20-08-2025

2302CMD303021250009 MD

PHYSICS

1) A small square loop of side ℓ is placed inside a large square loop of wire L(>>ℓ). The loops are
coplanar and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is proportional to :-

(1) (ℓ/L)
(2) (ℓ2/L)
(3) (L/ℓ)
(4) (L2/ℓ)

2) Magnetic field changes at the rate of 0.4 T/sec. in a square coil of side 4 cm. kept perpendicular to
the field. If the resistance of the coil is 2 × 10–3 Ω, then induced current in coil is :-

(1) 0.16 A
(2) 0.32 A
(3) 3.2 A
(4) 1.6 A

3) The length of a solenoid is 0.3 m and the number of turns is 2000. The area of cross-section of the
solenoid is 1.2 ×10–3m2. Another coil of 300 turns is wrapped over the solonoid. A current of 2A is
passed through the solenoid and its direction is reversed in 0.25 sec. then the induced emf in coil :-

(1) 4.8 × 10–2 V

(2) 4.8 × 10–3 V
(3) 3.2 × 10–4 V
(4) 3.2 × 10–2 V

4) Two coils of self inductance 100 mH and 400 mH are placed very close to each other. Find the
maximum mutual inductance between the two when 8 A current passes through them

(1) 200 mH
(2) 300 mH
(3) 100 mH
(4)

5)

Which is not true for induced electric field (produced by time varying magnetic field):-
(a) It is non-conservative
(b) The relation is valid for this field
(c) Concept of potential is valid as in electrostatic field

(d) This type of field can not be produce with any static charge distribution
(1) b, c, d
(2) b, c
(3) Only c
(4) a,b,c,d

6) Two solenoids have identical geometrical construction and same number of turns but one is made
of thick wire and other of thin wire. Which of the following quantities are same for two solenoids :–
(a) Self inductance.
(b) Rate of joule heating if the same current goes through them.
(c) Magnetic potential energy if the same current goes through them . (d) Time constant.

(1) b, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) All above

7)

A short magnet is allowed to fall along the axis of a horizontal metallic ring. Starting from rest, the
distance fallen by the magnet in one second may be

(1) 4 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 7 m

8) Three inductances are connected as shown below. Assuming no coupling, the resultant inductance

will be

(1) 0.25 H
(2) 0.75 H
(3) 0.01 H
(4) 1 H

9) When the current I is 5A and is decreasing at a rate of 103 amp/sec then potential difference (VB –

VA) is :-

(1) –15 volt

(2) +15 volt
(3) 10 V
(4) Zero

10) A square coil having total 'n' turns is kept at the centre of a circular loop of radius 'b'. Side of the
square coil is 'a' and it is placed coaxially in the plane of the loop. If 'I' current flows through the
loop, calculate the flux of magnetic field passing through square coil. (Assume a << b) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic field which is directed into the paper. The
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions of induced current in wires AB and CD

are :-

(1) B to A and D to C
(2) A to B and C to D
(3) A to B and D to C
(4) B to A and C to D

12) Graph between M.Field and energy density (u) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) A field of strength ampere turns/meter acts at right angles to the coil of 50 turns of area
-2 2
10 m . The coil is removed from the field in 0.1 second. Then induced emf in the coil is

(1) 0.1 V
(2) 0.2 V
(3) 1.96 V
(4) 0.98 V

14) A 0.1m long conductor carrying a current of 50A is perpendicular to a magnetic field of 1.25mT.
The mechanical power to move the conductor with a speed of 1m/s is

(1) 0.25 mW
(2) 6.25 mW
(3) 0.625 mW
(4) 1W

15) The length of a wire required to manufacture a solenoid of length ' ' and self inductance 'L' is
[cross sectional area is negligible]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two coils are at fixed locations. When coil 1 has no current and the current in coil 2 increases at
the rate 15.0 A/s the e.m.f. is coil 1 in 25.0 mV, when coil 2 has no current and coil 1 has a current of
3.6 A, flux linkage in coil 2 is

(1) 16 mWb
(2) 10 mWb
(3) 4.00 mWb
(4) 6.00 mWb

17) A rod of length 10 cm made up of conducting and non-conducting material (shaded part is non-
conducting). The rod is rotated with constant angular velocity 10 rad/sec about point O, in constant
magnetic field of 2 Tesla as shown in the figure. The induced emf between the point A and B of rod
will be

(1) 0.029 v
(2) 0.1 v
(3) 0.051 v
(4) 0.064 v

18) A copper rod AB of length L, pivoted at one end A, rotates at constant angular velocity ω, at
right angles to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. The e.m.f developed between the mid point C

of the rod and end B is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square loop of side a as shown In

figure will be :-
(1) ℓn

(2) ℓn

(3) ℓn

(4)
ℓn

20) A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length l = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform magnetic
field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane of loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2Ω. Two resistors of
6Ω and 3Ω are connected as shown in figure. The external force required to keep the connector

moving with a constant velocity v = 2 m/s is

(1) 6 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 1 N

21) The magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by an equation ϕ (in webers) = 8t2 + 3t + 5. The
induced e.m.f. in the coil at the fourth second will be

(1) 16 units
(2) 39 units
(3) 67 units
(4) 145 units

22) A horizontal copper disc of diameter 20 cm, makes 10 revolutions/sec about a vertical axis
passing through its centre. A uniform magnetic field of 100 gauss acts perpendicular to the plane of
the disc. Calculate the potential difference between its centre and rim in volts.

(1) 3.14V
(2) 3.14 mV
(3) 2V
(4) 2mV

23) A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is moving with a uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a uniform
magnetic field B = 4.0 T directed into the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 μF is connected as
shown in figure. Then
(1) qA = + 80 μC and qB = – 80 μC
(2) qA = – 80 μC and qB = + 80 μC
(3) qA = 0 = qB
(4) Charge stored in the capacitor increases exponentially with time

24) A semicircular wire of radius R is rotated with constant angular velocity ω about an axis passing
through one end and perpendicular to the plane of the wire. There is a uniform magnetic field of

strength B. The induced e.m.f. between the ends is–

(1) BωR2/2
(2) 2BωR2
(3) is variable
(4) 3BωR2

25) A current of 10A in primary coil of circuit is reduced to zero at uniform rate in 10–3 sec. If
coefficient of mutual inductance is 3H. Find the magnitude of induced emf in secondary coil -

(1) 3 kV
(2) 30 kV
(3) 2 kV
(4) 20 kV

26) Regarding self-inductance:

A: The self-inductance of the coil depends on its geometry.
B: Self-inductance does not depend on the permeability of the medium.
C: Self-induced e.m.f. opposes any change in the current in a circuit.
D: Self-inductance is electromagnetic analogue of mass in mechanics.
E: Work needs to be done against self-induced e.m.f. in establishing the current.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, D only
(2) A, C, D, E only
(3) A, B, C, E only
(4) B, C, D, E only

27) The self inductance of a toroid of radius R (>>r) and total number of turns N is (r = radius of
each turn)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) East
(4) West

29) A rectangular loop with a side wire of length l is kept in uniform magnetic filed as shown in
figure. The Resistance of slider is R. Neglecting self-inductance of the loop, find current through the

conductor during its motion with velocity v

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Assertion : When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the coils is
maximum.
Reason : Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

31) The SI unit of inductance, the Henry cannot be written as :-

(1) weber ampere–1

(2) volt second ampere–1
(3) joule ampere–2
(4) ohm second–1

32) The figure shows three circuits with identical batteries, inductors, and resistors. Rank the
circuits according to the current through the battery (i) just after the switch is closed and (ii) a long

time later, greatest first :-

(1) (i) ib > ic > ia (ia = 0) (ii) ib > ic > ia

(2) (i) ib < ic < ia (ia ≠ 0) (ii) ib > ic > ia
(3) (i) ib = ic = ia (ia = 0) (ii) ib < ic < ia
(4) (i) ib = ic > ia (ia ≠ 0) (ii) ib > ic > ia

33) What is current i1 and i2 after some time of battery connection

(1) i1 = 5A, i2 = 0
(2) i1 = 0, i2 = 0
(3) i1 = 0, i2 = 5A
(4) None of these

34) The current through a 6 mH inductor is shown in the following graph. The induced emf at t = 4

ms will be :-
(1) 3V
(2) –3V
(3) 4V
(4) –4V

35) The inductance between A and D is :-

(1) 3.66 H
(2) 9 H
(3) 0.66 H
(4) 1 H

36) Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor R and an inductor L. When the switch S is turned off :

(1) Both B1 and B2 die out promptly

(2) Both B1 and B2 die out with some delay
(3) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay
(4) B2 dies out promptly but B1 with some delay

37) When the number of turns and the length of the solenoid are double keeping the area of cross-
section same, the inductance :-

(1) Remains same

(2) Is halved
(3) Is doubled
(4) Becomes four times

38) A field line shown in the figure. This field line cannot represent -

(1) Magnetic field

(2) Electrostatic field
(3) Induced electric field
(4) All of above

39) A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. Electric field is induced :

(1) in AD, but not in BC

(2) in BC, but not in AC
(3) neither in AD nor in BC
(4) in both AD and BC

40) A long solenoid of radius 2 cm has 100 turns/cm and carries a current of 5A. A coil of radius 1
cm having 100 turns and a total resistance of 20 Ω is placed inside the solenoid coaxially. The coil is
connected to a galvanometer. If the current in the solenoid is reversed in direction, find the charge
flown through the galvanometer :-

(1) 2 × 10–4 C
(2) 4 × 10–4 C
(3) 6 × 10–4 C
(4) 8 × 10–4C

41) If the induced emf in the primary and secondary coils of some mutual inductance are 2mV
and 5.12 mV when rate of change of current through either of these is 20 A/s. If the coefficient of
coupling is one, the mutual inductance is :-

(1) 3.56 × 10–4 H

(2) 1.56 × 10–4 H
(3) 1.6 × 10–4 H
(4) 2.56 × 10–4 H

42) In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical resistors with resistance R = 5Ω and an
inductance with L = 2mH. An ideal battery of 15 V is connected in the circuit. What will be the

current through the battery long after the switch is closed?

