BIOLOGY MATERIAL

Contents

1. REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISM
2. SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
3. HUMAN REPRODUCTION
4. REPRODUCTION AND STRATEGIES
5. PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
6. MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
7. EVOLUTION
8. HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
9. STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD
10. MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
11. BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
12. BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
13. ORGANISMS AND POPULATION
14. ECOSYSTEM
15. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
16. ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES

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CHAPTER :1
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISM
SESSION I
Life span
The period from birth to the natural death of an organism is called as life span
- Life spans of organisms are not correlated with their sizes For example- the sizes of crows and
parrots are almost same but Crow can live upto 15 years but parrot can live upto 140 years.
- No individual is immortal, except single-celled organisms like monerans and protists.
- There is no natural death in single-celled organisms because parent body (cell) divided and
distributed into two daughter cells always.

Reproduction:
Is a process by which organism gave birth to young ones.
- Each and every living organism undergoes reproduction to continue their species on earth
Based on the number of individuals and process involved, reproduction can be of two types -
Asexual and sexual reproduction
- Asexual reproduction: Only one parent is involved in reproduction, so it is uni-parental
- Sexual reproduction: Two parents are involved in reproduction so it is bi-parental

Differences between asexual and sexual reproduction

Sl. No. Asexual reproduction sexual reproduction

1 Uni-parental Bi-parental

2 No gametes were produced Gametes were produced

3 Off springs are identical themselves and Off springs are non identical themselves and to
to their parents their parents

4 No variations created among offsprings Variations created among offsprings

5 Clones are formed No clones are produced

Clones- The individuals that are morphologically and genetically similar to the parent are called
clones.

- The progeny formed from asexual reproduction are genetically similar to the parents, but
offsprings formed by sexual reproduction show genetic variations due to genetic
recombination occurred during gamete formation and fertilization.
- Sexual reproduction is the better mode of reproduction, because the better offspring are
produced with genetic variations. Such variations enable the organisms to survive during
unfavorable conditions or adapt to changing environmental conditions.

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Asexual reproductive propagules in different organisms
Cell Division- Parent cell divides into two to give rise to new individuals. Ex- Monerans and
protistans
Binary fission - Where a cell divides into two halves and each rapidly grows into an adult. Ex-
Amoeba, Paramecium
Budding - In this process, the cell divides unequally to form bud, which remain attached to the
parent initially then detach and develops into a mature cell. Ex- yeast
Encystation- Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and develops a thick cell wall to form cyst or
spore called encystation.
Zoospores: Chlamydomonas
Conidia: Penicillium
Gemmules: Sponges
Buds: Hydra
Vegetative propagules in angiosperms
Runner: Grass, Oxalis
Rhizome: Ginger, Banana
Sucker: Chrysanthemum
Tuber (Eyes): Potato
Offset: Water hyacinth (Eicchornia)
Bulb: Onion

SESSION II
Sexual Reproduction:
- Sexual reproduction involves the formation of the male and female gametes in either the same
individual or two individuals. These gametes fuse to form a zygote, which develops into a new
individual.
- Offspring are not identical to each other or to the parents. So, sexual reproduction gives rise to
diversity among living organisms.
- All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life, before they can
reproduce sexually.
- There are three phases in the life cycle of any organsism
1. Juvenile phase or vegetative phase
2. Reproductive phase
3. Senescence phase
- Period of growth before sexually reproduce is vegetative or juvenile phase (vegetative in plants
and juvenile in animals).
- After completion of growth phase organism enters to reproductive phase. After reproductive
phase, organism enters to senescence phase (ageing).
- In annual and biennial plants all the three stages can be observed clearly. But it is difficult to
observe the three phases in perennial plants.
- In perennial plants vegetative growth can be seen in between two inter- flowering period.

Unusual flowering phenomenon:

- Unusual flowering phenomenon observed in bamboo and neelakuranji
- Bamboo species flower only once in their life time, generally after 50-100 years, produce large
number of fruits and die
- Strobilanthus kunthiana (neelakuranji), flowers once in 12 years. This plant flowered
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during September-October 2006. Its mass flowering transformed large tracks of hilly areas in
Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu into blue stretches.

Reproductive phase in Animals:

- Animals exhibit different morphological and physiological changes during the beginning of
reproductive phase. Animals exhibit two kinds of cyclic changes during reproductive phase-
Oestrous and menstrual cycle

Differences between Oestrous and menstrual cycle

Oestrous cycle Menstrual cycle

1. Cyclic changes occurs in females Cyclic changes occurs in females

of non-primates in the activities of primates in the activities of
of ovaries and accessory ducts ovaries and accessory ducts and
and hormones during the hormones during the
reproductive phase is called reproductive phase is called
oestrus cycle menstrual cycle.

2. Ex: cows, sheep, rats, deers, Ex: monkeys, apes, and humans
dogs, tiger etc.

Some mammals can reproduce throughout the reproductive phase, whereas some mammals
actively reproduce only in certain seasons, so mammals can be classified into continuous and
seasonal breeders.
Differences between continuous and seasonal breeders

Continuous breeders Seasonal breeders

1. Those mammals reproductively Those mammals reproductively

active throughout their active only during favourable
reproductive phase are seasons in their reproductive phase
continuous breeders are seasonal breeders

2. Ex: Human Ex: Dog, deer etc.

- After completion of reproductive phase organisms enters to senescence phase (ageing).

- At the end of reproductive phase, slowing down of metabolism indicated the organism
approaching ageing. In plants yellowing of plant is the sign of ageing.
- Environmental and hormonal interaction is responsible for ageing.

SESSION III
Events in sexual reproduction
Organisms reproducing sexually exhibit certain events such as
- Pre-fertilisation, fertilisation and post-fertilisation events
Pre-Fertilisation Events
These include all the events of sexual reproduction prior to the fusion of gametes. The two
main pre-fertilisation events are gametogenesis and gamete transfer.

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Gametogenesis
- Gametogenesis is the process of formation of male and female gametes. Gametes are
always haploid.
- During gametogenesis, in diploid organisms meiocyte undergoes meiosis to produce haploid
gametes, where as in haploid organisms, gamete produced upon mitosis.
- Gametes may be of same kinds in homo or isogametes Ex. Chlamydomonas
- Gametes may be of two kinds both morphologically and genetically in hetero or
anisogametes Ex. Fucus and Human being
- In heterogametes , male gametes are called as antherozoid (or sperm ) and female gametes
are called as egg (or ovum).
Sexuality in plants:
- If a flower produces both stamen and pistil is called as bisexual flower.
- If a flower produces either stamen or pistil it is called as unisexual flower. Ex: Sweet potato,
Hibiscus
- In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is called as staminate flower and unisexual
female flower is called as pistillate flower.
- If both staminate and pistillate flowers borne on the same plant it is called as monoecious
Ex: Maize, Coconut, Cucumber
- If staminate and pistillate flowers borne on two differtent plants it is called as dioecious Ex:
papaya, date palm.
- In lower plants like algae and bryophytes, antheridia (male reproductive structure) and
archegonia (female reproductive structure) borne on the same thallus called homothallic Ex.
Chara
- If antheridia and archegonia borne on the two different thallus called heterothallic Ex.
Marchantia
Sexuality in Animals:
- Animals possess either male or female reproductive organ is unisexual Ex: Cockroach
- Animals possess both male or female reproductive organ is bisexual Ex: Earthworm, leech,
tapeworm
Gamete Transfer
- For their fusion to take place, the gametes need to be transferred.
- In most organisms, the male gametes are motile, while the female gametes are nonmotile,
and the male gametes need a medium for their movement.
- A large number of male gametes do not make it to the female gamete, and hence, several
thousands of male gametes are produced
- In angiosperms, the pollen grain carries the male gamete and the ovule carries the female
gamete.
- Pollen grains are produced in the anther and need to be transferred to the stigma for
fertilisation and this occurs by a process called pollination.
- Pollen grains germinate on the stigma and the pollen tubes carrying the male gametes reach
the the egg and make the fertilization
- In dioecious animals, gametes brings together during sexual copulation

SESSION IV
Fertilization Events
- Fertilization is the most important event in sexual reproduction.
- This process is also called syngamy and leads to the formation of the zygote.
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- During post fertilization event, zygote develops into embryo
- In some organisms, unfertilized egg directly develops into individual organism called as
parthenogenesis. Ex. rotifers, honeybees and some lizard
- Based on where does the syngamy occurs, fertilization are of two types-
External fertilization and internal fertilization

External fertilization Internal fertilization

1. Fertilisation takes place Fertilisation takes place inside

outside the female body the female body

2. Fertilization usually occurs in Fertilization does not occurs in

the water the water

3. Large number of male and Large number of male and very

female gamete are released in less female gametes are
to the water produced

4. There must be synchronization No synchronization in the

in the releasing of male and releasing of male and female
female gametes gametes required

5. Offsprings are vulnerable to Offsprings are well protected

predators inside the femal body

6. Ex: Algae, amphibians (frogs), Ex: Bryophytes, pteridophytes,

bony fishes gymnosperms, angiosperms,
higher animals

Post-Fertilisation Events
- Events taking place after fertilisation are called post-fertilisation events.
- The haploid gametes fuse to form a diploid zygote in all organisms.
- In external fertilisation, a zygote is formed in an external medium, and in internal
fertilisation, a zygote is formed inside the individual.
- The development of a zygote depends upon the life cycle of an organism and its
surroundings.
- In some organisms, the zygote into develops a thick wall around itself. This wall is resistant
to damage and desiccation.

Embryogenesis
- It is the process of development of the embryo from the zygote.
- The zygote undergoes cell division and differentiation to form embryo
- Animals can be grouped into two categories based on how and where the development of
the zygote takes place.
These categories are oviparous and viviparous

Oviparous Viviparous

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(egg laying organisms) (gave birth to young ones)

1. The fertilised egg is covered by The fertilised egg is not

a calcareous shell and is covered by any calcareous
released into the outside shell
environment.

2. The development of zygote The development of the zygote

takes place outside the female takes place inside the female
body and the young one body, and the developed
hatches out young one is delivered outside

3. Ex: birds and reptiles Ex: mammals, including

humans
In flowering plants, the zygote is formed inside the ovule.
During post fertilization events
- Zygote → Develops into → Embryo
- Ovule → Develops into → Seed
- Ovary → Develops into → Fruit → Contains → Seeds → Disperse and germinate to form new
plants
MCQs
1. Life span of crocodile is
(1) 140 years (2) 60 years (3) 100 years (4) 20 years
2. Life span of butterfly is
(1) 5 weeks (2) 3 – 4 weeks (3) 1 -2 weeks (4) 3 weeks
3. Life span of crow is
(1) 10 years (2) 12 years (3) 15 years (4) 18years
4. Life span of parrot is
(1) 60 years (2) 20 years (3) 100 years (4) 140 years
5. Life span of tortoise is
(1) 60 years (2) 60 – 80 years (3) 80 – 100 years (4) 100 – 150 years
6. Unicellular organisms are said to be immortal because
(1) They grow indefinitely in size
(2) They can reproduce throughout their life span
(3) They can tolerate any degree of change in temperature
(4) They continue to live as their daughter cells
7. Whatever be the life span, death of every individual organism is certainity, i.e., no individual
Is immortal except
(1) Amoeba and Paramecium (2) Sponges (3) Penicillium (4) Hydra
8. There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because
(1) They cannot reproduce sexually (2) They reproduce by binary fission
(3) Parental body is distributed among the offspring (4) They are microscopic
9. Genetically and morphologically similar individuals are called
(1) Hermaphrodites (2) Clones (3) Gemmules (4) Synergids
10. Find out the correct statement
(1) Life span of organisms is necessarily correlated with their sizes
(2) Reproduction is essential for continuity of life on earth

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(3) The sizes of crows and parrots are not very different and therefore, their life spans
are almost the same
(4) A banyan tree has a shorter life span than a banana tree
11. Cell division is the mode of reproduction in organisms belonging to
(1) Monera and Fungi (2) Fungi and Protista
(3) Protista and Monera (4) Fungi and Lichens
12. Asexual reproduction is a means of reproduction in
(1) Amoeba (2) Sponges (3) Penicillium (4) Marchantia
13. During asexual reproduction, Amoeba produces
(1) Pseudopodiospores (2) Zoospores (3) Conidia (4) Gemmules
14. In yeast, asexual reproduction occurs by the formation of
(1) Bud (2) Gemmule (3) Zoospore (4) Conidia
15. Bud is the asexual reproductive structure in
(1) Sponges (2) Yeast (3) Penicillium (4) Chlamydomonas
16. In Penicillium, asexual reproduction occurs by the formation of
(1) Zoospores (2) Corm (3) Bud (4) Conidia
17. Conidia are the asexual spores produced by
(1) Sponges (2) Yeast (3) Penicillium (4) Chlamydomonas
18. Microscopic, motile, asexual reproductive structures are called
(1) Conidia (2) Zoospores (3) Aplanospores (4) Basidiospores
19. Chlamydomonas reproduces asexually by
(1) Zoospores (2) Conidia (3) Buds (4) Gemmules
20. Zoospores are the asexual spores produced by
(1) Penicillium (2) Chlamydomonas (3) Yeast (4) Sponges
21. Asexual reproductive structures in sponges are
(1) Zoospores (2) Conidia (3) Buds (4) Gemmules
22. Gemmules are the asexual reproductive structures in
(1) Sponges (2) Yeast (3) Penicillium (4) Hydra
23. The horizontal underground stem of the ginger plant which helps in vegetative propagation
is
(1) Rhizome (2) Corm (3) Bulb (4) Runner
24. Rhizome is the vegetative propagule in
(1) Ginger/Banana (2) Potato (3) Onion (4) Oxalis
25. Which of the following is a vegetative propagule in banana plant?
(1) Runner (2) Tuber (3) Rhizome (4) Bulb
26. Bulbil is the vegetative propagule in
(1) Onion (2) Eichhornia (3) Potato (4) Agave
27. Vegetative reproduction in Agave occurs by
(1) Leaf buds (Epiphyllous buds) (2) Rhizome
(3) Sucker (4) Bulbil
28. Which part of Bryophyllum performs vegetative propagation?
(1) Stem (2) Floral bud (3) Bud on leaf margin (4) Underground root
29. In Bryophyllum, adventitious buds arise from
(1) Veins present at the margin of leaves (2) Notches present at the margin of leaves
(3) ‘Eyes’ present on the modified stem (4) Axillary buds
30. Bulb is the vegetative propagule in
(1) Onion (2) Potato (3) Ginger (4) Agave
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31. Vegetative propagule in onion is
(1) Sucker (2) Bulb (3) Offset (4) Leaf bud
32. Tuber is the vegetative propagule in
(1) Ginger (2) Onion (3) Banana (4) Potato
33. Vegetative propagule in potato is
(1) Bulb (2) Sucker (3) Tuber (4) Offset
34. Vegetative propagule in Eichhornia is
(1) Tuber (2) Runner (3) Rhizome (4) Offset
35. Offset is the vegetative propagule in
(1) Onion (2) Ginger (3) Eichhornia (4) Bryophyllum
36. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched with respect to mode of reproduction?
(1) Rhizome - Ginger (2) Binary fission – Sargassum
(3) Conidia – Penicillium (4) Offset – Water hyacinth

37. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Sponges – Gemmule (2) Yeast – Bud
(3) Chlamydomonas – Zoospore (4) Penicillium – Aplanospores
38. Which of the following plants shows vegetative propagation?
(1) Radish (2) Sunflower (3) Bryophyllum (4) Strobilanthus
39. The plant which is known as the ‘terror of Bengal’ Is
(1) Ginger (2) Water hyacinth (3) Agave (4) Bryophyllum
40. One of the following is not an asexual spore?
(1) Conidia (2) Zygospore (3) Pseudopodiospore(4) Zoospore
41. Which of the following plant is known as ‘Terror of Bengal’?
(1) Bryophyllum (2) Nymphaea (3) Parthenium (4) Eichhornia
42. The plant which produces flowers once in 12 years is
(1) Strobilanthus (2) Ophioglossum (3) Orobanche (4) Striga
43. The plant which flowers only once in its life time is
(1) Date palm (2) Sea grass (3) Bamboo (4) Papaya
44. Which of the following is a monocarpic plant?
(1) Strobilanthus kunthiana (2) Banana (3) Banyan (4) Mango
45. The following plant produces flowers only once in its life time
(1) Strobilanthus (2) Ophioglossum (3) Bamboo (4) Lupinus
46. Which of the following organisms produces homogametes (isogametes)?
(1) Fucus (2) Cladophora (3) Homo sapiens (4) Both a and b
47. Which of the following terms describe unisexual condition?
(1) Homothallic and monoecious (2) Heterothallic and dioecious
(3) Homothallic and dioecious (4) Heterothallic and monoecious
48. Which of the plant is heterothallic?
(1) Papaya/Date palm (2) Maize (3) Coconut (4) Sunflower
49. A plant that flowers in its second year of growth and then dies is called
(1) Annual (2) Semi – annual (3) Perennial (4) Biennial
50. Flowers are unisexual in
(1) Cucumber (2) China rose (3) Onion (4) Pea
51. Plants producing both staminate and pistillate flowers on the same plant are said to be
(1) Dichogamous (2) Monoecious (3) Dioecious (4) Unisexual
52. The plant which has bisexual flower is
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(1) Marchantia (2) Sweet potato (3) Papaya (4) Date palm
53. Monoecious condition is observed in
(1) Papaya (2) Date palm (3) Marchantia (4) Coconut/Cucurbita
54. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Cucurbita, coconut and earthworm are bisexual
(2) Papaya and date palm are unisexual
(3) Leech, sponge and coconut are unisexual
(4) Coconut and Cucurbita are bisexual
55. Find out the mismatch;
(1) Phoenix dactylifera – Dioecious (2) Papaya – Monoecious
(3) Earthworm – Bisexual (4) Leech - Hermaphrodite
56. Oestrous cycle occurs in
(1) Monkey (2) Chimpanzee (3) Human (4) Rat

57. Menstrual cycle occurs in

(1) Monkey/Chimpanzee/Human (2) Cow (3) Sheep (4) Rat
58. Which of the following is a seasonal breeder?
(1) Rabbit (2) Frog (3) Cattle (4) Mice
59. Earthworm, sponge, tapeworm and leech are
(1) Hermaphrodites (2) Heterothallic (3) Unisexual (4) Monoecious
60. Which of the following is not an example for hermaphrodite/bisexual animal?
(1) Sponge (2) Leech (3) Tapeworm (4) Cockroach
61. An animal which is unisexual is
(1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach (3) Leech (4) Tapeworm
62. Gamete mother cells which undergo reduction division are called
(1) Antherozoids (2) Meiocytes (3) Antipodals (4) Synergids
63. If the chromosome number in the gametes of potato plant is 24, then what is the
chromosome number in its meiocytes?
(1) 12 (2) 48 (3) 72 (4) 96
64. In which of the following, syngamy occurs outside its body?
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes (3) Gymnosperms (4) Algae
65. Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?
(1) Transfer of pollen grains (2) Embryo development
(3) Formation of flower (4) Formation of pollen grain
66. Which of the following is not a post-fertilisation event?
(1) Fruit formation (2) Gamete formation
(3) Seed formation (4) Embryogenesis
67. Development of female gamete into a new individual without fertilisation is called
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Parturition (3) Embryogenesis (4) Apomixis
68. Parthenogenesis is exhibited by
(1) Honeybees/Rotifers/Some lizards/Turkey (2) Cockroach
(3) Commelina (4) Marchantia
69. The thick wall of a fruit is called
(1) Perisperm (2) Pericarp (3) Exine (4) Tapetum
70. When the parent plant is haploid, the gametes are
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid (3) produced by meiosis (4) Isogametes
71. In oviparous individuals,
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(1) Development of the zygote takes place outside the parental body
(2) Zygote undergoes further development inside the parental body
(3) Fusion of male and female gametes always occurs outside the parental body
(4) Zygote undergoes reductional division during embryogenesis

Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any two differences between asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction.
2. Water hyacinth is known as “terror of Bengal”. Justify the statement.
3. What are vegetative propagules? Mention two examples.
4. Mention any two vegetative propagules of angiosperms.
5. Mention the vegetative propagules of Agave and ginger
6. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Penicilliium and Hydra.
7. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Chlamydomonas and sponges.
8. Name the asexual reproductive structures in Amoeba and yeast.
9. Name the vegetative propagules in potato and ginger.
10. Name the vegetative propagules in onion and ginger.
11. Name the vegetative propagules in onion and potato.
12. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and potato.
13. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and ginger.
14. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and onion.
15. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and potato.
16. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and onion.
17. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and ginger.
18. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and Agave.
19. Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and Eichhornia.
20. Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and Agave.
21. Name the vegetative propagules in onion and Agave.

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22. Name the vegetative propagules in potato and Agave.
23. Name the vegetative propagules in ginger and Agave.
24. Name the asexual spores produced by Amoeba and Chlamydomonas.
25. Name the asexual spores produced by Amoeba and Penicillium.
26. Name the asexual spores produced by Penicillium and Chlamydomonas.
27. Give two examples for plants which exhibit unusual flowering phenomenon.
28. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and estrous cycle.
29. Differentiate seasonal breeders from continuous breeders.
30. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in females which are seasonal breeders. Give an
example for a seasonal breeder.
31. Name the reproductive cycle that occurs in females which are continuous breeders. Give an
example for a continuous breeder.
32. Distinguish between homogametes and heterogametes.
33. What are heterogametes? Mention an organism which produces heterogametes.
34. What are homogametes? Mention an organism which produces homogametes.
35. Distinguish between monoecious plants and dioecious plants.
36. Distinguish between homothallic plants and heterothallic plants.
37. What are homothallic organisms? Mention an example.
38. What are heterothallic organisms? Mention an example.
39. Distinguish between pistillate and staminate flowers.
40. What are hermaphrodites? Mention one example.
41. What is fertilization? Mention the types.
42. What is external fertilization? Why is it disadvantageous compared to internal fertilization?
43. What is internal fertilization? Why is it advantageous compared to external fertilization?
44. Differentiate internal fertilization and external fertilization.
45. What is parthenogenesis? Name two organisms which exhibit this.
46. Differentiate between gametogenesis and embryogenesis.
47. What is embryogenis? Mention two important events that occur during embryogenesis.
48. Differentiate oviparous animals from viviparous animals.
49. What are oviparous animals? Why ovipary is disadvantageous?
50. What are viviparous animals? Why vivipay is advantageous?

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate asexual reproduction from sexual reproduction.
2. What is asexual reproduction? Explain encystation and sporulation in Amoeba.
3. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in potato and ginger.
4. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in onion and ginger.
5. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in onion and potato.
6. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and potato.
7. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and ginger.
8. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and onion.
9. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and potato.
10. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and onion.
11. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and ginger.
12. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and Agave.
13. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Bryophyllum and
Eichhornia.
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14. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in Eichhornia and Agave.
15. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in onion and Agave.
16. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in potato and Agave.
17. What are vegetative propagules? Name the vegetative propagules in ginger and Agave.
18. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and ginger.
19. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and Agave.
20. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and Bryophyllum.
21. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, potato and Eichhornia.
22. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, ginger and Eichhornia.
23. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, ginger and Agave.
24. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, ginger and Brophyllum.
25. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, Agave and Bryophyllum.
26. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, Agave and Eichhornia.
27. Name the vegetative propagules in onion, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia.
28. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, ginger and Agave.
29. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, ginger and Bryophyllum.
30. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, ginger and Eichhornia.
31. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, Agave and Bryophyllum.
32. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, Agave and Eichhornia.
33. Name the vegetative propagules in potato, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia.
34. Name the vegetative propagules in ginger, Agave and Bryophyllum.
35. Name the vegetative propagules in ginger, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia.
36. Name the vegetative propagules in Agave, Bryophyllum and Eichhornia.
37. Explain the distinct phases of life span in organisms.
38. Distinguish between homogametes and heterogametes. Give an example each of organisms
producing these.
39. Distinguish between homothallic and heterothallic organisms. Give an example for each.
40. Distinguish between monoecious plants and dioecious plants with an example for each.
41. Define fertilization. Differentiate external fertilization and internal fertilization.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Describe any five modes of asexual reproduction.
2. Describe sexuality in organisms.
3. Write a detailed account of fertilization as an event during sexual reproduction in organisms.

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CHAPTER :2
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
SESSION I
Flower:
⮚ Flower is a modified shoot meant for sexual reproduction.
⮚ Flower has essential and non essential whorls.
⮚ Essential whorl consists of androecium and gynoecium that are directly involved in sexual
reproduction.
⮚ Non essential whorls do not involved directly in the sexual reproduction but they assist
essential whorls.
⮚ A non essential whorl includes calyx and corolla.
L. S. of flower (3M)

Androecium:
⮚ Androecium is male reproductive organ consisting of stamen
(microsporophyll).
⮚ Stamens consisting of lobed structure called anther and slender stalk
called filament.
⮚ Proximal end of filament attaches to thalamus and distant end attaches
to anther.

Structure of microsporangium or Anther

⮚ Typical anther is a bilobed structure
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⮚ Each lobe has two theca, so it is dithecous
⮚ Each lobe consists of two microsporangia
⮚ Anther or microsporangium has four microsporangia located at the four corners
⮚ Microsporangia later develops into pollen sacs
T. S. of microsporangium or Anther / Structure of young anther (3m or 5m)

⮚ A typical microsporangium consisting of three layers of protective sheaths- Epidermis,

endothecium and middle layer.
⮚ Outer most protective layer is epidermis followed by endothecium and middle layer.
⮚ Epidermis, endothecium and middle layer together serves the role of protection and also
helps in dehiscence of anther to release pollen grains.
⮚ After middle layer is the tapetum and is multinucleate. It serves the role of nourishment to
microsporogenesis.
⮚ Tapetum encloses a mass of cells called as sporogenous cells or sporogenous tissue.
⮚ Each cell of sporogenous tissue is a potent pollen mother cell (PMC).
⮚ Each PMC undergoes meiosis and mitosis to produce pollen grains or male gametophyte.

SESSION II

Microsporogenesis
⮚ Sporogenous tissue is enclosed by a nutritive tissue called tapetum.
⮚ Each cell of sporogenous tissue is a potent pollen mother cell (PMC)
⮚ By consuming tapetum PMC undergoes meiotic division to form four haploid cells called
microspores that are arranged in a pollen tetrad.
⮚ Microspors separated from pollen tetrad upon dehydration.
⮚ Each microspore undergoes further division to produce pollen grains.
⮚ Microspore undergoes asymmetric mitotic cell division to produce two celled pollen grains
that consist of a larger vegetative cell and smaller generative cell.
⮚ Generative cell is freely suspended in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell.
⮚ Later generative cell undergoes mitotic division to form two male gametes; this stage is
three celled pollen grain or male gametophyte.
Structure of pollen grains (3m or 5m)

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⮚ Generally pollen grains are spherical in shape but can vary.

⮚ Pollen grains measure about 25 to 50 micrometres.
⮚ Pollen grains have to wall layers outer exine and inner intine.
⮚ Outer exine is hard because it is surrounded by the toughest organic material known as
sporopollenin.
⮚ On exine small apertures are present where sporopollenin is absent called as germ pore.
⮚ Inner intine is a smooth wall made up of pecto cellulose.
⮚ Inner intine came out as a pollen tube through germ pore.
⮚ Pollen grain contains a large vegetative cell and small generative cell at two celled stage.
⮚ Later the generative cell undergoes mitotic division to produce two male gametes; this stage
is called the three celled stage.
⮚ 60% of the angiosperms release the pollen grains at two celled stage and 40% of the
angiosperms release the pollen grains at three celled stage.
Uses of pollen grains
⮚ Pollen grains can be a good source of nutrients
⮚ Can be used as a food supplements
⮚ Made into syrups and pollen tablets taken by athletes for energy
⮚ Can be stored and used in plant breeding

Cryopreservation of pollen grains

⮚ Cryopreservation is the technique of preserving materials at -196°C in a liquid nitrogen.
⮚ Through cryopreservation we can store pollen grains for many years.

Viability of pollen grains

⮚ Pollen grains viability is not same for all plants
⮚ Pollen viability in grasses, rice and wheat is 30 minutes only.
⮚ In the leguminosae, solanaceae and rosaceae members pollen viable for months together.

Gynoecium
⮚ Gynoecium is a female reproductive organ that consisting of one or more carpels
⮚ Each carpel consisting of a swollen part called ovary, elongated style and at the tip pollen
receiving structure called stigma.

Examples
⮚ Monocarpellary superior ovary - Fabaceae
⮚ Bicarpellary syncarpous ovary- Solanaceae
⮚ Bicarpellary apocarpous - Vinca rosea
⮚ Polycarpellary syncarpous - Papaver somniferum
⮚ Polycarpellary apocarpous - Michelia champaka
SESSION III

Structure of Megasporangium or Ovule (3m or 5m)

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⮚ A typical ovule consists of a stalk called a funicle.

⮚ Funicle attaches to the ovary through the placenta.
⮚ Ovule body attached to the funicle at hilum.
⮚ Ovule has a protective layer called integuments.
⮚ Integument covered all over the ovule except at a small opening called micropyle.
⮚ The opposite end of the micropyle is called chalaza.
⮚ Integument encloses the mass of cells called nucellus (2n).
⮚ One of the cells of the nucellus present towards the micropyle differentiates into a
megaspore mother cell and later develops into an embryo sac (n).

Megasporogenesis or Development of female gametophyte or Development of embryo sac (5m)

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⮚ The process of formation of megaspore from megaspore mother cell is called

megasporogenesis
⮚ Megasporogenesis takes place within the ovule or megasporangium.
⮚ One of the nucellar cells present towards the micropyle differentiated into a megaspore
mother cell (MMC).
⮚ This megaspore mother cell enlarges in its size.
⮚ MMC undergo meiosis I to form two cells called dyad stage.
⮚ It undergo meiosis II to form four megaspores (n)
⮚ Among four mega spores, three mega spores present towards the micropyle are
degenerated, and the remaining one cell acts as a functional megaspore cell (FMC).
⮚ FMC undergoes free nuclear division to form two nuclei.
⮚ Two nuclei move towards the opposite poles, and undergo mitosis second time to form four
nuclei stage.
⮚ Four nuclei undergos mitosis again to form eight nuclei.
⮚ Nuclei arranged in a specific way.
⮚ One nuclei from each pole move towards the centre to become polar nuclei
⮚ At micropyle and chalazal end three nuclei are present.
⮚ Now cell wall formation occurs to form egg apparatus towards micropyle and antipodals
towards chalaza.
⮚ Egg apparatus consisting of one egg and two synergids.
⮚ Typical embryo sac has seven cells and eight nuclei.
⮚ Since the embryo sac develops from a single megaspore it is called monosporic
development.

Female gametophyte or Embryosac (3m/5m)

⮚ Typical embryo sac has seven cells and eight nuclei

⮚ It is called a monosporic embryo sac because it develops from a single megaspore.
⮚ A large central cell contains two centrally located nuclei
called polar nuclei

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⮚ Towards the chalazal end ovum consisting of three antipodals.

⮚ Towards the micropyle end, egg apparatus is present.
⮚ Egg apparatus consisting of two synergids and one egg.
⮚ Synergid contains filiform apparatus which help in guiding the pollen tube to enter into
synergid.
⮚ All the nuclei of the embryo sac are haploid.

SESSION IV
Pollination
⮚ Pollination is the transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma that facilitates fertilization.
⮚ Based on the source of pollen grains pollinations can be classified into self pollination and
cross pollination.
⮚ Pollinations can be further classified into autogamy, geitonogamy and xenogamy.
⮚ Autogamy- transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of the same flower is called
autogamy.
⮚ Geitonogamy- transfer of pollen grains from anther of one flower to the stigma of another
flower on the same plant is geitonogamy.
⮚ Xenogamy- transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of different flowers on
another plant of the same species is called xenogamy or cross pollination.
⮚ To facilitate the different kinds of pollination plants can produce two kinds of flowers:
chasmogamous and cleistogamous.
⮚ Chasmogamous - opened flowers with exerted or exposed anthers and stigma
Ex. Hibiscus, Jasmine, rose, sunflower
⮚ Cleistogamous - unopened flowers are called cleistogamous flowers.
Ex. Commelina, Oxalis, Viola.
⮚ Commelina, Oxalis, Viola can produce both cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers.
⮚ In cleistogamous flowers 100% a seed set is assured since the pollen grains released within a
flower fall on the stigma without fail.

Agents of pollinations
⮚ For xenogamy or cross pollination many plants requires biotic or abiotic pollinators
⮚ Abiotic pollination agents are air or wind, water
⮚ Biotic pollination agents are animals, insects, birds etc.

Characters of anemophilous flowers (1m/2m/3m)

1. Flowers are small and born in clusters in inflorescence
2. Flowers are not so colourful
3. Ovary is mono carpellary
4. Flowers have exerted or exposed anthers and stigma
5. Anthers are versatile
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6. Stigma is feathery
7. Pollen grains are lightweight
8. Pollen grains are non sticky
9. Abundant pollen grains produced
10. Flowers do not produce nectar
Ex. Grasses

Characters of entomophilous flowers (1m/2m/3m)

⮚ Flowers are large
⮚ flowers are vividly colourful
⮚ pollen grains are sticky
⮚ nectar is produced
⮚ ovary multicarpellary
⮚ flowers pollinated by moths secretes foul odour
Ex. Sunflower, Jasmine, Raflesia, Amorphophalus

Characters of ornithophilous flowers (1m/2m/3m)

⮚ Flowers are large
⮚ flowers vividly colourful
⮚ Pollen grains are sticky
⮚ ovary is multi carpellary
⮚ abundant nectar is produced
⮚ flowers are tubular
Ex. Salvia
⮚ Some flowers like Amarphophallus, Yucca and fig provide the floral rewards in the form of
providing a safe place to lay the eggs.

Hydrophilly
⮚ About 30 genera of angiosperms are pollinated by water and many were monocots. Lotus,
Eichhornia, pistia, water lily even though they are hydrophytes that do not need water for
pollination. These are pollinated by wind or insects.

