06-08-2025

6201CMD30303125MAJOR01 MD

PHYSICS

1) A vector in x-y plane makes an angle of 30° with y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of vector
is . The magnitude of x-component of the vector will be :

(1)
(2) 2
(3) 6

(4)

2) A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed 6 m/s. The other half is
covered in two equal time intervals with speeds 9 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. The average speed of
the particle during the motion is

(1) 9.2 m/s

(2) 8.8 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

3)

The velocity-time graph of an object moving along a straight line is shown in the figure. What is the
distance covered by the object between t = 0 to t = 4s ?

(1) 11 m
(2) 30 m
(3) 13 m
(4) 20 m

4) A ball is released from a height h. If t1 and t2 be the time required to complete first half and
second half of the distance respectively. Then, choose the correct relation between t1 and t2.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) The position vector of a particle changes with time according to the relation

. What is the magnitude of the acceleration at t = 1 ?

(1) 50
(2) 25
(3) 40
(4) 100

6) What will be the projection of vector on vector ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Let and . The magnitude of a coplanar vector such that ,

is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

Match Column-I with Column-II:

Column-I Column-II
 (A) (i)

(ii)
(B)

(iii)
(C)

(D)
(iv)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A – ii; B – iii; C – iv; D – i
(2) A – ii; B – iv; C – iii; D – i
(3) A – i; B – iii; C – iv; D – ii
(4) A – i; B – ii; C – iii; D – iv

9) The instantaneous velocity of a particle moving in a straight line is given as , where

and are constants. The distance travelled by the particle between 1 s and 2 s is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The velocity of the bullet becomes one third after it penetrates 4 cm in a wooden block.
Assuming that bullet is facing a constant resistance during its motion in the block. The bullet stops
completely after travelling at (4 + x) cm inside the block. The value of x is

(1) 2.0
(2) 1.0
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.5

11) A small toy starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a
distance of 10 m in t s, the distance travelled by the toy in the next t s will be

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 30 m
(4) 40 m

12) Water drops are falling from a nozzle of a shower onto the floor, from a height of 16 m. The
drops fall at a regular interval of time. When the first drop strikes the floor, at that instant, the third
drop begins to fall. Locate the position of second drop from the floor when the first drop strikes
the floor.

(1) 14 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 12 m

13) A scooter accelerates from rest for time t1 at constant rate a1 and then retards at constant rate

a2 for time t2 and comes to rest. The correct value of will be :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

14) An engine of a train, moving with uniform acceleration, passes the signal-post with velocity u
and the last compartment with velocity v. The velocity with which middle point of the train passes
the signal post is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. An object of finite mass is
dropped from the balloon when it was at a height of 75 m from the ground level. The height of the
balloon from the ground when object strikes the ground was around : (Takes the value of g as 10
m/s2)

(1) 300 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 250 m

16)

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason
R.
Assertion (A): When a body is projected at an angle 45°, it’s range is maximum.
Reason (R): For maximum range, the value of should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true, but R is false
(3) A is false, but R is true
(4) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

17)

All the graphs below are intended to represent the same motion. One of them does it incorrectly.
Pick it up.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The trajectory of projectile. projected from the ground is given by . Where x and y are
measured in meter. The maximum height attained by the projectile will be

(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 200 m
(4)

19) A projectile is projected at 30° from horizontal with initial velocity 40 ms–1. The velocity of the
projectile at t = 2 s from the start will be : (Given g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2) Zero
(3)
(4)
20) The initial speed of a projectile fired from ground is u. At the highest point during its motion, the

speed of projectile is . The time of flight of the projectile is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10 m above the ground and throws a stone horizontally
with an initial speed of . Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with which the stone hits the
ground will be _____ (Given, g = 10 ms–2).

(1) 20
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 15

22) Two projectiles thrown at 30° and 45° with the horizontal respectively, reach the maximum
height in same time. The ratio of their initial velocities is

(1)
(2) 2 : 1
(3)
(4) 1 : 2

23) The ranges and heights for two projectiles projected with the same initial velocity at angles 42°
and 48° with the horizontal are R1, R2 and H1, H2 respectively. Choose the correct option:

(1) R1 > R2 and H1 = H2

(2) R1 = R2 and H1 < H2
(3) R1 < R2 and H1 < H2
(4) R1 = R2 and H1 = H2

24) A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If the speed of water coming out of
the fountain is , the maximum area around the fountain that gets wet is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) A train starting from rest first accelerates uniformly up to a speed of 80 km/h for time t, then it
moves with a constant speed for time 3t. The average speed of the train for this duration of journey
will be (in km/h):

(1) 70
(2) 40
(3) 30
(4) 80

26) A particle is moving in a straight line. The variation of position 'x' as a function of time 't' is given

as . The velocity of the body when its acceleration becomes zero is

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

27) Two cars are travelling towards each other at speed of each. When the cars are 300 m
apart, both the drivers apply brakes and the cars retard at the rate of . The distance between
them when they come to rest is

(1) 25 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 50 m
(4) 200 m

28) If then is

(1) 4
(2) Zero
(3) 8
(4) 16

29) A passenger train of length 60 m travels at a speed of 80 km/hr. Another freight train of length
120 m travels at a speed of 30 km/hr. The ratio of times taken by the passenger train to completely
cross the freight train when : (i) they are moving in the same direction, and (ii) in the opposite
direction is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of 2 km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 4
km/h. What should be the direction of the swimmer with respect to the flow of the river to cross the
river straight ?