(1) 6A
(2) 7.5A
(3) 5.5A
(4) 3A

43) The total number of turns and cross-section area in a solenoid is fixed. However, its length L is
varied by adjusting the separation between windings. The inductance of solenoid will be proportional
to :

(1) 1/L2
(2) 1/L
(3) L
(4) L2

44) A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field, with the plane of the coil parallel to the
magnetic lines of force. When a current is passed through the coil it starts oscillating; it is very
difficult to stop. But if an aluminium plate is placed near to the coil, it stops. This is due to :

(1) developement of air current when the plate is placed.

(2) induction of electrical charge on the plate
(3) shielding of magnetic lines of force as aluminium is a paramagnetic material.
(4) Electromagnetic induction in the aluminium plate giving rise to electromagnetic damping.

45) Two coils of self inductance 4mH and 9mH are placed such that flux of one coil is partially linked
with other coil. If mutual inductance of the system is 3mH, then coefficient of coupling of the two
circuits is

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.90

CHEMISTRY

1) Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4– is

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

2) The heteroleptic complex is–

(1) Cis-platin
(2) Brown ring complex
(3) Zeise salt
(4) All
3) An example for a double salt is :-

(1) Cuprammonium sulphate

(2) Ferrous ammonium sulphate
(3) Potassium ferricyanide
(4) None of these

4) Incorrect order of stability is

3– 3+
(1) [Co(ox)3] > [Co(H2O)6]
2– 2–
(2) [PtF6] > [NiF6]
2+ 2+
(3) [Ni(trien)] > [Ni(en)2]
2+
(4) [Ni(NH3)6] > [Ni(dmg)2]

5) In the synergic bond of metal carbonyls :-

(1) π* molecular orbital of ligand is used

(2) π* molecular orbital of metal is used
(3) It is Endothermic process
(4) σ* molecular orbital of metal is used

6) Which of the following has longest C–O bond length? (Free C–O bond length in CO is 1.128Å).

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
(2)
2–
(3) [Fe(CO)4]
+
(4) [Mn(CO)6]

7) The correct formula of diammine dichlorodicyano chromate (III) is :

+3
(1) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
–3
(2) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
(3) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
–1
(4) [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(CN)2]

8) What is the IUPAC name of K2[Ni(CN)4]

(1) Potassium tetracyano nickelate (II)

(2) Potassium tetracyano nickelate (III)
(3) Potassium tetracyano nickel (II)
(4) Potassium tetracyano nickel (III)

9)

IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3 (Br) (NO2) Cl]Cl is :

(1) Triammine chlorobromonitro platinum (IV) chloride
(2) Triammine bromonitrochloro platinum (IV) chloride
(3) Triammine bromochloronitro platinum (IV) chloride
(4) Triammine nitrochlorobromi platinum (IV) chloride

10) What is the correct IUPAC name of [Ni(en)2(NH3)]2 :

(1) Diaminebis (ethylenediamine) nickel (II) chloride

(2) Diamminebis (ethylenediamine) nickel (II) chloride
(3) Diamminebis (ethylenediammine) nickel (II) chloride
(4) Diaminebis (ethylenediammine) nickel (II) chloride

11) Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) On adding AgNO3 solution to a solution of [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl. The percentage of non ionisable
chloride ion is :

(1) 100
(2) 75
(3) 50
(4) 25

13) Which of the following NOT conduct electricity :

(1) [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2.H2O
(2) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
(3) [CrCl3(H2O)3].3H2O
(4) [Co(NH3)4]Cl2

14) The effective atomic number of central metal ion is wrongly calculated in the following complex
?

(1) ln [Ni(CO)4] the EAN of Ni is 36

(2) ln K2[Ni(CN)4] the EAN of Ni is 36
(3) ln K3[Fe(CN)6] the EAN of Fe is 35
(4) ln [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 the EAN of Cr is 33

15) Consider the following statements.

According to Werner's theory.
(a) Ligands are connected to the metal ions by covalent bonds.
(b) Secondary valencies have directional properties.
(c) Secondary valencies are non-ionisable.
Select the correct statement.

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c)
(3) (a), (c)
(4) (a), (b)

16) Primary and secondary valencies of chromium in tris (enthane - 1, 2 - diamine) chromium (III)
chloride respectively are-

(1) 2, 3
(2) 3, 3
(3) 6, 2
(4) 3, 6

17) Match the following-

Column-II
Column-I
(Hybridisation of
(Compound)
central atom)

(A) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (p) sp3

(B) [PtCl4]2– (q) sp3 d2

(C) [Ni(CO)4] (r) dsp2

(D) [Co(ox)3]3– (s) d2sp3

(1) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
(2) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s
(3) A-s, B-q, C-r, D-p
(4) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

18) Incorrect statement regarding [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is :-

(1) d2sp3 Hybridisation & octahedral geometry

(2) Paramagnetic complex
(3) Outer orbital complex
(4) Gives white ppt with AgNO3 solution

19) The magnetic moment of complexes given below are in the order :
(I) [Ni(CO)4] (II) [Mn(CN)6]4–
(III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (IV) [CoF6]3–

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV > III > I > II
(4) IV > II > I > III

20) Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital complex ?

4–
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
–4
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
+3
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
+2
(4) [Ni(NH3)6]

21) Which of the following complex ion is not expected to absorb visible light :

–2
(1) [Ni(CN)4]
+2
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
+2
(3) [Ni(H2O)6]
+3
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]

22) The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) in units of Δ0 for [CoF3(H2O)3] is :-

(1) 0
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.8
(4) 1.8

23) The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral (Δ0) and tetrahedral (Δt) complexes is related as
:-

(1)
(2) Δt = 1.3 Δ0
(3) Δ0 = –2Δt

(4)

24) Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is :-

(1) – 0.6 Δ0 + P
(2) – 1.8 Δ0
(3) – 1.6 Δ0 + P
(4) – 0.6 Δ0

25) The crystal field stabilisation energy of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is :-

(1) –7.2 Δ0
(2) –0.4 Δ0
(3) –2.4 Δ0
(4) –3.6 Δ0

26) Increasing order of Δ0 of the following complex is –

3+ 3+ 3–
(1) Cr(NH3)6 < Cr(H2O)6 < Cr(NO2)6
3+ 3+ 3–
(2) Cr(H2O)6 > Cr(NH3)6 > Cr(NO2)6
3+ 3+ 3–
(3) Cr(H2O)6 < Cr(NH3)6 < Cr(NO2)6
3+ 3– 3+
(4) Cr(NH3)6 < Cr(NO2)6 < Cr(H2O)6

27) For d4 ions, the fourth electron enters one of the e.g., orbitals giving the configuration t2g3 eg1
when

(1) Δ0 > P
(2) Δ0 < P.E
(3) Δ0 = P
(4)

28) Correct order of ligands in their increasing field strength is-

–
(1) CO < NH3 < en < CN
–
(2) en < CN < NH3 < CO
–
(3) CN < NH3 < CO < en
–
(4) NH3 < en < CN < CO

29) CFT is an electrostatic model which considers the M–L bond to be ________. Ligands are treated
as ________ in case of anion or point dipole in case of neutral molecules.

(1) Point charge, ionic

(2) Point charge, donor
(3) Ionic, Point charge
(4) Covalent, non-polar

30) Which is low spin complex ?

3–
(1) [Fe(CN)6]
3–
(2) [Co(NO2)6]
3–
(3) [Mn(CN)6]
(4) All of these

31) Complex which show linkage isomerism is :-

(1) [Co (en)3] Cl3

(2) [Co (NH3)6] [CrCl6]
(3) [Co (en)2 NO2 Cl] Br
(4) [Co (NH3)5 Cl] Br

32) The compound [Co(SO4 )(NH3)5 ]Br and [Co(SO4 )(NH3 )5 ]Cl represents :

(1) Linkage isomerism

(2) Ionisation isomerism
(3) Coordination isomerism
(4) No any isomerism

33) Which of the following is pair of ionisation isomers?