Pollination in Vallisneria and Zostera (3m/5m)

Pollination in Vallisneria
⮚ Vallisneria is a freshwater dioecious plant that shows epihydrophily.
⮚ In Vallisneria female flowers reach the surface of water by the long coiled peduncle.
⮚ The male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water
⮚ Pollen grains or male flowers carried passively by water.
⮚ Some of them reach the female flowers and the stigma and make the pollination.
⮚ After fertilization, seed and fruit development takes place inside the water.
⮚ Since the pollination occurs on the surface of water it is called epihydrophily.

Pollination in Zostera
⮚ Zostera is monoecious marine water grass that shows hypohydrophily.
⮚ Both male and female flowers are born in the same inflorescence.
⮚ Pollen grains are ribbon shaped and have thick mucilage coat to prevent desiccation.

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⮚ Female flowers remain submerged inside the water and the pollen grains are released inside
the water.
⮚ Released pollen grains reach the female flowers by floating in the water passively to make
pollination.
SESSION V
Pollen- pistil interaction
⮚ All the events starting from the deposition of pollen grains on the stigma until the pollen
tube enters the ovule are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
⮚ Stigma has the ability to recognise the compatible pollen grains.
⮚ It accepts the compatible pollen grain and allows it to germinate to produce the pollen tube.
⮚ It rejects the non compatible pollen grain and does not allow it to germinate.
⮚ All these events are mediated by chemical interactions.
⮚ Compatible pollen grains can produce the pollen tube that passes through the style and
reaches the micropyle of the ovule.
⮚ Pollen tube enters into one of the synergids with the help of a filiform apparatus.
Out breeding devices (5m)
Devices used to prevent self pollination and promote cross pollination
1. Decliny or unisexuality- plant produces unisexual flowers that prevent self pollination and
promotes cross pollination Ex. coconut, maize etc.
2. Heterostyly- There is a difference in the length of style and filament or stigma and
anthers kept at different height that prevents self pollination Ex. Clerodendron
3. Herkogamy- presence of physical barrier that prevent self pollination
Ex. Presence of gynostegium in Calotropis
4. Dichogamy - no synchronisation in the maturity of a stamen and pistil or stamen and pistil
matures at different time
Dichogamy are of two types -
Protandry- stamen matures first
Protogyny- pistil matures first Ex. Ocimum
5. Self incompatibility or self sterility- pollen grains are unable to germinate and their own
stigma Ex. Passiflora

Double fertilization (1m/2m/3m)

Double fertilization is the unique character of angiosperms
⮚ After the Pollen tube discharges the two male gametes, one male gamete fuses with the egg
and this process is called as syngamy.
⮚ Another male gamete fuses with two polar nuclear and this process is called a triple fusion
⮚ Syngamy and triple fusion together called as double fertilization.
⮚ Nawaschin was first to report double fertilization.
⮚ Syngamy produces zygote (2n) and triple fusion produces primary endosperm nucleus (3n).
⮚ The central cell becomes the endosperm cell.

Artificial hybridization (1m/3m)

⮚ It is that technique of producing the plants with desired characters called hybrids.
⮚ Artificial hybridization consists of three steps: emasculation, bagging and cross pollination.
⮚ Emasculation- it is the process of removal of a stamens or anthers before they release the
pollen grains.

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⮚ Bagging- covering the emasculated flower to avoid unwanted cross pollination. Emasculated
flowers can be bagged either by using a paper or plastic bags.
⮚ Cross pollination- dusting of desired pollen grains on the stigma of emasculated flowers.
⮚ After cross pollination re-bagging is also necessary to avoid unwanted cross pollination.

During the post fertilization event endosperm formation occurs first and then embryogenesis
occurs.
SESSION VI
Endosperm
⮚ Endosperm in angiosperm is a product of double fertilization
⮚ Endosperm develops from triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN)
⮚ Function of an endosperm is to nourish the embryogenesis.
⮚ Based on the development of endosperm from PEN, it can be divided into three types - free
nuclear, cellular and helobial.
⮚ Free nuclear- during endosperm formation primary endosperm nucleus undergo continuous
mitotic division without cytokinesis.
⮚ Endosperm filled with many nuclei
Ex. Coconut water
⮚ Cellular- During endosperm formation, the primary endosperm nucleus undergoes division
followed by cytokinesis to form cellular endosperm.
Ex. Kernel of coconut
⮚ Helobial- it is an intermediate of a free nuclear and cellular endosperm.
⮚ In the beginning free nuclear division occurs, later cell wall formation begins to form
helobial- endosperm.
Ex. Grasses

Embryogenesis
⮚ Zygote undergoes continuous mitotic division to form embryo.
⮚ The process of formation of embryo is called embryogenesis.
⮚ Zygote does not undergo division until the formation of endosperm completes.
⮚ Once the endosperm formation is complete zygote undergoes division to form embryo.
⮚ The early stages of embryo development or similar in both monocots and dicots.
⮚ Zygote undergoes continuous mitotic division to form Pro embryo and subsequently to the
globular, heart shaped and mature embryo.

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Dicot embryo (2m/3m)

⮚ A typical dicotyledonous embryo consisting of embryonal axis and two cotyledons.

⮚ Part of the embryonal axis above the attachment of cotyledon is called epicotyl.
⮚ Part of the embryonal axis below the attachment of cotyledon is called hypocotyl.
⮚ Epicotyl terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
⮚ Hypocotyl terminates with the radical or root tip and root tip is covered with a root cap.

Monocot embryo (3m/5m)

⮚ Typical monocotyledonous embryo consists of a single developed cotyledon called

scutellum.
⮚ Undeveloped cotyledon of a monocot embryo is called an epiblast.
⮚ Embryo consists of embryonal axis.
⮚ Part of the embryonal axis above the attachment of a scutellum is epicotyl.
⮚ Part of the embryonal axis below the attachment of scutellum is hypocotyl.
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⮚ Epicotyl has shoot apex with leaf primordia.
⮚ Hypocotyl ends with radicle and root cap.
⮚ Shoot apex protected by a shield like structure called coleoptile, and radicle protected by
coleorhiza.
SESSION VII
Seed
⮚ Seed is a matured ovule.
⮚ Seed has a protective layer called seed coat.
⮚ Seed coat has a two layers outer testa and inner tegma.
⮚ Outer testa developed from outer integument of ovule and intine developed from inner
integument of ovule.
⮚ Micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat to facilitate gaseous exchange that helps
during germination.
⮚
Depending upon the presence or absence of reserve food, seeds can be classified into albuminous
and non-albuminous seeds.
⮚ Endospermic seed- also called as albuminous seed.
⮚ In these seeds the endosperm is not completely consumed during embryogenesis.
⮚ Part of the endosperm is still present in the seed so called endospermic seeds.
Ex. All monocots except orchids are endospermic.
⮚ Non endospermic seeds- also called as non-albuminous seeds.
⮚ In these seeds the endosperm is absent because endosperm is completely consumed during
embryogenesis.
Ex. All dicots except castor and solanaceae members.
⮚ Perisperm- persistent nucellus or remnant nucellus is called perisperm.
⮚ Ex. Black pepper and beet.
Seed dormancy
⮚ Embryo enters into a state of inactivity called dormancy.
⮚ Dormancy helps the seed to overcome unfavourable conditions.
⮚ During favourable conditions embryo breaks dormancy and germinate.
⮚ To keep the embryo alive during dormancy, seeds must have 10 to 15% of moisture.
⮚ Longest dormant seed- Lupinus arcticus recorded with 10000 years of dormancy excavated
from Arctic tundra.
⮚ Longest viable seed- from Phoenix dactylifera shows the viability of 2000 years excavated at
King Herod's palace near the Dead Sea.

Importance of seeds (3m)

⮚ Seed is a product of sexual reproduction.
⮚ Seeds create variations that help to overcome adverse conditions.
⮚ Helps to continue the species.
⮚ Seeds help to disseminate or disperse to new areas.
⮚ See this basic input for agriculture.
⮚ Seed can be used as staple food by humans.

Fruits
⮚ Mature ovary is called fruit.
⮚ The wall of ovary develops into the wall of a fruit called pericarp.
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⮚ Based on the nature of pericarp, fruits can be classified into fleshy and dry fruits.
⮚ Fleshy fruits example guava, Orange, mango etc.
⮚ Dry fruits example groundnut, mustard, coconut etc.
⮚ Depending on the part of the flower that develops into fruit, they can be classified into true
and false fruits.
⮚ True fruits develop from the ovary of a flower.
Ex. Orange, mango.
⮚ False fruits develop from any part of the flower other than the ovary.
⮚ Ex. Apple, strawberry, cashew developed from thalamus
⮚ Some fruits develop without fertilization called parthenocarpic fruits.
Ex. Banana.
⮚ Parthenocarpy can also be induced by hormones.

Apomixis and polyembryony

⮚ Apomixis is the condition where embryo develops without fertilization or the condition
where seed develops without fertilization or development of embryo without fertilization
⮚ Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Ex.Some species of asteraceae and grasses.

Advantages of apomixis
⮚ The cost of production of hybrid seeds is costlier.
⮚ Characters are segregated in hybrids at every generation.
⮚ If hybrid seeds were made apomictic, characters do not segregate.
⮚ Farmers need not to purchase the seeds every year.

Polyembryony
⮚ Presence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.
Ex. Citrus and Mango.

MCQ’s
1. Plants which produce only ovules or pollen are called _________ plants.
(1) Monoecious (2) Dioecious (3) Homothallic (4) Anisogamous
2. In the angiosperm life cycle, which of the following is not a part of the sporophytic
generation?
(1) Carpel (2) Anther (3) Pollen (4) Ovary
3. The innermost wall layer of microsporangium is
(1) Tapetum (2) Endothecium (3) Epidermis (4) Integument
4. The number of microsporangia in a dithecous anther is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
5. A dithecous anther has
(1) 2 pollen sacs (2) 4 pollen sacs (3)2 microsporangia (4) 2 bilobed microsporangia
6. Each cell in the sporogenous tissue of an anther is called
(1) Pollen grain (2) Pollen mother cell (3) Megaspore mother cell (4) Microspore
7. In the anther wall,
(1) Tapetum is inner to the endothecium
(2) Epidermis is present immediately outer to the tapetum
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(3) Endothecium is the innermost layer
(4) Middle layers lie in between endothecium and tapetum
8. A dithecous anther is
(1) Is made up of one pollen sac (2) Is bisporangiate
(3) Has 3 microsporangia (4) Is tetrasporangiate
9. The outermost and innermost layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively
(1) Endothecium and tapetum (2) Epidermis and endothecium
(3) Epidermis and middle layer (4) Epidermis and tapetum
10. Cells of which of the following possess more than one nucleus?
(1) Endothecium (2) Tapetum (3) Middle layers (4) Sporogenous tissue
11. A microsporangium consists of 8 pollen mother cells. How many pollen grains are produced
by them?
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 32
12. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
(2) Pollen mother cells undergo meiosis to produce microspores
(3) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(4) Megaspore mother cell is haploid
13. In microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis
(1) Form gametes without division (2) Involve meiosis
(3) Occur in ovule (4) Occur in anther
14. During microsporogenesis, meiosis is observed in
(1) Pollen grains (2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Endothecium (4) Microspore tetrad
15. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces
(1) Single male gamete and two vegetative cells
(2) Single male gamete and a vegetative cell
(3) Three male gametes (4) A vegetative cell and two sperms
16. In angiosperms, male gametes are produced by the division of
(1) Microspore (2) Microspore mother cell
(3) Vegetative cell (4) Generative cell
17. Which of the following wall layers of the anther plays a major role in its dehiscence?
(1) Epidermis (2) Endothecium (3) Middle layers (4) Tapetum
18. The outer wall of the pollen grain is called
(1) Epidermis (2) Exine (3) Endothecium (4) Endodermis
19. The inner wall of the pollen grain is called
(1) Epidermis (2) Intine (3) Endothecium (4) Endodermis
20. Which layer of pollen grain contains sporopollenin
(1) Epidermis (2) Tapetum (3) Intine (4) Exine
21. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils due to the presence of which chemical on exine?
(1) Cellulose (2) Hemicellulose (3) Sporopollenin (4) Chitin
22. The most resistant organic material present on exine of pollen grains is
(1) Cellulose (2) Lignin (3) Pectin (4) Sporopollenin
23. Exine of the pollen grain is made up of
(1) Cellulose (2) Lignin (3) Pectin (4) Sporopollenin
24. The outermost layer of pollen grain is made up of
(1) Cellulose (2) Hemicellulose (3) Sporopollenin (4) Chitin
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25. The apertures in the pollen grain where sporopollenin is absent is called
(1) Germ pore (2) Micropyle (3) Radicle (4) Epicotyl
26. The male gametes in an angiosperm are produced by
(1) Central cell (2) Vegetative cell (3) Generative cell (4) Synergid
27. The pollen tube of the pollen grains is produced by the
(1) Central cell (2) Vegetative cell (3) Generative cell (4) Germ pore
28. In 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at
(1) 1-celled stage (2) 2-celled stage (3) 3-celled stage (4) 4-celled stage
29. If 10 microspore mother cells are involved in microsporogenesis, what would be the total
Number of male gametes the resulting pollen grains would produce?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 80
30. The body of the ovule is fused with funicle in the region called
(1) Funicle (2) Raphe (3) Hilum (4) Chalaza
31. The stalk of the ovule is called
(1) Funicle (2) Raphe (3) Hilum (4) Chalaza
32. The protective envelope of an ovule is called
(1) Tapetum (2) Endothecium (3) Epidermis (4) Integument
33. In an angiosperm ovule, the mass of cells with abundant reserve food materials is called
(1) Chalaza (2) Nucellus (3) Integument (4) Funicle
34. Triploid condition is observed in
(1) Egg cell (2) Synergid (3) Antipodals (4) Primary endosperm nucleus
35. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into
(1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac (3) Embryo (4) Ovule
36. The number of megaspores that degenerate after being produced by meiosis of the
megaspore mother cell is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
37. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
(1) Megasporangium (2) Megasporophyll
(3) Megaspore mother cell (4) Megaspore
38. The integuments of an angiosperm ovule develop into
(1) Pericarp (2) Perisperm (3) Seed coat (4) Endosperm
39. The special cellular thickenings of the synergids are called
(1) Tapetum (2) Filiform apparatus (3) Perisperm (4) Coleorrhiza
40. The function of filiform apparatus is to
(1) Recognise suitable pollen on the stigma (2) Produce nectar
(3) Stimulate division of generative cell (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube
41. Which of the following are diploid cells?
(1) Antipodals (2) Synergids (3) Egg cell (4) Generative cell/nucellar cell/chalazal cell
42. Which of the following nucleus is unlike other nuclei in a female gametophyte of
angiosperms?
(1) Nucleus of the endosperm (2) Nucleus of synergids
(3) Egg nucleus (4) Nucleus of antipodals
43. Egg apparatus consists of
(1) Egg only (2) Egg and synergids (3) Egg and antipodals (4) Egg and polar nuclei
44. The female gametophyte of an angiosperm is
(1) Ovule (2) Megaspore mother cell (3) Embryo sac (4) Megasporangium
45. The female gametophyte of an angiosperm is
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(1) 7 celled – 8 nucleate (2) 8 celled – 7 nucleate
(3) 7 celled – 7 nucleate (4) 8 celled – 8 nucleate
46. The female gametophyte in flowering plants develops from
(1) Sporogenous tissue (2) Nucellus (3) Pollen mother cell (4) Chalaza
47. The secondary nucleus of the embryo sac is
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid (3) Triploid (4) Tetraploid
48. Endosperm in angiosperm is
(1) Haploid (2) Diploid (3) Triploid (4) Polyploid
49. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
(1) Megaspore and antipodals (2) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
(3) Cells of nucellus and synergids (4) Central cell and egg cell
50. Which of the following promotes self-pollination?
(1) Chasmogamy (2) Cleistogamy (3) Dioecious condition (4) Allogamy
51. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Apogamy (4) Cleistogamy
52. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant
Is known as
(1) Autogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Cleistogamy (4) Geitonogamy
53. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower of a different plant is
known as
(1) Autogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Cleistogamy (4) Geitonogamy
54. Pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy (3) Autogamy (4) Cleistogamy
55. Geitonogamy is seen in
(1) Cucumber (2) Papaya (3) Maize (4) Coconut

56. Geitonogamy is
(1) Genetically similar to autogamy (2) Functionally cross pollination
(3) Genetically similar to allogamy (4) Functionally autogamy
57. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy (2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy (4) Autogamy and xenogamy
58. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
(1) Papaya (2) Maize (3) Cucurbita (4) Commelina
59. Flowers which do not open at all are called ________ flowers
(1) Chasmogamous (2) Cleistogamous (3) Autogamous (4) Geitonogamous
60. Wind pollinated flowers
(1) Produce very few wet and heavy pollen grains
(2) Have numerous ovules in each ovary
(3) Produce sticky and light pollen grains
(4) Are often fragrant and rich in nectar
61. Flowers with exposed anthers and stigma are generally pollinated by
(1) Honey bees (2) Birds (3) Wind (4) Wasps and beetles
62. Attractants and rewards are required for pollination by
(1) Insects (2) Wind (3) Snail (4) Earthworm
63. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually
pollinated by
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(1) Bee (2) Wind (3) Water (4) Bat
64. A flower which has a large feathery stigma and a single ovule in its ovary is often pollinated
by
(1) Insect (2) Bird (3) Wind (4) Water
65. Yucca exhibits
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Autogamy (3) Geitonogamy (4) Xenogamy
66. The plant in which the moth lays its eggs in the locule of the ovary is
(1) Yucca (2) Zostera (3) Commelina (4) Amorphophallus
67. Examples for plants which provide a safe place for the insects to lay their eggs are
(1) Yucca and Amorphophallus (2) Amorphophallus and Commelina
(3) Oxalis and Commelina (4) Yucca and Oxalis
68. Examples for plants which produce cleistogamous flowers are
(1) Yucca and Amorphophallus (2) Amorphophallus and Commelina
(3) Oxalis and Commelina (4) Yucca and Oxalis
69. Tassels in corn are nothing but
(1) Stigma and style (2) Style and anther
(3) Filament and stigma (4) Filament and anther
70. Flower is 6 feet in height in
(1) Yucca (2) Zostera (3) Commelina (4) Amorphophallus
71. Pollination in Eichhornia and Pistia is brought about by the agency of
(1) Water (2) Insects or wind (3) Birds (4) Bats
72. Pollination in Vallisneria and Zostera is brought about by the agency of
(1) Water (2) Insects or wind (3) Birds (4) Bats
73. Zostera is a plant growing in/on
(1) Marine habitat (2) Fresh water habitat (3) Land (4) Fresh water ponds

74. Flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar in plants pollinated by
(1) Water (2) Insects (3) Wind (4) Bats
75. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
(1) Colour and large size of flower (2) Nectar and pollen grains
(3) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals (4) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
76. Flowers pollinated by insects are characterized by
(1) A large number of pollen grains (2) Sticky and rough pollen grains
(3) Dry and smooth pollen grains (4) Dry and heavy pollen grains
77. Even in the absence of pollinating agents, seed setting is assured in
(1) Cucurbita (2) Commelina/Oxalis (3) Papaya (4) Maize
78. Emasculation is not required when flowers are
(1) Self-pollinated (2) Bisexual (3) Unisexual (4) Dioecious
79. Removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces is called
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Chasmogamy (3) Emasculation (4) Apomixis
80. Which of the following is an artificial hybrisation technique?
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Chasmogamy (3) Emasculation (4) Apomixis
81. In the female gametophyte of an angiosperm, the following structures degenerate after
fertilization;
(1) Antipodals and polar nuclei (2) Polar nuclei and synergids
(3) Antipodals and synergids (4) Polar nuclei, antipodals and synergids
82. In a fertilized female gametophyte, the following are haploid, diploid and triploid structures
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respectively;
(1) Zygote, antipodals and primary endosperm nucleus
(2) Primary endosperm nucleus, zygote and synergids
(3) Synergids, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
(4) Antipodals, zygote and synergids
83. In a fertilized ovule, haploid, diploid and triploid conditions occur respectively in
(1) Megaspore mother cell, nucellus & endosperm
(2) Egg, nucellus & microspore
(3) Endosperm, integument & egg (4) Antipodals, nucellus & endosperm
84. The number of chromosomes in the megaspore of an angiosperm is 24. What would be the
number of chromosomes in the cells of its endosperm?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) 72
85. The number of chromosomes in the cells of the endosperm of an angiosperm is 48. What
would be the number of chromosomes in the megaspore mother cell from which it is
produced?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 48
86. The male gametes in maize plant have 10 chromosomes. The chromosome number in their
female gamete, zygote and the cells of their seedling will be _________ respectively.
(1) 10, 20 and 10 (2) 20, 10 and 10 (3) 10, 20 and 20 (4) 20, 10 and 20
87. If the number of chromosomes in the gametes of potato is 24, then what is the
chromosome number in its meiocytes?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 48
88. The number of chromosomes in meiocytes of onion is 16. What would be the number of
chromosomes in their microspore mother cells and gametes respectively?
(1) 8 and 8 (2) 16 and 8 (3) 16 and 16 (4) 8 and 16

89. The diploid number of an angiosperm is 24. Which one of the following will have only 12
chromosomes?
(1) Endosperm (2) Cotyledons (3) Synergids (4) Cells of nucellus
90. In angiosperms, the pollen tube releases the male gametes into
(1) Antipodal cells (2) Egg cell (3) Synergid (4) Central cell
91. Double fertilization is exhibited by
(1) Spirogyra (2) Gellidium (3) Strobilanthus (4) Pinus
92. In double fertilisation and triple fusion in angiosperm, how many nuclei are involved?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
93. Triple fusion involves the fusion of
(1) Male gamete and the antipodals (2) Male gametes and the synergids
(3) Male gamete and the polar nuclei (4) Male gamete and the egg cell
94. The fusion of male gamete and the polar nuclei results in the formation of
(1) Primary endosperm nucleus (2) Synergids (3) Antipodals (4) Egg apparatus
95. In angiosperms, triple fusiom is required for the formation of
(1) Primary endosperm nucleus (2) Synergids (3) Antipodals (4) Egg apparatus
96. In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with the egg and the
(1) Other with one of the synergids (2) Other with the secondary nucleus
(3) Other with one of the antipodals (4) Other with one of the antipodals
97. The correct sequence of stages of embryogenesis in flowering plants is
(1) Proembryo → Heart shaped embryo → Globular embryo →Mature embryo
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(2) Proembryo →Globular embryo → Heart shaped embryo→Mature embryo
(3) Heart shaped embryo →Globular embryo→Mature embryo → Proembryo
(4) Globular embryo → Heart shaped embryo → Matusre embryo → Proembryo
98. Milky water of tender coconut is
(1) Free nuclear endosperm (2) Degenerated nucellus
(3) Residual nucellus (4) Perisperm
99. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is
(1) Cotyledon (2) Endosperm (3) Pericarp (4) Perisperm
100.The plumule and the radicle of the seed develop into ______ respectively.
(1) Shoot and root (2)Root and shoot (3)Shoot and root cap 4)Coleorrhiza and coleoptile
101. The true homologous structures in the embryos of typical dicot and monocot plants are
(1) Coleoptile and coleorrhiza (2) Coleorrhiza and scutellum
(3) Hypocotyl and radicle (4) Cotyledon and scutellum
102.The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons in a seed is called
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Hypocotyl (3) Coleoptile (4) Epicotyl
103.The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons in a seed is called
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Epicotyl (3) Coleoptile (4) Hypocotyl
104.The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield shaped cotyledon known as
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Scutellum (3) Coleoptile (4) Epiblast
105.The radicle and root cap in a seed are enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Scutellum (3) Coleoptile (4) Epiblast
106.The shoot apex and a few leaf primordial in a seed are enclosed in a hollow foliar structure
called
(1) Coleorrhiza (2) Scutellum (3) Coleoptile (4) Epiblast
107.The hilum is a scar on the
(1) Seed, where funicle was attached (2) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
(3) Fruit, where style was present (4) Seed, where micropyle was present
108. Cotyledon of maize grain is called
(1) Scutellum (2) Plumule (3) Coleorhiza (4) Coleoptile
109. The scutellum of maize grain is also called
(1) Plumule (2) Radicle (3) Cotyledon (4) Aleurone layer
110. The testa of the seed develops from
(1) Funicle (2) Nucellus (3) Outer integument (4) Hilum
111. Seeds are non-albuminous in
(1) Pea and groundnut (2) Maize and wheat
(3) Barley and castor (4) Sunflower and maize
112. Seeds are albuminous in
(1) Pea (2) Groundnut (3) Maize/Wheat/Barley/Castor/Sunflower (4) Brinjal
113. The residual nucellus in the seeds of some angiosperms is called
(1) Pericarp (2) Coleoptile (3) Epiblast (4) Perisperm
114. Perisperm is present in
(1) Pea (2) Groundnut (3) Maize (4) Black pepper/Beet
115. Endosperm differs from perisperm in being
(1) Haploid tissue (2) Diploid tissue (3) Triploid tissue (4) Residual tissue
116. In black pepper and beet,
(1) Seeds are non-albuminous
(2) Seeds are albuminous and have residual persistent nucellus also
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(3) The endosperm is completely used up during embryonic development
(4) The seeds lack seed coat
117. Fruit has a thick protective wall called
(1) Pericarp (2) Coleoptile (3) Integument (4) Perisperm
118. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
(1) Apple (2) Jackfruit (3) Banana (4) Brinjal
119. In strawberry/cashew/apple, ___________ also contributes to fruit formation.
(1) Cotyledon (2) Thalamus (3) Nucellus (4) Perisperm
120. An example for false fruit is
(1) Mango (2) Barley (3) Maize (4) Apple
121. The oldest seed has been recorded in
(1) Lupinus (2) Phoenix (3) Striga (4) Orobanche
122. In which plant, maximum period of seed dormancy is found
(1) Phoenix dactylifera (2) Lupinus arcticus (3) Orchid (4) Striga
123. 2000 years old viable seeds were obtained from
(1) Lupinus (2) Phoenix (3) Striga (4) Orobanche
124. Viable seeds of Phoenix dactylifera discovered during archaeological excavation at King
Harod’s palace near the dead sea is ______ years old.
(1) 2000 (2) 200 (3) 10000 (4) 1000
125. Which one of the following plants is a parasite?
(1) Ophrys (2) Lupinus (3) Phoenix (4) Striga/Orobanche
126.Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of
(1) Apomixis (2) Sporulation (3) Budding (4) Somatic hybridization
127. Polyembryony commonly occurs in
(1) Tomato (2) Castor (3) Citrus (4) Banana

Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophytes takes place.
2. Mention two differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis.
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3. Name the male gametophyte of flowering plants. What is the ploidy of functional microspore in
flowering plants?
4. Mention four wall layers of microsporangium.
5. What are the functions of tapetum of microsporangium and filiform apparatus of synergids?
6. What is filiform apparatus? What is its significance?
7. Differentiate syncarpous and apocarpous pistils.
8. What are the functions of integument and nucellus of megasporangium.
9. Define pollination. Mention three types of pollination.
10. Differentiate autogamy and geitonogamy.
11. Differentiate autogamy and xenogamy.
12. Differentiate xenogamy and geitonogamy
13. What is xenogamy? Mention its importance.
14. Differentiate between chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.
15. Mention two advantages of cleistogamy
16. Mention one advantage and one disadvantage each of cleistogamy.
17. Mention any two characteristic features of flowers that exhibit anemophily
18. Mention any two characteristic features of flowers that are pollinated by animals
19. Yucca plant and a species of moth cannot complete their life cycle without each other. Why?
20. Mention any two outbreeding devices in angiosperms to prevent self pollination
21. What is self incompatibility? Why self-pollination does not lead to seed formation in self
incompatible species?
22. What is artificial hybridisation? Name the techniques that are employed to achieve this?
23. What is meant by emasculation? When does a plant breeder employ this technique?
24. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in artificial hybridisation?
25. With regard to artificial hybridization, what do you understand by emasculation and bagging
techniques?
26. What do you understand by double fertilization and triple fusion?
27. Mention the four stages of embryogeny in a dicotyledonous embryo
28. Distinguish between albuminous and non – albuminous seeds
29. Differentiate hypocotyl and epicotyl.
30. Differentiate coleoptile and coleorrhiza.
31. Differentiate integument and testa.
32. Differentiate perisperm and pericarp.
33. What is perisperm? Give an example for a plant that produces seeds with perisperm.
34. Mention two favourable conditions which promote the germination of seeds
35. Mention two advantages that the seeds offer to angiosperms
36. What are true fruits? Give an example for a plant that produces false fruit.
37. What are false fruits? Give an example
38. Why apple is called a false fruit? Which part of the flower also forms a part of the fruit in apple
plant?
39. Distinguish between true fruits and false fruits..
40. What are parthenocarpic fruits? Give an example for a plant that produces false fruit.
41. Name the phenomenon of formation of seed without fertilization in angiosperms. Give an
example for a plant which exhibits this phenomenon.
42. What is parthenocarpic fruit? Mention a plant which naturally produces parthenocarpic fruit.
43. What is apomixis and what is its importance?
44. Define polyembryony. Mention an angiosperm which exhibits polyembryony
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THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a diagrammatic representation of the L.S. of a flower.
2. Mention three differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis.
3. Draw a labeled diagram of transverse section of a young anther.
4. Draw a labeled diagram of an angiosperm ovule.
5. Explain the structure of a mature female gametophyte in flowering plants
6. Differentiate autogamy, geitonogmy and xenogamy.
7. Differentiate chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers. How is cliestogamy advantageous ?
8. Mention any three characteristic features of flowers that are pollinated by animals.
9. List three characters of insect pollinated flowers.
10. List three characters of wind pollinated flowers.
11. Explain briefly pollination in Vallisneria.
12. Explain briefly pollination in Zostera.
13. Briefly describe three outbreeding devices in flowering plants.
14. What is meant by emasculation? When does a plant breeder employ this technique and why?
15. Write a short note on pollen-pistil interacton
16. What is triple fusion? Where does it take place in the megasporangium? Name the nuclei
involved in triple fusion.
17. Draw a labeled diagram of a typical dicot embryo.
18. Draw a labeled diagram of the L.S. of an embryo of grass.
19. Explain the structure of a typical dicot embryo
20. Explain the structure of a typical monocot embryo.
21. Differentiate albuminous and non – albuminous seeds with an example for each.
22. Mention three advantages offered by the seeds to angiosperms.
23. Draw a diagram of the section of fruit in apple.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain the T.S. of a microsporangium with a labeled diagram.
2. Describe the structure of a mature male gametophyte
3. Describe the structure of an anatropous ovule with a labeled diagram.
4. Explain the structure of a typical dicot embryo with a labeled diagram.
5. Explain the structure of a typical monocot embryo with a labeled diagram.
6. Mention five differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis.
7. Explain the development of female gametophyte in angiosperms.
8. Explain how some plants are adapted for achieving pollination through wind.
9. How Vallisneria and Zostera achieve pollination?
10. What is autogamy? Explain the devices that the plants have developed to prevent this +
11. With a neat diagram, explain the structure of a mature female gametophyte of angiosperms.
12. Why plants have developed devices to discourage self pollination? Explain the the devices that
flowering plants have developed to encourage cross pollination.
13. Give the definitions of the following:
Perisperm (b) Pericarp (c) Parthenocarpic fruits (d) Apomixis (e) Polyembryony

*******

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CHAPTER :3
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
SESSION I

(Re=again) Production of new individuals from the existence individuals is known as reproduction.
The reproductive events in human beings are gametogenesis, insemination, Fertilization,
implantation, gestation and parturition.
Formation of gametes is known as gametogenesis. Male human being transfer sperms into
the female reproductive tract is known as insemination. Fusion of male and female gametes is
known as fertilization. Attachment of blostocyst to the endometrium is known as implantation.
Time required for the development of (young one) embryo &foetus in the uterus is known as
gestation. Delivery of the foetus is known as parturition.

I. Male reproductive system:

Male reproductive system is present in the pelvic region (posterian part of the abdominal
cavity) Male reproductive system consist of a pair of testes, accessory glands and the external
genitalia
Testes: Testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity with in a pouch(bag like) called scrotum. It
maintainces 2−2.5℃ less than body temperature necessary for spermatogenesis each testis is oval
in shape with a length of about 4 to 5 cm and a width of 2 to 3 cm. Testis is covered by a dense
covering. Each testis has 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
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Each testicular lobule contains one to three semiferous tubules. Sperms are produced in
the semiferous tubule. Each semiferous tubute is lined by two types of cells called male germ cells
and sertoli cells. From male germ cells spermatozoa are formed by reduction division. Sertoli cells
provide nutrients to the spermatozoa.
The space between the seminiferous tubules called interstitial cellsor teydig cells leydigcells
produce androgens.

The male accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epidymis and vas deferens.
The semiferous tubules fused as a result network like rete testis is formed. The ducts arise from
rete testis are called vasa efferentia. Vasa efferentia opens into muscular structure present
posterior part of the testis called as epididymis
Epididymis temporarley store the sperms, sperms attain mobility and maturity in the
epidymis. It leads into vas deferens. Two vasa deferentia travel anteriorly form loop over urinary
bladder.
Each vas deferens fuses with prostate duct as a result ejaculatory duct is formed.
Two ejaculatory ducts in the prostate gland fuses with posterior part of urinary bladder as a
result urethra is formed. Urethra is a common passage for both urine and spermatozoa. Urethra
passes through penis and open out through an aperture namely urethral maetus
Penis is the male external genitalia (outside the body) it is made up of special tissue that
helps in the erection of the penis to facilitate insemination. One pair of seminal vesicles, unpaired
prostate gland and one pair bulbourethral glands are the male accessory glands. Secretion of male
accessory glands is known as seminal plasma. Seminal plasma and spermatozoa together known as
semen.
SESSION II
II. Female reproductive system:
Female reproductive system consist of a pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, unpaired uterus
vagina and external genitalia. External genitalia present in the pelvic region.

Ovaries: Ovaries are the primary sex organs. (Organs produce gametes) They also produce steroid
hormones (hormones contain fats). Each ovary measures about 2 to 4 cm in length and is
connected to pelvic wall and uterus. Eah ovary covered by a thin epithelial layer. Below epithelium
stroma is present. Stroma is divided into outer cartex and inner medulla.