(1) 150°
(2) 120°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

31) A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5
m/s northwards. The average acceleration in this time is

(1)
towards north

(2)
towards north-east

(3)
towards north-west
(4) Zero

32) Time - displacement (t-x) graph of two objects A and B is shown in figure. The ratio of their

speeds ( ) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Match the columns

Column
Column I
II
 A. Instantaneous acceleration P.

B. Average acceleration Q.

C. Average velocity R.

D. Instantaneous velocity S.

(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S

(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

34) Match the column I & II

(1) A - P, B - S, C - R, D - Q.
(2) A - P, B - Q, C - R, D - S.
(3) A - Q, B - R, C - S, D - P.
(4) A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R.

35) The position-time graph of a moving particle is shown. The instantaneous velocity of the particle
is negative at the point:

(1) D
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E

36) A projectile is fired from ground with velocity . If acceleration due to gravity acting
on the particle is g. Then match the following

Column-A Column-B

(i) Time of ascent

(p)

(ii) Maximum height (H)

(q)

(iii) Time of flight

(r)

(iv) Range
(s)
(1) (i) – p; (ii) – q; (iii) – r; (iv) – s
(2) (i) – r; (ii) – s; (iii) – p; (iv) – q
(3) (i) – r; (ii) – p; (iii) – q; (iv) – s
(4) (i) – r; (ii) – s; (iii) – q; (iv) – p

37) The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second:

(1) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(2) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4

38) An ant is scramping on the stairs as shown in the figure. There are '4' stairs and each stair has
width of 12 cm and height of 5 cm. The distance travelled by the ant to scramp the stairs is:-

(1) 52 cm
(2) 68 cm
(3) 48 cm
(4) 20 cm

39) If a particle moves from point P(2, 3, 5) to point Q(3, 4, 5). Its displacement vector be:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary escalator in time t1 If she remains stationary on
the moving escalator, then the escalator take her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on
the moving escalator will be :

(1) (t1 + t2)/2

(2) t1 t2/(t2 – t1)
(3) t1 t2 / (t2 + t1)
(4) t1 – t2

41) A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according
to
v(x) = βx–2n
where β and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a
function of x, is given by :

(1) –2nβ2x–4n–1
(2) –2β2x–2n+1
(3) –2nβ2e–4n+1
(4) –2nβ2x–2n–1

42) Assertion (A): A river is flowing from east to west at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south
bank of river, capable of swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across the river in
shortest time. He should swim due north.
Reason (R): For the shortest time, the man needs to swim perpendicular to the bank.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

43) A river is flowing with a speed of 1 km/hr. A swimmer wants to go to point C standing from A. He
swims with a speed of 5 km/hr, at angle w.r.t. the river. If AB = BC = 400 m. Then

(1) The value of is 53°

(2) Time taken by the man is 4 min
(3) Time taken by the man is 8 min
(4) The value of is 45°

44) A ball is dropped from a building of height 45 m. Simultaneously another ball is thrown up with a
speed 40 m/s. The relative speed of the balls as a function of time can be shown as
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) The paths of three projectiles are shown in the figure. Which projectile spends the most time in

air ?

(1) Projectile A
(2) Projectile B
(3) Projectile C
(4) All three projectiles spend the same amount of time in the air.
 CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following molecules has the longest nitrogen-nitrogen bond?

(1) N2H4
(2) N2
(3) N2F2
(4) All have equal bond lengths

2)

The correct order of bond angle

(1) CCl4 > SiCl4 > SiH4 > CH4

(2) CH4 > CCl4 > SiCl4 > SiH4
(3) CH4 > CCl4 > SiH4 > SiCl4
(4) CH4 = CCl4 = SiH4 = SiCl4

3) Assertion (A) : Bond energy has order like C – C < C = C < C ≡ C.

Reason (R) : Bond energy increases with increase in bond order.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

4) Correct statement regarding molecules SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are

(1) 2,0 and 1 lone pairs of central atom respectively

(2) 1,0 and 1 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(3) 0,0 and 2 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(4) 1,0 and 2 lone pairs of central atom respectively

5) The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is

(1) CH3–F < CH3–Cl < CH3–Br < CH3–I

(2) CH3–F > CH3–Cl > CH3–Br > CH3–I
(3) CH3–F < CH3–Cl > CH3–Br > CH3–I
(4) CH3–Cl > CH3–F > CH3–Br > CH3–I

6) Which of the following is strongest H–Bonding ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Total number of tetrahedral angles present in CH4(g) molecule is

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

8) The compound containing co-ordinate bond is

(1) H2SO4
(2) H2CO3
(3) SO3
(4) Both 1 and 3

9) What is the average formal charge on each oxygen atom in phosphate ion

(1) 0.75
(2) -0.75
(3) -0.57
(4) 0.57

10) The formal charges of oxygen labelled 3, 2, 1 in ozone respectively are

(1) –1, +1, 0

(2) 0, 0, –1
(3) –1, 0, +1
(4) 0, +1, –1

11) For which of the following compound dipole moment ≠ 0 ?

(1)

(2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) CCl4

12) The correct increasing order of dipole moment is

(1) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O

(2) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
(3) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O
(4) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4

13) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II
(Molecules) (Property)

(P) IF7 (i) Planar and polar

(Q) SO2 (ii) Non-planar and polar

(R) SF4 (iii) Linear and nonpolar

(S) CS2 (iv) Non-planar and non-polar

(1) P – iv, Q – i, R – ii, S – iii
(2) P – iv, Q – ii, R – i, S – iii
(3) P – iii, Q – i, R – ii, S – iv
(4) P – iii, Q – i, R – iv, S – ii

14) London dispersion force present between which pair.