(1) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br

[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O and
(2)
[Co(H2O)4·Cl2]Cl·2H2O
(3) [Cr(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(4) cis-[Pt-(NH3)2Cl2] and trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

34) The number of isomeric forms in [Co(NH3)4Cl2]1+ ion will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

35) Which of the following statements are true (or) false:

(i) [Cr(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)4(CN)2] [Cr(NH3)2(CN)4] are coordination isomers.
(ii) [Cr(py)2 (H2O)2 Cl2] Cl and [Cr(py)2 (H2O)Cl3] H2O are ionisation and hydrate isomers
(iii) [Pt (NH3)4 Br2] Cl2 and [Pt (NH3)4Cl2] Br2 are linkage isomers
(iv) The hybridisation state of Ni in Ni(CN)4–2 is dsp2
(1) TTFT
(2) FTFT
(3) TTFF
(4) TFFT

36) In which of the following fac & mer isomers are produced ?

2–
(1) [Co(C2O4)]
(2) [PtCl4(NH3)2]
(3) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
+2
(4) [Ni(NH3)6]

37)

The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is

(1) Geometrical isomerism

(2) Coordination isomerism
(3) Ionization isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism

38) Which of following can show optical isomerism:-

(1) CuSO4 . 5H2O

(2) K3[Cr(C2O4)3]
(3) K3 [Fe(CN)6]
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3

39) Which of the following complex is not expected to show optical isomerism ?

+
(1) [Co(en) (NH3)2Cl2]
3+
(2) [Co(en)3]
+
(3) [Co(en)2Cl2]
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

40) Which of the following is not optically active :

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

41)

Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding organometallic compounds?

(1) Tetraethyl lead is bonded organometallic compound
(2) Al4C3 is an organometallic compound
(3) Frankland reagent is bonded organometallic compound
(4) Metal carbonyls are organometallic compounds

42) Wilkinson catalyst is

(1) [(Et3P)3RhCl] (Et = C2H5)

(2) [(Et3P)3IrCl] (Et = C2H5)
(3) [(Ph3P)3RhCl] (Ph = C6H5)
(4) [(Ph3P)3IrCl] (Ph = C6H5)

43) Which of the following represent the correct number of ions formed by the given compounds in
aqueous solution
(i) PdCl2.4NH3 (ii) NiCl2.6H2O (iii) PtCl4.2HCl (iv) CoCl3.4NH3 (v) PtCl2.2NH3

(1) 0, 3, 0, 2, 3
(2) 3, 3, 3, 2, 0
(3) 3, 3, 3, 2, 3
(4) 0, 3, 3, 3, 3

44)

Which is not a π-bonded complex ?

(1) Zeise salt

(2) Ferrocene
(3) Bis (benzene) chromium
(4) Tetraethyl lead

45) Which of following is not considered as organometallic compound ?

(1) Ferrocene
(2) Ziese's salt
(3) Grignard reagent
(4) Cis-platin

BOTANY

1) Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44), the genetic
material was thought to be-

(1) Cellulose
(2) RNA
(3) Protein
(4) Lipid

2) What is the correct about given chemical compound :- (i) It can be present in
both RNA and DNA.
(ii) It is purine type N-base.
(iii) It is nucleoside.
(iv) It is cytosine.

(1) Only iii and iv

(2) Only i and ii
(3) Only i and iii
(4) Only ii and iv

3) Match the column-I with column-II :

(1) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

(2) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-c
(3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
(4) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d

4) The key difference between the structure of thymine and uracil is due to:-

(1) –OH group

(2) –COOH group
(3) Methyl group
(4) Ethyl group

5) Select the set of correct statements only.

A. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin, based on the X-ray diffraction data produced by James
Watson and Francis Crick, proposed a very simple but famous Double Helix model for the structure
of DNA.
B. The base pairing confers a very unique property to the polynucleotide chains.
C. The backbone of DNA is constituted by sugar-phosphate, and the bases project outside.
D. The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm.

(1) B and D only

(2) A and C only
(3) A, B, and D only
(4) A, B, and C only

6) In the experiment done by Hershey and Chase, viruses grown in the presence of radioactive
phosphorus contained-

(1) Radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein

(2) Radioactive protein but not radioactive DNA
(3) Radioactive DNA and protein
(4) Non-radioactive DNA and protein

7) For long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length because-

(1) DNA polymerase is not able to replicate the whole DNA.

(2) Energy requirement is very high.
(3) Chances of error are very high if whole DNA is replicated at once.
(4) Cells do not need to replicate the whole DNA.

8) Chargaft's equivalency rule is applicable to:

(1) Double stranded DNA

(2) Single stranded RNA
(3) Single stranded DNA
(4) Single stranded DNA and RNA

9) Statement-A: The nitrogen bases of the two chains of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds.
Statement-B: One of the hallmarks of Watson and Crick proposition was base pairing between two
strands of polynucleotide chains.

(1) Statement-A is correct

(2) Statement-B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

10) The first genetic material was _________

(1) Protein
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) DNA
(4) RNA
11) Given figure represents the DNA double helix model as proposed by Watson and Crick (1953).

Select the option that shows correct measurements of A, B and C.

(1) A - 3.4 nm, B - 0.34 nm, C - 2 nm

(2) A - 34 nm, B - 3.4 nm, C - 20 nm
(3) A - 3.4 Å, B - 0.34 Å, C - 20 Å
(4) A - 34 Å, B - 3.4Å, C - 2Å

12) Sequence of N-bases in one strand of DNA is :-

3-TAC CAC ACC ATG AGG ATT-5
then what will be the no. of H-bonds in the DNA molecule ?

(1) 44
(2) 43
(3) 42
(4) 40

13) 'Beads-on-string structure', appear under electron microscope is :-

(1) Chromosomes
(2) mRNA binds to ribosomes
(3) Chromatid
(4) Nucleosomes in chromatin

14) Assertion : DNA and RNA are long polymers of Nucleotides.

Reason: A nucleoside has three components - a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a
phosphate group.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion und Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

15) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) DNA resist changes by a process of repair

(2) DNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins
(3) Both DNA and RNA can replicate themselves
(4) The protein synthesis machinery has evolved around RNA

16) In addition to hydrogen bonding which of the following features confers stability to helical
structure?

(1) Phosphodiester bond

(2) Pairing between one purine and one pyrimidine
(3) Glycosidic linkage between sugar and nitrogenous base
(4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other

17) How many nucleosomes are present in human haploid cell ?

(1) 3.3 × 106

(2) 3.3 × 109
(3) 1.65 × 107
(4) 6.6 × 109

18) Which one of the following DNA will have the highest melting temperature?

(1) DNA with 50% Adenine

(2) DNA with 45% Thymine
(3) DNA with 10% Guanine
(4) DNA with 35% Cytosine

19) In given replication fork identify A, B, C and D :

A B C D

(1) 3' 5' 5' 3'

(2) 5' 3' 3' 5'

(3) 5' 3' 5' 3'

(4) 3' 5' 3' 5'

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Phosphoric acid remain associated with which of the following carbon of sugar in a nucleotide :-

(1) Ist
(2) 3rd
(3) 4th
(4) 5th

21) Which one of the following is not a criterion of genetic material?

(1) Should be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian character.

(2) Should be able to generate its replica.
(3) Should be stable chemically and structurally.
(4) Should not provide the scope for changes for evolution.

22)
Identify A, B and C in the above figure of Meselson and Stahl experiment.

A B C
15 15 14 15 14 14
(1) N N Heavy N N Hybrid N N Light
15 15 15 15 14
(2) N N Heavy N N Heavy N 14N Light
14
N 14N Light 15
N 15N Heavy 15
(3) N 14N Hybrid
15
N 14N Hybrid 14
N 14N Light 15
(4) N 15N Heavy
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used by :

(1) Franklin
(2) Meischer
(3) Chargaff
(4) Mendel

24) Core of histone molecule of nucleosome consists of

(1) H1 and H2A

(2) H2A and H2B
(3) H3 and H4
(4) Both (2) and (3)

25) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3'-5' phosphodiester bond. To
prevent polymeristation of nucleotides which of following modifications would you choose ?

(1) Replace purine with pyrimidine

(2) Remove 3' OH group in ribose
(3) Remove 3' OH group in deoxyribose
(4) Remove 2' OH group in deoxyribose

26) The average rate of DNA polymerisation in prokayotes (E.coli) is :

(1) 10,000 bp/sec

(2) 4,000 bp/sec
(3) 200 bp/sec
(4) 2,000 bp/sec

27) During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate :-

(1) The leading strand towards replication fork

(2) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork
(4) The lagging strand towards replication fork

28) The evidence that suggest that RNA was the first genetic material is :-

(1) RNA evolved from the chemical modification of DNA

(2) RNA used to act as genetic material as well as catalyst
(3) RNA being catalyst is less reactive and stable
(4) Complementarity in RNA resist changes

29) In the DNA double helix, the fact that purine bases always pair through hydrogen bonds with a
pyrimidine bases leads to :-

(1) The semi conservation nature

(2) Uniform length in all DNA
(3) The antiparallel nature
(4) Approximately uniform distance between the two strands of DNA helix

30) Consider the following statements

(i) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate act as substrate as well as provides energy for polymerisation
reaction during DNA replication.
(ii) DNA polymerase on their own cannot initiate process of replication.
(iii) In the DNA template with polarity 5'–3' replication is continuous.
Which of the above statements are correct.

