed up nerve impulse transmission
Explanation: Myelin acts as an insulator around axons, increasing the speed of electrical signal transmission.

78. Which of the following is true about monoclonal antibodies?

B. They are identical antibodies produced from a single B-cell clone
Explanation: Monoclonal antibodies are lab-produced molecules from a single clone of B cells, all targeting
the same antigen.

79. A vaccine works by:

C. Stimulating the immune system to produce memory cells
Explanation: Vaccines introduce an inactive or weakened pathogen to trigger immune memory without
causing disease.
80. A zygote with 47 chromosomes most likely results from:
B. Nondisjunction
Explanation: Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis, leading to extra or
missing chromosomes (e.g., trisomy 21).

81. Which component of the blood is primarily responsible for clotting?

B. Platelets
Explanation: Platelets are cell fragments that help form clots to stop bleeding.

82. Which of the following best describes biomagnification?

B. Accumulation of toxins in higher trophic levels
Explanation: Biomagnification is the increase in toxin concentration (like mercury or DDT) as you move up
the food chain.

83. What is the term for an allele that only expresses its phenotype when paired with an identical
allele?
C. Recessive
Explanation: A recessive allele is only expressed in the homozygous state.

84. The central dogma of molecular biology is:

A. DNA → RNA → Protein
Explanation: This describes the flow of genetic information: DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is then
translated into protein.

85. What is the product of fermentation in muscle cells under anaerobic conditions?
B. Lactic acid
Explanation: In anaerobic respiration, muscle cells convert glucose into lactic acid when oxygen is low.

86. What does PCR (polymerase chain reaction) do?

B. Amplifies DNA segments
Explanation: PCR is a technique used to make millions of copies of a specific DNA segment quickly.

87. Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes?

B. Epidermis
Explanation: Melanocytes, which produce melanin (pigment), are located in the stratum basale of the
epidermis.

88. What characteristic is shared by all viruses?

C. Capsid
Explanation: All viruses have a protein coat called a capsid, which encloses their genetic material.

89. What is the role of the loop of Henle in the nephron?

C. Water and salt reabsorption
Explanation: The loop of Henle concentrates urine by reabsorbing water and sodium chloride, helping
maintain fluid balance.

90. Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor in a population?

D. Natural disasters
Explanation: Natural disasters affect populations regardless of size, unlike density-dependent factors like
disease or competition.
91. What is the role of topoisomerase in DNA replication?
B. Prevents overwinding of DNA
Explanation: Topoisomerase prevents supercoiling ahead of the replication fork by relieving tension in the
DNA strand.

92. Which molecule carries genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome?
B. mRNA
Explanation: Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic code from DNA in the nucleus to ribosomes for
translation.

93. Which part of the flower develops into the fruit?

C. Ovary
Explanation: After fertilization, the ovary of the flower develops into the fruit.

94. Which phase of mitosis involves chromosomes aligning at the center of the cell?
C. Metaphase
Explanation: During metaphase, chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate in the center of the cell.

95. What is the end product of transcription?

C. RNA
Explanation: Transcription is the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.

96. Which of the following is an example of an abiotic factor?

B. Temperature
Explanation: Abiotic factors are non-living components of an ecosystem, such as temperature, light, or
soil.

97. Which of the following increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine?
A. Villi and microvilli
Explanation: Villi and microvilli are small, finger-like projections that greatly increase surface area for
nutrient absorption.

98. Which two body systems are directly involved in regulating homeostasis?
C. Nervous and endocrine
Explanation: The nervous system sends quick signals, while the endocrine system sends hormones to
regulate internal conditions.

99. What is the result of transcription?

C. A strand of mRNA
Explanation: Transcription creates mRNA, which carries the genetic code for building proteins.

100. What happens during cytokinesis?

C. The cytoplasm divides
Explanation: Cytokinesis is the final step of cell division, where the cytoplasm splits, forming two new cells.

101. In a genetic engineering experiment, a gene from a jellyfish is inserted into a tomato. What is the
resulting tomato best classified as?
C. Transgenic organism
Explanation: A transgenic organism contains DNA from another species.

102. Which of the following is the primary reason why antibiotics do not work against viruses?
C. Viruses do not have cell walls or metabolic processes
Explanation: Antibiotics target bacterial structures and metabolism, which viruses lack, making them
ineffective against viral infections.
103. Which ecological concept is best demonstrated when two species compete for the same food
resource until one is eliminated from the habitat?
C. Competitive exclusion
Explanation: The competitive exclusion principle states that two species competing for the exact same
resources cannot coexist indefinitely; one will outcompete and exclude the other.