(1) HBr & HBr

(2) HCl & HCl
(3) Cl2 & HCl
(4) Br2 & Br2

15) Which of the following attraction is strongest?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) Statement-1: Superoxide is paramagnetic where as peroxide ion is diamagnetic.

Statement-2: Superoxide ion has one unpaired electron where as peroxide ion has no unpaired
electron.

(1) Both the statements are true and statement-2 is correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) Both the statements are true, but statement-2 is not correct explanation of statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

17) Which molecule does not exist?

(1) H2O
(2) HF
(3) He2
(4) B2

18) Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) In a homonuclear molecule which of the following set of orbitals are degenerate ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) and

20) Which of the following reaction involves decrease in bond length?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

21)

Among the increasing covalent character follows the order

(1) CCℓ4 < BCℓ3 < BeCℓ2 < LiCℓ
(2) LiCℓ < BeCℓ2 < BCℓ3 < CCℓ4
(3) CCℓ4 < LiCℓ < BeCℓ2 < BCℓ3
(4) BCℓ3 < LiCℓ < BeCℓ2 < CCℓ4

22) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : AgCl is more covalent than NaCl.
Reason (R) : Polarising Power of Ag+ is greater than Na+ ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) (A) & (R) both are incorrect.

(2) (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

23)

Which of the following has maximum number of atoms ?

(1) 1 gm Mg(s)
(2) 1 gm Ag(s)
(3) 1 gm Au(s)
(4) 1 gm O3(s)

24) Select INCORRECT order of property :-

(1) NaCl > KCl > RbCl Covalent character

(2) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 Lattice energy
(3) Na2CO3 > K2CO3 > Rb2CO3 Thermal stability
(4) CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF Thermal stability

25) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Lattice energy of an ionic solid is defined as the energy required to separate one
mole of ionic solid in gaseous constituent ions.
Statement-II : Stability of an ionic compound depend on its lattice energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I and II both are correct.

26) The F–F bond is weak because

(1) The repulsion between the nonbonding pairs of electrons of two fluorine atoms is large
(2) The ionization energy of the fluorine atoms is very low
(3) The length of the F–F bond much large than the bond lengths in other halogen molecules
The F–F bond distance is small and hence the internuclear repulsion between the two F atoms is
(4)
very low

27) PCl5 is non polar because

(1) P – Cl bond is non-polar

(2) Its dipole moment is zero
(3) P – Cl bond is polar
(4) P & Cl have equal electronegativity

28) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : NH3 molecule is less polar than NF3 molecule.
Statement-II : 'F' is more electronegative than H element.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.

29) Which of the following is correct order?

(1)
Basic strength
(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 → Bond energy
(4) All of these

30) The correct increasing order of C-O bond length among CO, is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The double bond in C2 molecule consists of both bonds due to

(1) The absence of any electrons in two molecular orbitals

(2) The presence of four electrons in two molecular orbitals
(3) The presence of four electrons in one molecular orbital
(4) The presence of two electrons in one molecular orbital
32) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur by mass in it. Its empirical formula is

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

33) Which of the following has the greatest mass?

(1) 6.0 × 1023 atoms of O

23
(2) 3.0 × 10 molecules of O2
23
(3) 2.0 × 10 molecules of O3
(4) All have the same mass

34) Which of the following is not a homogeneous mixture

(1) mixture of O2 & N2

(2) Salt water
(3) Sugar in water
(4) Sand + water

35) 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weigh 1.15gm. The atomic mass of the element is :-

(1) 10
(2) 2.3
(3) 35.5
(4) 23

36) Assertion (A): One atomic mass unit is defined as one twelfth mass of the one carbon-12 atom.
Reason (R): Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant is type of carbon and has been choose as
standard.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A & R are false

37) In which of the following process hybridisation of the central atom changes -

+ +
(1) H2O + H → H3O
+ +
(2) NF3 + F → NF4
– –
(3) BF3 + F → BF4
+ +
(4) NH3 + H → NH4

38)
Which of the following contain maximum number of water molecules ?

(1) 1.8 ml of water

(2) 1 gm of water
(3) 1 gm molecules of water
(4) 1 milligram of water

39) Consider following isomeric forms :- Select correct option :

(1) Viscocity : I > II

(2) (I) dosen't have intramolecular hydrogen bonding
(3) (II) has intramolecular H-bonding
(4) (I) is more volatile as compared to (II)

40) Main axis of a diatomic molecule is z, atomic orbitals Px, Px overlap to form which of the
following molecular orbital ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) Which of the following structures is most stable?

Choose the correct option

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) All three have same stability

42) The number of moles of water present in 90 g of water is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

43) Number of electrons in 1.7g NH3 is :-

(1) 0.7 NA
(2) 10 NA
(3) NA
(4) 0.1 NA

44) What is the mass percent of H in CH4 :-

(1) 20%
(2) 30%
(3) 25%
(4) 40%

45) The empirical formula of an acid is CH2O, the probable molecular formula of acid may be:-

(1) CH2O2
(2) C2H4O4
(3) C2H4O2
(4) C3H6O4

BOTANY

1) In monocot stem, hypodermis is made up of :-

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Living mechanical tissue

2) Which of the family has (9) + 1 arrangement of anthers in the androecium ?

(1) Malvaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Fabaceae
(4) Graminaceae

3) Figures X and Y represent the transverse sections of _____ and _____ respectively.

(1) X – Dicot root; Y – dicot stem

(2) X – Monocot root; Y – monocot stem
(3) X – Dicot stem; Y – monocot stem
(4) X – Monocot stem; Y – dicot stem

4) Parallel venation occurs in:-

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Malvaceae
(4) Fabaceae

5) Identify the correct match pair ?