(1) i and ii only

(2) ii and iii only
(3) i and iii only
(4) i, ii and iii

31) In Brassica campestris [mustard] a DNA having 4.8 kilo bases was found. And on analyzing it,
800 adenine molecules were found then how many cytosine molecules will be present in the DNA
sample ?

(1) 800
(2) 4000
(3) 1600
(4) 3200

32) A DNA molecule, in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate in an
environment containing non-radioactive thymidine. What will be the exact number of DNA molecules
that contain radioactive thymidine only in one strand after 3 replications?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) In prokaryotes there is only one origin of replication
(b) Synthesis of RNA primer takes place in 3'-5' direction
(c) Average rate of polymerisation in E-coli is 2000 base pair per second.
(d) DNA polymerase III is least reactive in DNA replication

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) c and d
(4) d and a

34) The correct sequence of steps followed in Hershey and Chase experiment is.

(1) Blending infection centrifugation

(2) Blending centrifugation infection
(3) Infection Blending centrifugation
(4) Centrifugation Blending Infection

35) In case of pyrimidines nitrogen at _______place forms bond with sugar, while in purines nitrogen
at _______place forms bond with sugar. Identify A and B in given statement.

(1) 1st, 9th

(2) 9th, 1st
(3) 1st, 5th
(4) 5th, 1st

36) DNA replication is :

(1) Conservative and discontinuous

(2) Semi conservative and semi discontinuous
(3) Semi conservative and discontinuous
(4) Discontinuous

37) Which of the following DNA melt at lowest temperature.

(1) 5'–AATAAAG–3' 3'–TTATTTC–5'

(2) 5'–AATGCTG–3' 3'–TTACGAC–5'
(3) 5'–ATGCTGC–3' 3'–TACGACG–5'
(4) 5'–AGGCAGC–3' 3'–TCCGTCG–5'

38) Watson and Crick's double helix model of DNA was based on :
(A) Griffith's experiment
(B) Chargaff's equivalency rule
(C) X-ray diffraction of DNA given by Wilkins and franklin
(D) Hershey and chase experiment
Which of the following praises are correct

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

39) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged
proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II : In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged
histone octamer to form nucleosome.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

40) There are 20% adenine among the bases in a DNA fragment measuring 6.8 nm in length. The
number of pentose, nitrogen base pairs, phosphate groups and hydrogen bonds in this DNA
fragment are respectively

(1) 52, 20, 20, 40

(2) 40, 52, 40, 20
(3) 20, 40, 52, 40
(4) 40, 20, 40, 52

41) Find out the correct statement about DNA :

(1) Form a double helical structure made up of two polypeptide chain

(2) It is an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by F. Meischer in 1869
(3) Phosphate group is linked to 5'–OH of the nucleoside by glycosidic linkage
(4) All four ribonucleotides are always equally present in both the strands.

42) RNA can act as :

(a) Genetic material
(b) Adapter molecule
(c) Catalytic molecule
(d) Messenger molecule
(e) Structural molecule

(1) b, c and e
(2) a, b and c
(3) c, d and e
(4) a, b, c, d and e

43) Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have the ability to direct their duplications.
(2) The genetic material should be stable enough not to change with different stages of life cycle.
Transcription as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s
(3)
‘transforming principle’.
The 2'-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA labile
(4)
and easily degradable.

44) Okazaki fragments are formed in the direction of :-

(1) 3' → 5'

(2) 5' → 3'
(3) 5' → 5'
(4) 3' → 3'

45) In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17 % of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The
percentage of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :

(1) G 17 %, A 16.5 %, T 32.5 %

(2) G 17 %, A 33 %, T 33 %
(3) G 8.5 %, A 33 %, T 33 %
(4) G 34 %, A 24.5 %, T 24.5 %
 ZOOLOGY

1) According to "Hugo de Vries", mutation caused speciation and it is called :-

(1) Genetic variation

(2) Isolation
(3) Saltation
(4) Hybridization

2)

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) Populations have built in variation in characteristics

Existing living forms share similarities to varying degrees not only among themselves but also
(2)
with the life forms that existed millions of years ago
(3) Adaptive ability is not inherited
(4) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature

3) A colony of bacteria (say A) growing on a given medium has built in variation in terms of ability to
utilise a feed component. A change in the medium composition would bring out only that part of the
population (Say B) that can survive under new conditions. This signify :-

(1) The population B is more adapted than population A.

(2) The population A is more adapted than population B.
(3) Both the population is equally adapted.
(4) Both the population will be eliminated.

4) Species separated by geographical barrier are called :-

(1) Allopatric
(2) Sympatric
(3) Sibling
(4) Endemic

5) Select the correct statement for given figure of natural selection :-

(1) Type (a) natural selection operates in changing environment
(2) Type (b) natural selection favour mean character value
(3) Type (c) selects both extreme variants
(4) Type (b) operates in constant environment

6) The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to :-

(1) Life span

(2) Natural selection
(3) Death rate
(4) None of the above

7)
Which of the following can be concluded from the above diagram.

(1) Chimpanzee and Humans do not share common ancestory

(2) Cranial capacity of both modern human and chimpanzee are same
(3) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than adult chimpanzee skull.
(4) Both 2 and 3
8) A fruit fly population has a gene with two alleles, A1 and A2. Tests show that 70% of the gametes
produced in the population contain the A1 allele. If the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
what proportion of the flies carries both A1 and A2?

(1) 0.7
(2) 0.49
(3) 0.21
(4) 0.42

9) An allele W, for white wool, is dominant over allele w, for black wool. In a sample of 900 sheep,
891 are white and 9 are black. Calculate the allelic frequencies of W and w respectively within this
population, assuming that the population is in H-W equilibrium.

(1) 0.1 and 0.9

(2) 0.9 and 0.1
(3) 0.9 and 0.01
(4) 0.01 and 0.9

10) Identify the fossil of man who showed the following characteristics.
(A) Brain capacity of 1400 cc
(B) Used hides to protect their body
(C) Buried their dead bodies
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Homo habilits
(4) Australopithecus

11) De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on

(1) Oenothera lamarckiana

(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Pisum sativum
(4) Althea rosea

12) Examples of evolution by Anthropogenic action refers to :

(1) Evolution which occurs in nature

(2) Evolution which took place in short time due to human activities
(3) Only human driven but take more time in comparison to nature always.
(4) Not dependent on human but is due to interspecific struggle

13) Assertion : The fitness according to Darwin, refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.
Reason : Hence those who are better fit in an environment leave more progeny than others

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Assertion : After industrialisation, the white-winged moth did not survive due to predators, dark
winged or melanised moth survived.
Reason : Predators will spot a moth against a contrasting background. After industrialisation, the
tree trunks became dark due to industrial smoke and soots.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) The agriculture and human settlements started around:

(1) 18000 years ago

(2) 10000 years ago
(3) 50000 years ago
(4) 75000 years ago

16) Assertion: About 3-4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa.
Reason: Two mya, Australopithecus probably lived in East African Grasslands.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Match the column 'A' with 'B' and 'C' in context of evolution

A B C

(i) Minor or small variation (a) Gradual process

1 Darwin
(ii) Large or major variation (b) Saltation

2 Hugo devries (iii) Directional process (c) Direction less

(1) 1 → (i), (iii), (a)
(2) 2 → (ii), (b), (c)
(3) 2 → (ii), (a), (c)
(4) Both 1 and 2

18) Identify the correct match for ancestors of human and one of their feature:

(1) Ramapithecus – They lived around 2 million years ago

(2) Australopithecus – Hunted with stone but ate fruits
(3) Homo erectus – Maximum cranial capacity among all the human ancestors
(4) Homo habilis – Buried their deads

19)

Match the following :-

(i) Homo habilis A - 1650 CC
(ii) Java man B - 1400 CC
(iii) Neanderthal man C - 900 CC
(iv) Cromagnon man D - 650-800 CC

(1) i-A ii-B iii-C iv-D

(2) i-C ii-D iii-B iv-A
(3) i-A ii-D iii-B iv-C
(4) i-D ii-C iii-B iv-A

20) Drug resistant insects are example of

(1) Stabilising natural selection

(2) Directional natural selection
(3) Distruptive natural selection
(4) Gene migration

21) Match the following :-

Change in frequency of allele

(a) (i) lifespan
in population

Total gene and their allele

(b) Genetic drift (ii)
in population

Rate of appearance of new forms

(c) (iii) Results in evolution
is linked to

(d) Gene pool (iv) By chance event

(1) a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i
(2) a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii
(3) a-i b-iii c-ii d-iv
(4) a-ii b-iv c-i d-iii

22) Read the statement I and II and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : Mutations are pre-adaptive.
Statement-II : Pre-existing advantageous mutations when selected will result in observation of new
phenotypes.