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Oviducts, uterus & vagina are the accessory ducts. Each fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm.
the part of the oviduct closer to the ovary is infundibulum.
Oviduct also known as fallopian tube. It has three parts isthmus, ampulla and infundibulum.
The edges of the infundibulum has finger like projections called fimbriae. They collect ovum from
the body cavity after ovulation.
Infundibulum opens into wide part called ampulla. The last part of the oviduct is isthmus. It
is narrow and opens into uterus.

Uterus is also called as womb. The shape of the uterus is inverted pear, uterus opens into
vagina through cervix. Narrow part of uterus is called cervix. The wall of the uterus has three layers.
Outer layer is perimentrium, middle layer is myometrium and inner layer is endometrium.
The female external genitalia (reproductive organs present outside the body) are mons
pubis,labia majora, labio minoria, hymen and clitoris. Mons pubis is a fatty tissue covered by skin.
Just folds are present called as labia majora. Two folds presentr below labia majora are called labia
minora. Empty space present between labio minora is known as vestibute contain two dorsal
opening is urethral opening. Ventral opening is vagina opening. The membrane partially cover the
vagina is hymen.

Mammary glands:
Mammary glands are functional in female human beings. Each mammary gland contains
15-20 mammary lobes. Each mammary lobe contains several alveoli (group of cells) cells in alveoli
secret milk. Milk enter into small ducts called mammary tubules. All mammry tubules of one
mammary lobe fuse as a result mammary duct is formed. Few mammary ducts unite as a result

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mammary ampulla is formed. All mammary ampullae open into lactiferous duct. It opens into
nipple.
SESSION III
Gametogenesis:
Production of gamets known as gameto genesis. Production of sperms is known as
spermatogenesis. Production of female gametes is known as oogenesis.

Spermatogenesis:
Male germ cells or spermatogonia produce male gamets called spermatogenesis.
Spermatogonia present in the wall of seminiferous tubules under go mitotic division and increase in
numbers. Spermatogonia diploid contain 23 pairs of chromosomes

Some of the spermatogonia ready to under go reduction division called as primary

spermatocytes. Primary spermatocyte under go meiosis I as a result two haploid secondary
spermatocytes are formed.
The secondary spermatocytes under go second meiotic division as a result four haploid
spermatids are formed. Spermatids convert into spermatozoa is known as spermiogenesis from
each primary spermatocyte four spermatozoa are formed. Spermatozoa collect nutrients from
sertoli cells and leave the seminiferous tubules is known as spermiation in male human being
spermatogenesis begins at puberty and stops at andropause
Oogenesis:
The process of formation of mature female gamet is known as oogenesis
Oogenesis begin in foetal stage in each ovary in the foetus million oogonia are formed from
the germinal epithelium of the ovary.
Oogonium ready to under go meiosis known as primary oocyte. Primary oocyte start
meiosis – I and remain in prophase – I of meiosis – I in foetal stage, birth & child hood. Before
ovulation one of the primary oocyte in one of the ovary complete meiosis I as a result secondary
oocyte and First polar body is formed. The secondary oocyte start meiosis II and remain in
metaphase II till the penetration of spermatozoa meiosis II is completed as a result ovum and
Second polar body is formed

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SESSION IV

Menstrual cycle
The reproductive cycle in female primates is known as menstrual cycle duration of
menstrual cycle is 28/29 days First menstrual cycle at the age of 10-12 years is known as menarche
stoppage of menstrual cycle at 50 years known as menopause. Menstrual cycle has four phages
namely menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation and lateal phase

First 3 to 5 days of menstrual cycle is known as menstruation. During this phase inner layer
of uterus endometrium and its blood capallaries ruptured as a result blood and endometrium
comes out of the vagina.

Second phase of the menstrual cycle is follicular phase and it is also called as proli feration
phase. In this phased pituitary hormones FSH and LH level begin to increase. In presence of FSH one

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of the primary follide in one of the ovary convert into graafian follicle. Ovarian hormones estrogen
and progesterone level begin to increase.

Third phase of the menstrual cycle is ovulation. Release of secondary oocyte by rupture of
graafian follicle is known as ovulation in this phase LH hormone level increases rapidly known as LH
surge. Estrogen level also peak. Due to LH surge on the 14 th day graafian follicle rupture and
secondary oocyte released into body cavity.

Fourth phase of menstrual cycle is known is known as luteal phase or secretory phase.
In luteal phase FSH and LH level decreases. Ruptured graafian follicle convert into yellow
coloured body namely corpus luteum. Corpus luteum secrete progesterone. Progesterone
responsible for increase of thickness of endometrium corpus luteum present in the ovary for about
13 or 14 days if secondary oocyte not participatingin fertilization of secondary oocyte participating
fertilization carpus luteum present first 4 months of pregnancy and maintain pregnancy. If
secondary oocyte not participating in pregnancy with in 13 or 14 days corpus luteum convert into
whitebody . later it disintegrated.
SESSION V

FERTILIZATION AND IMPLANTATION:

● During copulation (coitus) semen is released by the penis into the vagina is called insemination.
● The motile sperm swim rapidly, pass through cervix, uterus and finally reach the junction of
isthmus and ampulla(ammpullary-isthmic junction).
● The ovum released from the ovary also transported to ampullary isthmic junction where
fertilization takes place.
● Fertilization only takes place if both sperm and ovum reach ampullary – isthmic junction
simultaneously.
● The process of fusion of a sperm and ovum is called fertilization.
● Acrosome of sperm secretes enzymes helps in penetration into the ovum.
● Once a sperm comes contact with the zonapellucida of ovum and induces the changes in the
membrane that blocks the entry of additional sperms.
● That ensures monospermy and prevents polyspermy.
● Only one sperm fertilize with one ovum.
● Entry of sperm into the ovum induces the ovum to complete its second meiotic division of
secondary oocyte.
● Meiosis-II is also unequal cytokinesis resulting production of one large ovum (ootid)
and one small second polar body.
● Haploid nucleus of sperm fused with the haploid nucleus of ovum to form a diploid zygote.

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Sex determination:
● Sex of a baby has been decided during fertilization and in the zygote.
● Sex is determined by the sex-chromosomes present in gametes.
● Human female contain two XX chromosomes.
● Human male contain XY chromosomes.
● =All the female gametes produced with only ‘X’ chromosome.
● Sperms produced by male, 50% with ‘X’ and 50 % with ‘Y’ chromosome.
● After fertilization zygote either carries XX or XY chromosomes.
● Zygote with XX chromosomes develop into female and with XY chromosome develops into
male.

Cleavage:
● Repeated mitotic division of the zygote without growth resulting a multicellular ball like
embryo is calledcleavage.
● Cleavage starts soon after fertilization.
● Daughter cells produced during cleavage are called blastomeres.
● The product of cleavage is called Morula, which is 8 to 16 celled.
● The morula continues to divide and grow and transformed into blastocyst.
● The blastomeres in blastocyst arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner
mass of cells attached to trophoblast called inner cell mass.
● Trophoblast cells attached to the endometrium helps development of placenta.
● Inner cell mass gets differentiated into the embryo.
● After attachment the uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst.
● Blastocyst completely embedded in the uterine endometrium. This is called implantation.

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Pregnancy and embryonic development:

● After implantation, finger like projections appears on the trophoblast called chorionic villi.
● Chorionic villi surrounded by uterine tissue and maternal blood.
● Temporary association between the fetal tissue (chorionic villi) and maternal tissue (uterine
endometrium) is called placenta.

Function of placenta:
● The embryo connected to the placenta by umbilical cord, which transports substances to
and from the embryo.
● Facilitate transport of oxygen and nutrient from mother to embryo.
● Removes CO2 and waste material from the embryo.
● Acts as endocrine gland and produces several hormones like:
● Human chorionic gonadotrophins (hCG)
● Human placental lactogen (hPL)
● Estrogen.
● Progesterone
● Relaxin produced from the ovary in the later stage of pregnancy.

Embryonic development:
● After implantation the inner cell mass of blastocyst differentiated into an outer layer called
ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
● Mesoderm differentiated in-between ectoderm and endoderm.
● The inner cell mass thus called stem cells, having potency to produce all types of cell, tissues
and organs by differentiation.

Organogenesis:
● Formation of different organs in the embryo is called organogenesis.
● Human pregnancy lasts for 9 months.
● After one month of pregnancy heart is formed in the embryo.
● By the end of 2nd month the foetus develops limbs and digits.
● By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) most of organ system is formed (limbs and external
genitalia are well developed).
● First movement of foetus and appearance of hairs observed in 5th month.
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● By the end of 24th week (2nd trimesters) the body is covered with fine hairs, eye-lids
separate, and eyelashes are formed.
● By the end of 9 months the foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.

PARTURATION AND LACTATION:

● The period of pregnancy is called gestation period. (9 months).
● Ejection or expulsion or delivery of foetus is called parturition.
● Parturition is due to vigorous contraction of uterine Myometrium.
● The signal of parturition is originated from the fully developed foetus and the placenta which
induces mild contraction of uterus called fetal ejection reflex.
● Fetal ejection reflex triggers the release of Oxytocin from pituitary.
● Oxytocin induces stronger contraction of uterine endometrium.
● Stimulatory reflex continues stronger contraction leads to expulsion.
● After delivery the placenta is also expelled out of the uterus.

Lactation:
● The mammary gland of the female more differentiated during pregnancy,
● Mammary gland starts producing milk towards the end of the pregnancy.
● Process of milk production in mammary gland is called lactation.
● Milk produced during initial days of lactation is called colostrum.
● Colostrum contains several antibodies which provide immunity to the new born baby.

MCQs
1. Sperms are produced in
(1) Seminiferous tubules (2) Seminal vesicles (3) Epididymis (4) Rete testis
2. A male accessory duct in humans is
(1) Seminiferous tubule (2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Rete testis/Epididymis/Vas efferens/Vas deferens (4) Urethra
3. Sperms are transported from the testis to the outside through
(1) Ejaculatory duct (2) Vas deferens (3) Seminal vesicle (4) Urethra
4. A male accessory gland in humans is
(1) Infundibulum (2) Seminiferous tubule
(2) Prostate/Seminal vesicle/Bulbourethral gland (4) Rete testis
5. Which of the following is not a male accessory reproductive gland?
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Prostate gland (3) Bulbourethral gland (4) Epididymis

6. The unpaired reproductive structure in human males is

(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Bulbbourethral gland
(3) Cowper’s gland (4)Prostrate gland
7. Germ cells in the testis are provided with nutrition by
(1) Leydig’s cells (2) Interstitial cells (3) Sertoli cells (4) Spermatogonial cells
8. Sertoli cells are found in
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Ovary (3) Graafian follicle (4) Seminiferous tubules
9. The function of sertoli cells (sustentacular cells) is
(1) Formation of mitochondrial sheath of sperm (2) Production of relaxin
(3) Providing nutrition to the germ cells (4) Production of seminal plasma
10. The following is not an accessory reproductive duct in human males;
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(1) Vas eferens (2) Rete testis (3) Seminal vesicles (4) Epididymis
11. Sperms are produced in
(1) Vas deferens (2) Seminiferous tubules (3) Epididymis (4) Prostate gland
12. The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubule is called
(1) Spermiogenesis (2) Spermatidogenesis (3)Spermateliosis (4) Spermiation
13. Spermiation is the process of release of sperms from
(1) Seminiferous tubules (2) Vas deferens (3) Epididymis (4) Prostate gland
14. Which one of the following in human beings has 23 chromosomes?
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Secondary oocyte/Secondary spermatocyte (4) Oogonia
15. Which of the following cells is haploid?
(1) Primary spermatocytes (2) Primary oocytes
(3) Secondary spermatocytes/Spermatid/Secondary oocyte/Polar body (4) Oogonial cells
16. The common duct formed by the union of the duct of seminal vesicle and vas deferens is
(1) Epididymis (2) Ejaculatory duct (3) Urethra (4) Rete testis
17. Cell found in the interstitial space of testis outside the seminiferous tubules is
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Leydig’s cell (3) Follicular cells (4) Spermatogonial cells
18. The target cells of lutinising hormone in males is
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Leydig cells (3) Gonial cells (4) Follicular cells
19. Testosterone/androgen is secreted by
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Leydig’s cell/Interstitial cells
(3) Follicular cells (4) Spermatogonial cells
20. The Leydig cells are the secretory source of
(1) Progesterone (2) Androgens (3) Estrogen (4) Glucagon
21. Leydig’s cells are stimulated to secrete androgens by
(1) ICSH/LH (2) FSH (3) LTH (4) hPL
22. One of the following is involved in the production of male sex hormone.
(1) ICSH/LH (2) FSH (3) LTH (4) hPL
23. Sertoli cells are stimulated by __________ to secrete certain factors that help in the process
of spermiogensesis.
(1) GnRH (2) LH (3) FSH (4) hCG
24. The number of spermatozoa produced from a single primary spermatocyte during
spermatogenesis is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8

25. If a germ cell in a female gonad and a germ cell in a male gonad begin meiosis
simultaneously, what will be the ratio of ova and sperms produced?
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
26. How many sperms and ova will be produced from 25 primary spermatocytes and 25 primary
oocytes respectively -------
(1) 100 sperms and 50 ova (2) 100 sperms and 25 ova
(3) 50 sperms and 25 ova (4) 100 sperms and 100 ova
27. During oogenesis, the divisions are mitotic except during the formation of
(1) Primary oocyte (2) Secondary oocyte (3) Ootid (4) Second polar bodies
28. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus mainly stimulates the release of
(1) Relaxin and estrogen (2) FSH and LH
(3) Progesterone and estrogen (4) Estrogen only
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29. At which stage of life the process of oogenesis is intiated?
(1) Puberty (2) Embryonic development stage (3) Birth (4) Adult
30. First polar body is formed during which stage of oogenesis?
(1) Meiosis I (2) Meiosis II (3) Mitosis I (4) Mitosis II
31. The number of chromosomes during gametogenesis is reduced to half at the time of
(1) Formation of first polar body (2) Formation of second polar body
(3) Division of secondary oocyte and spermatocyte (4) Meiosis II
32. The finger-like projections on the edges of infundibulum of oviduct are called
(1) Vas eferens (2) Fimbriae (3) Trophoblast (4) Hymen
33. The funnel shaped structure of the oviduct which is closer to the ovary is called
(1) Infundibulum (2) Fimbriae (3) Hymen (4) Clitoris
34. The part of the oviduct which leads to the wider part is called
(1) Fimbriae (2) Ampulla (3) Isthmus (4) Infundibulum
35. The narrow part of the fallopian tube closest to the uterine fundus is
(1) Ampulla (2) Fimbriae (3) Infundibulum (4) Isthmus
36. The layer of uterine wall that contracts during parturition is
(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium (3) Perimetrium (4) Epimetrium
37. The layer of uterine wall that undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle is
(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium (3) Perimetrium (4) Epimetrium
38. One of the following is a part of the female genitalia in humans
(1) Prostate gland (2) Mons pubis/Labia majora/Labia minora/Hymen/Clitoris
(3) Vas eferens (4) Infundibulum
39. The membrane which partially covers the vagina is called
(1) Clitoris (2) Hymen (3) Mons pubis (4) Cervix
40. The tiny finger-like structure lying at the upper junction of two labia minora in human
females is called
(1) Clitoris (2) Hymen (3) Mons pubis (4) Labia majora
41. The cavity of the Graafian follicle is called
(1) Fundus (2) Antrum (3) Clitoris (4) Infundibulum
42. The fluid filled cavity antrum is the characteristic feature of the following;
(1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle (3) Tertiary follicle (4) Corpus luteum
43. In the mammary glands of human females, milk is secreted by
(1) Alveolar cells (2) Leydig’s cells (3) Interstitial cells (4) Sertoli cells
44. Haploid cells in males and females are
(1) Interstitial cells, primary oocytes, spermatids, oogonial cells
(2) Leydig cells, interstitial cells, secondary oocytes, spermatids
(3) Spermatids, secondary spermatocytes, ootid, secondary oocytes
(4) Secondary oocyte, spermatid, ootid, primary spermatocyte
45. The follicular cells surrounding the human egg constitute
(1) Acrosome (2) Zona pellucida (3) Hymen (4) Corona radiata
46. The membrane present around the secondary oocyte is
(1) Acrosome (2) Zona pellucida (3) Hymen (4) Corona radiata
47. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) Graafian follicle – Estrogen (2) Corpus luteum – Progesterone
(3) Interstitial cells – Testosterone (4) Sertoli cells – Androgens
48. The first menstruation which begins at puberty is called
(1) Menopause (2) Menarch (3) Ovulation (4) Mons pubis
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49. Menstrual cycles stop around 50 years of age in human female and this is called
(1) Menopause (2) Menarch (3) Ovulation (4) Mons pubis
50. Which one of the following is correctly matched with the time period during a normal
Menstrual cycle?
(1) Regeneration of endometrium – 5th to 13th day (2) Release of egg – 5th day
(3) Formation of corpus luteum – 11th to 14th day
(4) Rise in progesterone level – 1st to 15th day
51. LH surge during menstrual cycle occurs on the
(1) 5th day (2) 8th day (3) 14th day (3) 21st day
52. Ovulation occurs during
(1) 14th day of menstruation (2) 5th day of menstruation
(3) 25th day of menstruation (4) 10th day of menstruation
53. Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is the other name of
(1) Luteal phase (2) Proliferative phase
(3) Menstrual flow phase (4) Secretory phase
54. Luteal phase of menstrual cycle is the other name of
(1) Follicular phase (2) Proliferative phase
(3) Menstrual flow phase (4) Secretory phase
55. Select the correct sequence of steps in menstrual cycle
(1) Menstrual phase → Follicular phase → Ovulatory phase → Luteal phase
(2) Menstrual phase →Ovulatory phase → Follicular phase →Luteal phase
(3) Follicular phase →Ovulatory phase → Luteal phase → Menstrual phase
(4) Follicular pase → Menstrual phase → Ovulatory phase → Luteal phase
56. Ovulation occurs under the influence of
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) GnRH (4) hCG
57. Fertilisation in human females occurs in
(1) Infundibulum (2) Ampullary region (3) Isthmic region (4) Ampullary-isthmic region
58. Estrogen is secreted by
(1) Graafian follicle (2) Uterus (3) Vagina (4) Corpus luteum
59. Corpus luteum produces
(1) Estrogen (2) Testosterone (3) Progesterone (4) Aldosterone
60. Testosterone is secreted by
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Leydig’s cell/Interstitial cells
(3) Follicular cells (4) Spermatogonial cells
61. 8 – 16 celled embryonic stage is called
(1) Blastula (2) Morula (3) Gastrula (4) Blastocyst
62. The undifferentiated cells of inner cell mass of blastocyst constitute
(1) Ectoderm (2) Stem cells (3) Trophoblast (4) Chorionic villi
63. The attachment of the blastocyst to the endometrium is called
(1) Parturition (2) Implantation (3) Menstruation (4) Spermiation
64. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the placenta?
(1) hCG (2) Estrogens (3) Progesterone (4) Relaxin
65. hCG is produced by
(1) Ovar (2) Graafian follicle (3) Placenta (4) Bulbourethral gland
66. Which of the following takes part in the formation of placenta?
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Chorion (3) Corpus luteum (4) Corona radiata
67. Which of the following is not a function of placenta?
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(1) Secretion of estrogen (2) Secretion of oxytocin during parturition
(3) Exchange of gases between the foetus and mother (4) Secretion of hCG and hPL
68. Hormone secreted by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy is
(1) Relaxin (2) Progesterone (3) Oxytocin (4) Estrogen
69. The embryo’s heart is formed after _________ month/s of pregnancy.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
70. Most of the major organ systems of the foetus are formed by the end of
(1) 3 weeks (2) 6 weeks (3) 9 weeks (4) 12 weeks
71. The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed
During which month of pregnancy?
(1) Second month (2) Third month (3) Fourth month (4) Fifth month
72. The body of the foetus is covered with hair, eye-lids separate and eyelashes are formed by
the end of
(1) 12 weeks (2) 18 weeks (3) 24 weeks (4) 30 weeks
73. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
(1) Release of oxytocin by the pituitary (2) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) Pressure exerted by the placenta (4) Release of relaxin by the ovary
74. Which of the following hormone helps in parturition?
(1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen (3) Oxytocin (4) Vasopressin
75. Violent contractions of the uterus during parturition are stimulated by
(1) Estrogen (2) oxytocin (3) Relaxin (4) Progesterone
76. Violent contractions of the uterus during parturition occurs in the
(1) Endometrium (2) Myometrium (3) Clitoris (4) Perimetrium

Answers

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Mention two functions of sertoli cells.
2. What are the functions of sertoli cells and interstitial cells of the testis?
3. Name the hormones secreted by Leydig’s cells and corpus leuteum.
4. Name any two accessory ducts of the male reproductive system in humans.
5. Name any two accessory glands of the male reproductive system in humans.
6. Name any two accessory ducts of the female reproductive system in humans.
7. Mention any four parts of the external genitalia in human females.
8. Mention any two hormones secreted by ovary.
9. Differentiate spermiogenesis from spermiation.
10. Define spermiation. What is the role of FSH in spermiation?
11. Mention the roles of LH and FSH during spermatogenesis.

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12. “Acrosome and middle piece of the sperm are very essential parts of the sperm without which
fertilization does not occur”. Justify the statement.
13. How is primary ovarian follicle different from secondary ovarian follicle?
14. How is secondary ovarian follicle different from tertiary ovarian follicle?
15. Mention one function each of FSH and LH.
16. Mention one function each of LH and oxytocin.
17. Mention one function each of FSH and oxytocin.
18. Mention one function each of FSH and progesterone.
19. Mention one function each of progesterone and LH.
20. What is menstrual cycle? Name the hormones which regulate menstrual cycle.
21. Name the gonadotropins whose concentration gradually increases during the follicular phase of
menstrual cycle.
22. Mention two events that occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle.
23. Define ovulation. Mention the hormone that induces ovulation.
24. Mention two events that occur during the leuteal phase of menstrual cycle.
25. Differentiate menarche and menopause.
26. Define fertilization. In which part of the fallopian tube of the female reproductive system
fertilization occurs?
27. Define the terms cleavage and implantation.
28. Define the terms fertilization and implantation.
29. Define the terms fertilization and cleavage.
30. Mention the functions of placenta.
31. What is placenta? Mention any two hormones secreted by placenta.
32. List any four hormones secreted by placenta.
33. Name any four hormones which increase several folds in maternal blood during pregnancy. K
34. Name any two hormones in human females which are produced only during pregnancy.
35. Define parturition. Name the hormone released by the pituitary which induces parturition.
36. Mention one function each of progesterone and oxytocin.
37. “Unless foetal ejection reflex is produced, normal parturition does not occur”. Substantiate the
statement.
38. What is colostrum? Mention its benefits. K

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of sectional view of seminiferous tubules.
2. Write the schematic representation of spermatogenesis.
3. Briefly explain the role of three hormones during spermatogenesis.
4. Write the schematic representation of oogenesis.
5. Mention the events that occur during the folloicular phase of menstrual cycle.
6. Mention the events that occur during the leuteal phase of menstrual cycle.
7. Briefly explain the process of fertilization in humans.
8. Define placenta. Mention the functions of placenta.
9. In humans, sex of the baby is determined by the father and not the mother. Justify.
10. Define gestation. Name any two hormones in human females which are produced only during
pregnancy.
11. Explain the neuroendocrine mechanism which induces parturition.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

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1. Describe the male reproductive system in humans.
2. Draw a labelled diagram of human male reproductive system.
3. Describe the internal structure of testis.
4. Describe the female reproductive system in humans.
5. Draw a labelled diagram of the sectional view of female reproductive system.
6. Describe the structure of mammary gland.
7. Draw a neat labeled diagram of the sectional view of mammary gland.
8. Explain spermatogenesis with the help of a schematic representation.
9. Explain oogenesis with the help of a schematic representation.
10. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human sperm.
11. Describe the various events that occur during menstrual cycle.
12. Briefly explain the embryonic development in humans.

*******

CHAPTER :4
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
SESSION I

Healthy reproductive organs with normal function is known as reproductive health.

According to the World Health Organization (WHO) reproductive health means a total well being in
all aspects of reproduction that is physical, emotional, behavioral and social aspects.
Reproductive health – problems and strategies:
Indian was among the first countries in the world imitated action plans at national level to achieve
total reproductive health. These programmes are family planning programme, reproductive and
child health care programme.

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Family planning programme started in 1951. Reproductive related areas are included in
reproductive and child health care programme. With the help of audio visual and print media
government and non government agencies have taken various steps to create awareness in the
people regarding reproductive related aspects like proper information about reproductive organs,
adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases.
Parents, other close relatives, teachers and friends also having major role in the wide spreading of
above information.

Amniocentesis is a technique useful to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Some medical

practioners use amniocentesis to identify the sex of the foetus.

Population stabilization and birth control:

In the last century an all round development in various fields population increases rapidly.
In 1900 the world population is 2 billion and in 2000 world population became 6 billions. In India in
1947 Indian population 35 crores in 2000 Indian population is 100 crores. In 2011 Indian population
1.2 billions (120 crores) growth rate was less than 2 percent that is 20/1000/year. The most
important step to over come increase of population encourage smaller families by using various
contraceptive methods. Indian government popularize the slogan
Hum Do Hamare Do (We two our two) many urban couples & working ones have even adoped an
one child norm.

Contraceptive methods:
The methods prevent conception (Fertilization) is known as contraceptive methods. Ideal
contraceptive is user friendly, easily available, effective and reversible with no or least side effects.
It should not interfere with the sexual drive
Different types of contraceptive methods:
1) Natural methods
2) Barriers
3) Intra uterine devices
4) Implants
5) Oral pills
6) Sterilisation

Natural methods:
Natural methods avoiding chances of fusion of ovum and spermatozoa. Natural methods
are of three types namely periodic abstinences withdrawl or coitus interrupts and lactational
amoenorrhea. Couple not participating in coitus from 10 th to 17th day of menstrual cycle is known as
coitus interrupts. Male partner with draw penis from the vagina just before release of spermatozoa
to avoid insemination is called with drawl or coitus interruptus. During intense lactation (first six
month after birth) infant depends only breast feeding. At the time no menstrual cycle. Some couple
used as contraceptive method known as lactational amoenorrhea.

Barrier methods:
In this method barriers are used to prevent fusion of male and female gametes

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Condoms are barriers made up of thin rubber or latex sheath to cover the penis in male or vagina in
female Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the males. Condoms prevent the transmisiion of
sexually transmited diseases. Female condoms are known as fermodiom. Diaphrgms, cervical caps
and voults are the reusable barriers of females. Re usable barrier should cover the cervix during
coitus. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams should be used along with barriers to increase
conceptive efficiency.

Intra uterine devices: (IUDs)

Devices keep in the uterus to prevent pregnancy is known as intra uterine devices. Doctors
or expert nurses keep IUDs in the uterus through vagina.
IUDs are different types namely non medicated IUDs example is lippies loop.
Copper IUDs contain copper ions. These ions reduce mobility (movement) of spermatozoa and
prevent fertilization examples : CUT, CU7 and multiloaded 375 hormonal IUDs are progestosert and
LNG20. These hormones prevent ovulation, fertilization, implantation. In this maner prevent
conception (Fertilization) All types of IUDs kill spermatozoa and reduce spermcount, in this maner
prevent pregnancy.

Oral pills: Oralpills contain estrogen or progesterone or both oral pills prevent ovulation,
fertilization, implantation the female human being wish to prevent pregnancy have to be taken
daily for a period of 21 days. They have to taken from 5 to 25 th of every month saheli is a steroid pill
it prevent implantation only.

Sterilisation: Surgical method of prevent pregnancy is known as sterilization. Sterilisation is a final

method to prevent any more pregnancy in sterilization procedure prevent the transport of gametes
and avoid conception. Sterilization in male is known as vasectomy and sterilization female is known
as tubectomy. In vasectomy a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up in tubectomy a
small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up. Side effects of contraceptive methods are
nausea abdominal pain, break through bleeding, irregular menstrual cycle and some times breast
cancer.

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SESSION II

Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)

Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical
termination of pregnancy. Nearly 40 to 50 million MTP’s are performed in a year allover the world
which accounts to 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year. Government of
India legalized MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse

Why MTP?
Obviously the answer is to get rid of unwanted pregnancies either due to casual unprotected
intercourse or failure of the contraceptive used during coitus or rapes. MTP’s are also essential in
certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal wither to the
mother or to the foetus or both MTP’s are considered relatively safe during the first trimester i.e
upto 12 weeks of pregnancy second trimester abortions are much more risker MTP’s are performed
legally by unqualified quacks which are not only unsafe but could be total too.

Sexually transmitted diseases (STD’s)

Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively
called sexually transmitted diseases (STD) or venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections
(RTI) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital wants, trichomoniasis, hepatitis – B.
Common STDs. Among these, HIV infection is most dangerous.

SESSION III
INFERTILITY
A large number of couples all over the world including India are infertile, i.e., they are unable to
produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-habitation. The reasons for this could be many
physical, congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological or even psychological. In India, often the
female is blamed for the couple being childless, but more often than not, the problem lies in the
male partner.

ASSISTED REPRODUCTIVE TECHNOLOGIES (ART).

In vitro fertilisation (IVF–fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the
body) followed by embryo transfer (ET) is one of such methods. In this method, popularly known as
test tube baby programme, ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor
(male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory.
The zygote or early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian transfer) and
embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete
its further development. (GIFT – gamete intra fallopian transfer) of another female who cannot
produce one, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and further development is
another method attempted.

Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is another specialised procedure to form an embryo in the
laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum. Infertility cases either due to inability
of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts in the ejaculates,
artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this technique, the semen collected either from the
husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus (IUI –
intra-uterine insemination) of the female.
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MCQs
1. Pre-natal defects in the foetus can be detected by:
(1) Laparoscopy (2) Genetic engineering (3) MRI (4) Amniocentesis
2. Amniocentesis is the withdrawal of amniotic fluid in
(1) Menopause (2) Lactation (3) Gestation (4) Parturition
3. There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis in India because it was misused in the past for
(1) Detection of genetic disorders (2) Detection of gender of the foetus
(3) Detection of chromosomal disorders (4) Detection of hormonal disorders
4. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome (2) Sex of foetus (3) Down’s syndrome (4) Jaundice
5. One of the following is an example for STD
(1) Typhoid (2) Pneumonia (3) Haemophilia
(4) AIDS/Hepatitis B/Gonorrhea/Syphilis/Genital herpes or warts/Trichomoniasis/
Chlamydiasis
6. Which of the following is not a STD?
(1) Syphilis (2) Chlamydiasis (3) Trichomoniasis (4) Encephalitis
7. Which of the following sexually transmitted infection cannot be cured?
(1) Genital warts (2) Gonorrhea (3) Syphilis (4) Geniatal herpes/Hepatitis B/AIDS
8. In periodic abstinence, the couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day ________ of the
menstrual cycle.
(1) 1 -10 (2) 10 – 17 (3) 15 – 20 (4) 20 - 25
9. Absence of menstruation is called
(1) Amniocentesis (2) Lactational amenorrhea (3) Sterilisation (4) Insemination
10. Natural method of birth control includes
(1) Periodic abstinence (2) Lactationa amenorrhea
(3) Coitus interruptus (4) All of these
11. Lactational amenorrhea/Periodic abstinence/Coitus interruptus is a ___ method of
contraception.
(1) Barrier method (2) IUD method (3) Surgical method (4) Traditional method
12. Which of the following is a component of oral pills?
(1) Progestogen (2) Inhibin (3) Relaxin (4) Oxytocin
13. Progestogen present in contraceptive pills
(1) Prevents gamete formation (2) Prevents ovulation
(3) Makes cervix hostile to sperms (4) Suppresses sperm motility
14. Oral contraceptives help in birth control by preventing
(1) Fertilisation (2) Ovulation (3) Phagocytosis of sperms (4) Spermiation
15. The contraceptive which inhibits ovulation and prevents implantation is
1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375 (3) Oral pill (4) LNG-20
16. Saheli, a female antifertility pill, is used
(1) Daily (2) Weekly (3) Quarterly (4) Monthly
17. The contraceptive which alters the quality of cervical mucus is
(1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375 (3) Oral pills (4) LNG-20
18. Administering ____________ within 72 hours of coitus are found to be very effective as
emergency contraceptives.
(1) Spermicidal creams (2) Spermicidal foams
(3) Progestogen/progestogen-estrogen combination (4) Spermicidal jellies
19. Which of the following is a barrier used in birth control?
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(1) Pills (2) Copper-T (3) Diaphragm (4 Lippes loop
20. The barrier which is used to prevent pregnancy is
(1) Diaphragm/Cervical cap/Vault (2) IUDs (3) Lippes loop (4) LNG-20
21. All of the following are barrier contraceptive devices except
(1) IUDs (2) Vaginal condom (3) Cervical cap (4) Diaphragm
22. Copper –T prevents
(1) Ovulation (2) Zygote development (3) Fertilization (4) both 2 and 3
23. A contraceptive device made up of rubber that cannot be inserted into female reproductive
tract to cover the cervix during coitus is
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cervical cap (3) Vault (4) LNG 20
24. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?
(1) LNG-20/Progestasert (2) Multiload 375 (3) Lippes loop (4) Cu7
25. This is a method of birth control:
(1) IUDs (2) GIFT (3) IUT (4) IVF–ET
26. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?
(1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375/CuT/Cu7 (3) LNG -20 (4) Vault
27. Motility and fertilizing capacity of sperm is suppressed by
(1) Oral contraceptive (2) Cu releasing IUD/CuT/Cu7/Multiload 375
(3) Hormone releasing IUD (4) Non-medicated IUD
28. Copper ions released from copper releasing IUDs
(1) Prevent ovulation (2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Make cervix hostile to sperms (4) Suppress sperm motility
29. Uterus is made unsuitable for implantation and cervix is made hostile to the sperms by
(1) Oral contraceptive (2) Cu releasing IUD
(3) Hormone releasing IUD (4) Non-medicated IUD
30. Hormone releasing IUD prevents pregnancy by
(1) Suppressing the fertilizing capacity of sperms
(2) Making the uterus unsuitable for implantation/Making the cervix hostile to the
sperms
(3) Inhibiting ovulation and implantation
(4) Suppressing the motility of sperms
31. A non-medicated IUD is
(1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375 (3) LNG-20 (4) Progestsert
32. Lippes loop is a type of contraceptive used as
(1) Cervical barrier (2) Hormone releasing IUD
(3) Non-medicated IUD (4) Copper releasing IUD
33. Sterilisation procedure in human female is
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy (3) Coitus interuptus (4) Lactational amenorrhea
34. Sterilisation procedure in human male is
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy (3) Coitus interuptus (4) Lactational amenorrhea
35. Tubectomy is performed on
(1) Both males and females (2) Males only (3) Females only (4) Only pregnant females
36. Vasectomy is performed on
(1) Both males and females (2) Males only
(3) Females only (4) Only pregnant females
37. Effective method to control birth in male is:
(1) Tubal ligation (2) Vasectomy (3) Oral contraceptive (4)Rhythm control
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38. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(1) 72 hours of ovulation (2) 72 hours of menstruation
(3) 72 hours of implantation (4) 72 hours of coitus
39. The test tube baby programme is the popular name of
(1) IVF-ET (2) IUI (3) GIFT (4) ZIFT
40. Test tube baby means a baby born when
(1) The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter early embryo is implanted in the
uterus
(2) It develops from an unfertilized egg (3) It is developed in a test tube
(4) It is developed through tissue culture method
41. In IVF technique, fusion of ovum and sperm occurs in:
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Uterus (3) Vagina (4) Culture medium
42. IVF is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube
(1) Zygote only (2) Embryo up to 8-celled stage only
(3) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8-celled stage only
(4) Zygote or early embryo up to 8-celled stage or embryo of 32-celled stage
43. An assisted reproductive technique in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum is
called
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) IVF (4) ICSI
44. Technique involving transfer of ovum of a donor female into the fallopian tube of recipient
female is called
(1) ZIFT (2) IUT (3) GIFT (4) IVF-ET
45. Transfer of zygote or early embryos with up to 8 blatomeres is called
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) IVF (4) ICSI
46. Semen collected from husband or donor is artificially introduced into vagina through a
technique called
(1) IVF (2) ZIFT (3) GIFT (4) AI
47. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count in the ejaculate, which
technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer (2) Artificial insemination
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (4) Intrauterine transfer
48. Induced abortion is also called
(1) STD (2) MTP (3) IUD (4) PID
49. MTP is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
(1) 12 weeks (2) 18 weeks (3) 24 weeks (4) 30 weeks
Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention two objectives of action plans and programmes for reproductive health.