Anther free &

(A) Polyadelphous (i)
filament fused

Many bundles of
(B) Syngenesious (ii)
stamens

Anther fused &

(C) Adelphous (iii)
filament free

Carpels are
(D) Syncarpous (iv)
fused
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

6) Read the following statements :

(a) Monocot root has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
(b) Monocot stem has large number of scattered vascular bundles.
(c) In Dicot stem, vascular bundle is conjoint & open.
(d) In Cassia and Gulmohur, sepals and petals in whorl just touch one another at the margin.
(e) Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem.
Choose the correct option :

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, d and e
(3) b, c and e
(4) c, d and e

7) Consider the following diagram and select the option for the name of the part labelled as A.

(1) Scutellum
(2) Endosperm
(3) Coleoptile
(4) Plumule

8) Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below :

Column-I Column-I​​I
(Stem modifications) (Found in)

(A) Underground stem (i) Euphorbia

(B) Stem tendril (ii) Opuntia

(C) Stem thorns (iii) Potato

(D) Flattened stem (iv) Citrus

(E) Fleshy cylindrical stem (v) Cucumber

(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – v, E – i
(3) A – iii, B – v, C – iv, D – ii, E – i
(4) A – v, B – iii, C – iv, D – i, E – ii

9) Bicarpellary ovary with parietal placentation is found in :-

(1) Cruciferae
(2) Leguminosae
(3) Malvaceae
(4) Compositae

10) Assertion : Both Apical and intercalary meristem are primary meristem.
Reason : They appear early in life of plant and contribute to the formation of primary plant body.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

11) In __A__ type of inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower, hence is __B__ in growth. The
flowers are borne in a __C__ order.
A, B & C respectively are _____.

(1) Racemose, unlimited, acropetal

(2) Cymose, limited, basipetal
(3) Cymose, unlimited, basipetal
(4) Cymose, limited, acropetal

12) When stamens are attached to tepals it is known as

(1) Epiphyllous
(2) Epipetalous
(3) Episepalous
(4) Gynandrous

13) Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma are found in pericycle of :

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Dicot leaves
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot leaves

14) Which is not a character of stem ?

(1) Conjoint, collateral vascular bundles

(2) Endarch condition
(3) Presence of starch sheath.
(4) Exarch condition

15) Underground stems of Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Zaminkand and Colocasia are modified to

(1) Propagate by vegetative methods

(2) Store food
(3) Organ of perennation
(4) All are correct

16) Root is covered at the apex by a thimble- like structure called

(1) Root cap

(2) Radicle
(3) Coleorhiza
(4) Coleoptile

17) Persistent calyx is the property of plants of family

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Fabaceace

18) Identify the missing characters (A, B, C, D) and choose the correct option :

Family Inflorescence Flower Stamens Gynoecium

Solitary,
Liliaceae Actinomorphic C Tricarpellary
cymose
 Solitary,
Solanaceae Actinomorphic 5 Bicarpellary
cymose

Fabaceae A B 10 D
A = Racemose, B = Zygomorphic,
(1)
C = 5, D = Bicarpellary
A = Cymose, B = Actinomorphic,
(2)
C = 3 + 3, D = Multicarpellary
A = Cymose, B = Zygomorphic,
(3)
C = 5, D = Tricarpellary
A = Racemose, B = Zygomorphic,
(4)
C = 3 + 3, D = Monocarpellary

19) Perennial herbs with underground bulbs or corms or rhizomes is common in the family :

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Poaceae
(4) Brassicaceae

20) Given below are the names of some plants :

Guava, Cucumber, Peach, Rose, Plum, Brinjal, China rose and mustard
How many of the above plants will have hypogynous, perigynous and epigynous flowers respectively
?
(1) Hypogynous = 3, Perigynous = 4, Epigynous = 2
(2) Hypogynous = 1, Perigynous = 4, Epigynous = 4
(3) Hypogynous = 3, Perigynous = 3, Epigynous = 2
(4) Hypogynous = 2, Perigynous = 3, Epigynous = 2

21) A lateral branch with short internodes with each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of
roots is found in aquatic plants like :

(1) Pistia and Eichhornia

(2) Vallisneria and Eichhornia
(3) Pistia and Hydrilla
(4) Eichhornia and Hydrilla

22) Colchicum plant which gives colchicine alkaloid belongs to which family

(1) Asteraceae
(2) Malvaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Cruciferae

23) Monadelphous stamens are formed by the fusion of -

(1) Anther lobes of all stamens
(2) Anther lobes of two stamens
(3) Filaments of all stamens
(4) Stamen and carpel

24) In a ‘phylloclade’ the function of photosynthesis is taken up by -

(1) Leaves
(2) Stipules
(3) Stem
(4) Buds

25) Which is not a stem modification ?

(1) Rhizome of Ginger

(2) Corm of Colocasia
(3) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(4) Tuber of potato

26) Roots developed from part of the plant other than radicle are called

(1) Tap roots

(2) Respiratory roots
(3) Adventitious roots
(4) Nodular roots

27) Read the following statements and choose correct combination :

(a) In isobilateral leaves, the mesophyll is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
(b) In dorsiventral leaves, maximum stomata are present towards upper epidermis.
(c) Tap root system can be seen in mustard plant.
(d) In Sugarcane, stilt root can be seen.
(e) In Rice, fibrous roots are present.