104. What is the likely result if DNA ligase is inhibited during genetic recombination?
B. Okazaki fragments will not be joined
Explanation: DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand; inhibition would leave fragments
unconnected.

105. In experimental biology, what is the importance of a control group?

B. It validates that results are caused by the independent variable
Explanation: A control group is essential to isolate the effect of the independent variable by providing a
baseline for comparison.

106. A scientist exposes bacteria to increasing levels of antibiotics. Over time, only those with
resistance survive and reproduce. This is an example of:
C. Natural selection
Explanation: This is natural selection, where organisms with advantageous traits survive and pass them on.

107. What is one major advantage of stem cells in medicine?

C. They can differentiate into many cell types
Explanation: Stem cells’ ability to become multiple cell types makes them valuable for regenerative medicine.

108. In a food chain, the highest concentration of toxic substances like mercury is found in:
C. Apex predators
Explanation: Through biomagnification, toxins accumulate at higher concentrations at the top of the food
chain.

109. Why is mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) used in tracing maternal lineage?

C. It is only inherited from the mother
Explanation: mtDNA is maternally inherited, so it tracks maternal ancestry.

110. What ethical issue is raised by the use of CRISPR to edit human embryos?
C. It may lead to “designer babies” and unequal access to enhancement
Explanation: Ethical concerns include genetic enhancement, inequality, and unintended consequences in
humans.
111. Which condition is characterized by the absence of an enzyme that breaks down phenylalanine,
leading to intellectual disability if untreated?
C. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Explanation: PKU is a metabolic disorder caused by a deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase.

112. If two heterozygous individuals for a recessive trait have a child, what is the probability that the
child will exhibit the trait?
A. 25%
Explanation: For two heterozygous (Aa) parents, the chance of recessive trait (aa) is 1/4.
113. Which immune cells are primarily responsible for attacking infected host cells?
C. Cytotoxic T cells
Explanation: Cytotoxic T cells kill virus-infected or abnormal cells.

114. Which laboratory technique is used to separate macromolecules based on size and charge?
B. Gel electrophoresis
Explanation: Gel electrophoresis separates DNA, RNA, or proteins by size and charge.

115. The fluid-mosaic model describes the structure of:

C. Cell membrane
Explanation: It describes the dynamic structure of lipids and proteins in membranes.

116. What role do stomata play in plants?

B. Facilitate gas exchange
Explanation: Stomata allow CO₂ in and O₂ out, critical for photosynthesis and respiration.

117. In ecological succession, what typically follows the colonization of lichens and mosses?
C. Grasses and herbaceous plants
Explanation: These plants colonize after pioneer species in primary succession.

118. Which part of the female reproductive system is the usual site of fertilization?
D. Fallopian tube
Explanation: Fertilization commonly occurs in the fallopian tubes.

119. Which process increases the number of mitochondria in muscle cells due to regular exercise?
C. Mitochondrial biogenesis
Explanation: Exercise triggers the production of more mitochondria to meet energy demands.

120. Which biotechnology tool allows scientists to "cut and paste" specific DNA sequences?
C. Restriction enzyme
Explanation: Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific sequences; ligase pastes them.

121. Which of the following best explains why viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites?
C. They can’t reproduce outside a host cell
Explanation: Viruses require host machinery to replicate.

122. Which evolutionary mechanism leads to random changes in allele frequencies in small
populations?
B. Genetic drift
Explanation: Genetic drift causes random allele frequency changes, especially in small populations.

123. In a population under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the dominant allele is 0.7,
what is the frequency of the heterozygous genotype?
B. 0.42
Explanation: Heterozygous frequency = 2pq = 2(0.7)(0.3) = 0.42.

124. Which of the following describes a keystone species?

C. A species that has a disproportionately large effect on its ecosystem
Explanation: Keystone species play critical roles in maintaining ecosystem structure..
125. Which organelle in plant cells contains its own DNA and is thought to have evolved via
endosymbiosis?

Answer: D. Chloroplast
Rationalization:
Chloroplasts, like mitochondria, have their own circular DNA and ribosomes, similar to those of bacteria. This
supports the endosymbiotic theory, which states that early eukaryotic cells engulfed photosynthetic
prokaryotes, which evolved into chloroplasts. Other plant organelles (e.g., nucleus, vacuole) do not have this
prokaryotic feature.