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2. Mention two means to create awareness among the people about problems regarding
reproductive health.
3. Mention two strategies to promote reproductive health.
4. What are the benefits of introducing sex education in schools?
5. List any two indicators that indicate a reproductively healthy society.
6. Mention any two reasons for population explosion in India.
7. What are contraceptives? Mention two qualities of an ideal contraceptive.
8. Mention any four characteristics of ideal contraceptives.
9. Mention any two natural methods of contraception.
10. A proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. If you agree
with the statement, give reasons for your answer.
11. Which days of menstrual cycle are identified as “fertile period” and why?
12. Mention any four devices used as barriers by males and females to prevent conception.
13. Mention two benefits of condoms which are used as contraceptive devices.
14. What are IUDs ? Give any two examples.
15. Mention any two types of IUDs with an example for each.
16. IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy. Justify with two
reasons.
17. Briefly describe the principle of working of IUDs.
18. List any two types of IUDs that are available for human females and state their mode of action.
19. CuT can act as an effective contraceptive. Justify.
20. Explain the contraceptive actions of Multiiload 375.
21. Progestasert can act as an effective contraceptive. Justify.
22. Write the mode of action of oral contraceptives.
23. Why do women use ‘Saheli’, the oral contraceptive pill as a well accepted method?
24. What are emergency contraceptives? Write their hormonal combination.
25. List one contraceptive method each in males and females with poor reversibility.
26. Differentiate vasectomy from tubectomy.
27. List the possible ill-effects of various contraceptive methods.
28. What is Medical Termination of Pregnancy? Mention the safe period for Medical Termination of
Pregnancy.
29. When does medical termination of pregnancy become essential?
30. List any four reproductive tract infections.
31. List any four sexually transmitted diseases.
32. Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the genital region.
33. List the complications a person suffers from untreated sexually transmitted diseases.
34. List any two preventive measures of STD.
35. List the modes of transmission of HIV.
36. List the modes of transmission of hepatitis-B infection.
37. Mention the reasons for infertility.
38. List the types of assisted reproductive technologies (ARTs).
39. Suggest any two ARTs that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with the
female partner.
40. Explain the procedure involved in conceiving the baby by test tube baby programme.
41. After successful in-vitro fertilization, the fertilized egg begins to divide. Where is this egg
transferred before it reaches the 8-celled stage and what is this technique called?
42. Differentiate ZIFT from IUT.
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43. Differentiate ZIFT from GIFT.
44. Explain the procedures involved in GIFT and Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
45. Name the two regions of female’s reproductive system into which the zygote or embryos are
transferred in Embryo Transfer technique.
46. Explain Artificial Insemination.
47. Explain the technique that can help a healthy married woman who is unable to produce viable
ova but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization and further development and wants to
bear a child.
48. Differentiate in-vitro fertilization from in-vivo fertilization.
49. How is ICSI different from ZIFT?
50. How is ICSI different from GIFT?
51. How is IUI different from ICSI?
52. How is IUI different from GIFT?
53. How is IUI different from ZIFT?

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any three objectives of action plans and programmes for reproductive health.
2. Mention three strategies to promote reproductive health.
3. Mention any three reasons for population explosion in India.
4. List the measures to check the population growth rate.
5. Explain natural methods of contraception.
6. Explain barrier methods of contraception.
7. How does barrier method helps in contraception? Mention any four devices which are used as
barriers by males and females to prevent conception.
8. List the types of intra uterine devices with one example for each.
9. Categorise the following into different kinds of IUDs such as non-medicated, copper releasing or
hormone releasing ones.
Progestasert (b) Lippes loop (c) CuT (d) LNG-20 (e) Cu7 (f) Multiload 375
10. Intra uterine devices are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy. Justify
with three reasons.
11. What is the chemical composition of oral contraceptives? How do they prevent conception?
12. Name a terminal method to prevent pregnancy in humans. Explain the procedure of the
terminal method employed in human male and female.
13. What is Medical Termination of Pregnancy? Mention two reasons for a woman to undergo
medical terrmination of pregnancy.
14. List any six reproductive tract infections.
15. List three principles through which one could be free of STDs.
16. Define venereal disease. Mention any two modes of transmission of HIV or Hepatitis B virus.
17. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the
genital region.
18. Suggest any three ARTs that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with the
male partner.
19. Write a note on the steps involved in the creation of “test tube baby”.
20. Explain any three methods employed to assist infertile couples to have children.
21. What are Assisted Reproductive technologies (A RTs)? Explain the role of ZIFT and GIFT as two
important ARTs.
22. What do you understand by GIFT, ICSI and AI as Assisted Reproductive Technologies.
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23. What do you understand by GIFT, ICSI and IUI as Assisted Reproductive Technologies.
24. What do you understand by GIFT, IUI and AI as Assisted Reproductive Technologies.
25. How ZIFT and GIFT are useful as assisted reproductive technologies to overcome infertility?
26. A healthy couple came to know that both of them are unable to produce functional gametes
and should look for an ART (Assisted Reproductive Technique). Name the ART that can be
suggested to help them bear a child and explain the procedure involved in it.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain five measures that can be taken to build up a socially responsible and reproductively
healthy society?
2. Explain any five birth control methods.
3. Explain natural method and sterilization method of contraception.
4. What are IUDs? Mention any two types with an example for each. How do IUDs help in
preventing conception?
5. List the types of Intra Uterine Devices with one example each. Explain their mode of action.
6. Explain how oral contraceptives and sterilization help in contraception.
7. With the help of labeled diagrams, explain the surgical methods of contraception in human.
8. What are sexually transmitted diseases ? Mention four early symptoms of STD that occur in the
genital region. Mention any four complications of STDs if they are not detected early and treated
properly.
9. What are assisted reproductive technologies? How infertility is treated by assisted reproductive
technologies?
10. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by assisted reproductive technologies like IVF-ET
and ZIFT?
11. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by assisted reproductive technologies like GIFT,
ZIFT, AI and ICSI?
12. What is infertility? How is infertility treated by GIFT, ICSI, IUI and AI?
13. Explain the steps involved in In vitro fertilization popularly known as ‘test tube baby’
programme and mention the importance of this IVF programme.
14. What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies? How is infertility treated by IVF – ET and ZIFT?
15. What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)? How is infertility treated by ZIFT, GIFT,
ICSI and AI?
16. What are Assisted Reproductive Technologies? How is infertility treated by GIFT, ICSI, IUI and
AI?
17. Define the following:
(a) Amniocentesis (b) Artificial Insemination (c) Infertility
(d) Venereal diseases (e) Assisted Reproductive Technologies

*******

CHAPTER : 5
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATIONS
SESSION I
Inheritance: Transfer of characters from parents to offspring is called inheritance.
Variations: The degree by which offsprings differ from their parents.
John Gregor Mendel is called the father of genetics and he started the experiments on inheritance
and variations during 1860’s on pea plant.

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Terminologies
Genes- part of the DNA that code for protein.
Factors - Mendel called genes as factors.
Alleles- Alternative forms of gene and always occurs in pairs.
Homologous chromosomes- Pair of chromosomes having the same genes on the same locus of
each chromosome.
Homozygous- Allele pair is of same kind ex. TT or tt or RR
Heterozygous - Allelic pairs of different kinds Ex. Tt or RR
Segregation- Separation of alleles during meiosis
Phenotype- External feature or external character is phenotype.
Genotype- Genetic combination of a cell.

Mendel's law of inheritance

Gregor John Mendel conducted the experiments on the pea plant (Pisum sativum) for 7 years (1856
to 1863). Characters studied by Mendel in pea plants-
Mendel studied 7 characters with 14 traits in pea plants.

Trait
Sl.
Character
No
Dominant Recessive

1 Height tall dwarf

2 Inflorescence or flower position axial terminal

3 Flower colour violet white

4 Fruit shape or pod shape entire or full constricted

5 Fruit color green yellow

6 Seed shape round wrinkle

7 Seed colour yellow green

Law of Dominance:
⮚ Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
⮚ Factors occur in pairs.
⮚ In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the pair dominates (dominant) the other
(recessive).

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Monohybrid cross or law of segregation or inheritance of one gene (5m)
⮚ Mendel selected pure lines of tall (TT) and dwarf (tt) for monohybrid cross in the pea plant.
⮚ When the tall and dwarf plants were crossed, in F1 generation he obtained all tall plants.
⮚ When F1 tall plants were selfed, in the F2 generation he obtained the tall and dwarf plants
in the ratio 3:1.
⮚ In the F1 generation dwarf character was missed and reappeared in F2 generation.
⮚ Based on this Monohybrid cross result, Mendel proposed a law of segregation.

Law of segregation states that - When a pair of contrasting traits brought together in a hybrid,
factors or alleles segregated during the formation of gametes without mixing or contaminating.

 Dwarf
Tall
tt
Parental genotype TT

t t
T T
Gametes

Tt

F1 Generation All Tall

Selfing Tt  Tt

T t T t

F2 Generation

T t

T TT-Tall Tt-Tall

t Tt-Tall tt-Dwarf
Phenotypic ratio Tall: Dwarf
3: 1
Genotypic rati o TT : Tt : tt
1: 2:1

SESSION II

Dihybrid cross or inheritance of two genes or law of independent assortment (5m)

For dihybrid cross Mendel choose seed character such as shape and colour of a seed.

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Law of independent assortment states that - when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid
segregation of one pair of characters is independent of another pair of characters.
Parental phenotype -round yellow × wrinkle green
Wrinkle Green
Parental phenotype Round Yellow  rryy
Parental genotype RRYY

ry ry
Gametes RY RY

RrYy
Round Yellow
F1 Generation
RrYy  RrYy
Selfing

Gametes RY Ry rY ry
RY Ry rY ry

F2 generation -

RY Ry rY ry

RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy

Round Yellow Round Yellow Round Yellow Round Yellow

Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy

Round Yellow Round Green Round Yellow Round Green

rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy

Round Yellow Round Yellow Wrinkle Yellow Wrinkle Yellow

ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy

Round Yellow Round Green Wrinkle Yellow Wrinkle Green

Phenotypic ratio - round yellow: round green :wrinkle yellow :wrinkle green
9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio - 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

Incomplete dominance (5m)

Incomplete dominance first reported by Carl Correns in Snapdragon

⮚ In heterozygous condition either of the alleles unable to dominate with each other, due to
this intermediate character appears in the offsprings is called as incomplete dominance
⮚ When the red flower (RR) is crossed with white flower (rr), in the F1 generation instead of
the red flower the pink flower appears in the offspring.
⮚ Appearance of intermediate character is due to the incomplete dominance of R over r.
⮚ When F1 hybrids are selfed, in the F2 generation, red pink and white flowers appear in the
ratio 1:2:1.
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⮚ Genotypic ratio for this cross is also 1:2:1.

 White Flower
Parental phenotype Re d Flower
rr
Parental genotype RR

r r
R R
Gametes

Rr

F1 Generation Pink Flower

Selfing Rr  Rr

R r R r

F2 Generation

R r

R RR-Red Rr-Pink

r Rr-Pinkl rr-White
Phenotypic ratio Red : Pink : White
1 : 2 : 1
Genotypic ratio RR : Rr : rr
1 : 2 : 1

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SESSION III

Test cross (3m)

A cross made between a hybrid with its recessive parent to identify the genotype of hybrid is called
a test cross.
Parental phenotype- violet cross white

 White
Parental phenotype Violet
ww
Parental genotype WW

w w
W W
Gametes

Ww

F1 Generation Violet Flower

Selfing Ww  ww

W w w w

F2 Generation

W w

w Ww-Violet ww-White

w Ww-Violet ww-White
Phenotypic ratio Violet : White
1 : 1
Genotypic ratio Ww : ww
1 :1

If F1 hybrid crossed with recessive parent in the F2 generation if we get both genotypic and
phenotypic ratio 1:1, The F1 hybrid will be heterozygous

If F1 hybrid crossed with recessive parent in the F2 generation if we get all dominant character the
F1 hybrid will be homozygous

Pleiotropy
⮚ Effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypes is called pleiotropy.
⮚ Example starch grain size in pea
⮚ Three types of starch grains were produced: larger grain, medium or intermediate grain and
smaller grain.

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⮚ Larger starch grain producer round seed medium or intermediate grain size produces round
seed and smaller starch grain produces wrinkled seed.
⮚ If a seed shape is considered as a phenotype we can get two types of phenotypes: round or
wrinkled seed.
⮚ If a starch grain is considered as phenotype three types - larger medium and smaller grains.
⮚ Starch grain size is controlled by a gene B
⮚ The B gene exists in two forms: B and b.
⮚ Homozygous B produces larger starch grain (BB).
⮚ Homozygous b produces smaller starch grains (bb).
⮚ Heterozygous B produces intermediate starch grain (Bb).
⮚ Since the gene B showed the three phenotypes it is an example for pleiotropy.

SESSION IV

Chromosomal theory of inheritance

⮚ Proposed by Sutton and Boveri.
⮚ They united the knowledge of cell division (meiosis) with the movement of factors (genes).
⮚ During the 1900 Mendel's laws were rediscovered.
⮚ During 1902 chromosomal movement during meiosis was known.
⮚ According to this theory, whenever the chromosomes are segregated, factors or alleles are
also segregated.

Experimental proof for chromosomal theory of inheritance

⮚ Experimental proof for chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by T.H. Morgan
⮚ Morgan worked on a tiny fly called fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster.
⮚ He was unable to get the classical dihybrid ratio 9:3:3:1.

Why did Morgan select Drosophila?

⮚ Drosophila can be easily cultured in the lab.
⮚ Can easily be identify the male and female Drosophila since sexual dimorphism is there.
⮚ Female Drosophila bigger in size male Drosophila smaller in size.
⮚ Drosophila has a shorter lifespan (about two weeks).
⮚ Drosophila have fewer chromosomes in diploid condition (2n=8).
⮚ Can produce a huge number of progenies per mating.

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SESSION V

Morgan’s experiment

⮚ Morgan crossed brown body and red eyed drosophila with yellow body white eyed female
drosophila.
⮚ And F1 progeny were intercrossed.
⮚ In the F2 generation he was unable to get a 9: 3:3:1 ratio. The ratio is deviated from the
classical dihybrid ratio.
⮚ To explain this Morgan coin the term linkage and recombination.
⮚ Linkage is the physical association of genes.
⮚ Recombination produces non parental characters in the offspring.
⮚ Morgan was unable to get the classical dihybrid ratio because the genes studied by him are
present on same the chromosome and they do not undergo independent assortment.
⮚ When Genes are very close to each other like yellow body and white eye genes present on X
chromosome linkage percentage is 98.7% and recombination is only 1.3%.
⮚ When genes are far away from each other as in the white eye and miniature wing genes,
linkage is 62.8% and recombination is 37.2%.
⮚ Recombination 37.2% more in white eye and miniature wing than recombination 1.3% in
yellow body and white eye.
⮚ Morgan's student Alfred Stuartvent based on frequency of appearance of the characters,
designed a tool to measure the distance between two genes called gene mapping.
⮚ The unit used to measure the distance of genes is called a centiMorgan (cM).
⮚ Percentage of recombination is directly proportional to the distance between the genes.
⮚ 1% recombination is equal to 1cM.

Co – dominance:
⮚ F1 resembled either of the two parents (complete dominance).
⮚ F1 offspring was in-between of two parents (incomplete dominance).
⮚ F1 generation resembles both parents side by side is called (co-dominance).
⮚ Best example of co-dominance is the ABO blood grouping in human.
⮚ ABO blood group is controlled by the gene I.
⮚ The plasma membrane of the RBC has sugar polymers (antigen) that protrude from its
surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene-I.
⮚ The gene I has three alleles I A,IBandi.
⮚ The alleles I A and I B produce a slightly different form of sugar while allele i doesn’t produce
any
⮚ sugar.
⮚ Each person possesses any two of the three I gene alleles.
⮚ I A and I B are completely dominant over i.
⮚ When I A, and I B present together they both express their own types of sugar; this because
of co- dominance. Hence red blood cells have both A and B type sugars.

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Multiple Alleles:
⮚ Example of ABO blood grouping produces a good example of multiple alleles.
⮚ There are more than two i.e. three allele, governing the same character.

SESSION VI(Zoology)

POLYGENIC INHERITANCE:
⮚ Human have no distinct tall or short instead a whole range of possible heights.
⮚ Such traits are generally controlled by three or more genes and are thus called polygenic
trait.
⮚ Besides the involvement of multiple genes polygenic inheritance also takes into
account the influence of environment.
⮚ Human skin color is another classic example of polygenic inheritance.
⮚ In a polygenic trait the phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele i.e. the effect of
each allele is additive.
⮚ Assume that three genes A, B, C control the skin colour in human.

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⮚ Dominant forms A, B; AND C responsible for dark skin colour and the recessive forms a, b, c
for light color of the skin.
⮚ Genotype with dominant alleles (AABBCC) will have darkest skin color.
⮚ Genotype with recessive alleles (aabbcc) will have lightest skin colour.
⮚ Other combinations always with intermediate colour.

PLEIOTROPY:
⮚ A single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expression, such gene is called pleiotropic
gene.
⮚ The mechanism of pleiotropy in most cases is the effect of a gene on metabolic
pathways which contributes towards different phenotypes.

Phenylketonuria a disease in human is an example of pleiotropy.

⮚ This disease is caused due to mutation in the gene that code for the enzyme phenyl
alanine hydroxylase.

Phenotypic expression characterized by:-

⮚ Mental retardation
⮚ Reduction in hairs.
⮚ Reduction in skin pigmentation.

SEX DETERMINATION:
⮚ Henking (1891) traced specific nuclear structure during spermatogenesis of some insects.
⮚ 50 % of the sperm received these specific structures, whereas 50% sperm did not receive it.
⮚ Henking gave a name to this structure as the X-body.
⮚ X-body of Henking was later on named as X-chromosome.

Sex-determination of grass hopper:

⮚ Sex-determination in grasshopper is XX-XO type.
⮚ All egg bears one ‘X’ chromosome along with autosomes.
⮚ Some sperms (50%) bear’s one ‘X’ chromosome and 50% do not.
⮚ Egg fertilized with sperm (with ‘X’ chromosome) became female (22+XX).
⮚ Egg fertilized with sperm (without ‘X’ chromosome) became male (22 + X0)

Sex determination in insects and mammals (XX-XY type):

⮚ Both male and female has same number of chromosomes.
⮚ Female have autosomes and a pair of X chromosomes. (AA+ XX)
⮚ Male have autosomes and one large ‘X’ chromosome and one very small ‘Y-
chromosomes. (AA+XY)
⮚ This is called male heterogammety and female homogamety.

SESSION VII

Sex determination in birds:

⮚ Female birds have two different sex chromosomes designated asZ and W.
⮚ Male birds have two similar sex chromosomes and called ZZ.

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⮚ Such type of sex determination is called female heterogammety and male
homogamety. Sex determination in Honey bee:
⮚ Sex determination in honey bee based on the number of sets of chromosomes an individual
receives.
⮚ An offspring formed from the fertilization of a sperm and an egg developed into either
queen (female) or worker (female)
⮚ An unfertilized egg develops as a male (drone), by means of parthenogenesis.
⮚ The male have half the number of chromosome than that of female.
⮚ The female are diploid having 32 chromosomes and males are haploid i.e.
having 16 numbers of chromosomes.
⮚ This is called haplodiploid sex determination system.
⮚ Male produce sperms by mitosis, they don not have father and thus cannot
have sons, but have grandsons.

MUTATION:
⮚ Mutation is a phenomenon which results in alteration of DNA sequences and
consequently results in changes in the genotype and phenotype of an organism.
⮚ In addition to recombination, mutation is another phenomenon that leads to variation in
DNA.
⮚ Loss (deletion) or gain (insertion/duplication) of a segment of DNA results in alteration in
chromosomes.
⮚ Since genes are located on the chromosome, alteration in chromosomes results in
abnormalities or aberration.
⮚ Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancerous cells.
⮚ Mutations also arise due to change in a single base pair of DNA. This is known as point
mutation. E.g. sickle cell anemia.
⮚ Deletion and insertions of base pairs of DNA causes frame shift mutations.

SESSION VIII

GENETIC DISORDERS:
Pedigree Analysis:
⮚ Analysis of traits in several of generations of a family is called the pedigree analysis.
⮚ In the pedigree analysis the inheritance of a particular trait is represented in the
family tree over generations.
⮚

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Autosomal Dominant:
⮚ Affected individuals have at least one affected parent
⮚ The phenotype generally appears every generation
⮚ Two unaffected parents only have unaffected offspring
⮚ Traits are controlled by dominant genes
⮚ Both males and females are equally affected
⮚ Traits do not skip generations
e.g. polydactyly, tongue rolling ability etc
⮚

Autosomal recessive:
⮚ Unaffected parents can have affected offspring
⮚ Traits controlled by recessive genes and
⮚ Appear only when homozygous
⮚ Both male and female equally affected
⮚ Traits may skip generations
⮚ 3:1 ratio between normal and affected.
⮚ Appearance of affected children from normal parents (heterozygous)
⮚ All children of affected parents are also affected.
e.g.- Albinism, sickle cell anaemia etc.
⮚

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SESSION IX

Mendelian Disorder:
⮚ Genetic disorders grouped into two categories –
⮚ Mendelian disorder
⮚ Chromosomal disorder
⮚ Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene.
⮚ Obey the principle of Mendelian inheritance during transmission from one generation to
other.
⮚ Can be expressed in pedigree analysis.
E.g. Haemophilia, colorblindness, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle cell anemia, Phenylketonuria,
Thalasemia etc.

Hemophilia:
⮚ In this disease a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the
clotting of blood is affected. Due to this in an affected individual a simple cut will result in
non-stop bleeding.
⮚ Sex linked recessive disease.
⮚ The diseases transmitted from unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny.
⮚ Female becoming hemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female at
least carrier and the father should be hemophilic.
⮚ Affected transmits the disease only to the son not to the daughter.
⮚ Daughter can receive the disease from both mother and father.

Sickle cell anaemia:

⮚ The defect is caused due to substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth
position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule.
⮚ Substitution of amino acid takes place due to the single base substitution at the sixth
codon of the betaglobin gene from GAG to GUG.
⮚ The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under low oxygen tension
causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like
structure.
⮚ This is an autosomes linked recessive trait.
⮚ Transmitted from parents to the offspring when both the parents are carrier for the gene
(heterozygous).
⮚ This disease is controlled by single pair of allele, HbA, and HbS.
⮚ There are three possible genotypes (HbA HbA, HbA HbS, and HbSHbS.
⮚ Only homozygous individuals for HbS (HbS HbS) show the diseased phenotype.
⮚ Heterozygous (HbA HbS) individuals appear apparently unaffected but they are carrier
of the disease as there is 50 percent probability of transmission of the mutant gene to the
progeny.

Phenylketonuria:
⮚ Autosomal recessive trait.
⮚ Inborn error of metabolism.
⮚ The affected individual lack one enzyme called phenyl alanine hydroxylase that
converts the amino acid phenyl alanine to tyrosine.
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⮚ In the absence of the enzyme phenyl alanine accumulated and converted into phenylpyruvic
acid and otherderivatives.
⮚ Accumulation of these results in mental retardation.
⮚ These derivatives excreted through kidney.

Chromosomal disorders:
⮚ Caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosome.
⮚ Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of
chromosome, called Aneuploidy.
⮚ Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell division results in an increase in a
whole set of chromosome in an organism and this phenomenon is called polyploidy.

Trisomy: additional copy of a chromosome may be included in an individual (2n+1).

Monosomy: an individual may lack one of any one pair of chromosomes (2n-1)
Down syndrome:
⮚ Caused due to presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21
(trisomy of 21).
⮚ This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
⮚ Short stature with small round head.
⮚ Furrowed tongue
⮚ Partially opened mouth
⮚ Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease.
⮚ Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.

Klinefelter’s syndrome:
⮚ Caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a
karyotype of 47, (44+XXY).
⮚ Overall masculine development.
⮚ Also develop feminine character (development of breast i.e. Gynaecomastia)
⮚ Individuals are sterile.

Turner’s syndrome:
⮚ Caused due to the absence of one of the X- chromosomes i.e. 45 (44 + X0).
⮚ Such females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary.
⮚ Lack of other secondary sexual characters.

MCQs

1. Who is the father of Genetics?

(1) Tshermark (2) Carl Correns (3) Mendel (4) Hugo de Vries
2. Mendel did not study one of the following characters
(1) Position of the flowers (2) Number of pods
(3) Colour of the pods (4) Shape of the pods
3. A dominant character in Pisum sativum is
(1) Green seeds (2) Constricted pods (3) Terminal flowers
(4) Yellow seeds/Full pod/Violet flowers/Axial flowers/Round seeds/Greenpods/Tallness
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4. A recessive character in Pisum sativum is
(1) Violet flowers (2) Green pods (3) Yellow seeds
(4) Green seeds/Wrinkled seeds/White flowers/Constricted pod/Terminal flowers/
Dwarfness/ Yellow pods
5. Which of the following was not proposed by Mendel?
(1) Purity of gametes (2) Independent assortment
(3) Incomplete dominance (4) Segregation of alleles
6. The two allelic genes of a pair are located on
(1) The same chromosome (2) The homologous chromosomes
(3) Two non-homologous chromosomes (4) Any two chromosomes
7. A gamete normally contains
(1) Two alleles of a gene (2) One allele of a gene
(3) Many alleles of a gene (4) All alleles of a gene
8. Checker board which is the graphical representation to calculate the probability of all
probable genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross was developed by
(1) Gregor Mendel (2) Reginald Punnett (3) Walter Sutton (4) Theodore Boveri
9. Two pea plants were subjected to cross pollination. Of the 183 plants produced in the next
generation, 94 plants were found to be tall and 89 plants were found to be dwarf. The
genotypes of the two parental plants are likely to be
(1) TT and tt (2) Tt and Tt (3) Tt and tt (4) TT and TT
10. One of the biologists who rediscovered Mendel’s laws was
(1) Darwin (2) Hugo de Vries/Correns/Tshermak (3) Lamarck (4) Haldane
11. Genetic traits are often carried on separate chromosomes. Which of the following
genotypes represents a dihybrid organism?
(1) TTRR (2) TtRr (3) ttrr (4) ttRR
12. In a monohybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio in the F 2 generation will be
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
13. In a monohybrid cross, we get a genotypic ratio of
(1) 1:2:1 (2) 2 : 1 : 2 (3) 0 : 1 : 0 (4) 2 : 1 : 1
14. A garden pea plant heterozygous for tallness is selfed and 1200 seeds are subsequently
germinated. How many plants among the offspring would have the parental phenotype?
(1) 300 (2) 600 (3) 900 (4) 1200
15. Five out of 20 plants obtained by selfing a tall plant were dwarf. This is an indication that the
plant is
(1) Homozygous (2) Heterozygous (3) Hemizygous (4) Polygenic
16. A pea plant has two alleles for height. But, each of its sperm has only one. This illustrates
(1) Independent assortment (2) Linked genes (3) Codominance (4) Segregation
F
17. When a heterozygous 1 tall pea plant is selfed, the appearance of tall and dwarf plants in
F 2 population proves
(1) Principle of independent assortment (2) Principle of segregation
(3) Principle of dominance (4) Principle of incomplete dominance
18. When a plant with yellow coloured round seeds (YYRR) is crossed with a plant with green
coloured wrinkled seeds (yyrr), the F 1 generation consists of plants with yellow coloured
round seeds. What would be the proportion of plants with green coloured wrinkled seeds in
F 2 generation?
(1) ½ (2) 0 (3) 1/16 (4) ¼
19. Yellow colour of seed (Y) and round shape of seed (R) are dominant over green colour of
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seed (y) and wrinkled shape of seed (r). What will be the proportion of plants producing
yellow coloured wrinkled seeds in the cross YyRr x YyRr?
(1) 1/16 (2) 2/16 (3) 3/16 (4) 4/16
20. If a male pea plant which is heterozygous for tallness is crossed with a female which is also
heterozygous for that trait, what percent of their offspring is likely to be heterozygous for
this trait as well?
(1) 0 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 75
21. When a hybrid pea plant for yellow round seeds (Yy Rr) is self pollinated, the phenotypic
ratio in the next generation would be
(1) 9 : 7 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (3) 12 : 3 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
22. F
A cross between 1 hybrid and the recessive parent is called
(1) Monohybrid cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) trihybrid cross (4) Test cross
23. Test cross is a cross between
(1) F 1 hybrid and dominant parent (2) F 1 hybrid and recessive parent
(3) F 1 hybrid & F 2 offspring (4) F 1 hybrid & either of the parents
24. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by
(1) Test cross (2) Dihybrid cross (3) Back cross (4) Reciprocal cross
25. To determine heterzyogosity or homozygosity, a plant must be crossed with
(1) Recessive plant (2) Dominant plant (3) Homozygous plant (4) Heterozygous plant
26. The monohybrid test cross ratio is
(1) 3:1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
27. A hybrid tall plant of pea can be distinguished from a pure tall pea plant by
(1) Selfing and noting that all plants are short
(2) Selfing and noting that all plants are tall
(3) Crossing with dwarf plant and noting that all plants are tall
(4) Crossing with dwarf plant and noting that 50% are tall and 50% are short
28. If a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a dwarf pea plant, what will be the
percentage of dwarf plants in the progeny?
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 100
29. The dihybrid test cross ratio is
(1) 3:1 (2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
30. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross experiment, the phenotypic ratio was
(1) 9 round and green : 3 round and yellow : 3 wrinkled and yellow : 1 wrinkled and green
(2) 9 round and yellow : 3 round and green : 3 wrinkled and yellow : 1 wrinkled and green
(3) 9 round and yellow : 3 round and green : 3 round and yellow : 1 wrinkled and green
(4) 9 wrinkled and green : 3 round and yellow : 3 wrinkled and yellow : 1 round and green
31. The phenomenon where in the heterozygous state, a phenotype intermediate to the
dominant and recessive types is obtained is called
(1) Pleiotropy (2) Complete dominance (3) Codominance (4) Incomplete dominance
32. A cross between two plants, one having 24cm. long internodes and the other having 12cm.
long internodes, produced F 1 hydrids all having 18cm long internodes. This is a case of
(1) Complete dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Recessive dominance (4) Multiple allelism
33. In Antirhinum/Snapdragon, true bred red and white flowered plants are crossed. In F 2
generation, they form
(1) 75% red and 25% white flowered plants
(2) 25% red and 75% white flowered plants
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(3) 50% red and 50% white flowered plants
(4) 25% red, 50% pink and 25% white flowered plants
34. In monohybrid crosses, absence of complete dominance is indicated by the F 1 plants that
exhibit intermediate characters. This can be further confirmed if the phenotypic ratio in F 2
is
(1) 3:1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 2:1:1
35. The F 2 generation offspring in a plant showing incomplete dominance, exhibit
(1) Variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios
(2) A genotypic ratio of 1:1
(3) A phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1
(4) Similar genotypic and phenotypic ratios of 1:2:1
36. In incomplete dominance, genotypic and phenotypic ratio are the same. It is
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
37. Genetics of blood groups in humans illustrates
(1) Multiple allelism and codominance
(2) Multiple allelism and polygenic inheritance
(3) Pleiotropy and codominance
(4) Incomplete dominance and Multiple allelism
38. With respect ABO blood groups in man, the ‘I’ gene controls the kind of ______ on the
plasma membrane of RBC.
(1) Protein (2) Sugar polymer (3) Lipid (4) Amino acid
39. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
(1) Phenyl ketonuria (2) Colour blindness (3) Sickle cell anaemia (4) Blood groups
40. The phenomenon of a single gene regulating the expression of more than one phenotypic
effect is called
(1) Polygenic inheritance (2) Multiple allelism (3) Pleiotropy (4) Codominance
41. An example for pleiotropism is
(1) Phenyl ketonuria (2) Haemophilia (3) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Thalassemia
42. In ABO blood groups, how many phenotypes are found?
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 8 (4) 6
43. In ABO blood groups, how many genotypes are found?
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 8 (4) 6
44. The blood group which shows codominance is
(1) A (2) B (3) AB (4) O
A B
45. Person having genotype I I would show blood group AB. This is because of
(1) Pleiotropy (2) Co-dominance (3) Incomplete dominance (4) Segregation
46. The scientists who rediscovered Mendel’s laws of inheritance are
(1) Correns, deVries, Tshermak (2) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Morgan and Sturtevent (4) Messelson and Stahl
47. The scientist who is not concerned with the rediscovery of Mendels’s laws of inheritance is
(1) deVries (2) Correns (3) Morgan (4) Tschermak
48. The chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by
(1) Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri (2) Messelson and Stahl
(3) Correns and Tshermak (4) Hershey and Chase
49. The scientific name of fruit fly is
(1) Ascaris lumbricoides (2) Wuchereria malayi
(3) Drosophila melanogaster (4) Caenorhabditis elegans
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50. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in Drosophila is due to
(1) Linkage (2) Recombination (3) Crossing over (4) Heterogamety
51. The physical association of genes on a chromosome is called
(1) Linkgae (2) Crossing over (3) Recombination (4) Segregation
52. ___________ used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same
chromosome as a measure of the distance between genes and ‘mapped their position on
the chromosome.
(1) Alfred Sturtevant (2) Morgan (3) Henking (4) de Vries
53. ZZ-ZW type of sex determination mechanism is seen in
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper (3) Drosophila (4) Honey bees
54. XX-XO type of sex determination mechanism is seen in
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper (3) Drosophila (4) Honey bees
55. XX-XY type of sex determination mechanism is seen in
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper (3) Drosophila/Humans (4) Honey bees
56. In which of the following groups of animals, males are heterogametic?
(1) Birds (2) Butterflies/Humans/ Drosophila
(3) Grasshoppers (4) Honey bees
57. Haplo-diploid sex determination system is seen in
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper (3) Drosophila (4) Honey bees
58. Among honey bees,
(1) Males are haploid & females are diploid (2) Males are diploid & females are haploid
(3) Both males and females are haploid (4) Both males and females are diploid
59. Females are heterogametic in
(1) Drosophila (2) Grasshoppers (3) Birds (4) Honey bees
60. Males develop parthenogenetically in
(1) Birds (2) Grasshopper (3) Drosophila (4) Honey bees
61. Two lines between the male and female in a pedigree chart indicates
(1) Both the male and female have the same genetic trait
(2) Male and female are related to one another
(3) Both the male and female are carriers for a genetic tarit
(4) The couple have two children
62. Which of the following is a hereditary disease?
(1) Phenyl ketonuria (2) Filaria (3) Ringworm (4) Cancer
63. A disease which is caused due to a recessive gene on the autosome is
(1) Phenyl ketonuria/Sickle cell anaemia/Thalassemia
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Colour blindness
(4) Myotonic dystrophy
64. A genetic disorder (sex linked recessive disorder) in which clotting of blood is affected is
(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Haemophilia (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Thalassemia
65. A trait controlled by genes located on X-chromosomes are
(1) Sex – linked (2) Sex – influenced (3) Sex – limited (4) Autosomal
66. Which one of the following diseases shows sex - linked inheritance?
(1) Colour blindness/Haemophilia (2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Phenyl ketonuria
67. Haemophilia/Colour blindness is a _______ disease.
(1) Sex - linked dominant (2) Sex - linked and recessive
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(3) Autosome linked dominant (4) Autosome linked recessive
68. In haemophilia disease
(1) Haemoglobin is defective (2) WBCs are absent
(3) RBC is is sickle shaped (4) Blood clotting is very slow
69. Persons who are colour blind cannot distinguish
(1) Yellow and white (2) Green and blue (3) Black and yellow (4) Red and green
70. Sickle cell anaemia is
(1) A sex linked disorder (2) Iron deficiency disease
(3) Inherited by a recessive gene on the autosome (4) An organic disorder
71. The haemoglobin of patients suffering from sickle cell anemia differs from normal
haemoglobin by one
(1) Monosaccharide (2) Disaccharide (3) Amino acid (4) Lipid
th
72. Sicke cell anaemia is due to the replacement of 6 codon GAG by ______ (on mRNA) in beta
chain of haemoglobin.
(1) GUG (2) UUG (3) AUG (4) GTU
73. Sickle cell anaemia is due to the mutation of the following on the template strand of DNA
(1) CTC to CAC (2) CGC to CAC (3) CTG to CAG (4) CAG to CTC
74. In sickle cell anaemia, mutation causes the replace4ment of glutamic acid by _________ in
haemoglobin
(1) Aspartic acid (2) Valine (3) Tryptophan (4) Methionine
75. Sickle celled anaemia is caused due to the substitution of
(1) Valine at 6th position of beta - chain of haemoglobin by glutamic acid
(2) Glutamic acid at 6th position of beta - chain of haemoglobin by valine
(3) Glutamic acid at 6th position of alpha - chain of haemoglobin by valine
(4) Valine at 6th position of alpha - chain of haemoglobin by glutamic acid
76. An example for an autosomal blood disease is
(1) Haemophilia (2) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Colourblindness (4) Thalassemia
77. In thalassemia,
(1) There is reduced synthesis of a and/or ß chain of haemoglobin
(2) RBCs become sickle shaped
(3) There is delay in clotting of blood
(4) There is non-disjunction of chromosomes during cell division
78. a – thalassemia is caused due to
(1) Mutation or deletion of HBA1 and HBA2 genes on chromosome 16
(2) Mutation or deletion of HBA1 and HBA2 genes on chromosome 11
(3) Mutation or deletion of HBB gene on chromosome 11
(4) Mutation or deletion of HBB gene on chromosome 16
79. The number of chromosomes in an individual suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome is
(1) 44 (2) 45 (3) 46 (4) 47
80. Karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome is
(1) 45, XO (2) 47, XXX (3) 47, XXY (4) 47, XYY
81. Karyotype of Turner’s syndrome is
(1) 45, XO (2) 47, XXX (3) 47, XXY (4) 47, XYY
82. 44A + XXY chromosome complement occurs in
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia

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83. 44A + X0 chromosome complement occurs in

(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
84. 45A + XX/45A + XY chromosome complement occurs in
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
85. The number of chromosomes in an individual suffering from Klinefelter’s syndrome/Down’s
syndrome is
(1) 44 (2) 45 (3) 46 (4) 47
86. A loss of one X chromosome in human beings causes
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
87. An extra X chromosome in human beings causes
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
88. An extra autosome in human beings causes
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
89. An additional copy of chromosome number 21 causes
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
90. Gynaecomastia is a condition seen in
(1) Turner’s syndrome (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anaemia
91. Down’s syndrome/Turner’s syndrome/Klinefelter’s syndrome is due to
(1) Crossing over (2) Sex-linkage
(3) Recombination (4) Non-disjunction of chromosomes
92. In _________, the individual has overall masculine development, however, the feminine
development is also seen
(1) Thalassemia (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Turner’s syndrome
93. Short stature, underdeveloped breasts, rudimentary ovaries and sterility are characteristic
of
(1) Thalassemia (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Turner’s syndrome
94. Short stature, small round head, partially open mouth & protruded tongue are characteristic
of
(1) Thalassemia (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome (3) Down’s syndrome (4) Turner’s
syndrome
------

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Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate homozygous and heterozygous conditions.
2. Differentiate dominant and recessive alleles.
3. Distinguish between monohybrid and dihybrid crosses.
4. What is test cross? Write its significance.
5. State the law of segregation and law of independent assortment.
6. What is incomplete dominance? Mention an example.
7. What is codominance? Mention an example.
8. What are multiple alleles? Give an example of human trait regulated by multiple alleles.
9. What are multiple alleles? Why alleles I A and I B for blood group are considered codominant ?
10. A child has blood group ‘O’. If the father has blood group ‘A’ and mother blood group ‘B’, work
out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other offspring.
11. Differentiate between incomplete dominance and codominance.
12. Differentiate polygenic inheritance and pleiotropy.
13. What is polygenic inheritance? Give an example.
14. What is polygenic inheritance? Explain it taking the inheritance of skin colour in man.
15. Define pleiotropy. Mention an example.
16. Mention two similarities in the behaviours of chromosomes and genes.
17. Differentiate linkage and recombination.
18. List two features of Drosophila melanogaster which make it suitable for genetic experiments.
19. What are the conclusions drawn by T H Morgan from the crossing experiment in Drosophila
with respect to linkage?
20. Mention two features in Drosophila which made T H Morgan to select it for his genetical
experiments.
21. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in grasshopper and humans.
22. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in grasshopper and Drosophila melanogaster.
23. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in grasshopper and birds.
24. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in humans and birds.
25. Mention the sex determination mechanisms in Drosophila melanogaster and birds.
26. What is male heterogamety? Give an example.

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27. What is female heterogamety? Give an example.
28. Differentiate male haterogamety from female heterogamety.
29. What is haplo-diploid sex determination mechanism? Mention an animal which exhibits this.
30. Define mutation. What are mutation causing agents called?
31. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its importance.
32. Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of myotonic dystrophy as an
example for autosomal dominant trait.
33. Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of sickle cell anaemia as an example
for autosomal recessive trait.
34. What are Mendelian disorders? Mention two examples.
35. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention two examples.
36. What are Mendelian disorders? Give an example for sex linked recessive Mendelian disorder in
humans.
37. What are Mendelian disorders? Name an autosomal recessive Mendelian disorder in man.
38. What are Mendelian disorders? Mention an example for an inborn error of metabolism caused
due to an autosomal recessive allele.
39. What is phenylketonuria? Write two symptoms.
40. Mention the causes and effects of phenylketonuria.
41. What is phenylketonuria? Why phenyl pyruvic acid and its derivatives are excreted through
urine in phenylketonuria.
42. What is phenylketonuria? Why persons with phenylketonuria normally suffer from mental
retardation.
43. What is haemophilia? Why the possibility of female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare?
44. What is haemophilia? In a person suffering from haemophilia, why even a simple cut results in
non-stop bleeding?
45. What is sickle cell anaemia? Why RBCs become sickle-shaped in persons suffering from sickle
cell anaemia?
46. Mention the sixth codons of the beta globin chain in normal haemoglobin and the haemoglobin
of person with sickle celled anaemia.
47. What is thalassemia? Mention the types.
48. Write a note on a – thalassemia.
49. Write a note on ß – thalassemia.
50. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any two symptoms of Turner's syndrome.
51. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any two symptoms of Klinefelter’s syndrome.
52. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any two symptoms of Down’s syndrome.
53. Define aneuploidy. How is it caused?
54. Distinguish between aneuploidy and polyploidy.
55. Define aneuploidy. Mention an example for a syndrome caused by aneuploidy in humans.
56. Define monosomy. How is it caused?
57. Define trisomy. How is it caused?
58. Define monosomy . Mention an example for it in humans.
59. Define trisomy. Mention an example for it in humans.
60. What is the karyotype in Turner’s syndrome? Mention two symptoms of the syndrome.
61. What is the karyotype in Klinefelter’s syndrome? Mention two symptoms of the syndrome.
62. What is the karyotype in Down’s syndrome? Mention any two symptoms of the syndrome.
63. Mention four symptoms of Down’s syndrome.
64. Give an example for trisomy in humans and mention three of its symptoms.
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65. Give an example for monosomy in humans and mention three of its symptoms .

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the flow chart that depicts Mendelian monohybrid cross for the inheritance of height in
pea plant.
2. Write the flow chart that depicts Mendelian dihybrid cross for the inheritance of colour and
shape of seed in pea plant.
3. Write the flow chart that depicts incomplete dominance in Antirrhinum.
4. Define pleiotropy. Explain it with respect to phenylketonuria.
5. “Mendel’s work was not recognized during his time.”? Give any three reasons.
6. Mention the similarities between the behaviours of chromosomes and genes according to
chromosomal theory of inheritance.
7. Mention three features of Drosophila melanogaster which makes it suitable for genetic
experiments.
8. Explain sex determination in humans.
9. Explain sex determination in Drosophila melanogaster.
10. Explain sex determination in birds.
11. Explain sex determination mechanism in grasshopper.
12. Explain sex determination mechanism in honey bees.
13. What is pedigree analysis? Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of
myotonic dystrophy as an example for autosomal dominant trait.
14. What is pedigree analysis? Write the representative pedigree analysis (pedigree chart) of sickle
cell anaemia as an example for autosomal recessive trait.
15. What are Mendelian disorders? Mention a Mendelian disease and its types where there is
reduced synthesis of haemoglobin.
16. Write a note on phenylketonuria as an example for Mendelian disorder.
17. Mention the cause, symptoms and inheritance of haemophilia.
18. What are chromosomal disorders? Mention any four symptoms of Down’s syndrome.
19. Mention the causes of Down’s syndrome and mention four of its symptoms.
20. Mention the karyotype of Down’s syndrome and mention four of its symptoms.
21. Write the karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. State law of segregation. Explain it with reference to the inheritance of height of the plant in pea
garden pea.
2. Explain the concept of dominance.
3. State the law of Independent assortment. Explain it with reference to the inheritance of colour
and shape of the seed in pea plant.
4. What is incomplete dominance? Explain it with respect to flower colour in snapdragon.
5. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its significance. Write the representative pedigree analysis
(pedigree chart) of myotonic dystrophy as an example for autosomal dominant trait.
6. What is pedigree analysis? Mention its significance. Write the representative pedigree analysis
(pedigree chart) of sickle cell anaemia as an example for autosomal recessive trait that you have
studied.
7. Explain the cause, symptoms and inheritance pattern of sickle cell anemia.
8. Explain thalassemia as an example for Mendelian disorder.

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9. Define aneuploidy. What is the cause for aneuploidy? Mention the karyotype of Down’s
syndrome and four of its symptoms.
10. What is trisomy? What is its cause? Mention the karyotype of Down’s syndrome and four of its
symptoms.
11. Explain Morgan’s experiment on Drosophila to show the relation between linkage and
recombination.

*********
CHAPTER : 6
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
SESSION I
Component of nucleic acid (3m)
Nucleic acid consists of a pentose sugar, nitrogen base and phosphate.
Pentose sugars are of two types
1. Ribose sugar present in RNA
2. Deoxyribose sugar present in DNA
Nitrogen bases are of a two types
1. Purine bases – Adenine and Guanine (G)
2. Pyrimidine bases- Cytosine (C), Thymine (T) and Uracil
⮚ Phosphate is present as the phosphoric acid (H3PO4)
⮚ Pentose sugar pairs to nitrogen base to form nucleosides and nucleotides bind to phosphate
to form nucleotides.
⮚ Nitrogen base pairs with the first carbon of a pentose sugar to form a nucleoside.
⮚ Bond present within the nucleoside is the N- glycosidic bond.
⮚ Nucleoside pairs with the phosphate by phosphoester bond to form nucleotides.
⮚ Many nucleotides joined together by phosphodiester to form a polynucleotide chain.

Polynucleotide chain

⮚ In a polynucleotide chain, sugar and phosphate forms the backbone and nitrogen base
protrude inwords.
⮚ In a polynucleotide chain, one end has OH called 3' and another end has phosphate called 5'
end.

SESSION II

Structure of DNA or double helix model of DNA or Watson and Crick model of DNA (5m)
Watson and Crick proposed a double helix model based on X-Ray diffraction study of Wilkins and
Franklin and a Chargaff's rule.

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The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are as follows:
(i) It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is made up of sugar-
phosphate, and the bases project inside.
(ii) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity. It means, if one chain has the polarity 5'→3', the
other has 3'→5'
(iii) The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H-bonds) forming base pairs
(bp).
(iv) Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine
from opposite strand and vice-versa. Similarly,
Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds.
(v) Hydrogen bonds between Purine and Pyrimidine bases
generate approximately uniform distance between the
two strands of the helix.
(vi) The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion.
The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm and there are roughly
10 bp in each turn.
(vii) The distance between a bp in a helix is
approximately 0.34 nm.
(viii) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in
double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds, gives
stability to the helical structure

Packaging of DNA in eukaryotes or nucleosome model (3m)

⮚ Nucleosome model explain packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.
⮚ Chromatin looks like beads on a string under an electronic microscope.
⮚ Nucleosomes consist of histone protein and double stranded DNA.
⮚ Histone proteins form octamer around the octamer double standard DNA is wrapped.
⮚ Histone proteins carry positive charge due to the presence of basic amino acids lysine and
arginine.
⮚ DNA being negatively charged wrapped around positively charged histone octamer two
times to form a nucleosome that further condenses to form chromatin.
⮚ Further packaging of chromatin requires nonhistone chromosomal protein.

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SESSION III

Euchromatin and heterochromatin (2m/3m)

Euchromatin Heterochromatin
⮚ Euchromatin is loosely packed ⮚ Heterochromatin is a tightly packed
chromatin. chromatin.
⮚ it took light stain ⮚ It had a dark stain.
⮚ It is transcriptionaly active. ⮚ It is transcriptionally inactive.

Griffith's experiment or transformation experiment (3m/5m)

⮚ Griffith's used two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae for his experiment -R strain is
avirulent, does not cause the disease, S strain is virulent that causes the disease.
⮚ He prepared the suspension of two strains of bacteria separately, and injected to the mice.
⮚ S strain suspension → injected to mice disease occurs mice dies
⮚ R strain suspension→ injected to mice no disease mice alive.
⮚ Heat killed S Strain suspension→ injected to mice no disease mice alive
⮚ Heat killed S strain combined with alive R strain suspension→ injected to mice disease
occurs, mice dies
⮚ Griffith was able to recover the alive S strain from dead mice.
⮚ Griffith was unable to explain how R strain is transformed into S strain.
⮚ Finally he concluded that ‘R’ strain bacteria is transformed into S strain bacteria by an
unknown transforming principle.

Biochemical characterization of transforming principle (3m)

⮚ Avery, McLeod Mccarty proved DNA is the transforming principle.
⮚ They isolated the protein RNA and DNA from heat killed S Strain bacteria.
⮚ They used 3 enzymes – protease, RNase and DNase.
⮚ When the protease enzyme is used, the R strain is transformed into S strain.
⮚ Same results occur when RNase was used.
⮚ When DNase used, no transformation occurs, this proves DNA is the transforming principle.
SESSION IV
Hershey and Chase experiment (5m)
⮚ Hershey and Chase used bacteriophage, E. coli and radioactive isotopes of a Sulphur and
Phosphate for their experiment.
Experiment consisting of the following steps
⮚ Labelling
⮚ infection
⮚ agitation
⮚ centrifugation
⮚ Detection of radioactivity.

Labelling

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⮚ They grew bacteriophages in the media contains radioactive 35S and 32P separately.

Infection
⮚ Labelled bacteriophages were allowed to
infectE.coli.

Agitation
⮚ After infection, bacteria and empty capsid
of bacteriophages were separated by
agitation in an agitator or blender.

Centrifugation
⮚ After agitation bacteria and the capsids were allowed to centrifugate to separate them into
residue and supernatant.
Detection of radioactivity
⮚ After centrifugation
radioactivity was a detected by
using autoradiography
⮚ In the bacteriophages labelled
with 35S radioactivity detected in
a supernatant (empty capsid of
bacteriophages) and not in
residue (bacterial cells).
⮚ In the back to pages a labelled with the 32P radioactivity detected in residue (bacterial cells)
and not in supernatant (empty capsids of bacteriophages).
⮚ This confirms that DNA is the genetic material.

Central dogma of molecular biology (1m/2m)

⮚ Proposed by Francis Crick
⮚ It is the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA and RNA to protein

⮚ Genetic information can also flow from DNA to DNA during DNA replication
⮚ In some viruses such as retrovirus genetic information flows from RNA to DNA called reverse
transcription.

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SESSION V

Properties of genetic material (3m/5m)

Material to act as a genetic material must have the following properties
1. Should have it's own replication mechanism
2. Should show the structural stability
3. Should shows the chemical stability
4. Should follow the Mendelian principles
5. Should allow gradual mutation

DNA RNA

Replication DNA has its own replication RNA depends on DNA for its
ability mechanism replication

Structural DNA is double standard that makes RNA is single standard so it is less
stability it more stable than RNA stable than DNA

Upon heating also DNA retired its Upon heating RNA loses its stability
stability as proved by Griffith
experiment

Chemical Absence of oxygen at a second Presence of oxygen at the second

stability carbon of pentose sugar makes DNA carbon of pentose sugar makes RNA
chemically stable and less reactive less stable and more reactive

Presence of the thymine makes DNA Presence of uracil makes RNA less
more stable stable

Mendelian DNA follows mendelian principle as RNA do not follow the Mendelian
principle a factor or allele and principles

Gradual DNA undergoes slow mutation leads RNA undergoes very fast mutation
mutation to evolution leads to fast mutation.

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DNA replication
⮚ DNA replication occurs at S phase of cell cycle
⮚ DNA replication is semiconservative as proposed by Watson
and Crick
⮚ DNA replication begins at the specific site on DNA called as
ori site (origin of replication)
⮚ Helicase enzyme binds at ori site and unwinds the DNA
helix by breaking the backbone and hydrogen bonds.
⮚ Unwinding of DNA forms a replication fork and both DNA
strands act as templates for polymerisation.
⮚ For DNA replication deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
(dNTP's) were used as substrates by DNA polymerase
enzyme.
⮚ dNTP provides energy for polymerisation.
⮚ DNA dependent DNA polymerase III enzyme polymerises the reaction.
⮚ In the beginning of replication, RNA primers were added by RNA primase enzymes and later
DNA polymer enzyme continued the process.
⮚ During replication, in the template strand with the
polarity 3→5 DNA polymerization occurs
continuously
⮚ Whereas in the other strand with a polarity 5→3
DNA polymerisation occurs discontinuously to
form Okazaki fragments.
⮚ Later during a proofreading process RNA
nucleotides were removed and Okazaki fragments
were sealed by DNA ligase enzyme.
⮚ Thus after replication and winding DNA double
strand has one parent and another daughter
strand so called semi conservative DNA
replication.

SESSION VI

Meselson and Stahl experiment (5m)

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⮚ Meselson and Stahl proved DNA replication is semi conservative in prokaryotes.

⮚ The used E. coli bacteria and isotopes of nitrogen such as a heavy isotope 15N and light
isotope 14N.
⮚ Cesium chloride as a density gradient separator.
⮚ They grew E. coli in the media that contains 15N for several generations.
⮚ Now in the bacteria both strand have 15N called as heavy DNA and is considered on 1st
generation.
⮚ Later they transferred those bacteria into the media containing 14N.
⮚ The DNA sample taken after 40 minutes is 2nd generation.
⮚ They found two hybrids and two light DNA- hybrid DNA has both 15N/14N strands. Whereas,
light DNA has both 14N/14N strand
⮚ They centrifuged the DNA in cesium chloride to prove DNA replicates semiconservatively.

Taylor's experiment (3m)

⮚ He proved DNA replication is semiconservative in eukaryotes.
⮚ He used the plant Vicia faba (faba beans) belonging to Fabaceae.
⮚ He used radioactive thymidine.
⮚ He found parental strands do not show radioactivity but daughter strands showed
radioactivity so it proved DNA replication is semiconservative in eukaryotes.

SESSION VII

Transcription and translation

⮚ Transcription is the process of copying of genetic information from one strand of DNA to
RNA
Or it is the synthesis of RNA from DNA
⮚ Transcription occurs at the cytoplasm in prokaryotes and within the nucleus in eukaryotes.

Transcription unit (3m)

⮚ Transcription occurs on a fragment of DNA called transcription unit.

⮚ Each and every gene has its own transcription unit.
⮚ Transcription unit consisting of promoter, terminator and structural gene.
⮚ Transcription unit consisting of two strands of DNA.
⮚ One of the strands has 3' →5' polarity called as template strand.
⮚ Another strand with the polarity 5' →3' is called as coding strand.
⮚ Only template strands undergos transcription to produce mRNA.
⮚ Coding strand do not code for anything.
⮚ Promoter is present towards the upstream of the coding strand.
⮚ Terminator is present towards the downstream of the coding strand.

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Transcription in prokaryotes (5m)
⮚ Transcription has a three steps
● initiation
● elongation
● termination

Initiation
⮚ With the help of the sigma factor RNA polymerase enzyme binds to the promoter to initiate
the transcription.
⮚ RNA polymerase enzyme unwinds the DNA helix and begins to add the respective RNA
nucleotides based on the complementarity of the template strand.

Elongation
⮚ After the initiation of transcription, the sigma
factor falls off.
⮚ RNA polymerase enzyme polymerise the reaction
in the direction 5→3
⮚ This enzyme adds the RNA nucleotide until it
reaches the terminator.
⮚ Newly synthesized RNA still attached to the enzyme at 3' end.
Termination
⮚ When an RNA polymerase enzyme is
supposed to reach the terminator, the Rho
factor binds to the enzyme to terminate the
transcription.
⮚ When the polymerase enzyme reaches the
terminator sequence, newly synthesized
RNA separates from the transcription unit
that terminates the transcription.
SESSION VIII
Post transcription process (3m/5m)
⮚ In eukaryotes instead of mRNA, hnRNA is synthesised during transcription.
⮚ This hnRNA is converted into mRNA during the post transcription process that occurs within
the nucleus.
⮚ hnRNA consists of an expressed sequence called exons and an intervening sequence called
introns.
⮚ During the post transcriptional process introns were removed and exons were joined to
form mRNA
It has three steps
1. Capping
2. Tailing
3. Splicing
Capping - Addition of Methyl Guanosine Triphosphate ( mGppp) towards 5' end of hnRNA is called
capping.
Tailing - Addition of adenylate molecules towards the 3' end of hnRNA without a template is called
tailing.

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⮚ 200 to 300 molecules of adenylates were added to form poly A chain.
Splicing
⮚ Removal of introns
and joining of exons in
hnRNA is called
splicing.
⮚ After splicing mature
mRNA is produced.
⮚ This process is
catalyzed by the
spliceosome complex.

RNA world
In living organisms many
processes revolve around RNA
such as
⮚ Protein synthesis
⮚ enzyme production
⮚ splicing
⮚ RNA can also act as an enzyme/ catalyst called ribozyme.
⮚ RNA act as adaptor molecule
⮚ Based on the above we can say RNA is the first genetic material

Types of RNA
⮚ mRNA - messanger RNA
⮚ tRNA - transfer RNA
⮚ rRNA - ribosomal RNA
⮚ hnRNA – heterogenous nuclear RNA
⮚ snRNA – small nuclear RNA

SESSION IX

mRNA
Messenger RNA
⮚ mRNA brings the genetic information for protein synthesis
⮚ Sequence of amino acids in protein is a decided by mRNA
⮚ mRNA is linear always
⮚ prokaryotes mRNA doesnot have mGppp and poly A chain
⮚ Eukaryotes mRNA have mGppp and poly A chain

tRNA
⮚ tRNA is transfer RNA
⮚ It brings amino acids for translation
⮚ tRNA is act like adaptor molecule
⮚ In one hand it reads the codes on mRNA and on the other hand it brings amino acids

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Structure for tRNA
⮚ tRNA structure was proposed by Robert Holley.
⮚ tRNA as clover leaf structure
⮚ According to the clover leaf model, tRNA has a three loop
DHU loop TψC loop anticodon loop.
⮚ DHU loop - This loop helps to recognise the enzyme
required for charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.
⮚ TψC loop - this loop helps to recognise larger subunits of
the ribosome during the translation.
⮚ Anticodon loop- This loop interacts with mRNA during
the translation.
⮚ It has a complementary bases for mRNA
⮚ Opposite to the anticodon loop is the arm.
⮚ There are two arms: short term (5') and long arm (3').
⮚ To the long arm, amino acid binds during the charging of trna
rRNA
⮚ Ribosomes are made up of different kinds of rRNA.
⮚ Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes and eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes.
⮚ In prokaryotes all the types of rRNA were produced by a single RNA polymerase enzyme.
⮚ In the case of eukaryotes there is a division of labour to synthesize the types of RNA.
⮚ There are three different types of RNA polymers enzymes present in eukaryotes.
⮚ RNA polymerase I can synthesise rRNA (5.8S, 18S, 28S rRNA)
⮚ RNA polymerase II can synthesise hnRNA (precursor for mRNA).
⮚ RNA polymerase III can synthesise tRNA, snRNA, 5SrRNA.

SESSION X
Genetic code
⮚ Genetic code is the language of genes.
⮚ There are 20 amino acids coaded by 4 nucleotides AUGC.
⮚ Concept of triplet codon was given by a physicist George Gamow.
⮚ Three scientists contributed to deciphering the genetic code is triplet.
⮚ Har Govind Khorana- artificially synthesized gene in the lab
⮚ Severo Ochoa- Ochoa enzyme Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzyme it can synthesize
mRNA without template
⮚ Marshall Nirenberg -deciphered the codon for all amino acids and constructed a codon
table.

Properties of genetic code or codon (5m)

1. Codon is triplet- there are 64 codons, among them 61 are active and the three are stop
codons.
2. Codon is degenerate- One amino acid is coded by multiple triplet codons. Ex. serine and
argenine coded by six triplet codons each.
3. Codon is unambiguous- one triplet codon code for one specific amino acid. Ex. UUU
Code only for phenyl alanine and not for any other amino acids.
4. Codons are contiguous - Codons are contiguous without overlapping and punctuations.
5. Codons are universal- codons are universal except for mitochondria and some ciliated
protozoans.
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6. There is one start codon or initiator codon AUG and three stop codons UAG, UGA and
UAA.

SESSION XI
Translation (5m)
⮚ It is the process of a synthesis of protein.
⮚ Both in prokaryotes and eukaryotes this process occurs at cytoplasm.
Steps in translation
1. Charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA
2. Formation of initiation complex
3. Elongation
4. Termination

Charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA

⮚ Specific amino acid binds to specific at tRNA by using one ATP with the help of an enzyme
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase. This process is called as charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of
tRNA.

Formation of initiation complex

⮚ Smaller subunit of ribosome binds at initiator codon AUG of mRNA.
⮚ Larger subunit of ribosome has three site EPA sites.
⮚ Later, the larger subunit of the ribosome along with the charged tRNA carries methionine
binds to smaller subunit to form initiation complex.
⮚ First tRNA binds at A site

Elongation
⮚ In the beginning, first charged tRNA shifted to P site, second charged tRNA binds to A site.
⮚ Peptide bond created between 1 st and 2nd amino acids by the enzyme peptidyl transferase
present at P site.
⮚ Ribosome move on mRNA in the direction 5'→3'
⮚ When ribosome move on mRNA first tRNA shifted to E site, second tRNA shifted to P site
and third tRNA binds to A site.
⮚ Peptide bond created between second and third Amino acids.
⮚ Later the first tRNA exit from the complex.
⮚ This process continues with the help of elongation factor until the ribosome reaches the
stop codon.
⮚ During the process a long chain of polypeptide or protein is synthesized.

Termination
⮚ When the ribosome reaches the stop codon UAA or UAG or UGA no tRNA binds to A site.
⮚ Instead, releasing factor RF binds at A site that terminates the translation.
⮚ Newly synthesised polypeptide chain, ribosomal subunits, mRNA are separated.

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SESSION XII
Mutation (2m)
⮚ Change in genetic composition or nucleotide sequence is called mutation
⮚ Point mutation- mutation occurs with respect to change in single nucleotide or single base
pair.
⮚ Frameshift mutation- addition or deletion of one or more nucleotides changes the reading
frame on mRNA called frameshift mutation.
Gene regulation
Gene regulation occurs at different level in eukaryotes
1. Transcriptional level
2. Post transcription level or processing level
3. Transportation level – transportation of mRNA into cytoplasm
4. Translation level
Gene regulation in prokaryotes
⮚ In prokaryotes gene regulation occurs with the help of proteins
⮚ Gene regulation in prokaryotes was first studied in E. coli
⮚ Jacob and Monod studied gene regulation in prokaryotes and proposed lac operon model.
Lac operon
⮚ It is the arrangement of lac genes in a specific order.
⮚ Based on the requirement lac genes can switch off or switch on
⮚ Switch on and switch off is based on the presence of lactose in the medium

In the absence of lactose

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⮚ I

⮚
⮚
⮚
⮚

⮚ In the absence of lactose i gene undergoes transcription and translation to produce active
repressor protein
⮚ Active repressor protein now binds to the operator and blocks it.
⮚ RNA polymerase enzymes bind to the promoter but due to blockage of the operator it is
unable to transcribe lac genes so the mechanism is switched off.
In the presence of lactose

⮚ In the presence of lactose also i gene undergoes transcription and translation to produce
repressor protein.
⮚ Since lactose is present in the media, bacteria absorb a very few lactose molecules that bind
to repressor protein to make it inactive.
⮚ Inactive repressor protein unable to bind to operator.
⮚ RNA polymerase enzyme binds to promoter and transcribes lac genes to produce lac mRNA.
⮚ Lac mRNA undergoes a translation to produce three enzymes
⮚ Z gene produces beta galactosidase
⮚ Y gene produces parmease
⮚ A gene produces transacetylase
⮚ Permease increases the permeability to lactose and more lactose absorbed by the bacteria.
⮚ Beta galactosidase with the help of Transacetylase hydrolysis the lactose into galactose and
glucose.
⮚ Thus the mechanism is switched on.
⮚ Lactose is an inducer that induces switch on by making repressor protein inactive and lac
operon is an example for negative regulation
⮚ Negative regulation occurs in the presence of repressor protein.

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Functional unit of a gene is called a cistron.
⮚ Prokaryotes gene is polycistronic, since it produces more than one protein.
⮚ Eukaryotic gene is monocistronic since it produces one protein per mRNA.
Split genes
⮚ Eukaryotic gene is called split genes because it produces RNA (hnRNA) that contains exons
and introns.

HUMAN GENOMIC PROJECT:

 Genetic make-up of an organism or an individual lies in the DNA sequences.

 Two individual differs in their DNA sequences at least in some places.
 Finding out the complete DNA sequence of human genome.
 Sequencing human genome was launched in 190.

Goals of HGP:
 Identify all the approximately 20.000 – 25000 genes in human DNA.
 Determine the sequence of all 3 billion chemical base pairs.
 Store this information in data bases.
 Improve tools for data analysis.
 Transfer related technologies to other sectors, such as industries.
 Address the ethical, legal, and social issues (ELSI) that may arise from the project.