(1) a, b, c and d only

(2) c, d and e only
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, c, d and e only

28) The fruit of coconut is

(1) Drupe
(2) Berry
(3) Nut
(4) Capsule

29) Curling or rolling of Grass leaves on a hot sunny day is brought about by
(1) Bulliform cells
(2) Transfer cells
(3) Mesophyll cells
(4) Hormones

30) Pith is well developed in :

(1) Monocot stem and dicot root

(2) Dicot stem and monocot root
(3) Monocot root and monocot stem
(4) Dicot root and dicot stem

31) The lateral meristem is responsible for

(1) Growth in length

(2) Growth in midrib
(3) Growth in thickness
(4) Growth in trichome

32) Endodermal cells can be distinguished by the presence of Casparian strips on :

(1) Elongated cells

(2) Barrel-shaped cells
(3) Cambium cells
(4) Thick-walled cells

33) Read the following statements :

(a) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristems and are arranged in an acropetal order.
(b) Bulliform cells are found in dicot leaves.
(c) There may be a variation in the length of stamen filaments within a flower as in Salvinia.
(d) All tissues on the inner side of the endodermis such as pericycle, vascular bundles and pith
constitute the stele.
(e) In the seeds of cereals such as Maize coleoptile and coleorhiza are present
Choose the correct option :

(1) a & e only are correct

(2) a, c, d & e only are correct
(3) a, d & e only are correct
(4) b, d & e only are correct

34) Intrafascicular cambium refers to

(1) Lateral meristem

(2) Secondary permanent tissue
(3) Primary meristem
(4) Both (1) and (3)
35) Observe the following statements and select the correct option :
(a) In monocot stem, xylem parenchyma is absent and water containing cavities are present within
the vascular bundles.
(b) The region of the stem were leaves are borne is called internode.
(c) In monocot leaves, parallel venation and in dicot leaves reticulate venation is present.
(d) The swollen end of stalk or pedicle is called thalamus or receptacle.

(1) Only a & b are correct

(2) Only b & c are incorrect
(3) Only c & d are correct
(4) Only b & d are correct

36) In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from the tip to base, the four zones occur in the
following order :-

(1) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation

(2) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement
(3) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell maturation, root cap
(4) Cell division, cell maturation, cell enlargement, root cap

37) Assertion : Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of dicot stem.

Reason : Pith is not found in monocot stem.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True, but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) Assertion (A): Ovary in hypogynous flowers is said to be superior.

Reason (R): Gynoecium in such flowers occupies the highest position, while other parts are situated
below it.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.

39) Read the following statements and choose correct option.

Statement-I: Root cap protects the root apical meristem from the friction of the soil.
Statement-II: Meristematic zone cells are thick walled.

(1) Both statement I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
40) Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q and R.

(1) P - Stawberry, Q - Orange, R - Cashew

(2) P - Banana, Q - Apple, R - Mango
(3) P - Castor, Q - Coconut, R - Pea
(4) P - Mulberry, Q - Mustard, R - Coriander

41) Statement I: The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called
conjuctive tissue in dicot root.
Statement II: In dicot root, pericycle takes part in the formation of vascular cambium.

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

42)

Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Brassicaceae
(p)

(ii) Liliaceae
(q)

(iii) Fabaceae
(r)

(iv) Solanaceae
(s)
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) p – iv; q – ii; r – i; s – iii
(2) p – iii; q – iv; r – ii; s – i
(3) p – i; q – ii; r – iii; s – iv
(4) p – ii; q – iii; r – iv; s – i

43)

Identify the types of placentation in the given diagrams (A to E).

A – Marginal, B – Axile, C – Parietal,

(1)
D – Free-central, E – Basal
A – Marginal, B – Basal, C – Parietal,
(2)
D – Free-central, E – Axile
A – Parietal, B – Basal, C – Marginal,
(3)
D – Free-central, E – Axile
A – Parietal, B – Axile, C – Marginal,
(4)
D – Free-central, E – Basal

44)

Which of the following type of flowers are present in Guava ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) Identify the given figures (A) & (B) answer the following questions.
These structures (A) and (B) are found :-

A – Only in non-flowering plants,

(1)
B – In flowering plants
A – Only in flowering plants,
(2)
B – In non-flowering plants
A – Only in flowering plants,
(3)
B – In angiosperms
A – In all vascular plants,
(4)
B – In angiosperms

ZOOLOGY

1) Assertion : The myelin sheath facilitates the rapid conduction of nerve impulses.
Reason : Myelin sheath insulates the axon allowing for saltatory conduction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

2)

The midbrain receives and integrates :

(1) Visual inputs only

(2) Visual and tactile inputs only
(3) Visual, tactile and auditory inputs.
(4) Visual and auditory inputs only.

3) The new potential developed on post-synaptic membrane is :

(1) Excitatory always

(2) Inhibitory always
(3) May be excitatory or inhibitory
(4) Neither excitatory nor inhibitory

4) In the given four statements (a-d) select the options which includes all the incorrect ones only :
(a) Scapula situated dorsally in thoracic region between 2nd and 7th ribs.
(b) Fibula, tibia and patella participates in knee joint formation.
(c) Tarsal bones are much larger and stronger than carpal bones.
(d) Two halves of pelvic girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis.