(1) Both I and II are correct

(2) I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) II is correct but I is incorrect
(4) Both I and II are incorrect
23) A = Natural selection
B = Variation & their inheritance
C = Survival of fittest
D = struggle for existence
According to darwinism, correct sequence are :-

(1) B,C,A,D
(2) D,B,C,A
(3) C,D,A,B
(4) D,A,C,B

24) Statement-I : In Hardy-Weinberg principle, allelic frequencies in a population are stable and is
constant from generation to generation.
Statement-II : In Hardy-Weinberg principle the gene pool remains constant.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

25) Statement-I : Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.

Statement-II : Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance
mutation in the organisms.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

26) Below given is the diagrammatic representation of sequence of ancestor of human being

evolution identify A, B and C in the given option and choose correct one :-

A B C
(1) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo erectus
 (2) Ramapithecus Homo erectus Australopithecus
(3) Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo erectus
(4) Australopithecus Homo erectus Ramapithecus
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) The birth weights of most human babies lie in the range of 2.5 to 4 kg. Babies who are either
much lighter or much heavier suffer higher rates of mortality. Which type of selection process is
taking place?

(1) Directional Selection

(2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
(4) Cyclical Selection

28) Artificial selection to obtain sheeps yielding high wool output represents

(1) Stabilising selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

(2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
Disruptive as it spills the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower
(3)
output
Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population of producing higher yielding
(4)
sheeps

29) An isolated population of humans with approximately equal number of blue eyed and brown eyed
individuals was decimated by an earth quake. Only a few brown-eyed people remained in next
generation. This kind the change in the gene pool is called :-

(1) Hardy-weinberg equilibrium

(2) gene flow
(3) bottle neck effect
(4) Founder effect

30) Which one of the following options give incorrect categorisation of hominid according to cranial
capacity and habits ?

Cranial
Hominid Habits
Capacity
(1) Homo habilis 650-800 cc Tool user
(2) Homo erectus 800 cc Fire user
(3) Neanderthal man 1400 cc Immortality of soul
(4) Cromagnon man 1650 cc Painting
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Darwin’s finches are an example of:

(1) Allopatric speciation

(2) Sympatric speciation
(3) Phyletic speciation
(4) Quantum speciation

32) What are two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution :

(1) Branching descent and natural selection

(2) Inheritance of acquired characters and selection
(3) Struggle of existance and natural selection
(4) Branching descent and struggle for existance

33) Based on observations made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle round the
world, Darwin concluded that :-
(i) Existing living forms share similarities to varying degree not only among themselves but also with
life forms that existed million of years ago.
(ii) Many such life forms do not exist any more.
(iii)There had been extinctions of different life forms in the years gone by just as new forms of life
arose at different periods of history of earth.
(iv) There has been gradual evolution of life forms.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

34) Which of the following naturalist worked in Malay Archipelago :

(1) Darwin
(2) Alfred Wallace
(3) A.I. Oparin
(4) J.B.S. Haldane

35) Industrial melanism in peppered moth occurred due to natural selection. The significant reason
for this was :-

The light colourd white moths could not be noticed by predatory birds affer deposition of soots
(1)
on bark of trees
(2) Mutation in light coloured moths due to increase in industrial pollution
Predation of black moths on trees in polluted areas, resulting in increase in population of white
(3)
moths.
 Predation of white moths from trees on polluted areas resulting in increased population of black
(4)
moths.

36) Which of the following is incorrect regarding mutation theory ?

(1) Mutation causes evolution not minor variation

(2) Mutations are random and directional
(3) Mutations are discontinuous source of variation
(4) Mutation causes speciation and single step large mutation is called as saltation

37) During ice age between A year ago B arose . Find the correct option which fills blanks
correctly :-

(1) A-100000-80000, B-Neanderthal man

(2) A-3 million, B-Homo erectus
(3) A- 15 million, B-Homo habilis
(4) A-75000-10000, B-Modern Homo sapiens

38) Organism can be used as industrial pollution indicators :-

(1) Lichens
(2) Evening primrose
(3) Darwin’s Finches
(4) Giraffe

39) Man has created new breeds of animals in very short time. This is an example of :-

(1) Artificial selection

(2) Animal husbandary
(3) Natural selection
(4) Both 1 and 2

40) In which condition gene ratio remains constant in a species ?

(1) Gene flow

(2) Mutation
(3) Random mating
(4) Natural selection

41) Founder effect can be seen in a population because of

(1) No change in allele frequency

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene flow
(4) Natural Selection

42) Random change of gene/allelic frequencies in a population merely by chance is called :-

(1) Genetic drift
(2) Sewall Wright effect
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Gene recombination

43) Which one of the following option is least applicable for origin of new species?

(1) Variations
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Isolation
(4) Inheritance of acquired character

44) Genetic equilibrium is disturbed by :

(A) Large population
(B) Mutation
(C) Migration
(D) Crossing over

(1) A, B and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) B and D

45) This diagram shows:

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Founder eff ect
(4) All of above
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 1 3 2 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 1 4 3 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 1 1 4 3 1 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 4 3 2 2

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 4 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 4 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) where and A=ℓ2 so

2) i = = =

= × 16 × 10–4 × 0.4 = 0.32A

3) M =

=
= 96 π × 10–5

em=

= –96 π × 10–5 ×
= 4.8 × 10–2 V

4)

5) It is non conservative so concept of electrostatic potential is invalid.

6) Here only resistance is changed but inductance is same.

7)

We know that in this case acceleration of falling magnet will be lesser than g. If ‘g’ would have

been acceleration, then distance covered . Now the distance covered will be less
than 5 m. hence only option (a) is correct

8) L2 and L3 are in parallel. Thus their combination gives

The L′ and L1 are in series, thus the equivalent inductance is L = L1 + L′
= 0.75 + 0.25 =1H.
9)
VA – 5 + 15 – [5 × 10–3 (–103)] = VB
VA – VB = –15 volt
VB – VA = 15 volt

10) We can assume uniform magnetic field for small square loop at center because a << b.

11)
Inward magnetic field (×) increasing . Therefore, induced current in both the loops should be
anticlockwise. But as the area of loop on right side is more, induced emf in this will be more

compared to the left loop Therefore net current in the complete loop will
be in a direction shown below. Hence option (1) is correct.

12) ⇒

13)

14)

=6.25×10-3×1
=6.25×10-3 W

15)
If 'x' is the length of solenoid with 'r' as radius

16) EMF = 25 × 10–3 = M × 15

or M= × 10–3 H

ϕ = MI = × 10–3 × 3.6 = 6.00 mWb.

17) ε =

= × (100 – 49) × 10–4

= 10–3 × 51 = 0.051 volt.

18)

19)
dϕ = BdA

=ϕ=

MI = ℓn

M= ℓn

20) Motional emf e = Bvl ⇒ e = 2 × 2 × 1 = 4V

This acts as a cell of emf E = 4V and internal resistance r = 2Ω.
This simple circuit can be drawn as follows
 ⇒

Current through the connector i = = 1A

∴ magneitc force on connector Fm = Bil = 2×1×1=2N
(Towards left)

21)

22) B = 100 gauss = 100 × 10–4 Wb/m2, r = 10 cm = 0.10 m, frequency of rotaion = 10 rot/sec.

The emf induced between centre and rim

(∵ r = ℓ)
ω = 2πf = 2 × 3.14 × 10 = 62.8 s–1

∴ = = 3.14 × 10–3 V = 3.14 mV.

23)

Q = CV = C(Bvl) = 10 × 10–6 × 4 × 2 × 1 = 80 µC

According to Fleming's right hand rule induced current flows from Q to P. Hence P is at higher
potential and Q is at lower potential. Therefore A is positively charged and B is negatively charged.

24)
25)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to find the magnitude of the induced
electromotive force (emf) in the secondary coil of a transformer-like setup when the current in
the primary coil decreases uniformly from 10A to zero over a given short time interval of
10^{-3} seconds. We are given the mutual inductance and need to calculate the induced
voltage.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on the concept of electromagnetic induction,

specifically mutual induction. When the current in the primary coil changes, it induces an emf
in the secondary coil proportional to the rate of change of current and the mutual inductance
between the coils.

Relevant Formulas: The formula used is: Where: - is the induced emf in the
secondary coil, - is the coefficient of mutual inductance (in henrys), - is the rate of change
of current in the primary coil (in amperes per second).

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate the rate of change of current in the primary coil:

Step 2: Substitute and into the formula:

Thus, the magnitude of the induced emf is 30 kV.

Tips and Tricks: Focus on calculating the rate of change of current (di/dt) carefully. Uniform
change means divide the total change in current by the time interval directly.