Methodology:
 To identify all the genes that expressed as RNA referred asExpressed Sequence Tags
(ETSs).
 Simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-
coding sequence, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions
calledSequence Annotation.
 The commonly used hosts for sequencing were bacteria and yeast and vectors were
called as BAC (bacterial artificial chromosome) and YAC (yeast artificial chromosome).
Salient features of Human Genome:
 The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
 The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
 The largest known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
 The total number of gene is estimated at 30.000.
 99.9 percent nucleotide base sequences are same in all peoples.
 The function of 50% genes discovered is unknown.
 Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for proteins.
 Repeated sequences make up very large portion of human genome.
 Chromosome I has most genes (2968) and the Y has the fewest (231).
 It is identified about 1.4 million locations where single-base DNA differences (SNPs –
single nucleotide polymorphism) occurs in humans.

DNA FINGER PRINTING:

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 DNA finger printing is a very quick way to compare the DNA sequences of any two
individual.
 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA called
repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many
times.
 During centrifugation the bulk DNA forms major peak and the other small peaks are
called satellite DNA.
 Depending on base composition (A:T rich or G:C rich), length of segment, and number of
repetitive units, the satellite DNA classified into many types, such as mini –satellite and
micro – satellite.
 These sequences dose not code for any proteins.
 These sequences show high degree of polymorphism and form basis of DNA
fingerprinting.
 Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of genetic mapping of human genome as
well as of DNA fingerprinting.

Polymorphism (variation at genetic level) arises due to mutations.

 If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency it is referred as
DNA polymorphism.

The process:
 DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.
 He used satellite DNA as the basis of DNA fingerprinting that shows very high degree of
polymorphism. It was called as Variable Number Tandem Repeats.(VNTR)

Different steps of DNA fingerprinting are:-

 Isolation of DNA.
 Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
 Separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis.
 Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon.
 Double stranded DNA made single stranded.
 Hybridization using labeled VNTR probe.
 Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by autoradiography.
 The VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA referred to as mini-satellite.
 The size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20 kb.
 After hybridization with VNTR probe the autoradiogram gives many bands of different
sizes. These bands give a characteristic pattern for an individual DNA. It differs from
individual to individual.
 The DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting.

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Applications:
 Test of paternity.
 Identify the criminals.
 Population diversity determination.
 Determination of genetic diversity.

MCQs
1. Genome is
(1) A haploid set of chromosomes found in each nucleus of a given species
(2) The diploid set of chromosomes in an individual
(3) The total number of genes on a chromosome
(4) The total number of chromosomes found in an individual
2. Polyploidy can be induced in individuals by
(1) Auxins (2) Gibberellins (3) Kinetin (4) Colchicine
3. Nucleic acid was first isolated from pus cells by
(1) Freidrich Meischer (2) Altmann (3) Waldeyer (4) Hoffmeister
4. The distance between the two strands of DNA is
(1) 20 Å (2) 34 Å (3) 3.4 Å (4) 10 Å
5. Each nucleoside consists of
(1) A base and a sugar (2) A base and a phosphate
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(3) A sugar and a phosphate (4) A base, a sugar and a phosphate
6. The two strands of DNA are linked by hydrogen bonds established by
(1) A - T, G – C (2) A - G, T – C (3) A - C, G – T (4) A - U, G - C
7. In a DNA molecule,
(1) A + G = T + C (2) A + T = G + C (3) A + C = T + G (4) A + U = G + C
8. Chargaff's rule is applicable to
(1) Single stranded DNA (2) Double stranded DNA
(3) Single stranded RNA (4) Single stranded RNA and DNA
9. Adenosine monophosphate is a
(1) Nucleotide of DNA (2) Nucleoside of DNA
(3) Nucleotide of RNA (4) Nucleoside of RNA
10. Pyrimidines in RNA are
(1) Adenine & guanine (2) Uracil & cytosine
(3) Thymine & cytosine (4) Adenine & uracil
11. Identify the pair of nucleotides which are joined by three hydrogen bonds in double
stranded DNA
(1) AG (2) AT (3) TG (4) CG
12. Identify the pair of nucleotides which are joined by two hydrogen bonds in double stranded
DNA
(1) AG (2) AT (3) TG (4) CG
13. In a double stranded DNA which has 15% Adenine, there will be
(1) 15% cytosine (2) 35% cytosine (3) 85% cytosine (4) 30% cytosine
14. Identify the group which contains only pyrimidines
(1) Adenine, cytosine (2) Uracil, cytosine
(3) Guanine, uracil, cytosine (4) adenine, guanine
15. Which of the following is a nucleoside?
(1) Adenosine (2) Adenine (3) Deoxy adenylic acid (4) Adenylic acid
16. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide, where it lacks
(1) Nitrogen base (2) Pentose sugar (3) Phosphate group (4) Hydroxyl group
17. The base that is not found in DNA, but found in RNA is
(1) Thymine (2) Uracil (3) Adenine (4) Guanine
18. In the DNA of Φ × 174 bacteriophage, there are
(1) 48502 base pairs (2) 5386 nucleotides
6
(3) 4.6 × 10 base pairs (4) 3.3 ×10 9 base pairs
19. In the DNA of lambda bacteriophage, there are
(1) 48502 base pairs (2) 5386 nucleotides
6
(3) 4.6 ×10 base pairs (4) 3.3 ×10 9 base pairs
20. In the DNA Escherichia coli, there are
(1) 48502 base pairs (2) 5386 nucleotides
6
(3) 4.6 ×10 base pairs (4) 3. 3 ×10 9 base pairs
21. In the haploid content of human DNA, there are
(1) 48502 base pairs (2) 5386 nucleotides
6
(3) 4.6 ×10 base pairs (4) 3.3 ×10 9 base pairs
22. In the diploid content of human DNA, there are
(1) 48502 base pairs (2) 5386 nucleotides
6
(3) 4.6 ×10 base pairs (4) 6.×10 9 base pairs
23. A nitrogenous base in DNA is linked to the pentose sugar through a
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(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond (3) N-glycosidic bond (4) Phosphoester bond
24. The nucleotides in DNA are linked through 3’-5’
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Peptide bond (3) N-glycosidic bond (4) Phosphodiester bond
25. The backbone in a dsDNA molecule is formed due to
(1) Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate (2) Nitrgenous base pairs
(3) Ribose sugar and phosphate (4) Adenine and guanine
26. The pitch of the helix of a DNA molecule is
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 3.4 nm (3) 34 nm (4) 20 Ǻ
27. The distance between two base pairs in DNA helix is
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 3.4 nm (3) 34 nm (4) 20 Ǻ
28. There are roughly ________ base pairs in each turn in DNA molecule.
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12
29. If a length of DNA has 45,000 base pairs, how many complete turns will the DNA molecule
take?
(1) 450 (2) 45 (3) 45,000 (4) 4,500
30. Histones are organized to form ______ molecules in each nucleosome of a DNA molecule.
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10
31. Histones present in DNA are rich in
(1) Thymine & cytosine (2) Ribose & deoxyribose
(3) Arginine & lysine (4) Adenine & guanine
32. The region of euchromatin is
(1) Loosely packed and darkly stained (2) Loosely packed and lightly stained
(2) Densely packed and darkly stained (4) Densely packed and lightly stained
33. The region of heterochromatin is
(1) Loosely packed and darkly stained (2) Loosely packed and lightly stained
(3) Densely packed and darkly stained (4) Densely packed and lightly stained
34. The densely packed and darkly stained chromatin is known as
(1) Euchromatin (2) Heterochromatin
(3) Sister chromatid (4) Non-sister chromatid
35. In Griffith’s experiment, mice died when they were injected with _____ of Streptococcus
pneumoniae.
(1) ‘R’ strain (2) Heat killed ‘R’ strain (3) ‘S’ strain (4) Heat killed ‘S’ strain
36. Griffith used __________ for his experiment.
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae (2) Escherichia coli
(3) QB bacteriophage (4) Tobacco mosaic virus
37. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments
conducted on bacteriophage by
(1) Sutton & Boveri (2) Hershey & Chase
(3) Messelson & Stahl (4) Avery & MacLeod
38. What is the correct sequence of Hershey-Chase experiment?
(1) Infection – Centrifugation – Blending (2) Centrifugation – Blending – Infection
(3) Infection – Blending – Centrifugation (4) Centrifugation – Infection – Blending
39. Additional stability to DNA when compared to RNA is due to the presence of
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine (3) Thymine (4) Cytosine
40. A typical nucleosome of a DNA molecule contains
(1) 160 base pairs (2) 180 base pairs (3) 200 base pairs (4) 220 base pairs
41. Of the following statements, which one is true ?
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(1) DNA is single stranded, RNA is double stranded
(2) There is only one type of RNA, whereas there are many types of DNA
(3) DNA synthesises RNA, but RNA generally cannot synthesise DNA
(4) DNA bases are A, G, C and U and RNA has A, G, C and T
42. Information transfer from DNA to RNA is
(1) Replication (2) Translation (3) Transcription (4) Reverse transcription
43. RNA and DNA are similar in that they
(1) Are double stranded (2) Are polynucleotide chains
(3) Have similar pentose sugars (4) Have similar pyrimidines
44. RNA is found
(1) Only in cytoplasm (2) Only in nucleoplasm
(3) Both in cytoplasm and nucleoplasm (4) Only in chromosomes
45. RNA is the genetic material in
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) QB bacteriophage/Tobacco mosaic virus (4) T 4 bacteriophage
46. Information transfer from RNA to DNA is called
(1) Replication (2) Translation (3) Transcription (4) Reverse transcription
47. Information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm is conveyed by
(1) rRNA (2) mRNA (3) tRNA (4) hnRNA
48. The adaptor RNA/soluble RNA molecule is
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA (3) rRNA (4) snRNA
49. The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA was provided by
(1) Sutton & Bover (2) Hershey & Chase (3) Messelson & Stahl (4) Avery & MacLeod
50. Messelson and Stahl used ________ for their experiment to show semi-conservative
replication.
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae (2) Escherichia coli
(3) QB bacteriophage (4) Lambda bacteriophage
51. Messelson and Stahl used ________ in the medium for their experiment.
(1) Ammonium chloride (2) Lactose (3) Glucose (4) Galactose
52. Which among the following is not a radioactive isotope?
14
(1) ❑ C (2) ❑15 N (3) ❑35 S (4) ❑32 P
53. Taylor and his colleagues used radioactive thymidine to detect the distribution of newly
synthesized DNA during replication in
(1) Vicia faba (2) Escherichia coli
(3) Streptococcus pneumoniae (4) Caenorhabditis elegans
54. Replication of DNA requires
(1) DNA polymerase and DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase only
(3) DNA polymerase and translocase (4) DNA ligase only
55. The unwinding of DNA duplex is performed by an enzyme called
(1) Lactase (2) Gyrase (3) Maltase (4) Ligase
56. When DNA replication starts
(1) The leading strand produces okazaki fragments
(2) The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break
(3) The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break
(4) The bonds between the nitrogen bases and deoxyribose sugar break
57. In DNA replication, discontinuously synthesized DNA fragments are later joined by
(1) DNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase (3) Gyrase (4) Helicase
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58. `Okazaki fragments’ are segments of DNA
(1) Capable of protein synthesis (2) Capable of recombination
(3) Formed during DNA duplication (4) Capable of mutation
59. During replication in a bacterial cell, in the absence of ligase enzyme
(1) Accumulation of Okazaki fragments occurs (2) The DNA molecule will not unwind
(3) Replicatioin is not at all initiated (4) Replication becomes continuous
60. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are found in the lagging strand so as to
(1) Increase the RNA primer facility
(2) Facilitate the functioning of DNA polymerase from 5’ to 3’ end
(3) Facilitate the replication fork formation
(4) Facilitate the polymerase functioning from 3’ to 5’ end
61. DNA replication is semi-conservative because
(1) Only one of the parent strands acts as template
(2) Both the strands of the new molecule that are synthesized are new
(3) One of the strands in each molecule synthesized is parental and the other new
(4) The daughter strands synthesized are dispersive
62. Hershey was awarded Nobel prize in 1969 for proving
(1) X – ray crystallographic technique (2) Helical coiling of DNA
(3) DNA as genetic material (4) Semi-conservative DNA replication
63. Central dogma of protein synthesis is the flow of information from
(1) Proteins → RNA → DNA (2) DNA → proteins →RNA
(3) DNA → RNA → proteins (4) RNA →DNA→ proteins
64. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the following three regions in the DNA
(1) A promoter, a terminator and the structural gene
(2) A regulator, a terminator and the structural gene
(3) An operator, a regulator and the structural gene
(4) An operator, a promoter and the structural gene
65. The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as
(1) Replication (2) Transcription (3) Translation (4) Duplication
66. If one strand of DNA has nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA strand sequence?
(1) TTAGU (2) UAGAC (3) AACTG (4) ATCGU
67. If the nucleotide sequence in the coding strand of a transcription unit is 5’ ACTTCGCAAGGTC
3’, then the sequence of nucleotides on the mRNA will be
(1) 5’ TGAAGCGTTCCAG 3’ (2) 5’ UGAAGCGUUCCAG 3’
(3) 3’ TGAAGCGTTCCAG 5’ (4) 3’ UGAAGCGUUCCAG 5’
68. The segment of DNA coding for a polypeptides in prokaryotes is
(1) Monocistronic (2) Polycistronic (3) Regulator (4) Operon
69. The coding sequences or the expressed sequences of a gene are called
(1) Introns (2) Exons (3) Cistrons (4) Operons
70. The non-coding sequences or the sequences of a gene which are not expressed are called
(1) Introns (2) Exons (3) Cistrons (4) Operons
71. After transcription of mRNA, splicing takes place to eliminate
(1) Exons (2) Introns (3) Operons (4) Cistrons
72. In eukaryotes, genes are split because of
(1) Polycistronic DNA (2) Monocistronic DNA
(3) Exons inturrupted by introns (4) Introns interrupted by operons
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73. DNA dependant RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization in only one direction, that is
(1) 5’ → 3’ (2) 3’ → 5’ (3) Both the directions (4) None of the above
74. The process of transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to DNA at the region of
(1) Operator (2) Regulator (3) Repressor (4) Promoter
75. Reverse transcription results in the synthesis of
(1) cDNA (2) mRNA (3) tRNA (4) rRNa
76. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except a
(1) Polypeptide chain (2) mRNA strand
(3) rRNA strand (4) Complementary DNA strand
77. RNA polymerase II transcribes
(1) hnRNA/precursor mRNA (2) tRNA
(3) 28SrRNA/18SrRNA/5.8SrRNA (4) snRNA
78. RNA polymerase III transcribes
(1) hnRNA (2) tRNA/5SrRNA/snRNA (3) 23SrRNA (4) 18SrRNA
79. RNA polymerase I transcribes
(1) hnRNA (2) tRNA (3) 5SrRNA/snRNA (4) rRNA (28S, 18S, 5.8S)
80. rRNA (28S, 18S, 5.8S) is transcribed by the enzyme
(1) RNA polymerase I (2) RNA polymerase II
(3) RNA polymerase III (4) Transcriptase
81. hnRNA (precursor mRNA) is transcribed by the enzyme
(1) RNA polymerase I (2) RNA polymerase II
(3) RNA polymerase III (4) Transcriptase
82. tRNA/5srRNA/snRNA is transcribed by the enzyme
(1) RNA polymerase I (2) RNA polymerase II
(3) RNA polymerase III (4) Transcriptase
83. The region/sequence of transcription unit that undergoes transcription is
(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene (3) Terminator (4) Regulator
84. During transcription, capping refers to the addition of
(1) Adenylate residues at 3’ end (2) Adenylate residues at 5’ end
(3) Methyl guanosine triphosphate at 3’ end
(4) Methyl guanosine triphosphate at 5’ end
85. The function of mRNA is to
(1) Carry amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
(2) Synthesise a new molecule of DNA
(3) Act as a template for the synthesis of a protein (4) Manufacture new ribosomes
86. The functional unit of a gene which directs the synthesis of a polypeptide chain during
protein synthesis is called
(1) Exon (2) Operon (3) Intron (4) Cistron
87. The scientist who suggested that genetic code should be made up of three nucleotides is
(1) Har Gobind Khorana (2) George Gamow (3) Severo Ochoa (4) Francois Jacob
88. A codon is a sequence of
(1) Three nucleotides on a DNA strand (2) Three nucleotides on mRNA strand
(3) Three nucleotides on rRNA strand (4) Three nucleotides on tRNA strand
89. Severo Ochoa enzyme is
(1) RNA polymerase (2) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) ß-galactosidase
90. NODOC is
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(1) A unit of three nucleotides on tRNA (2) A unit of three nucleotides on mRNA
(3) Amino acid binding site in the ribosome
(4) The initiation factor required for protein synthesis
91. Genetic code is degenerate because
(1) A single triplet codon recognises different amino acids
(2) A single amino acid is recognized by different triplet codons
(3) Triplet codons undergo degeneration during translation
(4) Triplet codons undergo reduction during translation
92. In genetic coding, triplet codons make possible 64 types of codons. A doublet codon system
would have made possible
(1) 64 type of codons (2) 4 types of codons
(3) 24 types of codon (4) 16 types of codons
93. There are 64 codons in the genetic dictionary as
(1) There are 64 different types of tRNA
(2) There are 3 non-sense codons & 61 sense codons
(3) Genetic code has a triplet nature (4) There are 64 amino acids to be coded
94. A group of 3 nitrogenous bases in tRNA which can recognise a code on mRNA is called
(1) A genetic node (2) Anticodon (3) Triplet codon (4) A doublet codon
95. The triplet codon AUG codes for the amino acid
(1) Phenyl alanine (2) Methionine (3) Lysine (4) Arginine
96. The triplet codon UUU codes for the amino acid
(1) Phenyl alanine (2) Methionine (3) Lysine (4) Arginine
97. The triplet codon which has dual functions is
(1) UAA (2) UAG (3) UGA (4) AUG
98. During protein synthesis, AUG functions as the initiator codon in mRNA. What should be the
anticodon on the tRNA molecule that picks up methionine specified by this codon?
(1) UAC (2) TAC (3) CAU (4) GUA
99. The sequence of events mentioned below are symbolized by alphabets. Choose the correct
answer where the alphabets are matched with the processes.

(1) A – reverse transcription, B – replication, C – transcription, D – translation

(2) A – replication, B – transformation, C – transcription, D – translation
(3) A – reverse transcription, B – translation, C – transcription, D – replication
(4) A – replication, B – transcription, C – translation, D – transduction
100. All the terminator codons begin with the nucleotide
(1) Adenine (2) Uracil (3) Guanine (4) Cytosine
101. The function of UAA / UAG / UGA (non-sense codon) is to
(1) Initiate translation (2) initiate transcription
(3) Stop protein synthesis (4) Form amino acid
102. The terminator codons/stop codons are
(1) UAU, UAC, UCU (2) UGU, UGC, UGG (3) UAA, UAG, UGA (4) UCC, UCA, UCG
103. The process of polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide chain is called
(1) Transcription (2) Replication (3) Translation (4) Duplication
104. Amino acid binding site in tRNA is
(1) 5’ end (2) Anticodon loop (3) CCA 3’ end (4) DHU loop
105. CCA 3' end of tRNA is called
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(1) Anticodon loop (2) DHU loop (3) Amino acid binding site (4) T ψ C loop
106.In bacteria, ________ acts as an enzyme (ribozyme) during translation
(1) 18S rRNA (2) snRNA (3) 5.8S rRNA (4) 23S rRNA
107. During translation in eukaryotes, the anticodon to be aligned with the initiator codon is
(1) 5’ UAC 3’ (2) 3’ UAC 5’ (3) 5’ UCA 3’ (4) 3’ CAU 3’
108. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease is called
(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Night blindness (3) Down’s syndrome (4) Turner’s syndrome
109. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a portion of a coding strand of DNA was 5' AAT GCT TAG
GCA3’. What will be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the corresponding region of the
transcripted mRNA ?
(1) 3’ UUT CGA ATC CGT 3’ (2) 3’ AAT GCT TAG GCA 3’
(3) 5’ UUA CGA AUC CGU 3’ (4) 5’ AAU CGA AUC CGU 3’
110. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a portion of the template strand of DNA was 3’ AAT GCT
TAG GCA 5’. What will be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the corresponding region of the
transcripted mRNA ?
(1) 3’ UUT CGA ATC CGT 3’ (2) 3’ AAT GCT TAG GCA 3’
(3) 5’ UUA CGA AUC CGU 3’ (4) 5’ AAU CGA AUC CGU 3’
111.The sequence of nitrogen bases in a particular region of the non-coding strand of a DNA
molecule was found to be 5’ CAT GTT TAT CGG 3’. What would be the sequence of nitrogen
bases in the mRNA that is synthesised by the corresponding region of the template strand in
that DNA?
(1) 3’ GUA CAA AUA GCC 5’ (2) 3’ GTA CAA ATA GCC 5’
(3) 3’ CAU GUU UAU CGC 5’ (4) 5’ GUA CAA AUA GCC 3’
112. The sequence of structural genes in Lac – operon concept is
(1) lac z, lac y, lac a (2) lac y, lac z, lac a (3) lac a, lac z, lac y (4) lac a, lac y, lac z
113. According to `Operon concept’ of gene action, a regulator sequence forms
(1) An inducer (2) A repressor molecule (3) 3 promoter peptide 4) A general inhibitor
114. The structural gene ‘z’ in lac-Operon of Escherichia coli codes for
(1) β - galactosidase (2) Lactose permease
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
115. The structural gene ‘y’ in lac-Operon of Escherichia coli codes for
(1) β - galactosidase (2) Galactoside permease
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
116. The structural gene ‘a’ in lac-Operon of Escherichia coli codes for
(1) β - galactosidase (2) Lactose permease
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
117. The regulatory gene ‘i’ in lac-Operon of Escherichia coli codes for
(1) β - galactosidase (2) Lactose permease
(3) Repressor protein (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
118. This is not produced by E. coli in lactose medium
(1) β - galactosidase (2) Lactose permease
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
119.The enzyme that is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of lactose into glucose and
galactose in Escherichia coli is
(1) β - galactosidase (2) Lactose permease
(3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase
120. Which one of the following in not a component of Lac – operon?
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(1) Primer sequence (2) Regulator sequence
(3) Promoter sequence (4) Structural gene
121. In the operon system, the repressor protein can bind only with the
(1) Structural genes (2) Regulator sequence
(3) Operator sequence (4) Promoter sequence
122. According to the lac – operon concept, which functional unit of the bacterial genetic
material is responsible for suppressing the activity of the operator gene in the absence of
lactose?
(1) Structural gene (2) Regulator gene (3) Repressor protein (4) Promoter gene
123. The scientist who is credited for developing a method for determination of amino acid
sequences in proteins is
(1) Severo Ochoa (2) Alec Jeffreys (3) Frederick Sanger (4) George Gamow
124. The human genome contains _______ nucleotide bases.
(1) 3164.7 million (2) 2968 million (3) 1.4 million (4) 2.4 million
125. The largest known human gene dystrophin contains
(1) 1.4 million nucleotide bases (2) 2.4 million nucleotide bases
(3) 3.4 million nucleotide bases (4) 4.4 million nucleotide bases
126. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by
(1) Severo Ochoa (2) Alec Jeffreys (3) Frederick Sanger (4) George Gamow
127. The technique of DNA analysis which is used in forensic science is
(1) Agarose gel electrophoresis (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) DNA fingerprinting (4) ELISA
128. Tandem repeats (VNTRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in
(1) rDNA technology (2) DNA profiling (3) somatic hybridisation (4) Gen therapy
129. A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed parentage is
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) DNA finger printing
(3) Monoclonal antibody production (4) Recombinant DNA technology
130. Blood stains are found at the site of a murder. If DNA profiling technique is to be used for
identifying the criminal, which of the following is ideal for use ?
(1) Serum (2) Erythrocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Platelets
131. Which of the following is employed to fragment DNA in fingerprinting?
(1) Reverse transcription (2) DNA polymerase
(3) Restriction endonuclease (4) EcoR I
132. In gel electrophoresis, the differential mobility of DNA depends on
(1) Helical nature of DNA (2) Double stranded nature of DNA
(3) Charge and size of DNA (4) Hydrogen bonding between bases
133. One of the following is a major requirement for DNA finger printing;
(1) Elution (2) ELISA (3) Electrophoresis (4) Splicing
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Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the four nitrobases present in DNA.
2. Mention the four nitrobases present in RNA.
3. List the nucleosides of DNA.
4. Mention the nucleosides of RNA.
5. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, calculate the percent of adenine in the DNA.
6. Explain the central dogma of molecular biology with a schematic representation.
7. Draw a labeled diagram of nucleosome.
8. Mention two differences between euchromatin and heterochromatin.
9. How many base pairs of DNA are present in a typical nucleosome? Mention the types of proteins
present in a nucleosome.
10. Write the conclusion that can be drawn from Griffith’s experiment.
11. Mention any two criteria that a molecule must fulfill to act as genetic material.
12. DNA is a better genetic material than RNA. Justify with two reasons.
13. Mention the functions of DNA polymerase and DNA ligase during replication.
14. Draw a labeled diagram of replication fork.
15. “Both the strands of DNA molecule do not act as templates during transcription”. Justify with
two reasons.
16. Write the schematic structure of a transcriptional unit.
17. Write any two differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription unit.
18. Differentiate monocistronic transcriptional unit from polycistronic transcriptional.
19. Differentiate introns and exons.
20. Differentiate template strand from a coding strand in DNA.
21. Write the coding strand and the sequence of base on mRNA synthesized by DNA template with
the sequence 3’-ATGCATAGCAT-5’.
22. Write a note on the role of sigma factor and the rho factor in transcription in prokaruotes.
23. What is heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)? How is it converted into functional mRNA?
24. Mention the functions of mRNA and rRNA.
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25. Mention the functions of mRNA and tRNA.
26. Mention the functions of rRNA and tRNA.
27. In bacteria, translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed. Justify with two
reasons.
28. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes.
29. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes.
30. Mention the functions of RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes.
31. With reference to transcription, define splicing and capping.
32. Mention any two differences with reference to transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
33. Define the terms transcription and translation.
34. Name Severo Ochoa enzyme. Mention its function.
35. Explain any two properties of genetic code.
36. Mention the initiator and terminator codons.
37. Name the initiator codon and the amino acid coded by it.
38. “Codon AUG has dual function”. Justify the statement.
39. List the essential roles of ribosome during translation.
40. Differentiate point mutation and frame-shift mutation.
41. What is point mutation? Give an example for a genetic disorder in human beings caused by
point mutaion.
42. Mention the four levels at which regulation of gene expression can be exerted in eukaryotes.
43. Mention the enzymes encoded by lac ‘z’, lac ‘y’ with their function.
44. Mention the role of repressor and inducer in regulation of gene expression.
45. Mention the functions of ß-galactosidase and permease in lactose metabolism in E. coli.
46. How does the Lac-operon function in the absence of inducer (lactose) in the medium?
47. How does the Lac-operon function in the presence of inducer (lactose) in the medium?
48. Mention the role of repressor and inducer in regulation of gene expression.
49. Mention the function of repressor protein. What change occurs when lactose is added to the
medium containing E. coli?
50. In the medium where E.coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the Lac-operon.
Then, why does Lac-operon shut down some time after addition of lactose into the medium.
51. Mention any two goals of Human Genome Project (HGP).
52. Mention the two approaches with respect to the methodology of sequencing DNA in Human
Genome Project.
53. Mention two salient features of human genome.
54. With reference to human genome, what is single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)? Mention its
significance.
55. Mention two applications of Human Genome Project.
56. Mention two common vectors used for the amplification of DNA fragments during the
sequening of human genome.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. The base sequence in one of the DNA strands is TAGCATGAT. Based on this answer the following:
(a) Give the base sequences of its complementary strand.
(b) How are these base pairs held together in a DNA molecule?
(c) What was the observation of Chargaff on the base ratio in double stranded DNA?

2. Explain packaging of DNA in prokaryotes.

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3. The length of a DNA molecule in a typical mammalian cell is calculated to be approximately 2.2
meters. How is the packaging of this long molecule done to accommodate it within the nucleus
having a size of approximately 6µ.
4. List any three criteria that a molecule has to fulfill to act as a genetic material.
5. Why is DNA molecule a more stable genetic material than RNA? Explain.
6. Explain how Avery, MacLeod and McCarty did determine, the biochemical nature of the molecule
responsible for transforming R – strain into S – strain bacteria.
7. Draw a labeled schematic sketch of replication fork of DNA. Explain the role of enzymes involved
in DNA replication.
8. Describe the structure of a transcriptional unit.
9. “RNA polymerases in eukaryotes show a clear cut division of labour”. Substantiate.
10. Explain the function of the following: (a) Promoter (b) tRNA (c) Exons
11. Explain the stages of post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA in eukaryotes.
12. With reference to post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes, explain splicing, capping and
tailing.
13. Given below is a part of the template strand of a structural gene TAC CAT TAG GAT. Based on
this, answer the following:
(a) Write its transcribed mRNA strand with its polarity
(b) Explain the mechanism involved in initiation of transcription on this strand.
14. Draw a schematic representation which shows the structure of a transcription unit and show
the following in it:
(a) Direction in which transcription occurs
(b) Polarity of the two strands involved
(c) Template strand
(d) Terminator
15. Explain non-overlapping nature, unambiguity and degeneracy of genetic code.
16. Explain three features of genetic code.
17. Define the terms point mutation, frame – shift insertion mutation and frame – shift deletion
mutation.
18. Define translation. Mention the initiator codon and three stop codons.
19. Mention the role of ATP and ribosomes in protein synthesis.
20. Why tRNA is called an adapter molecule? Draw the structure of the tRNA adapter molecule
which can bind with initiator codon.
21. Mention the anticodon of AUG. Justify the statement that AUG has dual role in translation.
22. Mention the structural genes of Lac-operon and the ezymes produced by each of them.
23. Draw a diagrammatic sketch of the Lac-operon when lactose is absent in the medium.
24. Draw a diagrammatic sketch of the Lac-operon when lactose is present in the medium.
25. In human genome,
(a) which one of the chromosomes has the most genes and which one has the least?
(b) What is single nucleotide polymorphism? Mention the significance SNPs.
26. Mention the three goals of HGP.
27. Mention any three salient features of HGP.
28. Mention three applications of Human Genome Project.
29. List out three applications of DNA fingerprinting.
30. What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention two of its applications.
31. List the steps of DNA finger printing technique.

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FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain the structure of double helical DNA as proposed by Watson and Crick.
2. Draw the diagram of a nucleosome and explain the packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.
3. Explain Griffith’s transformation experiment which proved that DNA is the genetic material.
4. Describe the experiment of Hershey – Chase which proves that DNA is the genetic material.
5. Explain semi-conservative replication of DNA with a diagram.
6. Describe the experiment of Messelson and Stahl that proves that replication of DNA is semi-
conservative.
7. Explain the structure of transcription unit with a labeled diagram.
8. Describe the process of transcription in bacteria with a labeled diagram.
9. Describe the process of transcription in eukaryotes with a labeled diagram.
10. What is genetic code? Explain any four salient features of genetic code.
11. Explain the different steps involved in translation.
12. Explain Lac-operon concept with diagrams.
13. Mention any five salient features of HGP.
14. What is DNA finger printing? Write the sequential steps involved in DNA fingerprinting. Mention
two applications of this technique.

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CHAPTER : 7

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EVOLUTION
SESSION I

ORIGIN OF LIFE:
 Stellar distances are measured in light years.
 The universe is very old – almost 20 billion years old.
 The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe.

The Big Bang theory:

 A singular huge explosion un imaginable in physical term.
 The universe expanded and hence the temperature came down.
 Hydrogen and Helium formed sometime later.
 The gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present day
universe.
 In the solar system of the Milky Way galaxy, earth was supposed to have been formed
about 4.5 billion years back.

Condition of early earth:

 Earth formed 4.5 billion years back.
 There was no atmosphere on early earth.
 Water vapor, methane, carbon dioxide and ammonia released from molten mass covered
the surface.
 The UV rays from the sun broke up water into Hydrogen and oxygen and lighter H 2
escaped.
 Oxygen combined with ammonia and methane to form water, C O2 and others.
 The ozone layer was formed.
 As it cooled, the water vapor fell as rain, to fill all the depressions and form oceans.
 Life appeared 500 Million years after the formation of earth. Origin of life:
 Early Greek thinkers thought units of life called spores were transferred to different
planets including earth.
 ‘Panspermia’ is still a favorite idea for some astronomers.
 For along time it was also believed that life came out of decaying and rotting matter like
straw, mud etc.This was the theory of spontaneous generation.

Louis Pasteur experiment:

 Careful experimentation demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life.
 He showed that inpre-sterilized flasks, life did not come from killed yeast while in another
flask Open to air, new living organism arose from ‘killedyeast’.
 This disproved the theory of spontaneous generation.

Oparin–Haldane theory of origin of life:

 Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have
come from pre- existing non-living organic molecule(e.g.RNA, proteinetc.).
 Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution i.e. formation of diverse organic
molecule from inorganic constituents.
Urey and Miller experiment:

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The conditions on earth were–

 High temperature.
 Volcanic storms.
 Reducing atmosphere containing C H 4, N H 3 etc.
 In 1953, S.L. Miller an American Scientist created similar conditions in a laboratory
scale.
 He created electric discharge in a closed flask to raise temperature upto 800 0Casit was
in primitive earth.
 UsedC H 4 H 2 , N H 3and water vapor inside the flask.
 He observed the formation of amino acids.

Acceptance of chemical evolution theory: (evidences)

 Miller observed the synthesis of amino acids from simple inorganic chemicals in
simulated conditioninthe laboratory.
 In similar experiments others observed, formation of sugars, nitrogen bases, pigment
and fats.
 Analysis of meteorite contentalsore vealed similar compounds indicating that similar
processes are occurring else where in space.

Theory of biogenesis
 The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back.
 They would have been giant molecules (RNA, proteins, Polysac charides, etc).
 Their molecules perhaps, named as coaservates.
 The first cellular form of life did not possibly originate till about 2000 millions years
ago.
 The first cellular forms of life were probably unicellular.
 All life forms were in water environment only.
 This theory of biogenesis from non-living molecules was accepted by majority.