(1) Statement (a), (b), (c)

(2) Statement (b), (c)
(3) Statement (a), (c)
(4) Statement (b), (d)

5) Read the following statements :

(A) Peripheral nervous system is divided into somatic nervous system & autonomic nervous system.
(B) Central nervous system includes brain and vertebral column.
(C) Efferent nerve fibre transmit impulse from peripheral organs to CNS.
Which of the above statements is/are false ?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All of these

6) The neural system of all animals is composed of neurons which are highly specialised cells which
can:

(1) Detect, reduce and transmit different kinds of stimuli

(2) Detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli
(3) Detect, receive and delay different kinds of stimuli
(4) Detect, receive and cannot conduct different kinds of stimuli

7) Mark the option with all the correct statements regarding "resting stage" of neuron :
(a) Axonal membrane is more permeable to potassium ions (K+)
(b) Axonal membrane is nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+)
(c) Axonal membrane is permeable for negatively charged proteins
(d) The fluid outside of axon contain a low concentration of Na+ than inside
(e) The fluid inside axon contain high concentration of K+ than outside
(1) a, b, c
(2) c, d, e
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, d, e

8) Assertion : Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is very similar to impulse

conduction along a single axon.
Reason : At electric synapses, the membranes of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close
proximity..

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.

9) Which type of joint is present between flat skull bones of humans ?

(1) Fibrous (immovable)

(2) Fibrous (limited movable)
(3) Fibrous (white fibrous cartilage)
(4) Synovial (immovable)

10) Which part of brain has very convoluted surface in order to provide additional space for many
more neurons?

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Midbrain

11) Transmission of nerve impulse is unidirectional due to :

(1) Insulation of nerve fibre by myelin sheath

(2) Neurotransmitters are released only at axon ending
(3) Neurotransmitters are released only from dendrite ends
(4) The presence of schwann cells

12) Statement-I : Along with hypothalamus, midbrain is involved in the regulation of sexual
behaviour, expression of emotional reactions and motivation.
Statement-II : A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passess through the midbrain.
Choose the correct answer from the following options :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is true, but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, but statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.
13) Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of :

(1) Ilium, ischium, pubis

(2) Ilium, sacrum, pubis
(3) Ilium, sacrum, coccyx
(4) Ilium sacrum, ischium

14) Match Column-I and Column-II and select the correct option from the followings.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Floating ribs (i) Last 7 pairs

(B) True ribs (ii) First 7 pairs

(C) False ribs (iii) Last 2 pairs

(iv) 8, 9 & 10 pairs

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv

15) Which option is not correct for red muscle fibres?

(1) They contain a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called myoglobin
(2) They contain plenty of mitochondria
(3) They are also called aerobic muscle fibres
(4) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high

16) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram :

(1) A - Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - F-actin

(2) A - Thin filament, B - Troponin, C - Tropomyosin
(3) A - Myosin filament, B - Troponin, C - Tropomyosin
(4) A - Meromyosin, B - Troponin, C - Tropomyosin

17) Cross bridge is broken due to :

(1) Binding of new ATP at myosin head

(2) Hydrolysis of ATP at myosin head
(3) Binding of ATP at troponin
(4) Hydrolysis of ATP at troponin

18) During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur ?

(a) 'H' zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only

19) In human body, amoeboid movement is shown by :

(1) RBC and Platelets

(2) Osteocytes and chondrocytes
(3) Macrophages and leucocytes
(4) Macrophages and RBC

20) Statement-I: Each myofibril has alternate dark and light bands on it.
Statement-II: Myosin filaments are thinner as compared to the actin filaments.

(1) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect.

(2) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect.
(3) Statement–I is incorrect but statement–II is correct.
(4) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct.

21) Assertion: Ball and socket joint is found between humerus and pectoral girdle.
Reason: Synovial joints are characterised by fluid filled synovial cavity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True, but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

22) Arrange the following statements in sequence for muscle contraction.

(A) Neural signal reaching the neuromuscular junction releases acetylcholine
(B) Acetylcoline generate action potential in the sarcolemma which spreads through muscle fibre
and causes release of Ca+2 into sarcoplasm
(C) Motor neuron brings signal from CNS for muscle contraction
(D) Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head binds to actin active sites to form
a cross bridge

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) B, A, C and D
(3) C, A, B and D
(4) D, C, B and A
23) Contractile unit of muscle is part of myofibril between :

(1) Z-line and I-band

(2) Z-line and Z-line
(3) Z-line and A-band
(4) A-band and l-band

24) The thick filaments in 'A' band are held together in the middle of this band by a thin membrane
called.

(1) Z-line
(2) M-line
(3) H-line
(4) O-line

25) The functional unit of contraction in skeletal muscle is :

(1) Muscle fibre

(2) Sarcomere
(3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Sarcoplasm

26) Motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibers connected to it constitute :

(1) Neuro - muscular junction

(2) Motor end plate
(3) Motor unit
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) The ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin in cross bridge formation :

(1) Sodium
(2) Calcium
(3) Magnesium
(4) Potassium

28) Study the given diagram and recognize the labels correctly.

A → Actin binding sites, B → ATP binding sites,

(1)
C → Cross bridge
 A → Actin binding sites, B → ATP binding sites,
(2)
C → Cross arm
A → Myosin binding sites, B → ATP binding sites,
(3)
C → Cross arm
A → ATP binding sites, B → Actin binding sites,
(4)
C → Cross bridge

29) A person was unable to walk normally after taking alcohol, which of the following part of brain
probably get effected by alcohol ?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Midbrain
(4) Medulla oblongata

30) Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse across the synapse are given below :
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of ions, a new action potential is generated in
the post-synaptic neuron
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post synaptic membrane
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane, neurotransmitter releases into synaptic cleft
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal
In which sequence do the events occur ?

(1) E → D → C → B → A
(2) A → B → C → D → E
(3) A → B → D → C → E
(4) E → D → C → A → B

31) Which of the following is a major co-ordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling in the
human brain ?

(1) Corpus callosum

(2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Thalamus
(4) Hypothalamus

32) Association areas are not associated with :

(1) Intersensory association

(2) Memory
(3) Emotion and sexual behaviour
(4) Communication

33) Four round swellings called corpora quadrigemina are located on which side of midbrain ?