126. Which checkpoint in the cell cycle prevents the cell from entering mitosis if DNA is damaged?

Answer: B. G2 checkpoint
Rationalization:
The G2 checkpoint ensures that DNA replication has occurred correctly and that the DNA is not damaged
before mitosis. If damage is detected, the cycle pauses for repair. The G1 checkpoint checks for cell size and
DNA damage before DNA replication, while the M checkpoint ensures chromosomes are correctly attached to
spindle fibers during mitosis.

127. In gene therapy, which vector is most commonly used to insert functional genes into human
cells?

Answer: B. Retrovirus
Rationalization:
Retroviruses integrate their genetic material into the host genome, allowing long-term expression of the
therapeutic gene—ideal for treating inherited diseases. While adenoviruses are also used, they don’t integrate
into the genome, so gene expression is often temporary.

128. What structure ensures the mitotic spindle attaches properly to each chromatid?

Answer: A. Kinetochore
Rationalization:
The kinetochore is a protein complex at the centromere that binds spindle fibers to chromatids, ensuring
accurate chromosome alignment and separation. Without proper attachment, mitosis could result in unequal
DNA distribution (nondisjunction).

129. Which organ system maintains long-term control over growth and development using chemical
messengers?

Answer: B. Endocrine system

Rationalization:
The endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream to regulate long-term processes like growth,
metabolism, and development. The nervous system is faster and electrical, but it’s more short-term in function.

130. Which of the following is a consequence of increased atmospheric CO₂ levels on marine
ecosystems?

Answer: B. Ocean acidification

Rationalization:
CO₂ dissolves in water to form carbonic acid, which lowers ocean pH. This acidification negatively affects
marine organisms, particularly those that build shells or skeletons from calcium carbonate. Other options like
coral bleaching have multiple causes, not solely linked to CO₂.
131. What is the function of the corpus callosum in the human brain?

Answer: B. Connect the two hemispheres

Rationalization:
The corpus callosum is a large bundle of nerve fibers that enables communication between the left and right
cerebral hemispheres. Damage to it can cause disconnection syndromes. It does not control breathing,
memory, or hormone production directly.

132. What is an example of epigenetic regulation?

Answer: C. Methylation of DNA to silence gene expression

Rationalization:
Epigenetic changes modify gene expression without altering the DNA sequence. DNA methylation is a
classic example, where methyl groups are added to DNA (usually at cytosines), often silencing gene activity.
Mutation or crossing over are genetic changes, not epigenetic.

133. Which of the following tools can be used to compare evolutionary relationships based on
molecular similarities?

Answer: B. Cladogram
Rationalization:
A cladogram shows evolutionary relationships using shared derived traits, often based on molecular data like
DNA or protein sequences. It helps scientists infer common ancestry. Phylogenetic trees can be similar but
may show branch lengths and evolutionary time.
134. What would happen to a cell in a hypotonic solution?

Answer: B. Lyse (burst)

Explanation:
In a hypotonic solution, water enters the cell due to osmosis, causing it to swell and potentially burst (lyse).

135. What is the role of integrins in animal cells?

Answer: C. Anchoring cells to the extracellular matrix

Explanation:
Integrins are transmembrane proteins that help anchor cells to the extracellular matrix and relay signals
between the cell and its environment.

136. Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing glucose, amino acids, and most
nutrients?

Answer: D. Proximal tubule

Explanation:
The proximal tubule reabsorbs most of the filtered glucose, amino acids, and essential nutrients from the
filtrate.

137. Which molecule initiates transcription by binding to a gene’s promoter region?

Answer: A. RNA polymerase

Explanation:
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of a gene to begin transcription, synthesizing RNA from a DNA
template.

138. In what situation would sympatric speciation most likely occur?

Answer: C. Reproductive isolation occurs in the same environment

Explanation:
Sympatric speciation happens when reproductive isolation develops within a population that shares the same
geographic location.

139. Which genetic disorder is caused by trisomy 21?

Answer: C. Down syndrome

Explanation:
Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra (third) copy of chromosome 21.

140. Which process occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane and produces the most ATP?

Answer: C. Electron transport chain

Explanation:
The electron transport chain occurs in the inner mitochondrial membrane and produces the majority of ATP
during cellular respiration.