SESSION II

EVOLUTION OF LIFEFORMS–A THEORY:

 Convention al religious literature tells us about the theory of special creation.
 The theory of special creation has three connotations:-

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 All the living organisms (species types) that we see today were created as such.
 The diversity was always the same since creation and will be same in future.
 Earth is about 4000 years old.

Challenge to special creation theory:

 Observation made during a sea voyage in a sail ship called H.M.S. Beagle round the
world. Charles Darwin concluded that existing life forms share similarities to varying
degrees not only among them selves but also with life forms that millions of years ago.
 Many such life forms exist any more.There had been extinctions of different life forms
in the years gone by just as new forms of life aroseat different periods of history of
earth.
 There has been graduale volution of life forms.
 Any population has built in variation in characteristics.
 Those characteristics which enable some to survive better in natural conditions
(climate,food, physical factors,etc) would outbreed others that are less-endowed to
survive under such natural condition.
 Survival of the fittest. The fitness according to Darwin refers ultimately and only leaves
more progeny than others.
 These, therefore, will survive more and hence are selected by nature. He called it as
natural selection.
 Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who worked in Malay Archipelago had also come to similar
conclusions around the same time.
 The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth.

WHAT ARE EVIDENCES FOR EVOLUTION?

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Paleontologicalevidence:
 Fossils are remained of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks.
 Different-aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-forms who probably died
during the formation of the particular sediment.
 They represent the extinct organisms (e.g. Dinosaurs).
 Study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which they
existed.
 The study showed that life-forms varied over time and certain life forms are restricted to
certaing eological time-span.
 Hence new lives have arisen at different times in the history of earth.
 All this called Paleontological evidence.Comparative anatomy and morphological evidence:
 Comparative anatomy and morphology shows similarities and differences among
organisms of to day and those that existed years ago.
Divergent evolution:
 Whale, bats, cheeta hand human share similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs.
 These fore limbs perform different functions in these animals, they have similar an
atomical structure–allof them have humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and
phalanges in their forelimbs.
 Hence in these animals, the same structure developed along different directions due to
adaptation to
Different needs.
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 This is divergent evolution and these structures are homologous.
 Homology indicates common ancestry.
 Other examples of homologous organare vertebrate hearts and brains.
 Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita represent homology.
Convergent evolution:
 Wings of butterfly and of birds look a like.
 They are anatomically similar structure though they perform similar function.
 Hence analogous structures area result of convergent evolution.
 Eye of octopus and eye of mammals. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins.
 Sweat potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification). Bio chemical evidences:
 Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms
give clues to common ancestry.

SESSION III

Embryological support for evolution:

 Proposed by Ernst Heckel based upon observation of certain features during embryonic
stage common to all vertebrates that are absent in adult.
 The embryos of all vertebrates including human develop arow of vestigial gillsl its just
behind the head but it is a functional organonly infish and not found in any other adult
vertebrates.
 This is disproved on careful study performed by Karl Ernstvon Baer. Henoted that embryos
never pass through the adult stages of other animals.

Evolution by natural selection:

 Based on observation of moth population in England made in 1850.
 Before industrialization set in, it was observed that there were more white – winged moths
on trees than dark- winged or melanised moths.
 After industrialization i.e.1920 there were more dark – winged moths in the same area i.e.
the proportion was reversed.
Evolution by anthropogenic action:
 Excess use of herbicides, pesticides etc., has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties
in a much lesser time scale.
 This is also true for microbes against which we employ antibiotics or drugs against
eukaryotic organisms /cell.
 Hence resistance organisms /cells are appearing in a time scale of months or years and not
incenturies.
 These are the examples of evolution by anthropogenic action.
 Evolution is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in
the organisms.

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WHAT IS ADAPTIVE RADIATION?

Darwin’s Finches:
 In Galapagos Islands Darwin observed small black birds later called Darwin’s Finches.
 Here alized that there were many varieties of finches in the same is land.
 All the varieties, hecame across, evolved on the is land it self.
 Form the original seed- eating features, many other forms with altered beaks arose,
enabling them to become insectivorous and vegetarian finches
 This process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from
a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive
radiation.

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SESSION IV

Australian marsupial:
 A number of marsupials each different from the other evolved from an ancestral stock. But
all within the Australian is land continent.
 When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated
geographical area
(representing different habitats), one can call this convergent evolution.
 Placental mammals in Australia also exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into varieties of
such placental mammals each of which appears to be ‘similar’ to a corresponding marsupial
(e.g.placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf-marsupial).

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BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION:
 The essence of Darwinian Theory about evolution is natural selection.
 The rate of appearance of new forms is linked to the life cycle or the life span.
 There must be a genetic basis for getting selected and to evolve.
 Some organisms are better adapted to survive in another wise hostile environment.
Adaptive ability is inherited. It has genetic basis.
 Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
 Branching descent and natural selection are the two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of
Evolution.

Lamark theory of evolution: (theory of inheritance of acquired characters)

 French Naturalist Lamark had said that evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by
use and disuse of organs.
 He gave the example of Giraffes who in an attempt to for age leaves on tall trees had to
adapt by elongation of their necks.
 They passed on this acquired character of elongated neck to succeeding generations.
 Giraffes, slowly over they ears, came to acquire long necks.

MECHANISM OF EVOLUTION:
 In the first decade of twentieth century, Hugode Vries based on his work on evening
primrose brought fourth the idea of mutations.
 Mutation is the large difference arising suddenly in a population.

How deVries theory of mutation differs from Darwin’stheory of natural selection?

 It is the mutation which causes evolution and not them in or variations that Darwin talked
about.

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 Mutations are random and direction less while Darwinian variations are small and
directional.
 Evolution for Darwin was gradual while de Vries believed mutation caused speciation and
hence called it saltation (single step largemutation).

SESSION V

HARDY–WEINBERG PRINCIPLE:

 In a given population one can find out the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a geneona
locus.
 This frequency is supposed to remain fixed and even remain the same through generations.
 Hardy-Weinberg principle stated it using algebraic equations.
 The principle states that allele frequencies in a population are stable and is constant from
generation to generation.
 The genepool (total genes and their alleles in a population) remains a constant.This is called
genetic equilibrium:
 Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1.
(p+ q)2=p2+2pq+q2=1.
 When frequency measured, differs from expected values, the difference (direction)
indicates the extent of evolutionary change.
 Disturbance in genetic equilibrium, or i.e.change of frequency of alleles in a population
would then be interpreted as resulting in evolution.
 Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
 Genemigration orgene flow.
 Genetic drift.
 Mutation.
 Genetic recombination.
 Natural selection.

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 Genemigration: When migration so fasection of population to another place occur, gene
frequencies change in the original as well as in the new population. Newgenes /alleles are
added to the new population and these are lost from the old population.
 Gene flow: Genemigration occurs many time istermed as geneflow.
 Genetic drift: change in gene frequency takesplace by chance.
 Founder effect: sometimes the change in allelic frequency is so different in the new sample
of population that they became a different species. The original drifted population becomes
founder species and the effect is called founder effect.
 Operation of natural selection on different trait:
 Natural selection canlead to:
 Stabilization: in which more individuals acquire mean character value.
 Directional changes i.e.more individuals acquire value other than the mean character value.
 Disruption: more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of the
distribution curve.

SESSION VI

A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION:

 About 2000 million years ago (mya) the first cellular forms of life appeared on earth.
 Some cellular form had the ability to release O2.
 Slowly single cell organisms became multi - cellular life forms.
 By the time of 500 mya invertebrates were formed and active.
 Jaw less fish probably evolved around 350 mya.
 Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around 320 mya.
 Coelacanth alobe finned fish discovered in South Africain 1938 evolved into first amphibians
that lived on both land and water.These were ancestors of modern day frogs and
salamanders.
 The amphibian evolved into reptiles.
 Reptiles’ lays eggs which don not dry up in sun unlike those of amphibians.
 Giant ferns (pteridophytes) were present but they fell to form coal deposits slowly.
 Some of the reptiles went back into water to evolve into fish like reptiles probably
200 mya (Ichthyosaurs)
 The land reptiles were the dinosaurs.
 The biggest dinosaurs are Tyrannosaurusrex was about 20 feet in height and had huge fear
some dagger like teeth.
 About 65mya the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.
 Some of them evolved into birds.
 The first mammals were like shrews. Their fossils were smallsized.
 Mammals were viviparous and protected their unborn young inside the mother’s body.
 Due to continental drift, pouched mammals of Australia survived because of lack of
competition from any other mammals.

ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF MAN:

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 About 15mya primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing.

 They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
 Ramapithecus was more manlike while Dryopithecus was more ape - like.
 Few fossils of man-like bones have beend is covered in Ethiopia and Tanzania.
 Two mya Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands.
 They hunted with stone weapons. Essentially ate fruit.
 The first human-like being the hominid and was called Homohabilis. Brain capacity wee
between 650–800 c. They did no teat meat.
 Fossils discovered in Java in1891 revealed the next stage i.e. Homo erectus about 1.5 mya.
Had large brain around 900 0cc. Probably ate meat.
 Neanderthal man: Brain size14000 cc. Lived in east and central Asia between 1,00,000 -
40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body. Buried their dead
 Homo sapiens:
 Arosein Africa and moved across continents and developed distinct races.
 During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapien sarose. Prehistoric
caveart developed about 18,000 years ago. Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and
human settlement started.

MCQs
1. The _________ attempts to explain the origin of universe.
(1) Theory spontaneous generation (2) Theory of Panspermia
(3) Theory of chemical evolution (4) Big Bang theory
2. The universe is
(1) 10 billion years old (2) 15 billion years old
(3) 20 billion years old (4) 25 billion years old
3. Stellar distances are measured in
(1) Kilometers (2) Meters (3) Light years (4) Nautical miles
4. Which of the following proposes that units of life called ‘spores’ were transferred to
different planets including earth.
(1) Theory spontaneous generation (2) Theory of Panspermia
(3) Theory of chemical evolution (4) Big Bang theory
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5. S L Miller took a mixture of _________ in the spark discharge apparatus for his experiment.
(1) C H 4 ,C O2 , N H 3 (2) C H 4 , H 2 , HCN (3) N H 3 , HCN ,C O2 (4) C H 4 , H 2 , N H 3
6. The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated
(1) 2 billion years ago (2) 3 billion years ago
(3) 3.5 billion years ago (4) 4 billion years ago
7. _________ worked in Malayan Archipelago.
(1) Charles Darwin (2) Alfred Wallace (3) Oparin (4) Haldane
8. _________ went on a voyage in a sail ship called H M S Beagle.
(1) Charles Darwin (2) Alfred Wallace (3) Oparin (4) Haldane
9. The idea that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic
molecules and that formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution was given by
(1) Charles Darwin and Lamarck (2) Oparin and Haldane
(3) Alfred Wallace and S L Miller (4) Thomas Malthus and Alfred Wallace
10. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on the concept of
(1) Panspermia (2) Natural selection (3) Use and disuse of organs (4) Biogenesis
11. Darwin was probably influenced by the work on populations by
(1) Alfred Wallace (2) Thomas Malthus (3) Haldane (4) Oparin
12. One of the concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution is
(1) Mutation (2) Branching descent (3) Survival of the fittest (4) Saltation
13. Who proposed the theory of evolution by use and disuse of organs?
(1) Thomas Malthus (2) Lamarck (3) Alfred Wallace (4) Morgan
14. According to Lamarck, evolution of life forms occurred due to
(1) Transfer of units of life called ‘spores’ to different planets including earth
(2) Natural selection
(3) Use and disuse of organs
(4) Chemical evolution
15. Palaeontological evidences of evolution refer to the
(1) Development of embryo (2) Homologous organs (3) Analogous organs (4) Fossils
16. Bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Either homologous or analogous structures (4) Vestigial structures
17. Which of the following pairs is an example for homologous organs?
(1) Sweet potato and potato (2) Forelimbs of whale and forelimbs of man
(3) Wings of birds and wings of butterfly (4) Eyes of Octopus and eyes of mammals
18. Vertebrate hearts or vertebrate brains are
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Either homologous or analogous structures (4) Vestigial structures
19. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Either homologous or analogous structures (4) Vestigial structures
20. Homology is based on
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
21. Bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are examples for
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
22. Vertebrate hearts or vertebrate brains are examples for
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(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
23. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are examples for
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
24. Wings of butterfly and of birds are
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Either homologous or analogous structures (4) Vestigial structures
25. Eyes of Octopus and of mammals are
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Either homologous or analogous structures (4) Vestigial structures
26. Flippers of penguins and of dolphins
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Either homologous or analogous structures (4) Vestigial structures
27. Wings of butterfly and of birds are examples for
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
28. Eyes of Octopus and of mammals are examples for
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
29. Flippers of penguins and of dolphins are examples for
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
30. Analogy is based on
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation
31. Herbicide and pesticide resistance in many varieties of animals is an example for
(1) Evolution by natural selection (2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Hardy-Weinberg principle (4) Convergent evolution
32. In England, before industrial revolution, there were more
(1) Melanised moths (2) White-winged moths (3) Marsupials (4) Lobefins
33. ___________ can be used as industrial pollution indicators.
(1) Lichens (2) Finches (3) Melanic moths (4) Australian marsupials
34. Which of the following is correct?
(1) Wings of birds and wings of insects are homologous
(2) Flippers of dolphin and flippers of penguin homologous
(3) Vertebrate brains are anologous
(4) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns Bougainvillea are homologous
35. Which of the following is not an example of anthropogenic action ?
(1) Development of drug resistance
(2) Development of antibiotic resistance in microbes
(3) Evolution of dark coloured moths from light coloured moths due to industrialization
(4) Founder’s effect
36. Evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally
spreading to other areas of geography is called
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Stabilising selection (4) Saltation
37. The best examples for adaptive radiation are
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(1) Darwin’s finches/Australian marsupials (2) Melanic moths of England
(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Giant ferns
38. Placental mammals in Australia exhibit
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Stabilising selection (4) Saltation
39. Darwin’s finches of Galapagos islands exhibit
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Stabilising selection (4) Saltation
40. Different species of marsupials in Australia exhibit
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Stabilising selection (4) Saltation
41. Evolution of Tasmanian wolf, sugar glider, koala and wombat from an ancestral stock is an
example for
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Stabilising selection (4) Saltation
42. Evolution of mole, lemur, flying squirrel and anteater from an ancestral stock is an example
for
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3) Stabilising selection (4) Saltation
43. According to Hugo de Vries, single step large mutation is called
(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow (3) Founder’s effect (4) Saltation
44. Saltation is
(1) Origin of life by chemical evolution (2) Single step large mutations
(3) Formation of new species by natural selection (4) Survival of the fittest
45. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by
(1) Gene pool
(2) Genetic drift/Gene flow (Gene migration)/Mutation/Genetic recombination/Natural
selection
(3) Lack of recombination (4) Lack of gene flow
46. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by
(1) Gene migration (Gene flow)/Genetic drift/Mutation/Genetic recombination/Natural
selection
(2) Panspermia (3) Asexual reproduction
(4) Convergent evolution
47. A type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire mean character value is called
(1) Disruptive selection (2) Stabilising selection
(3) Directional selection (4) Genetic drift
48. A type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire value other than the mean
character value is called
(1) Disruptive selection (2) Stabilising selection
(3) Directional selection (4) Genetic drift
49. A type of natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value at
both ends of the distribution curve mean character value is called
(1) Disruptive selection (2) Stabilising selection
(3) Directional selection (4) Genetic drift
50. Fish like reptiles which probably lived in oceans during the course of evolution were
(1) Ichtyosaurs (2) Coelocanths (3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Lobefins
51. The ancestors of modern day frogs and salamanders are
(1) Ichtyosaurs (2) Coelocanths (3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Thecodonts
52. The biggest of the reptiles that lived in the jurassic period was
(1) Icthyosaurus (2) Tyrannosaurus (3) Dryopithecus (4) Coelocanth
53. ________ was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth.
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(1) Ichtyosaurs (2) Coelocanths (3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Lobefins
54. The most primitive during the course of human evolution is
(1) Ramapithecuc (2) Dryopithecus (3) Homo erectus (4) Homo habilis
55. The correct sequence of human evolution is
(1) Dryopithecus → Neanderthal man → Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo
habilis
(2) Australopithecus → Dryopithecus → Neanderthal man → Homo erectus → Homo
habilis
(3) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal man → Homo
sapiens
(4) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Neanderthal man → Homo habilis → Homo
sapiens
56. Which of the following is believed to have hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate
fruits?
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Australopithecus (3) Neanderthal man (4) Ramapithecus
57. Which pre-historic man started to use hides to protect his body and bury the dead bodies?
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Homo sapiens (3) Homo habilis (4) Homo erectus
58. The stage during the course of human evolution which was revealed by the fossils
discovered in Java in 1891 is
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus (3) Homo sapiens (4) Neanderthal man
59. The brain capacity of Homo habilis was
(1) 650 - 800 cc (2) 800 cc (3) 900 cc (4) 1400 cc
60. The brain capacity of Homo erectus was
(1) 650 - 800 cc (2) 800 cc (3) 900 cc (4) 1400 cc
61. The brain size of Neanderthal man was
(1) 650 - 800 cc (2) 800 cc (3) 900 cc (4) 1400 cc
62. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago and who used hides to protect
his body and buried his dead was
(1) Homo habilis (2) Australopithecus (3) Neanderthal man (4) Ramapithecus
63. The extinct primate who was hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees was
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus
(3) Ramapithecus/Dryopithecus (4) Neanderthal man
64. The extinct primate which was more ape like was
(1) Ramapithecus (2) Australopitheus (3) Dryopithecus (4) Neanderthal man
65. During ice age between 75000 – 10000 years ago, __________ arose.
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus (3) Homo sapiens (4) Neanderthal man
66. The extinct human with a brain size of around 900cc and who probably ate meat was
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo habilis (3) Homo erectus (4) Neanderthal man

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Answers
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TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name any two theories that explain the origin of life.
2. How could the experiment of Louis Pasteur dismiss theory of spontaneous generation of life.
3. Mention two assumptions of Oparin and Haldane with reference to Origin of life.
4. How does Miller's experiment supports the theory of chemical evolution?
5. Name the naturalist who also came to similar conclusions on evolution as Darwin and where did
he work?
6. List any four areas which provide evidences for evolution.
7. What is divergent evolution? Give an example.
8. What is divergent evolution? Mention an example in plants.
9. What is divergent evolution? Mention an example in animals.
10. Explain with the help of an example the type of evolution which is based on homology.
11. State the evolutionary relationship giving reasons between the thorn of Bougainvillea and
tendril of Cucurbita.
12. Give two examples for homologous organs.
13. What are homologous organs? Mention an example.
14. What are homologous organs? Mention an example from plants.
15. What are homologous organs? Mention an example from animals.
16. Comment on the similarity between the thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita with
reference to evolution.
17. Analyze the evolutionary relationship between forelimbs of whales and human.
18. Mention the type of evolution that has resulted in the development of flippers of penguins and
dolphins. What are such structures called?
19. Select the homologous structures from the combinations given below:
(i) Tuber of potato and sweet potato
(ii) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(iii) Forelimbs of whales and bats
(iv) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(b) State the kind of evolution they represent.
20. What is convergent evolution? Give an example.
21. What is convergent evolution? Give an example in plants.
22. What is convergent evolution? Give an example in animals.
23. Explain with the help of an example the type of evolution which is based on analogy.
24. State the evolutionary relationship giving reasons between sweet potato and potato.
25. Give two examples for analogous organs.
26. What are analogous organs? Give an example.

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27. What are analogous organs? Give an example from plants.
28. What are analogous organs? Give an example from animals.
29. What type of organs the eye of an octopus and that of a human are called? Name the
evolutionary process they represent.
30. Is the eye of octopus analogous or homologous to the eye of humans? Give reasons to support
your answer.
31. Is sweet potato analogous or homologous to potato tuber? Give reasons to support your
answer.
32. Differentiate divergent evolution from convergent evolution.
33. Differentiate homologous organs and analogous organs.
34. What is adaptive radiation? List two examples for adaptive radiation.
35. Mention an example where more than one adaptive radiation have occurred in an isolated
geographical area. Name the type of evolution involved in it.
36. Mention two examples of evolution by anthropogenic action.
37. Mention the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution.
38. How does ‘fitness’ of individuals help in evolution according to Darwin?
39. List any four factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg's equilibrium.
40. List any four factors that affect genetic equilibrium.
41. Giving two reasons, explain how Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected?
42. What is natural selection? Mention the three ways through which natural selection operates.
43. Mention the evolutionary significance of the following organisms: Shrews (b) Lobefins
44. Write the names of any two extinct dinosaurs.
45. List any two characteristic features of Tyranosaurus rex.
46. Name the fish like reptile and the largest dinosaur that appeared on earth during the course of
evolution.
47. About 65 million years ago, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth. What could be
the reasons.
48. Name the primates that lived 15 million years ago. Mention any two of their characteristics.
49. Mention two features of Ramapithecus.
50. List two characteristic features of Australopithecines.
51. Mention two features of Neanderthal man.
52. Mention any two characteristic features of Homo erectus.
53. Write the probable differences in eating habits of Homo habilis and Homo errectus.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain Big Bang theory of origin of universe.
2. What were the conditions on primitive earth before the origin of life according to the theory of
chemical evolution of life?
3. Draw a labelled diagram of Miller’s experimental set-up.
4. (i) What were the different gases did the flask used as an experimental setup by S.L.Miller
contained?
(ii) What conditions of primitive earth was recreated in the flask?
(iii) Write the conclusion drawn from this experiment.
5. How paleontological evidences have helped in understanding the evolution of life forms?
6. After industrialization in England, it was observed that white winged moth did not survive.
(i) What is the cause?
(ii) What was the change and why it had happened?
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(iii) Which organism is known as natural indicator to air pollution?
7. Differentiate homologous and analogous organs with an example for each.
8. Differentiate convergent evolution and divergent evolution with an example for each.
9. “Australian marsupials and Australian placental mammals explain convergent evolution and
adaptive radiation”. Justify the statement.
10. (i) Mention the evolutionary process that has resulted in evolution of placental wolf and
Tasmanian wolf.
(ii) Explain the evolutionary process by which Tasmanian wolf evolved.
(iii) Compare placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf.
11. Explain Lamarck's theory of evolution of life forms.
12. How is Darwin's concept of evolution different from that of Hugo de Vries concept of mutation?
13. Explain Hardy-Weinberg principle with the help of equation.
14. State Hardy – Weinberg law. List four evolutionary factors which disturb genetic equilibrium.
15. State Hardy – Weinberg law. Explain two evolutionary factors which disturb Hardy – Weinberg
equilibrium.
16. Explain briefly three factors that affect Hardy – Weinberg or genetic equilibrium.
17. Define the terms gene pool, gene flow and genetic drift.
18. Define the terms saltation, gene pool and gene flow.
19. Define the terms saltation, gene pool and genetic drift.
20. Describe three different ways by which natural selection can affect the frequency of a heritable
trait in a population.
21. List three characteristic features of Dryopithecus.
22. Mention any three features of Homo habilis.
23. Mention three characteristics of Neanderthal man who lived in near east and Central Asia?
24. Write the brain capacities of the following pre-historic human:
(i) Homo habilis (ii) Homo erectus (iii) Neanderthal man.
25. List the period, brain capacity and probable food of Homo erectus stage of human evolution.
26. List the period, brain capacity and probable food of Homo erectus stage of human evolution.
27. List the period, brain capacity and one feature of Neanderthal man of human evolution.
28. Name the different stages of human evolution in sequential order.
29. Arrange the following ancestral forms of man in the order of their evolution:
(a) Homo habilis (b) Homo erectus (c) Neanderthal man
(d) Dryopithecus (e) Ramapithecus (f) Australopithecines

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain Miller's experiment with the help of a neat labeled diagram. Write the conclusion that
can be drawn from the experiment.
2. Explain evolution by natural selection by taking an example of white-winged moths and dark-
winged moths of England in pre and post-indutrialization period.
3. How does comparative anatomy and morphology act as an evidence for evolution? Explain with
the help of suitable examples.
4. Identify the following pairs as homologous or analogous.
(a) Bones of forelimbs of whales and bats
(b) Eyes of octopus and of mammals
(c) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(d) Sweet potato and potato
(e) Wings of butterfly and birds.
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5. According the Darwinian theory, the rate of appearance of new forms is linked to their life cycles.
Explain.
6. Explain Darwin's view about evolution.

CHAPTER : 8
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
SESSION I

 Improper functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body is adversely affected, gives
rise to various signs and symptoms i.e we have disease.
 Diseases which can easily transmit from one person to other by any means are called infectious
or communicable diseases.
 Diseases which cannot be transmitted from one person to another are called noninfectious or
non-communicable diseases.
 Disease causing organisms are said to be pathogen.

TYPHOID:
Pathogen: Salmonella typhi (bacterium)
Organs affected: small intestine, migrate to other organs through blood.
Method of transmission: contamination of food and water.

Symptoms:
Sustained high fever ( 390 ¿ 400 C ) Weakness, stomachpain, constipation, headache and loss
of appetite. Intestinal perforation and death may occur.
Test: Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.

PNEUMONIA:
Pathogen: Streptococcus pneumoniaeand Haemophilus influenzae.
Organs affected: Alveoli of lungs, alveoli get filled with fluid.
Method of transmission: inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by infected person. Sharing glasses
and other utensils.
Symptoms:
Fever, chills, cough and headache. In severe cases the lips and finger nails turn gray to bluish
colour.

COMMON COLD:
Pathogen: Rhino viruses.
Organs affected: nose and respiratory passage
Method of transmission:
Direct inhalation of droplets from infected person. Through contaminated objects like pen,
books, cups, computer key board.

Symptoms:
Nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough.

MALARIA:
Pathogen:Plasmodium. (P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale, P. falciparum)
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Malignant malaria caused by P. falciparum is fatal.
Organs affected: liver, RBC.
Method of transmission: by biting of female anopheles mosquito (vector)
Symptoms: high fever and chill, fever occurs on every alternate day, vomiting.

life cycle of malaria parasite:

 Life cycle of plasmodium starts with inoculation of sporozoites (infective stage) through the
bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
 The parasite initially multiplied within the liver cells and then attack the red blood cells
(RBCs) resulting in their rupture.
 There is release of a toxic substance called hemozoin from the ruptured RBCs which
responsible for the chill and high fever.
 From the infected human the parasite enters into the body of Anopheles mosquito during
biting and sucking blood.
 Further development takes place in the body of Anopheles mosquitoes.
 The female mosquito takes up gametocytes with the blood meal.
 Formation of gametes and fertilization takes place in the intestine of mosquito.
 The zygote develops further and forms thousands of sporozoites which migrated into the
salivary gland of mosquito.
 When the mosquito bite another human sporozoites are injected.

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 The malarial parasite requires two hosts – human and Anopheles, to complete their life
cycle.
SESSION II
AMOEBIASIS (Amoebic dysentery)
Pathogen: Entamoeba histolytica a protozoan parasite
Organs affected: large intestine of man
Method of transmission:
● House fly acts as mechanical carrier.
● Contamination water and food with faecal matter

Symptoms:
● Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps.
● Stools with excess mucous and blood clots.

ASCARIASIS:
Pathogen: Ascaris lumbricoids (nematode)
Organs affected: intestine of man
Method of transmission: Contaminated water, vegetables, fruits.
Symptoms:
● Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia.
● Blockage of the intestinal passage.

FILARIASIS OR ELEPHANTIASIS:
Pathogen: Wuchereria (W.bancrofti and W. Malayi) (nematode parasite)
Organs affected: lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs, genital organs.
Methods of transmission: biting of infected female culex mosquito.

Symptoms:
Chronic inflammation of the organs where they live for many years. Abnormal swelling of
lower limb, scrotum, penis. Hence the disease named as elephantiasis or Filariasis.

RING WORMS:

Pathogen: Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton (fungi)

Organs affected: Skin, nails, folds of skin, groin.
Method of transmission:
Acquired from the soil. Using towel, clothes or even comb of infected individuals.

Symptoms:
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions in skin nails and scalp. Lesion accompanied with intense
itching. Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow.

PREVENTION AND CONTROL OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES:

Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is very important for prevention and control of
many infectious diseases.

Personal hygiene includes:

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Consumption of clean drinking water, food vegetable fruits. Keeping the body cleans.

Public hygiene includes:

Proper disposal of waste and excreta Periodic cleaning and disinfection of water reservoirs,
pools, cesspools. Standard practices of hygiene in public catering. In case of air-borne diseases,
close contact with the infected persons or their belongings should be avoided.

For vector borne diseases

To control or eliminating the vectors and the breeding places. Avoiding stagnation of water in and
around residential areas. Regular cleaning of household coolers. Use of mosquito nets. Introducing
fishes like Gambusia in pond that feeds on mosquito larvae. Spraying of insecticides in ditches,
drainage area and swamps. Window and doors must be fitted with wire mesh. All these
precautions are use full for vector borne disease like dengue and Chickungunya, malaria and filarial
etc.

Immunization:
● By massive immunization there is complete eradication of disease like smallpox.
● Diseases like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia, and tetanus have been controlled in large extent.

SESSION III

IMMUNITY:

The overall ability of the host to fight the disease causing organism by immune system is called
immunity.
There are two types of immunity:
 Innate Immunity.
 Acquired Immunity.
 Innate (non-specific) immunity: Called inborn immunity.
Always available to protect out body. This is called the first line of defense. Consists of
various barriers that prevent entry of foreign agents into the body. If enters they are quickly killed
by some other components of this system. Different types of barriers are as follows:

Physical barriers:
● Skin is the main barrier which prevents entry of micro-organism.
● Mucous coating of the epithelium lining of respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital tracts
helps in trapping microbes.

Physiological barriers:
● Acidity of the stomach kills most ingested microbes.
● Lysozyme in tears, saliva, and snot kills bacteria by digesting bacterial wall.
● Pyrogen released by WBC raise body temperature to prevents growth of microbes in out body.
● Interferon induces antiviral state in non-infected cells.

Phagocytic barrier:
Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils), macrophages, and natural killer cells in the
blood and tissues kill pathogen by phagocytosis.
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Inflammatory barrier:
When there is injury to the tissue there is release of histamine and prostaglandins by the mast cells.
Due to vasodilation there is leakage of vascular fluid containing serum proteins with antibacterial
activity.
Further there is influx of Phagocytic cells into the affected area.

Acquired (specific) immunity:

It is also known as adaptive immunity. This immunity developed after birth when encountered with
pathogen. It supplements the immunity provided by the innate immunity. Acquired immunity has
following unique features:

Specificity: distinguish specific foreign molecules.

Diversity: recognize vast variety of foreign molecules.
Discrimination between self and non-self: it is able to recognize and respond to molecules that are
foreign or non-self. It will not respond to our own cell or molecules.
Memory: after responding to the foreign microbes and elimination, this immune system retains the
memory of that encounter (primary immuneresponse). The second encounter with the same
microbe evokes a heightened immune response. (Secondary immune response) Acquired immunity
is carried out by two special types of lymphocytes: B-lymphocytes. T-lymphocytes.
The B-lymphocytes produce a group of proteins in response to pathogen into the blood to fight
with them Called antibody.
T-lymphocytes do not produce antibody but help B-cells to produce them.
SESSION IV

Structure of antibody:

Each antibody has four polypeptide chains. Two small chains called light chains. Two longer chains
called heavy chains. Antibody represented as H 2 L2.
Different classes of antibody produced in out body are IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE and IgG.

AMI vs. CMI:

Immune response by the B-cells by production of antibody is called Antibody mediated immune
response or humoral immune response. Immune response by T-cells is by activation of cytotoxic
killer cells which detects and destroys the foreign cells and also cancerous cells called cell mediate
dimmune response. Rejection of organs transplants are due to T-lymphocytes. Tissue matching,

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blood group matching are essential for organ transplantation. Even after tissue typing immune-
suppressants is required before and after transplantation.

Active immunity:
When the host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or other
proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body. Active immunity is slow and takes time to give
its full effective response. Injecting microbes deliberately during immunization or infection of
microbes naturally induce active immunity.

Passive immunity:
Ready made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents. Colostrums of
mother contain abundant antibody (IgA) to protect the child. Foetus receives some antibody (IgG)
from mother during pregnancy.

Vaccination and Immunization:

1. The principle of immunization or vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory, of the
immune system. In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic protein of pathogen or
inactivated/weakened pathogen (vaccine) is introduced into the body.
2. The antibodies produced in the body against vaccine, (antigen) would neutralize the pathogenic
agents during actual infection.
3. The vaccines also generate memory B and T-cells that recognize the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure.

Passive immunization:
Preformed antibody or antitoxin injection for specific antigen.
Injection of antivenin for snake bite to counter the snake venom

Vaccine production:
Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptide of pathogen in
bacteria and yeast.
Vaccine produced by this approach allows large scale production of antigen for immunization.
E.g. hepatitis-B produced from yeast.
SESSION V

Allergies:
1) The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.
2) The substance to which such immune response is produced is allergen.
3) IgE is produced during allergic reactions.
4) Common allergens are dust, pollen, animal dander etc.
5) Common symptoms are sneezing, watery eyes, running nose etc.
6) Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin from the mast cells.
7) Drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroid quickly reduce symptoms of allergy.

Auto immunity:

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1) Memory based acquired immunity able to distinguish foreign molecules or cells (pathogen)
from self-cells.
2) Sometimes due to genetic and other unknown reasons the body attacks self cells. This results in
damage to the body cells and is called auto-immune disease.
E.g. Rheumatoid arthritis, Multiple sclerosis.

Immune system in our body:

The immune system consists of
 Lymphoid organs
 Lymphoid tissues
 T and B-cells.
 Antibodies.
Immune system recognizes the foreign antigens, responds to them and remembers them.
The immune system also plays important role in:
 Allergic reaction
 Auto immuno diseases and
 Organ transplantation.

Primary lymphoid organs: bone marrow and thymus, production andmaturation of lymphocytes
take place.
Secondary lymphoid organs: spleen, tonsil, lymph node, Payer’s patches of small intestine and
appendix, where proliferation and differentiation of lymphocyte take place.
Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cell including lymphocytes are produced.
Thymus is a bilobed organ located near the heart, beneath the breastbone.
B-lymphocytes are produced and matured in bone marrow.
T-lymphocytes are produced in bone marrow but matured in thymus.