(1) Dorso-lateral
(2) Ventro lateral
(3) Dorsal
(4) Ventral

34) The defect in which part of the human brain would result in inability to express the emotions.

(1) Thalamus
(2) Medulla
(3) Limbic lobe
(4) Pons

35) Which of the following is a pair of sesamoid bones ?

(1) Ilium and Patella

(2) Patella and Pisciform
(3) Pterigoid and Patella
(4) Pectoral girdle and Patella

36) The structure in the neurons that perform basic cellular functions such as protein synthesis are
the

(1) Neuro fibrils

(2) Axon hillock
(3) Synaptic knobs
(4) Nissl’s granules

37) Assertion (A): The rise in stimulus induced permeability to Na+ is extremely short lived.
Reason (R): Action potential is infact termed as nerve impulse.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

38) The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to :

(1) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

(2) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band
(3) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(4) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band

39) Which statement is correct regarding neuron?

(1) Neuron is composed of 4 parts containing cell body, dendrite, axon and telodendria
(2) Nissl's granules are found in both cell body and axon.
(3) Impulses are divided into apolar, bipolar and multipolar
 Dendrites transmit impulses toward the cell body while axon transmit impulse away from the
(4)
cell body.

40) Cardiac muscle fibres are :

(1) Striated and voluntary

(2) Striated and involuntary
(3) Unstriated and voluntary
(4) Unstriated and involuntary

41) Transmission of nerve impulse or action potential is not possible in those neurons which are :

(1) Discontinuous myelinated with nodes of Ranvier

(2) Continuous myelinated without nodes of Ranvier
(3) Non myelinated neuron
(4) Transmission is possible in myelinated neuron only

42) A sarcomere consists of

(1) One A-band and one I-band

(2) Half A-band and two half I-bands
(3) Half A-band and one I-band
(4) One A-band and two half l-bands

43) Which of the following statements are correct regarding muscle proteins ?
(i) Actin is a thin filament and is made up of two F actins, troponin & tropomyosin.
(ii) The complex protein, tropomyosin is distributed at regular intervals on the troponin.
(iii) Myosin is a thick filament which is also a polymerized protein.
(iv) The globular head of meromyosin consists of light meromyosin (LMM).

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

44) Myelinogenesis process occur in C.N.S. by :

(1) Schwann cells

(2) Oligodendrocytes
(3) Axolemma
(4) Neurilemma

45) In the following diagrammatic representation of an axon, stimulus is applied at point A and
action potential is generated. When impulse reaches at point B, what will be the direction of
current?

(1) A to B on outer surface of axon

(2) B to A on outer surface of axon
(3) B to A on inner surface of axon
(4) A to B on both outer and inner surface of axon
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 1 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 3 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 3 4 1 2 4 4 3 2 1 4 4 4 2 3 3 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 3 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 4 1 3 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 1 3 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 3 3 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 1 1 3 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

S = Area under v-t curve

4)

5)

6)

7) x+y=2–1
x + y = 1 ... (i)

2x – y = 1 ....(ii)
x + y = 1 ....(iii)
________

3x = 2
8)

Theory based.

9)

10)

11) u = 0, Say acceleration is a

12)
...(i)
h = S 1 + S2
16 = x + 3x
x=4m
S2 = 3x = 12 m.

13)
14)

15)
Object is projected as shown so as per motion under gravity

Object takes t = 5 s to fall on ground

Height of balloon from ground
H = 75 + ut
= 75 + 10 × 5
= 125 m.

16) Assertion A: When a body is projected at an angle of 45°, its range is maximum. This
is true, and it’s a well-established fact in physics. The maximum range of a projectile.

17)

Theory based.

18) The equation of the trajectory given is .

This is a parabola, and it represents the path of the projectile.
The maximum height of the projectile corresponds to the vertex of the parabola.

The x-coordinate of the vertex for a parabola given by is .

19) To find the velocity of the projectile at t = 2 s, we need to find the horizontal and vertical
components of the velocity at that time.
The initial horizontal component of the velocity is constant and is given by:

20)
21)

22) Time taken to reach maximum height

23)

24) Maximum range of water coming out of fountain

Total area around fountain,

25)

26)

27)

28)

29)

The total distance to be travelled by the train is 60 + 120 = 180 m.

When the trains are moving in the same direction, relative velocity is

Opposite direction:
30) Given, velocity of water flowing in a river, Vr = 2 km/h
Velocity of the swimmer, Vmr = 4 km/h

To cross the river straight by a swimmer,

Direction of the swimmer with respect to flow

= 90° + 30° = 120°.

31)

32)

33)

Conceptual.

34) A - P, B - S, C - R, D - Q.

35)
At point E

36) Conceptual.

37)

1:3:5:7

38)

Distance

39)

40) We have to find net velocity with respect to the Earth that will be equal to velocity of the
girl plus velocity of escalator. Let displacement is L, then

Velocity of girl vg =

Velocity of escalator ve =

Net velocity of the girl = vg + ve =

If t is total time taken in covering distance L, then

41)

42)

Conceptual.
 43)

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

N2H4
N2 N≡N
N2F2 F – N = N – F

47)

No lone pair present on each molecule so all molecules have equal bond angle.

48)

Bond energy order :

Bond energy Bond order

49)

SF4 CF4 XeF4

l.p.=1 l.p.=0 l.p.=2

50) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about above correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond.

Concept :
This question is based on Bond enthalpy.

Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (2)

51) Strength of H-bonding depends on electronegativity of atom.