141. Which of the following genetic technologies allows for precise editing of genes at specific
locations in the genome?

Answer: C. CRISPR-Cas9
Explanation:
CRISPR-Cas9 is a powerful gene-editing tool that enables scientists to precisely modify DNA at targeted
locations.
142. Why are mitochondria maternally inherited in most animals?

Answer: C. Mitochondria from sperm are typically degraded after fertilization

Explanation:
After fertilization, paternal mitochondria (from the sperm) are usually destroyed, so only maternal mitochondria
are passed on to the offspring.

143. Which of the following best explains antagonistic pleiotropy in evolutionary biology?

Answer: C. A gene is beneficial early in life but harmful later on

Explanation:
Antagonistic pleiotropy occurs when a gene has positive effects on fitness in early life but negative effects in
later life, such as promoting reproduction early but contributing to aging later.

144. Which physiological system is most directly affected by multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Answer: B. Nervous system

Explanation:
MS is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the myelin sheath covering neurons,
impairing communication in the nervous system.

145. What is the primary function of histones in eukaryotic cells?

 Answer: C. Package and condense DNA
Explanation:
Histones are proteins that help organize and compact DNA into nucleosomes, making it manageable within the
nucleus.

146. If a cell is in G0 phase, what does this mean?

Answer: C. It is metabolically active but not dividing

Explanation:
Cells in the G0 phase have exited the cell cycle and do not divide, though they often remain metabolically
active (e.g., nerve cells).

147. Which of the following disorders results from a defect in hemoglobin causing sickle-shaped red
blood cells?

Answer: C. Sickle cell anemia

Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene for hemoglobin, leading to abnormal, rigid, sickle-
shaped red blood cells.

148. The presence of analogous structures in unrelated species is evidence of:

Answer: B. Convergent evolution

Explanation:
Analogous structures arise when unrelated species independently evolve similar traits due to similar
environmental pressures, not shared ancestry.

149. Which structure in the chloroplast is the site of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

Answer: B. Thylakoid membrane

Explanation:
The light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes, where chlorophyll captures light energy to
drive ATP and NADPH production.
150. Which hormone directly stimulates the reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys, helping regulate
blood pressure?

Answer: B. Aldosterone
Explanation:
Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, promotes sodium reabsorption in the distal nephron,
which helps retain water and increase blood pressure.

151. What experimental method is used to determine the function of a gene by turning it off?

Answer: B. RNA interference (RNAi)

Explanation:
RNA interference (RNAi) is a technique used to silence gene expression by degrading mRNA or blocking its
translation, helping identify gene function.

152. Which cellular process is regulated by cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)?

Answer: C. Cell cycle progression

Explanation:
Cyclins and CDKs form complexes that regulate different phases of the cell cycle, ensuring proper timing of
cell division events.

153. A person with blood type AB has which antigens on their red blood cells?

Answer: C. Both A and B

Explanation:
Individuals with AB blood type express both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, making them
universal recipients for blood transfusion.

154. In gene expression, what is the role of an enhancer region?

Answer: C. Increases transcription when activated

Explanation:
Enhancers are DNA sequences that, when bound by activator proteins, increase the rate of transcription from
a distant promoter.

155. In enzyme kinetics, what does the Michaelis constant (Km) represent?

Answer: C. The substrate concentration at half-max velocity

Explanation:
The Km value indicates the substrate concentration at which an enzyme-catalyzed reaction proceeds at
half its maximum velocity (Vmax), providing insight into enzyme affinity for the substrate.

156. Which phenomenon is responsible for the exchange of genetic material between homologous
chromosomes during meiosis?

Answer: B. Crossing-over
Explanation:
Crossing-over occurs during prophase I of meiosis and involves the exchange of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes, increasing genetic diversity.

157. Which macromolecule contains nitrogen, phosphorus, and a sugar backbone?

Answer: C. Nucleic acid

Explanation:
Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are composed of nucleotides, which contain a nitrogenous base, a
phosphate group, and a sugar (deoxyribose or ribose) backbone.
158. Why is ATP considered the universal energy currency of the cell?

Answer: C. It releases usable energy when phosphate bonds are broken

Explanation:
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) stores energy in its high-energy phosphate bonds. When one of these bonds is
broken (e.g., ATP → ADP + Pi), it releases energy that can be used for cellular work.