Common Mistakes: Ignoring the negative sign for rate of change of current or forgetting that
the induced emf magnitude is positive. Also, mixing up primary and secondary coils, or
confusing mutual inductance with self-inductance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: The options '3 kV', '2 kV', and '20 kV' are too low
because they underestimate the large rate at which current changes or the value of mutual
inductance. '30 kV' correctly reflects the calculation based on the provided data.

26) Self inductance of coil

27)
28) The direction of current in the solenoid is anti-clockwise as seen by observer. On
displacing it towards the loop a current in the loop will be induced in a direction so as to
oppose the approach of solenoid. Therefore the direction of induced current as observed by
the observer will be clockwise.

29)

30) Mutual induction depends on orientation of coils

31) ϕ = LI

L= weber.amp–1

ε=

L= volt second amp–1

U= LI2

L= joule amp–2

32)

(i) Just after the switch in on L will be open circuit.

ia = 0, ib = , ic =
(ii) Long time after the switch in on L will behave as short circuit.

ia = , ib = , ic =

33) 1- Problem Explanation:

Find the steady-state currents i1 and i2 in the given circuit after the battery has been
connected for some time.

2- Concept Used:
In steady-state, the inductor acts as a short circuit. Ohm's law is used to calculate the current
in the resistive branch.
3- Formulas Used:
• Ohm's Law:

4-Calculation:
• Inductor as Short: After some time, the inductor behaves as a short circuit, eliminating the
3Ω resistor from consideration for i2.
• Current : The total resistance in the branch is Applying Ohm's Law:

• Current : Since the inductor is a short, all current flows through it. Thus, no current flows
through the 3 Ω resistor.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1:

[i1 = 5A]
[i2 = 0]

34) =
e = 4V

35)

= + +
Ler = 1H

36)

Key Concept:
When the switchis turned off the inductor resists the change in currrent. The current through
the circuit doesn't abruptly stop instead decays gradually. This results in both bulbs fading
with a time delay as the inductor stores energy and slowly releases it.

Formula
The current through an RL circuit after the switch is turned off decays according to :
I(t) = I0e–t/7

where is the time constant of the circuit

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
As the current decreases over time due to the inductor opposition to sudden changes in
current both bulbs experiences a delay in their brightness fading. Since there s' an inductor in
the circuit neither bulb will die out instantly.
Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

37) L = μ0n2Aℓ

L=
as N and ℓ both doubled so L' = 2L

Answer (3) is doubled

38)

Electrostatic field lines never form a closed loop.

39)

Side AD and BC are perpendicular to both velocity V & magnetic field, so cut the magnetic
field lines. Emf and electric field induced in AD and BC.

40)

Induced charge =

=
=

41) e = L

⇒ L1 =

L2 = = 0.256
M=

M=1 = 1.6 × 10–4 H

42) Ideal inductor will behave like zero resistance long time after switch is closed
 I= = = 6A

43) ϕ = NBA = LI
N µ0 nIπR2 = LI

N µ0 IπR2 = LI
N & R constant

self inductance (L) ∝

Option (2)

44)

45)
= 0.5
For partially linked
K < 0.5

CHEMISTRY

46)

Asking for : To determine the coordination number of nickel in the given complex.

Concept : Coordination number is the number of ligand donor atoms directly bonded to the
central metal ion. Denticity refers to the number of binding sites a ligand has.

Solution : The complex has three oxalate (C2​O42−​) ligands. Oxalate is a bidentate ligand,
meaning it binds through two oxygen atoms simultaneously.

Therefore, the coordination number of Ni is 3×2=6.

Answer : Option 2

47)
Question Explanation – The question asks you to identify which of the given options is a
heteroleptic complex.

Concept – Heteroleptic complex: A complex containing more than one type of ligand.

Let's analyze each option:

A. Cis-platin: [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] - Contains two types of ligands (NH3 and Cl–)

B. Brown ring complex: [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4 - Contains three types of ligands (H2O, NO, and
SO42–)

C. Zeise salt: K[PtCl3(C2H4)] - Contains two types of ligands (Cl– and C2H4)

Therefore, all the given options are heteroleptic complexes.

Final Answer : (4)

48) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O–Mohr’s salt

49) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ > [Ni(dmg)2]

Δ0 < Δsq. planar .

50) Concept

51) C–OB.L ∝ –ve charge

52) NCERT Page No. # 249 (Part-I) Class XII

53)

K2[Ni (CN)4]
2 x 1 + x + 4 (−1) = 0
x = +2
Potassium tetracyano nicklate(II)

54) Oxidation number of central ion (Pt) = +4 and ligands are arranged in alphabetical order.
So, triamminebromochloronitro platinum (IV) chloride

55)

NH3 → ammine
en → ethylene diamine
 56)

Cis-platin

is used as anticancer.

57) non ionisable chloride =

= 75%

58) Electricity is conducted due to the presence of free ions.

59) EAN = 28 – 2 + 2 × 4 = 34 for K2[Ni(CN)4]

60) NCERT-XII, Pg.#238

61) [Cr(en)3]Cl3

62)

63)

Question Explanation – The question asks to identify the incorrect statement regarding
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3.
Concept – The incorrect statement regarding [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is "Outer orbital complex".
Explanation: [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is actually an inner orbital complex due to the strong field ligand
NH3 causing pairing of electrons in the lower energy d orbitals, leading to d2sp3 hybridisation
and octahedral geometry.

Key points about [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3:

A. Hybridisation: d2sp3
B. Geometry: Octahedral
C. Magnetic property: Paramagnetic (due to unpaired electrons)
D. Reaction with AgNO3: Gives white precipitate of AgCl

Final Answer : (3)

64)

Asking for : Arranging the complexes in increasing order of magnetic moment.

Concept : Magnetic moment depends on unpaired electrons. Strong field ligands cause
pairing (low spin, low μ), weak field ligands do not cause pairing (high spin, high μ).

Solution:
(I) [Ni(CO)₄] (d8, configuration, strong field) = 0 unpaired electrons (μ=0).

(II) [Mn(CN)₆]⁴⁻ (d5, configuration, strong field) = 1 unpaired electron (μ≈1.73).

(III) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺ (d3 configuration, strong field) = 3 unpaired electrons (μ≈3.87).

(IV) [CoF₆]³⁻ (d6, configuration, weak field) = 4 unpaired electrons (μ≈4.9).

Correct order (μ) : I < II < III < IV

Answer : Option : 2

65) NCERT Pg.#248

66) [Ni(CN)4]–2 —→ Unpaired electron is zero

67) F– and H2O are weak ligands so in t2g there will be 4 electrons which in eg orbitals there
will be 2 electrons.

68)

69)

70) Co+3 = 3d6

CFSE = – × 6 × Δ + 3P
0

⇒ – 2.4 Δ0 + 3P
 71)

72) In presence of W.F.L. ⇒ Δ0 < P.E.

e– configuration of d4 ion = t2g3eg1

73) According to spectrochemical series, strength of ligand follows order NH3 < en < CN– <
CO

74) CFT is an electrostatic model which considers the M–L bond to be ionic. Ligands are
treated as point charge in case of anion or point dipole in case of neutral molecules.

75) CN–, are strong field ligands. (MM = Magnetic moment)

3–
[Fe(CN)6] → 1 unpaired electron; MM → BM
3–
[CO(NO2)6] → 0 unpaired electron; MM → 0 BM
[Mn(CN)6]3– → 2 unpaired electrons; MM → BM
All are low spin complex.

76)

NO2 is Ambidentate ligand.

77)

The compound [Co(SO4 )(NH3 )5 ]Br and [Co(SO4 )(NH3 )5 ]Cl represents no any isomerism
because molecular formula is differ.

78)

[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 · [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
It is pair of ionisation isomers. Both give different ions.

79)

Explanation - Determine the number of geometric isomers possible for the [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺
complex.
Concept - [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ has four ammonia (NH₃) ligands and two chloride (Cl⁻) ligands.

A. This complex has a coordination number of 6, which typically results in an octahedral

geometry.
B. The two chloride ligands can be arranged in two different ways:
A. cis-isomer: The two chloride ligands are adjacent to each other.
B. trans-isomer: The two chloride ligands are opposite each other.
Therefore, there are two isomeric forms: cis and trans.
Final Answer : (1)

80)

[Cr(py)2 (H2O)2 Cl2] Cl and [Cr(py)2 (H2O)Cl3] H2O are hydrated isomers.
[Pt (NH3)4 Br2] Cl2 and [Pt (NH3)4Cl2] Br2 are ionisation isomers.

81) NCERT XII

Unit 9

82)

83) Fact

84)

[Co(NH3)3Cl3] will not exhibit optical isomerism due to presence of plane of symmetry.

85)
Symmetrical & Plane of symmetry is present.
So, Optically inactive.

86) Cis - platin

Prussian Blue

87) Wilkinson’s catalyst is -bonded organometallic compound [(Ph3P)3RhCl].