52)

53)

(1) H2SO4

(2) H2CO3
(3) SO3

54)

55) F.C = no. of valence e– – (bonding) – (non-bonding) of given atom.

56)

57)

58)

59)

Br2 and Br2 are non-polar diatomic molecules in which there are weak London dispersion
forces.

60) Ion-dipole force

This attraction is strongest due to presence of charge on the Cl– ion, it would have largest
attraction force with dipole.

61) As per MOT concept.

62) Bond order of He2 is zero.

63) Bond order is inversely proportional to bond length.

⇒ Bond order ⇒ 3 (maximum bond order)

64) Degenerated orbital

65) Bond order increases, so bond length decrease.

66)

Covalent character ∝ Charge of cation

67) AgCl is more covalent than NaCl because polarising power of Ag+ is greater than Na+ ion.
Covalent character ∝ Polarising power of cation

68)

No. of atoms = No. of mole × NA

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

69) Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 Thermal stability

70) S–I Lattice energy is required to break one mole ionic crystal lattice into its constituent
gaseous ions.

71) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

[Correct order of bond strength among halogens]
 72)
* Non-polar

73)

74) All of these

75)

Due to partial double bond, double bond & triple bond

Bond length decreases

76) Ncert class 11, Page number 130 (2023 - 24).

77)

Simplest
Atomic No. of
Symbol % (in g) molar
mass moles
ratio

S 50 32 1

O 50 16 2

Empirical formula = SO2.

78) No. of atoms in O2 & O3 is 6.0 × 1023.

All have same atoms same moles same mass.

79)

Sand +H2O is heterogeneous mixture.

80) = mole

81) Reason : Comparison between masses of different elements with. C-12 atom's relative.
Mass of most of the atoms (elements) come out to be whole number.

82) to form

83)

No. of molecules = mole × NA

(1)

(2)
(3) NA

(4)

84)

Intramolecular H.B in I.
Enhance volatility & decreasing boiling point.

85)

Electron bond above & below internuclear axis form bond.

86)

Stability of molecule
More electronegative element occupy axial position & L.P occupy equatorial position.

87)

No. of moles

88)

moles =
No. of e– = 0.1 × NA × 10
 = NA

89) Mass % =

90) Empirical formula of an acid is CH2O. (Empirical formula)n = Molecular formula where n =
1, 2, 3, 4 ..............
If n = 2 molecular formula C2H4O2.

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Page no. 76

92)

NCERT Page no. 79

93)

NCERT Page no. 75, 76

94)

NCERT Page no. 60

95)

NCERT Page no. 64

96) NCERT Page no. 61, 64, 75, 76

97) NCERT Page No.: 67

98) NCERT Page no. 69

Allen module

99)

NCERT Page no. 65

100)
NCERT Page no. 85

101)

NCERT Page no. 61

102)

NCERT Page no. 64

103)

NCERT Page no. 93

104)

NCERT Page no. 91, 92, 93

105)

NCERT Page no. 68

Allen module

106)

NCERT Page no. 59

107)

NCERT Page no. 68

108)

NCERT Page no. 68

109)

NCERT Page no. 81

110)

NCERT Page no. 62

111)
NCERT Page no. 69
Allen module

112)

NCERT Page no. 81

113)

NCERT Page no. 64

114)

NCERT Page no. 71

115)

NCERT Page no. 68

Allen module

116)

NCERT Page no. 58

117) NCERT Page no. 58 & 94

118)

NCERT Page no. 68

119)

NCERT Page no. 94

120)

NCERT Page no. 91, 93

121)

NCERT Page no. 85

122)

NCERT Page no. 91

123) NCERT-XI, Pg # 59, 64, 67, 74, 77

124)

NCERT Page no. 85

125) NCERT-XI, Pg # 60,62,74,76,89

126) NCERT Page no. 59

127)

NCERT Page no. 92

128)

NCERT Page no. 63

129)

NCERT Page no. 59

130)

NCERT Page no. 65

131)

NCERT Page no. 74

132)

NCERT Page no. 78, 79, 80, 81

133)

NCERT Page no. 65

134)

NCERT Page no. 62

135) NCERT Page no. 87

 Allen module.

ZOOLOGY

136)

NCERT, Page No: 232

137)

NCERT, Page No: 237

138) NCERT, Page No: 236

139) NCERT, Page No: 226

140) NCERT, Page No: 231

141) NCERT, Page No: 231

142) NCERT, Page No: 232

143) NCERT, Page No: 234

144) NCERT, Page No: 227

145) NCERT, Page No: 236

146) Allen Module

147) NCERT, Page No: 236

148) NCERT, Page No: 226

149) NCERT, Page No: 225

150) Allen Module

151) NCERT, Page No: 221

152) NCERT, Page No: 222

153) NCERT, Page No: 222

154)

NCERT Page No- 219

155) NCERT, Page No: 221

156) NCERT, Page No: 226

157) NCERT, Page No: 223

158) NCERT, Page No: 222

159) NCERT, Page No: 221

160) NCERT, Page No: 221

161) NCERT, Page No: 220

162) NCERT Based.

163) NCERT, Page No: 221

164) Allen Module

165) NCERT, Page No: 233

166) NCERT, Page No: 236

167) NCERT, Page No: 236

168) NCERT, Page No: 236

169) NCERT, Page No: 236

170) Allen Module

171) Allen Module

172) NCERT, Page No: 233

173) Allen Module

174) Allen Module

175) Allen Module

176) Allen Race Module

177) Allen Race Module

178) NCERT, Page No: 221

179) Allen Module

180) NCERT, Page No: 233