159. Which of the following immune responses is primarily mediated by cytotoxic T cells?

Answer: C. Destruction of virus-infected cells

Explanation:
Cytotoxic T cells recognize and kill virus-infected, cancerous, or damaged cells by inducing apoptosis.

160. What is the effect of a nonsense mutation?

 Answer: C. Introduces a premature stop codon
Explanation:
A nonsense mutation changes a codon for an amino acid into a stop codon, which halts translation early and
usually results in a nonfunctional protein.

161. Which of the following best describes the function of a signal transduction pathway?

Answer: C. Converts an extracellular signal into a specific cellular response

Explanation:
Signal transduction pathways allow cells to respond to external signals (e.g., hormones, growth factors) by
triggering a cascade of intracellular events, leading to a specific response like gene expression or cell division.

162. Which organ produces most of the plasma proteins found in human blood?

Answer: B. Liver
Explanation:
The liver synthesizes most plasma proteins, including albumin, clotting factors, and globulins, which are
essential for blood function and homeostasis.

163. Which enzyme is used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from an mRNA template?

Answer: B. Reverse transcriptase

Explanation:
Reverse transcriptase converts mRNA into complementary DNA (cDNA), a key step in molecular cloning
and gene expression analysis.

164. In electrophoresis, DNA fragments travel toward the positive electrode because:

Answer: C. DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate groups

Explanation:
DNA has a negative charge because of its phosphate backbone, so it migrates toward the positive
electrode in an electric field during gel electrophoresis.

165. Which immune cell type bridges the innate and adaptive immune responses by presenting
antigens to T cells?

Answer: C. Dendritic cells

Explanation:
Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells (APCs) that capture pathogens, process them, and present their
antigens to T cells, linking innate and adaptive immunity.

166. Which neurotransmitter is most associated with reward and pleasure pathways in the brain?

Answer: C. Dopamine

167. Which of the following best describes quorum sensing in bacteria?

Answer: B. Population-dependent regulation of gene expression

168. What type of mutation results in a different amino acid being coded due to a single nucleotide
change?

Answer: B. Missense mutation

169. Which of the following is the correct order of blood flow through the nephron for filtration?
 Answer: C. Glomerulus → Bowman’s capsule → Proximal tubule → Loop of Henle

170. Which hormone causes the endometrial lining of the uterus to thicken during the menstrual cycle?

Answer: A. Estrogen

171. Which bacterial process allows the uptake of foreign DNA from the environment?

Answer: C. Transformation

172. What is the immediate consequence of depolarization in a neuron?

Answer: C. Action potential is generated

173. In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, what is the effect of a competitive inhibitor?

Answer: C. Competes with the substrate for the active site

Got it! Here’s the same list with explanations added for each answer:
174. Which structure in a virus determines its host specificity?

Answer: C. Surface glycoproteins

Explanation: Surface glycoproteins on the viral envelope recognize and bind to specific receptors on host cells,
determining which cells the virus can infect.
175. What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump in maintaining resting membrane potential?

Answer: C. It pumps 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in, maintaining negative internal charge

Explanation: This pump actively transports sodium out and potassium into the cell, creating a charge difference
that keeps the inside of the cell negatively charged relative to the outside.
176. Which of the following causes muscle fatigue due to anaerobic respiration?

Answer: A. Buildup of lactic acid

Explanation: During anaerobic respiration, lactic acid accumulates in muscles, lowering pH and causing fatigue
and soreness.
177. In gene regulation, what is the function of a repressor protein?

Answer: B. Blocks the operator region to prevent transcription

Explanation: Repressor proteins bind to the operator region on DNA, preventing RNA polymerase from
transcribing the gene, thus regulating gene expression.
178. A patient exhibits symptoms of high blood sugar, frequent urination, and blurred vision. Which
hormone is likely underproduced?

Answer: B. Insulin

Explanation: Insulin lowers blood glucose by promoting uptake into cells; its deficiency causes hyperglycemia
and symptoms of diabetes.
179. What does the term “semi-conservative replication” mean regarding DNA synthesis?

Answer: B. Each new DNA molecule consists of one old and one new strand
Explanation: During replication, each daughter DNA has one original (parental) strand and one newly
synthesized strand, conserving half of the original molecule.

180. Which of the following technologies allows scientists to “amplify” a specific DNA sequence in
vitro?

Answer: B. PCR (polymerase chain reaction)

Explanation: PCR uses cycles of heating and cooling with DNA polymerase to exponentially amplify a targeted
DNA sequence in a test tube.
181. Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells in bone marrow?