It is commercially used for hydrogenation of alkenes and vegetable oils (unsaturated).
IUPAC name Chloridotris(triphenylphosphene)rhodium(I).
 88)

Explanation - Determine the ions formed when each coordination compound dissolves in
water, counting the complex ion and its dissociated counter ions.
Concept - (Warner's theory of complexes)
(i) PdCl₂.4NH₃

A. This forms the complex [Pd(NH₃)₄]Cl₂.

B. In solution, it ionizes into [Pd(NH₃)₄]²⁺ and 2Cl⁻.
C. Therefore, it forms 3 ions.

(ii) NiCl₂.6H₂O

A. This forms the complex [Ni(H₂O)₆]Cl₂.

B. In solution, it ionizes into [Ni(H₂O)₆]²⁺ and 2Cl⁻.
C. Therefore, it forms 3 ions.

(iii) PtCl₄.2HCl

A. This forms the complex H₂[PtCl₆].

B. In solution, it ionizes into 2H⁺ and [PtCl₆]²⁻.
C. Therefore, it forms 3 ions.

(iv) CoCl₃.4NH₃

A. This forms the complex [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl.

B. In solution, it ionizes into [Co(NH₃)₄Cl₂]⁺ and Cl⁻.
C. Therefore, it forms 2 ions.

(v) PtCl₂.2NH₃

A. This forms the complex [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂].

B. This complex does not ionize in solution.
C. Therefore, it forms 0 ions.

Thus the answer is 3, 3, 3, 2, 0.

Final Answer - Option (2)

90)

Fact based

BOTANY

91)

Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod, and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44), the genetic
material was widely thought to be protein. This was because proteins were believed to be
more complex and diverse than nucleic acids, which led many scientists to favor proteins as
the carriers of genetic information.

92) NCERT Pg. # 145

 93)

The Correct answer is :

3. 1 - c, 11 - d, Ill - a, IV - b

94)

The key difference between thymine and uracil is the presence of a methyl group (-CH3) in
thymine at the 5' carbon position.

95)

Statement B is correct: The base pairing (adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine pairs with
guanine) is essential in maintaining the structure of DNA and allowing it to replicate
accurately.
Statement D is also correct: The pitch of the helix (the distance for one full turn of the helix) is
indeed 3.4 nm in the B-form of DNA.

96)

In the experiment done by Hershey and Chase (1952), they used radioactive isotopes to trace
the genetic material of bacteriophages. After the viruses infected bacteria, they observed that
only the radioactive DNA entered the bacterial cells, while the protein remained outside.

97)

The two strands of long DNA molecules cannot be separated in their entire length at once
because of the high energy requirement involved in the process. Separating both strands of
DNA requires breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs, which demands a
significant amount of energy. It would be inefficient and energetically costly to do this all at
once, especially in large genomes.

98) Correct Answer: 1. Double-stranded DNA

Solution:

A. Chargaff's Rule states that in double-stranded DNA,

B. A = T and G = C (purines pair with pyrimidines).
C. A + G = T + C (total purines= total pyrimidines).

Why not the other options?

2. Single-stranded RNA → No base pairing, so rule does not apply.
3. Single-stranded DNA → No complementary base pairing, so rule does not apply.
4. Single-stranded DNA and RNA → Neither follows Chargaff's rule.
Thus, Option 1 (Double-stranded DNA) is correct.

99) Explanation:

A. Statement - A: The nitrogenous bases of the two DNA strands are indeed held together by
hydrogen bonds, which is essential for the double-helix structure of DNA.
 B. Statement - B: Watson and Crick's model of DNA proposed that the two polynucleotide
chains are held together by specific base pairing (adenine with thymine, and guanine with
cytosine), which is a key feature of the DNA double helix

The correct answer is 3. Both statements are correct.

100) Explanation:
The first genetic material was RNA because:
• RNA can store genetic information (like DNA).
• RNA can act as an enzyme (ribozymes), enabling self-replication and catalysis.
• The RNA world hypothesis suggests that life began with self-replicating RNA molecules
before DNA and proteins evolved.
Correct answer: Option 4 (RNA)

101)

NCERT, Pg. # 98

102)

The Correct answer is 1. 44

103)

Correct Answer: 4. Nucleosomes in chromatin

Explanation: Chromatin, the complex of DNA and proteins within the nucleus of eukaryotic
cells, has a hierarchical structure. The first level of packaging involves DNA winding around
histone octamers (eight histone proteins) to form structures called nucleosomes. These
nucleosomes appear as 'beads' connected by stretches of 'string' which are linker DNA. This
characteristic appearance under the electron microscope gives rise to the term 'beads-on-
string structure'.

104)

The correct answer is:

3. Assertion is correct and Reason is false
Assertion is correct: DNA and RNA are indeed long polymers of nucleotides.
Reason is false: A nucleoside consists of only two components- a nitrogenous base and a
pentose sugar. It does not include a phosphate group. When a phosphate group is added to a
nucleoside, it forms a nucleotide.

105) Correct Answer - DNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins
Solution -
DNA does not directly synthesize proteins.
Instead, it undergoes transcription to form mRNA, which carries the genetic code to the
ribosome.
The ribosome then translates the mRNA sequence into a polypeptide (protein).
106)

In addition to hydrogen bonding between complementary bases, base stacking interactions

(hydrophobic forces between the aromatic rings of adjacent bases) contribute significantly to
the stability of the DNA helix. These interactions help stabilize the helical structure by
allowing the bases to stack neatly on top of one another.

107) NCERT-XII Pg. No.-99

108)

NCERT Pg. No. 81 & FACT

109)

NCERT Pg # 107

110)

The question asks which carbon of the sugar in a nucleotide is associated with phosphoric acid
(phosphate group).
Correct Answer: 4. 5th
Concept: In a nucleotide, the phosphate group forms a phosphoester bond with the
hydroxyl group (-OH) of the 5' carbon of the sugar (ribose or deoxyribose). This bond is
crucial in linking nucleotides together to form the DNA or RNA strand.

111) Question Explain:

The question asks which of the given options is not a required characteristic of genetic
material.
Explanation: The criteria for genetic material are:
1. It should express traits (phenotypes) as per Mendelian principles.
2. It must replicate accurately to pass on genetic information.
3. It should be chemically and structurally stable to preserve information.
4. However, it must allow changes (mutations) to enable evolution.
The incorrect statement is "Should not provide the scope for changes for evolution", as
variability through mutation is essential for natural selection and evolution.
Correct Answer: 4. Should not provide the scope for changes for evolution

112) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 105, Fig.6.7

113)

The term 'Nuclein' was historically used to describe the genetic material discovered within
the nucleus of cells. Identifying this term is key to understanding the early studies that led to
the discovery of DNA as the carrier of genetic information.
Correct Answer:2. Meischer
Explanation: The Swiss biologist Friedrich Miescher discovered the substance in 1869 while
 studying the composition of cell nuclei. He called it "nuclein", which later became known as
DNA after further research. This discovery laid the foundation for understanding that nucleic
acids were essential for genetic material.

114)

The question asks which histone proteins form the core of the nucleosome.
Explanation:
1. Nucleosome Core:

A. The nucleosome core consists of an octamer of histones: two copies each of H2A, H2B, H3,
and H4.
B. These histones provide a structural framework around which DNA wraps, stabilizing the
chromatin structure.

2. H1: This is a linker histone that binds to the DNA outside the nucleosome core and helps with
higher-order chromatin structure.
Correct Answer: Option 4: Both (2) and (3)
Concept: The nucleosome core is made of histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. DNA wraps around this
core, and H1 helps in compacting the chromatin further by binding the linker DNA.

115) NCERT, Pg. # 96, 97

116) Allen module No.105

117)

NCERT XII Pg, 107

118)

NCERT XII Pg, 104

119)

NCERT XII Pg, 97

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. No.-106

121) NCERT Pg. # 152 1st para

122) NCERT XII pg.# 105

123) NCERT-XII Pg. No. 106

 124) NCERT-XII Pg. No. 102

125) Module-09 Pg. No. 108

126) NCERT-XII Pg. No. 106

127) Module-09. Pg. No.-111

128) NCERT-XII Pg. No.-97

129) Statement I: "In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively
charged proteins in a region called nucleoid." This statement is incorrect. In prokaryotes, the
DNA is generally negatively charged because of the phosphate groups in the DNA backbone.
The region where prokaryotic DNA is located is called the nucleoid, but the DNA is not held by
positively charged proteins.
Statement II: "In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively
charged histone octamer to form nucleosome." This statement is true. In eukaryotic cells, DNA
is indeed negatively charged, and it is wrapped around histone proteins to form a structure
called the nucleosome.

130) NCERT Pg.# 98

131) Let's analyze each option carefully to determine the correct statement about DNA.
Option 1:
"Forms a double helical structure made up of two polypeptide chains."

A. Incorrect
B. DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains, not polypeptide chains (which are found in
proteins).

Option 2:
"It is an acidic substance present in the nucleus and was first identified by F. Miescher in 1869."

A. Correct
B. DNA was first identified by Friedrich Miescher in 1869.
C. He extracted it from pus cells and called it "nuclein," which was later identified as an acidic
substance present in the nucleus.