Answer: B. Erythropoietin

Explanation: Erythropoietin, produced mainly by the kidneys, signals the bone marrow to increase red blood
cell production, especially under low oxygen conditions.

182. Which phase of meiosis is responsible for increasing genetic diversity through independent
assortment?

Answer: C. Metaphase I

Explanation: During Metaphase I, homologous chromosome pairs line up randomly at the cell’s equator,
allowing different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes to be separated into daughter cells.
183. Which cellular organelle detoxifies alcohol and drugs in liver cells?

Answer: C. Smooth ER

Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum contains enzymes that metabolize toxins such as alcohol and
drugs, helping detoxify liver cells.
184. Which of the following diseases is caused by a prion?

Answer: C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

Explanation: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by prions, misfolded proteins that induce other proteins to
misfold, leading to neurodegeneration.
185. Which structure in plant cells regulates gas exchange and water loss?

Answer: C. Stomata

Explanation: Stomata are pores on the leaf surface controlled by guard cells, regulating the exchange of gases
(CO₂, O₂) and controlling water loss via transpiration.
186. What property of water allows it to move up through the xylem of plants?

Answer: B. Capillary action via cohesion and adhesion

Explanation: Water molecules stick to each other (cohesion) and to the walls of xylem vessels (adhesion),
enabling water to climb up plants against gravity.
187. The primary structure of a protein refers to:

Answer: A. The sequence of amino acids

Explanation: The primary structure is the linear order of amino acids linked by peptide bonds in a polypeptide
chain.
188. Which organ system is primarily responsible for removing nitrogenous wastes from the blood?

Answer: C. Excretory

Explanation: The excretory system, particularly the kidneys, filters blood to remove nitrogenous wastes like
urea through urine.
189. Which structure in the male reproductive system is the site of sperm maturation?

Answer: B. Epididymis

Explanation: Sperm mature and gain motility in the epididymis before being transported through the vas
deferens.
190. What causes the S-shaped curve in a logistic population growth graph?

Answer: C. Carrying capacity of the environment

Explanation: The S-shaped curve (sigmoidal curve) reflects how population growth slows as it reaches the
carrying capacity, the maximum number the environment can sustain.
191. What happens to oxygen in cellular respiration?

Answer: B. It is used to accept electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

Explanation: Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, combining with
electrons and protons to form water.
192. Which part of the brain regulates homeostasis, including body temperature and hunger?

Answer: C. Hypothalamus

Explanation: The hypothalamus controls many homeostatic processes such as temperature regulation, hunger,
thirst, and hormone release.

193. What is the effect of increased progesterone during the menstrual cycle?

Answer: C. Maintenance of the uterine lining

Explanation: Progesterone stabilizes and maintains the thickened endometrial lining to prepare for potential
implantation of an embryo.
194. Which phase of the cell cycle includes DNA replication?

Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: The S (synthesis) phase is when the cell duplicates its DNA in preparation for cell division.
195. Which process allows bacteria to develop antibiotic resistance and pass it to other bacteria?

Answer: C. Conjugation

Explanation: Conjugation is the transfer of genetic material, including antibiotic resistance genes, between
bacteria through direct contact.
196. A frameshift mutation is caused by:
 Answer: B. Insertion or deletion not in multiples of 3

Explanation: Frameshift mutations result from insertions or deletions of nucleotides that shift the reading frame,
altering the downstream amino acid sequence.
197. What is a hallmark feature of Type I diabetes mellitus?

Answer: C. Immune system destroys insulin-producing cells

Explanation: Type I diabetes is an autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the pancreatic beta
cells that produce insulin, causing insulin deficiency.
198. In photosynthesis, the Calvin Cycle occurs in the:
Answer: B. Stroma
Explanation: The Calvin Cycle takes place in the stroma, the fluid-filled space outside the thylakoid
membranes, where carbon fixation and sugar production occur.

199. Which part of the antibody binds specifically to an antigen?

Answer: C. Variable region
Explanation: The variable region of an antibody contains unique amino acid sequences that allow it to bind
specifically to a particular antigen.

200. Which of the following correctly describes totipotent stem cells?

Answer: B. Can differentiate into any type of cell, including extra-embryonic tissues
Explanation: Totipotent stem cells have the ability to form all cell types in an organism, including both
embryonic and extra-embryonic (placental) tissues.