Option 3:
"Phosphate group is linked to 5'-0H of the nucleoside by glycosidic linkage."

A. Incorrect
B. The phosphate group is linked to the 5'-0H of the nucleoside by a phosphoester bond, not a
glycosidic linkage.
C. Glycosidic linkage is found between the nitrogenous base and sugar in a nucleotide.

Option 4:
"All four ribonucleotides are always equally present in both the strands."
 A. Incorrect
B. DNA contains deoxyribonucleotides, not ribonucleotides.
C. The proportion of A, T, G, and C varies depending on the species, and their distribution is not
necessarily equal in both strands.
D. However, according to Chargaff's rule, the amount of A = T and G = C in complementary
strands.

Final Answer:
The correct statement is:
(2) DNA is an acidic substance present in the nucleus and was first identified by F. Miescher in
1869.

132)

NCERT Pg. No. # 88

133) "Transcription as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith's
'transforming principle'."
Incorrect. Griffith's experiment demonstrated the phenomenon of transformation, where
genetic material from one bacterium could change the characteristics of another. However,
transcription (RNA synthesis from DNA) was not a concept that was demonstrated or evident
in Griffith's work.

134)

NCERT XII Pg # 91

135)

Given:
DNA is double-stranded
Cytosine (C) = 17%

Step 1 – Base-pairing rule

In DNA:
C pairs with G → %G = %C = 17%

Step 2 – Total so far

C + G = 17% + 17% = 34%

Step 3 – Remaining percentage

Total DNA = 100%, so
% (A + T) = 100 – 34 = 66%

Step 4 – A–T pairing

A pairs with T → %A = %T = 66 ÷ 2 = 33%

Answer:
A = 33%, T = 33%, G = 17%
ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT XII, Pg.# 135, para 7.6

137)

NCERT Pg. 128, 129 and 134.

138)

Question Asking About:

Pre historic cave arts of about 18000 years back were found in

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
While there might to other sites with evidence of prehistoric art from around that
period, Bhimbetka is a well-known and significant location for such findings in India.
The other options are less specific and less commonly associated with cave art form
that particular timeframe.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

139)

Module

140) The correct answer is Option 3: Type (c) selects both extreme variants.
Type (c) shows the formation of two peaks in the distribution. This represents Disruptive
Selection, where both extreme variants of a trait are favored over the intermediate phenotype.

141)

The answer to the question is 1. Stabilizing selection.

Stabilizing selection is a type of natural selection that favors intermediate phenotypes and
selects against extreme phenotypes. In the case of birth weight, babies that are too small or
too large have higher mortality rates. Therefore, natural selection favors babies with
intermediate birth weights, leading to a stabilization of the average birth weight within a
population.

142) NCERT XII, Page # 140

143) 1. Determine the frequency of each allele:

A. The frequency of the A1 allele (p) is given as 0.7.

B. The frequency of the A2 allele (q) can be calculated as 1 - p = 1 - 0.7 = 0.3
2. Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation:
The Hardy-Weinberg equation states that for a population in equilibrium:
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Where:

A. p2 represents the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (A1A1)

B. 2pq represents the frequency of the heterozygous genotype (A1A2)
C. q2 represents the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (A2A2)

3. Calculate the proportion of heterozygous individuals (A1A2):

A. 2pq = 2 × p × q
B. 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42

Therefore, the proportion of flies carrying both A1 and A2 alleles (heterozygous individuals) is 0.42.
So, the correct answer is 4) 0.42

144)

145)

The characteristics described in the question-brain capacity of 1400 cc, used hides to
protect their bodies, and buried their dead bodies-are all traits associated with
Neanderthal man.

A. Brain capacity of 1400 cc: Neanderthals had a brain size roughly comparable to or even
slightly larger than modern humans.
B. Used hides to protect their bodies: Neanderthals were known to use animal skins for
clothing.
C. Buried their dead bodies: Evidence suggests that Neanderthals engaged in rituals, including
burial practices, which indicates a degree of cultural complexity.

Correct Answer:
2. Neanderthal man

146) Question Explanation :

On which organism did De Vries base his mutation theory of organic evolution.

Concept :
This question is based on Mutation theory.

Solution : Hugo de Vries, a Dutch botanist, developed his mutation theory of evolution while
studying the evening primrose, Oenothera lamarckiana. He observed sudden, large-scale
variations in these plants, which he attributed to mutations. This led him to propose that
mutations were a significant driving force of evolution, challenging the gradualist view of
Darwinian evolution.
Hence,
Option (1) is correct : Oenothera lamarckiana

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149) NCERT Pg. # (E)- 132, (H)-144

150) NCERT(XII) Pg#141/152(H) Para:7.9

151) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 140

152) NCERT XII, Pg.# 135

153) NCERT (XII) Pg#140-141 Para:7.9

154) NCERT XII, Pg.# 140,141, para 7.9

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 132/137

156) The correct answer is 2. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii.:Let's match each item correctly:(a) Change in
frequency of allele in population → (iii) Results in evolution

A. Changes in allele frequency drive the process of evolution by creating variations in

populations.

(b) Genetic drift → (iv) By chance event

A. Genetic drift involves random changes in allele frequency due to chance events, especially in
small populations.

(c) Rate of appearance of new forms is linked to → (i) Lifespan

A. The rate at which new forms appear is influenced by the reproductive lifespan of organisms, as
shorter lifespans lead to faster generational turnover.

(d) Gene pool → (ii) Total gene and their allele in populationThe gene pool represents the total set of
genes and their alleles within a population.

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158)

The correct answer is 2. D, B, C, A.

According to Darwin's theory of evolution, the correct sequence of events is:

A. Struggle for Existence (D): In any given environment, there is a competition for resources
 like food, water, and space among organisms. This leads to a "struggle for existence."
B. Variation & their inheritance (B): Within any population, there is natural variation among
individuals. These variations are heritable, meaning they can be passed down from parents to
offspring.
C. Survival of the fittest (C): In the struggle for existence, individuals with variations that
make them better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. This
'is the concept of "survival of the fittest."
D. Natural Selection (A): Over time, the process of survival of the fittest leads to the gradual
accumulation of favorable traits in a population. This is the process of natural selection, which
drives evolution.

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161)

Question Asking About:

Identify A, B, and C and in hte given evolutionary sequence.

Given Data:
A diagrammatic representation of human ancestor evolution (which I can't see, but you
describe), with labels A, B, and C

Key Concept:
This question tests knowledge of the generally accepted sequence of hominin evolution.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The typical and most widely accepted sequence, from earlier to later, is

A. Remapithecus (or Dryopithecus): These are early ape-like ancestores, While Rampithecus
exact role is debated, it's often placed early in the hominin lineage. Drypithecus is also an
early ape ancestor but is less directly linked to humans.
B. Austrolopithecus: These hominins are known for their bipedalism and represent a crucial
step in human evolution.
C. Homo erectus: Homo erectus is characterized by a larger brain size, the use of fire, and
migration out of Africa.

Therefore:

A. A would be Rampithecus (or possibly Dryopithecus, depending on the diagram).

B. B would be Australopithecus
C. C Would be Homo erctus.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.
.

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164)

The correct answer is 3. Bottleneck effect.

Explanation:
The bottleneck effect is a type of genetic drift where a significant portion of a population is
randomly removed. This can be due to various events like natural disasters (like the
earthquake in the scenario), diseases, or human activities.
In this case, the earthquake drastically reduced the population size, and only a few brown-eyed
individuals survived. This sudden reduction in population size led to a significant change in the
gene pool, with a decrease in the frequency of the blue-eyed allele.

165) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 141

166)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which type of speciation Darwin's finches
exemplify. Speciation is the process by which new species arise, and the question wants to
identify the correct category among allopatric, sympatric, phyletic, and quantum speciation.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is 'speciation'-specifically, allopatric speciation.

This occurs when populations of the same species become geographically separated and
evolve independently, eventually becoming distinct species. Darwin's finches on the
Galápagos Islands evolved differing traits because isolated populations adapted to different
environments on separate islands, a classic example of allopatric speciation.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that 'allo-' means 'other' or 'different' and 'patric' relates to
'place'-so allopatric speciation involves populations separated by place.

Common Mistakes: Confusing allopatric with sympatric speciation, where sympatric

speciation occurs without geographic isolation. Another mistake is mixing phyletic speciation
(gradual change over time) with speciation caused by physical separation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Sympatric speciation involves species evolving in the
same geographic area without physical barriers, which is not the case with Darwin's finches
since they are separated by islands. Phyletic speciation refers to gradual evolution within a
lineage rather than splitting into new species. Quantum speciation involves very rapid
speciation events and is less applicable here.

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172) NCERT XII Pg. No. # 141

173) NCERT-XII, Pg # 132

174) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 131

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176) Explaining the Question:

Founder effect ?

Concept:
Hardy Weinberg Law

Solution:
Founder effect is due to genetic drift.
Founder effect : The original drifted population becomes founders.

Final Answer:
Option (2) Genetic drift

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