The spleen
o Large bean shaped organ mainly contain lymphocytes and phagocytes.
o Acts as a filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne micro-organisms.
o Spleen is also serves as the large reservoir of erythrocytes.

Lymph node:
 Small solid structure located at different points along the lymphatic system.
 Traps the micro-organisms or other foreign antigens.
 Antigen trapped into the lymph node responsible for activation and differentiation of
lymphocytes and cause immune response.

Mucosal associated lymphoid tissues (MALT):

 Located within the lining of major tract (respiratory, digestive and urinogenital tracts)
 It constitutes 50% of lymphoid tissues.
SESSION VI

AIDS:
● Stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
● Deficiency of immune system that acquired during life time and not congenital disease.
● Syndrome means a group of symptoms.
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● AIDS was first reported in 1981.
● AIDS is caused by HIV (Human Immuno deficiency Virus)
● HIV is retrovirus, having RNA as the genetic material.

Method of transmission:
Sexual contact with infected persons.
Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
Sharing infected needles as intravenous drug user.
From infected mother to the foetus through placenta.

Life cycle of HIV:

1) After getting into the body the HIV enters into macrophages orT-helper cells.
2) The viral RNA genome replicated to form viral DNA with the enzyme called reverse
transcriptase.
3) The viral DNA gets incorporated into the host cell’s DNA by an enzyme called integrase, and
directs the
infected cell s to produce virus particle.
4) The macrophage continues to produce virus and acts as HIV factory.
5) Virus released from macrophage attack T-helper cells.
6) There is progressive reduction in the number of T-helper cells.
7) Due to reduction of T-helper cells the person starts suffering from infections of other virus,
fungi and even parasites like Toxoplasma.
8) The patient becomes immuno deficient and more prone to other disease.

Diagnosis:
ELISA (enzyme linked Immuno-sorbent assay)

Prevention of AIDS:
1) AIDS has no cure, prevention is the best option.
2) Safe blood for transfusion
3) Use of disposable needles
4) Free distribution of condoms.
5) Prevention of drug abuse
6) Advocating safe sex and promoting regular checkup.

CANCER:
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● Uncontrolled cell division leads to production of mass of cell called cancer.
● Cancerous cell lost the property of contact inhibition.
● Cancerous cell just continue to divide giving rise to masses of cell called tumors.

Benign tumors:
● Normally remain confined to their original location
● Do not spread to other location.
● Cause little damage.

Malignant tumors:
● Mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumor cells.
● These cells grow very rapidly.
● Invade and damage surrounding tissues.
● These cells actively divide and grow; they also starve the normal cells.
● Cancerous cells escape from the site of origin and moves to distant place by blood,
wherever they get lodged make the normal cell cancerous. This property is called
metastasis.

Causes of cancer:
Normal cells transformed into cancerous neoplastic cells by physical, chemical and biological
agents. These agents are called carcinogen.
Physical agents: ionizing radiation like X-rays, gamma rays non-ionizing radiations like UV-rays.
Chemical agents: Tobacco smoke, sodium azaide, Methyl ethane sulphonate.

Biological agents:
● Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have a gene called viral oncogenes, induce
transformation of neoplastic cells.
● Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes in normal cells, when activated lead
tooncogenic transformation of the normal cells.

Cancer detection and diagnosis:

● Biopsy and histopathological study of the tissues
● Radiography like X-rays, CT (computerized tomography)
● MRI (magnetic resonance Imaging).
● Presence of antibodies against cancer-specific antigen.

Treatment of cancer:
● Surgery
● Radiation therapy
● Immunotherapy
● Chemotherapy
● Cryosurgery
● Laser therapy.
● a-interferone a response modifier used to detect the cancer.

SESSION VII
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DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE:

Opioid:
● The drugs which bind to specific opioid receptor present in central nervoussystem and
gastrointestinal tract.
● Heroin commonly called smack, chemically diacetylmorphine.
● It is white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound.
● Obtained by acetylation of morphine.
● Extracted from latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum.
● Generally taken by snorting and injection.
● Heroin is depressant and slows down body function.

Canabinoids:
● Group of chemicals that interact with the canabinoid receptors of brain.
● Obtained from inflorescence of Cannabis sativa.
● Flower top, leaves and resin of cannabis plant are used in various combinations to produce
marijuana,hashish, charas and ganja.
● Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion
● Effects on cardiovascular system of the body.

Cocaine:
● Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca.
● It interferes with transport of neuro-transmitter dopamine.
● Cocaine is commonly called as coke or crack is usually snorted.
● Potent stimulating effect on central nervous system.
● Produces sense of euphoria and increased energy.
● Excessive dosage causes hallucination.
● Other plants with hallucinogenic properties are :
oAtropa belladonna
o Datura.
● Canabinoids are also being abused by some sportspersons.

Medicinal use of drugs:

● Barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, lysergic acid diethyl amide (LSD) used as
medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses, depression and insomnia.
● Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller used for surgery patient
● Plant product with hallucinogenic property have used as folk-medicine, religious ceremonies
and rituals.

Tobacco:
● It is smoked, chewed or used as a snuff.
● Tobacco contains nicotine an alkaloid.
● Nicotine stimulates Adrenal glands to raise blood pressure and increased heart rates.
● Smoking tobacco is associated with cancer of lung, urinary bladder, and throat, bronchitis,
emphysema coronary heart disease, gastric ulcer etc.
● Smoking increased CO content of blood reduce oxygen carrying capacity of hemoglobin.
● Tobacco chewing is associated with cancer of oral cavity.
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Adolescence and Drug/Alcohol Abuse:

● The period between 12-18 years of age may thought of an adolescent period.
● Adolescent is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood.
● Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation, are the common cause
of drug/alcoholabuse.

Addiction and dependence:

● Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects such as euphoria and a temporary
feeling of wellbeing
● Associated with drugs and alcohol.
● With repeated use of drugs the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body
increases. Consequentlz the receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol
leading to greater intake and addiction.
● Use of drugs even once, can be a fore-runner to addiction.
● Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued.
● Withdrawal syndrome characterized by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating.

Effects of Drug / Alcohol Abuse:

● Immediate effects are reckless behavior, vandalism and violence.
● Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure
or cerebral hemorrhage.
● Warning sign of drug and alcohol abuse among youth include:
o Drop in academic performance,
o Unexplained absence from school/college.
o Lack of interest in personal hygiene
o Withdrawal, isolation, depression fatigue, aggressive and rebellious behavior.
o Deterioting relationship with family and friends.
o Loss of interest in hobbies.
o Change in eating and sleeping habits.
o Fluctuation in weight and appetite.
● Intravenous drug user more prone to acquire infections like AIDS and hepatitis.
● The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and cause of liver cirrhosis.
● Use of drug and alcohol during pregnancy affect the foetus.

Prevention and control:

1) Avoid undue peer pressure.
2) Education and counseling.
3) Seeking help from parents and peers
4) Looking for danger signs.
5) Seeking professional and medical help.

Abbreviations:
1) PMNL : Polymorpho-Nuclear Leukocytes
2) CMI : Cell Mediated Immunity

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3) ELISA : Enzyme Linked Immuno sorbent Assay
4) HLA : Human Leukocyte Antigen
5) MALT : Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue
6) SCID : Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency
7) NACO : National AIDS Control Organization
8) MRI : Magnetic Resonance Imaging
9) CT : computerized tomography.

MCQs
1. Typhoid is caused by
(1) Streptococcus sp. (2) Haemophilus sp. (3) Rhinoviruses (4) Salmonella sp.
2. Salmonella sp. causes
(1) Pneumonia (2) Typhoid (3) Common cold (4) Filariasis
3. Pneumonia is caused by
(1) Streptococcus sp. and Haemophilus influenzae
(2) Salmonella sp. and Streptococcus sp.
(3) Rhinoviruses and Entamoeba histolytica
(4) Salmonella sp. and Haemophilus sp.
4. Haemophilus influenzae causes
(1) Filariasis (2) Common cold (3) Typhoid (4) Pneumonia
5. Streptococcus sp. causes
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
6. Common cold is caused by
(1) Rhinovirus (2) Salmonella sp. (3) Haemophilus sp. (4) Salmonella sp.
7. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(1) Ringworm and common cold (2) Common cold and AIDS
(3) Chikungunya and Filariasis (4) Pneumonia and Typhoid
8. Rhinovirus causes
(1) Typhoid (2) Pneumonia (3) Common cold (4) Filariasis
9. Wuchereria bancrofti causes
(1) Typhoid (2) Common cold (3) Pneumonia (4) Filariasis/Elephantiasis
10. Wuchereria malayi causes
(1) Elephantiasis/Filariasis (2) Malaria (3) Ringworm disease (4) Ascariasis
11. Elephantiasis is cused by
(1) Plasmodium vivax sp. (2) Wuchereria bancrofti/Wuchereia malayi
(3) Salmonell typhi (4) Trichophyton sp.
12. Elephantiasis is cused by
(1) Plasmodium vivax sp. (2) Wuchereria malai/ Wuchereria bancrofti
(3) Salmonell typhi (4) Trichophyton sp.
13. Trichophyton causes
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
14. Epidermophyton causes
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
15. Microsporum causes
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
16. Ringworm disease is caused by
(1) Plasmodiums sp. (2) Streptococcus sp.
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(3) Salmonella sp. (4) Trichophyton sp.
17. Ringworm disease is caused by
(1) Plasmodiums sp. (2) Streptococcus sp.
(3) Salmonella sp. (4) Epidermophyton sp.
18. Ringworm disease is caused by
(1) Plasmodiums sp. (2) Streptococcus sp.
(3) Salmonella sp. (4) Microsporum sp.
19. Malaria is caused by
(1) Plasmodiums sp. (2) Streptococcus sp. (3) Salmonella sp. (4) Trichophyton sp.
20. Malaria is caused by
(1) Monascus purpureus (2) Plasmodium vivax
(3) Trichoderma polysporum (4) Ascaris lumbricoides
21. Malaria is caused by
(1) Monascus purpureus (2) Plasmodium malaria
(3) Haemophilus influenzae (4) Wuchereria malyi
22. Malaria is caused by
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti (2) Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Trichoderma polysporum (4) Ascaris lumbricoides
23. Plasmodium causes
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
24. The disease caused by a protozoan parasite is
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia
25. Ascariasis is caused by
(1) Common round worm (2) Pneumonia (3) Filaria (4) Ringworm disease
26. Common round worm causes
(1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Pneumonia
27. The vector which spreads chikungunya is
(1) Anopheles (2) Glomus (3) Aedes (4) Apis
28. The vector which spreads dengue is
(1) Anopheles (2) Glomus (3) Aedes (4) Apis
29. The vector of malarial parasite is
(1) Anopheles (2) Trichophyton (3) Monascus (4) Aedes
30. Filarial worm is transmitted to healthy person by
(1) Mosquito (2) Gambusia (3) Infected blood (4) Ascaris
31. An example for vector-borne disease is
(1) Filaria (2) Typhoid (3) Pneumonia (4) Polio
32. An example for vector-borne disease is
(1) Ascariasis (2) Typhoid (3) Diphtheria (4) AIDS
33. An example for vector borne disease is
(1) Malaria (2) Tetanus (3) Pneumonia (4) AIDS
34. An example for vector-borne disease is
(1) Dengue (2) Typhoid (3) Pneumonia 4) Ringworm disease
35. An example for vector-borne disease is
(1) Chikungunya (2) Typhoid (3) Amoebic dysentery (4) Common cold
36. Which of the following is an air-borne disease?
(1) Chikungunya (2) Typhoid (3) Amoebic dysentery (4) Common cold
37. Which of the following is an air-borne disease?
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(1) Amoebiasis (2) Typhoid (3) Ascariasis (4) Pneumonia
38. Fishes like _________ which feed on mosquito larvae are introduced into ponds to prevent
the spread of vector borne diseases.
(1) Gambusia (2) Clarias (3) Anabas (4) Labeo
39. The disease which is spread through contaminated food and water is
(1) Pneumonia (2) Filaria (3) Common cold (4) Typhoid
40. The disease which is spread through contaminated food and water is
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Malaria (3) Dengue (4) Elephantiasis
41. The disease which is spread through contaminated food and water is
(1) Chikungunya (2) Typhoid (3) Dengue (4) Ascariasis
42. The mechanical carriers of disease amoebiasis are
(1) Mosquitoes (2) Nematodes (3) Houseflies (4) Protozoans
43. The disease which is spread by inhaling the droplets or aerosols released by an infected
person is
(1) Pneumonia (2) Filaria (3) Ringworm disease (4) Typhoid
44. Drinking water and eating food contaminated by the faecal matter are the main sources of
infection which causes
(1) Malaria (2) Filaria (3) Amoebic dysentery (4) Typhoid
45. The disease which is generally acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes or even the
comb of infected persons is
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Filaria (3) Ringworm disease (4) Typhoid
46. Sustained high fever, weakness, constipation, stomach pain, headache and loss of appetite
are the symptoms of
(1) Malaria (2) Filaria (3) Amoebic dysentery (4) Typhoid
47. Fever, chill, cough, headache and in severe cases the lips and finger nails turning gray to
bluish are the symptoms of
(1) Pneumonia (2) Filaria (3) Ringworm disease (4) Typhoid
48. Sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness etc., are symptoms of
(1) Common cold (2) Malaria (3) Ascariasis (4) Amoebiasis
49. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of intestinal passage are the
symptoms of
(1) Malaria (2) Amoebiasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
50. Chronic inflammation of the organs, usually lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs is the
characteristic of
(1) Pneumonia (2) Malaria (3) Ascariasis (4) Filariasis
51. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp are
the main symptoms of
(1) Filaria (2) Malaria (3) Ascariasis (4) Ringworm disease
52. The infectious stage/form of Plasmodium which enters the human body is
(1) Gametocyte (2) Sporozoite (3) Haemozoin (4) Gamete
53. The toxic substance released due to the rupture of RBCs which is responsible for the chill
and high fever recurring every 3 – 4 days in malaria is
(1) Gametocyte (2) Sporozoite (3) Haemozoin (4) Interferon
54. Release of haemozoin due to the rupture of RBCs is a characteristic of
(1) Filaria (2) Malaria (3) Typhoid (4) Pneumonia
55. Typhoid fever can be confirmed by
(1) ELISA (2) PCR (3) Widal test (4) RNAi
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56. Widal test is done to confirm
(1) Filaria (2) Malaria (3) Typhoid (4) Pneumonia
57. Widal test is done to confirm the infection that is caused by
(1) Samonella typhi (2) Haemophilus influenzae
(3) Ascaris lumbricoides (4) Wuchereria bancrofti
58. The following is / are the innate immune barriers
(1) Acid in stomach (2) Natural killer cells (3) Skin (4) All of these
59. An example for physical barrier which provides immunity is
(1) Skin (2) Tears from eyes (3) Saliva in the mouth (4) Acid in the stomach
60. Skin/Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital
tracts which provides innate immunity is a
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
61. An example for physiological barrier which provides innate immunity is
(1) Skin (2) Tears from eyes (3) Interferon (4) Polymorpho-nuclear leukocyte
62. An example for physiological barrier which provides immunity is
(1) Skin (2) Interferon (3) Saliva in the mouth (4) Neutrophil
63. An example for physiological barrier which provides immunity is
(1) Skin (2) Polymorpho-nuclear leukocyte (3) Interferon (4) Acid in the stomach
64. Tears from eyes which provides innate immunity is a
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
65. Saliva in the mouth which provides innate immunity is a
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
66. Acid in the stomach which provides innate immunity is a
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
67. An example for polymorpho-nuclear leukocyte is
(1) Lymphocyte (2) Natural killer cell (3) Neutrophil (4) Monocyte
68. Polymorphonuclear leucoycyte is an example for
(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
69. An example for cellular barrier which provides innate immunity is
(1) Neutrophil (2) Antibody (3) Skin (4) Saliva
70. An example for cellular barrier which provides innate immunity is
(1) Monocyte (2) Antibody (3) Skin (4) Saliva
71. An example for cellular barrier which provides innate immunity is
(1) Macrophage (2) Antibody (3) Skin (4) Saliva
72. Macrophages which provide innate immunity act as
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
73. Neutrophils which provide innate immunity act as
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
74. Monocytes which provide innate immunity act as
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
75. Natural killer cells which provide innate immunity act as
(1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
76. An example for cytokine barrier which provides innate immunity is
(1) Antibody (2) Interferon (3) Mucus (4) Macrophage
77. The protein secreted by virus-infected cell which protect non-infected cells from further
viral infection is
(1) Antibody (2) Histamine (3) Interferon (4) Serotonin
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78. Interferons are secreted by
(1) Virus-infected cell (2) Natural killer cell (3) Mast cell (4) Helper T lymphocyte
79. A special type of cell which carries out primary and secondary immune responses against
any antigen is
(1) Macrophage (2) Neutrophil (3) Mast cell (4) T lymphocyte
80. A special type of cell which carries out primary and secondary immune responses against
any antigen is
(1) Macrophage (2) Neutrophil (3) Monocyte (4) B lymphocyte
81. Protein produced in response to pathogens produced by B lymphocytes is called
(1) Interferon (2) Serotonin (3) Antibody (4) Histamine
82. Antibodies are produced by
(1) B lymphocytes (2) T lymphocytes (3) Polymorpho-nuclear leulocytes (4) Monocytes
83. Humoral immunity is due to
(1) B lymphocytes (2) T lymphocytes (3) Macrophages (4) Monocytes
84. Cell-mediated immunity is due to
(1) B lymphocytes (2) T lymphocytes (3) Macrophages (4) Monocytes
85. Immunity due to exposure of a person to antigens like dead microbes or other proteins is
called
(1) Innate immunity (2) Active immunity (3) Passive immunity (4) Auto-immunity
86. Immunity due to consumption of ready-made antibodies against antigen is called
(1) Innate immunity (2) Active immunity (3) Passive immunity (4) Auto-immunity
87. Immunity provided by mother’s milk to new born infant is an example for
(1) Innate immunity (2) Active immunity (3) Passive immunity (4) Auto-immunity
88. Mother’s milk contains
(1) IgA (2) IgM (3) IgE (4) IgG
89. Colostrum secreted by mother during initial days of lactation after parturition contains
abundant antibodies of the type
(1) IgA (2) IgM (3) IgE (4) IgG
90. Injection containing preformed antibodies given to patients who have suffered snake bite
provides
(1) Innate immunity (2) Active immunity
(3) Passive immunization (4) Auto-immunity
91. The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens in the environment is
called
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Allergy (3) Auto-immunity (4)Cystic fibrosis
92. The antibodies produced in response to allergens in the environment are of the type
(1) IgA (2) IgM (3) IgE (4) IgG
93. The symptoms of allergy are reduced by drug like
(1) Anti-histamine/Adrenaline/Steroid (2) Coca alkaloids (3) Barbiturates (4) LSD
94. The body attacks self cells in
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Allergy (3) Auto-immune diseases (4) Cystic fibrosis
95. Immature lymphocytes differentiate and proliferate in
(1) Bone marrow and thymus (2) Bone marrow and spleen
(3) Peyer’s patches and lymph nodes (4) Appendix and spleen
96. _________ is the site for interaction of lymphocytes with antigen which then proliferate to
become effector cells.
(1) Bone marrow (2) Spleen/Lymph node/Tonsil/Peyer’s patch/Appendix
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(3) Liver (4) Thymus
97. Primary lymphoid organ in human is represented by
(1) Spleen (2) Peyer’s patches (3) Thymus/Bone marrow (4) Lymph nodes
98. The immune-suppressive drugs are very essential to the patient during organ
transplantation. Otherwise, the transplant is rejected by
(1) Humoral immunity (2) Cell mediated immunity
(3) Immunoglobulins (4) B lymphocytes
99. Human immune deficiency virus is a member of a group of viruses called
(1) Rhinoviruses (2) Retroviruses (3) Baculoviruses (4) Nucleopolyhedroviruses
100. AIDS is caused by
(1) Human immune deficiency virus (2) Oncogenic virus
(3) Baculovirus (4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
101.In an infected person, HIV causes the progressive decrease in the number of
(1) B lymphocytes (2) Helper T lymphocytes (3) Monocytes (4) Natural killer cells
102.DNA of HIV replicates in the macrophages with the help of an enzyme called
(1) Reverse transcriptase (2) DNA polymerase (3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase
103.A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(1) Widal test (2) Computed tomography (3) ELISA (4) Biopsy
104.ELISA test is used to detect
(1) Cancer (2) Malaria (3) AIDS (4) Allergy
105. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(1) Widal test (2) ELISA (3) Biopsy (4) MRI
106. Agents which cause cancer are called
(1) Mutagens (2) Carcinogens (3) Allergens (4) Interferons
107.Biopsy is useful in the detection of
(1) Typhoid (2) Cancer (3) AIDS (4) Allergy
108.In _________, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined
under microscope to detect cancer.
(1) Widal test (2) Computed tomography (3) ELISA (4) Biopsy
109.Cancer patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as _______
which activate the immune system and help in destroying the tumor.
(1) a - interferon (2) Barbiturate (3) Amphetamine (4) Histamine
110.Biological response modifiers such as a – interferons are used to treat the patients suffering
from
(1) Typhoid (2) AIDS (3) Pneumonia (4) Cancer
111. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages liver leading to a condition called
(1) Benign tumor (2) Cirrhosis (3) Malignant tumor (4) Cystic fibrosis
112.Opioids are extracted from the latex of
(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Erythroxylum coca
(3) Cannabis sativa (4) Atropa belladona
113.Heroin is commonly called
(1) Coke (2) Crack (3) Smack (4) cocaine
114. ______ is chemically diacetylmorphine.
(1) Heroin (smack) (2) Cannabinoid (3) Cocaine (4) Benzodiazepin
115.Select opioid from the following
(1) Charas (2) Ganja (3) Morphine/Heroin (4) Hashish
116.Specific opioid receptors are found in
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(1) Central nervous system (2) Gastrointestinal tract
(3) Cardiovascular system (4) Both (1) & (2)
117. Cannabinoids are extracted from the ________ of the plant Cannabis sativa.
(1) Inflorescence (2) Root (3) Stem (4) leaves
118. Cocaine is extracted from the plant
(1) Papaver somniferum (2) Erythroxylum coca
(3) Cannabis sativa (4) Atropa belladona
119.A drug which interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter is
(1) Cocaine (2) Heroin (3) Morphine (4) Cannabinoid
------
Answers

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What are infectious diseases? Mention an example.
2. What are non-infectious diseases? Mention an example.
3. Differentiate infectious diseases from non-infectious diseases.
4. Mention any four means by which good health can be achieved.
5. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause: (b) Typhoid (b) Malaria
6. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis
7. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia
8. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold
9. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascariasis
10. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Fialariasis
11. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Ringworm disease
12. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis

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13. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia
14. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold
15. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis
16. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Filariasis
17. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Ringworm disease
18. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiais (b) Pneumonia
19. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiais (b) Common cold
20. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiais (b) Ascariasis
21. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which causeK)
(a) Amoebiais (b) Filariasis
22. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiais (b) Ringworm disease
23. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold
24. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis
25. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Filariasis
26. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ringworm disease
27. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis
28. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Common cold (b) Filariasis
29. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Common cold (b) Ringworm disease
30. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis
31. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Ascariasis (b) Ringworm disease
32. Write the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Filariasis (b) Ringworm disease
33. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes typhoid and mention its mode of
transmission.
34. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes malaria and mention its mode of
transmission.
35. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes pneumonia and mention its mode of
transmission.

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36. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes common cold and mention its mode of
transmission.
37. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes amoebiasis and mention its mode of
transmission.
38. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes ascariasis and mention its mode of
transmission.
39. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes filariasis and mention its mode of
transmission.
40. Write the scientific name of the pathogen that causes ringworm disease and mention its mode
of transmission.
41. With regard to malaria, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms.
42. With reference to pneumonia, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two
symptoms.
43. With regard to typhoid, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms.
44. With reference to common cold, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two
symptoms.
45. With regard to ascariasis, write the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms.
46. With reference to ringworm disease, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen and
two symptoms.
47. With reference to amoebiasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen and two
symptoms.
48. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like blockage of intestine, internal
haemorrhage and anemia. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent of this disease.
49. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like sustained high fever, stomach pain,
constipation and loss of appetite. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of this
disease.
50. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like fever, chill, headache, cough and bluish
colour of finger nails and lips. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of this disease.
51. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarseness, cough and headache. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of
this disease.
52. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like chill and high fever recurring every three
to four days. Mention the scientific name of the pathogen causing this disease.
53. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like stools with excess mucous and blood
clots, abdominal pain and cramps and constipation. Mention the scientific name of the pathogen
causing this disease.
54. Name a disease you have studied characterized by slowly developing chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and gross deformities of limbs. Mention the scientific name of
the pathogen causing this disease.
55. Name a disease you have studied with symptoms like dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body accompanied by itching. Mention the scientific name of the causative pathogen of this
disease.
56. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes sustained high fever, stomach pain,
constipation, loss of appetite. Mention the name of this disease.
57. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes fever, chill, headache, cough and bluish
colour of finger nails and lips. Mention the name of this disease.

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58. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes nasal congestion and discharge, sore
throat, hoarseness, cough and headache. Mention the name of this disease.
59. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes chill and high fever recurring every
three to four days. Mention the name of this disease.
60. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes abdominal pain and cramps, stools with
excess mucous and blood clots and constipation. Mention the name of this disease.
61. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes slowly developing chronic inflammation
of lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and gross deformities of limbs. Mention the name of this
disease.
62. Write the scientific name of the pathogen which causes dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the
body accompanied by itching. Mention the name of this disease.
63. Write the scientific name of the intestinal parasite which causes blockage of intestine, internal
haemorrhage and anemia. Mention the name of this disease.
64. Mention any two types of innate barriers of defence with an example each.
65. Mention any two physiological barriers that provide non-specific type of defense to our body.
66. Mention the roles of B and T lymphocytes.
67. Draw a neat labeled diagram of an antibody molecule.
68. List four secondary lymphoid organs of our body.
69. Differentiate primary and secondary immune responses.
70. Name the two of special types lymphocytes present in our blood which are responsible for
primary and secondary responses.
71. What are primary lymphoid organs? Mention two examples.
72. What are secondary lymphoid organs? Mention two examples.
73. Differentiate primary and secondary lymphoid organs.
74. Define vaccine. Mention the principle on which vaccination or immunization is based.
75. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity.
76. What is colostrum? Name the antibody present in it.
77. What is an allergy? Name two chemicals released by the mast cells at the time of allergy.
78. What is allergy? Name the antibody produced during allergic responses.
79. What is allergy? List two symptoms of allergic reactions.
80. What is auto-immune disease? Mention an example.
81. Distinguish between benign and malignant tumors.
82. The cells of malignant tumors are considered dangerous. Justify with two reasons.
83. Mention any two characteristics of cancer cell.
84. What are carcinogens? Mention any examples.
85. Mention two modes of transmission of HIV in humans.
86. Mention any four common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse in youth.
87. Name an opioid drug and its source plant (scientific name). How does it affect human body?
88. Name the plant (scientific name) from which cocaine is obtained. What is the effect of cocaine
in humans?
89. Name the plant (scientific name) from which cannabinoid is obtained. What is the effect of
cannabinoids in humans?
90. Mention the names of any two drugs which are commonly abused and write the binomial name
of the plants from which these drugs are extracted.
91. Mention any four effects of smoking cigarettes.
92. Differentiate addiction and dependence with reference to alcohol and drugs.
93. What is ‘dependence’ with respect to drug abuse? Mention any two withdrawal symptoms.
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94. Mention any four withdrawal symptoms in drug addicts.
95. Mention any four adverse effects of drug abuse.
96. Mention four side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in males.
97. Mention four side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females.
98. Explain any two prevention and control measures of drug and alcohol abuse.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Differentiate infectious diseases from non-infectious diseases with an example for each.
2. With reference to typhoid, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
3. With reference to pneumonia, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
4. With reference to common cold, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
5. With reference to amoebiasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
6. With reference to malaria, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
7. With reference to ascariasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
8. With reference to filariasis, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode of
transmission and two symptoms.
9. With reference to ringworm disease, write the scientific name of the causative pathogen, mode
of transmission and two symptoms.
9. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis
10. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Pneumonia
11. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Common cold
12. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Ascariasis
13. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Filariasis
14. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Roundworm disease
15. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
16. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
17. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
18. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
19. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
20. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
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(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
21. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
22. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
23. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
24. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Ascriasis
25. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
26. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
27. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Filariasis
28. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Roundworm disease
29. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Typhoid (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
30. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
31. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
32. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
33. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
34. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
35. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
36. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
37. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
38. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
39. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
40. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
41. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
42. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
43. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
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44. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Malaria (b) Filarisis (c) Filariasis
45. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
46. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
47. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
48. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
49. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
50. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
51. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
52. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
53. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
54. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
55. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
56. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
57. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
58. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
59. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
60. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
61. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
62. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
63. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Common cold (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
64. Mention the scientific names of the pathogens which cause:
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
65. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis
66. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Pneumonia
67. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
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(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Common cold
68. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Ascariasis
69. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Filariasis
70. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Malaria (c) Roundworm disease
71. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
72. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
73. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
74. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
75. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
76. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
77. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
78. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
79. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
80. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Ascriasis
81. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
82. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
83. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Filariasis
84. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Ascriasis (c) Roundworm disease
85. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Typhoid (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
86. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Pneumonia
87. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Common cold
88. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
89. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Filariasis
90. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Amoebiasis (c) Roundworm disease
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91. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
92. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
93. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
94. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
95. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
96. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
97. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
98. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
99. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
100. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Malaria (b) Filarisis (c) Filariasis
101. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold
102. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Ascariasis
103. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Filariasis
104. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Pneumonia (c) Roundworm disease
105. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
106. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
107. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
108. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
109. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
110. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Amoebiasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
111. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Ascariasis
112. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Filariasis
113. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Roundworm disease
114. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
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(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
115. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
116. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Filariasis (c) Round worm disease
117. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Filariasis
118. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Common cold (b) Ascariasis (c) Roundworm disease
119. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Common cold (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
120. Mention two symptoms each of the following diseases:
(a) Ascariasis (b) Filariasis (c) Roundworm disease
121. Mention three types of innate barriers of defence with an example each.
122. Define immunity. Explain how skin and mucous membrane help in providing immunity as
physical barriers?
123. Differentiate active immunity and passive immunity with an example for each.
124. Differentiate primary and secondary lymphoid organs with two examples for each.
125. What is allergy? List the symptoms of allergic reactions.
126. Mention any three characteristics of cancer cell.
127. What are carcinogens? Mention any two groups of carcinogens with an example for each.
128. Mention the names of three drugs which are commonly abused and write the binomial name
of the plants from which these drugs are extracted.
129. Briefly explain any three prevention and control measures of drug and alcohol abuse.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Amoebiasis
2. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Ascariasis
3. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Filariasis
4. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Typhoid (b) Pneumonia (c) Common cold (d) Malaria (e) Ringworm disease
5. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Malaria (d) Amoebiasis (e) Ascariasis
6. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Malaria (d) Amoebiasis (e) Filariasis
7. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Pneumonia (b) Common cold (c) Malaria (d) Amoebiasis (e) Ringworm disease
8. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Common cold (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis (d) Ascariasis (e) Filariasis
9. Mention the scientific name of the causative agent and two symptoms of the following:
(a) Common cold (b) Malaria (c) Amoebiasis (d) Ascariasis (e) Ringworm disease
10. What is innate immunity? Briefly discuss any four innate immunity barriers.
11. What are lymphoid organs? Mention the types with their functions and examples.
12. List different lymphoid organs and tissues and explain their role in immunity.
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13. Define immunity. Explain active immunity and passive immunity with examples.
14. Explain the life cycle of HIV in human body.
15. Write the schematic representation of the life cycle of HIV.
16. Explain different techniques which help in cancer detection and diagnosis.
17. What is addiction? List four warning signals and four harmful effects caused by drug abuse.
18. Explain prevention and control measures of alcohol and drug abuse.

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CHAPTER -9
STRATEGIES OF ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
Plant Breeding
It is the purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that
are better suited for cultivation, gives better yield and are disease resistant
Conventional plant breeding has been practised by humans around 9000 to 11000
Goals of Plant Breeding
 To get high yield varieties
 To get disease resistant varieties
 To get insect resistant varieties
 To get varieties that can respond well to the fertilizers
 To get varieties that are tolerant to environmental stress
 To get varieties that can respond to varied climatic conditions
Steps involved in plant breeding
1. Collection of variability or germplasm collection.
 The entire collection of plants or seeds having all the diverse allels for all genes in a
given crop is called germplasm collection.
 It is the root of any plant breeding program.
 Collection and preservation of all the different wild varieties, species and relatives of
cultivated species is a prerequisite for effective exploitation of natural genes
available in the population.
2. Evaluvation and selection of parents
 The germplasm is evaluated to identify the plants with desirable combinations of
character.
 The selected plants are multiplied and used in the process of hybridization.
 Pure lines are created wherever desirable and possible.
3. Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
 Cross hybridisation is the process of making a cross between two genetically different
parents to obtain progeny with desirable characters.
 Parents having high protein quality and disease resistant variety is crossed to get
desirable characters.
 It is very time consuming tedious process as it involves several steps
4. Selection of superior recombinants
 It involves the selection of progeny with desired or superior quality than that of parents.
(Hybrid vigour/ heterosis).
 This step is crucial for the success of plant breeding
 Progeny with superior characters are self pollinated for several generations till they
come to a state of uniformity (Homozygosit) so that characters will not separate in the
progeny.
5. Testing release and commercialisation of new cultivars
 The newly selected plants undergo evaluation for yield quality, diseases and insect
resistance before it is ready for cultivation in the research field and recording their
performance under ideal fertilizer and irrigation application.
 After the evaluation testing is done in farmers fields for at least three growing seasons at
several location in the country

Green revolution
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It was responsible for our country to not only meet the national requirement in food
production also helped us to export it
It was dependent mainly on plant breeding techniques of development of high yield and disease
resistant varieties of wheat, rice India is mainly agricultural country accounts for 33%, India’s GDP
and employs 62%. of the population. The development of several high yielding varieties of wheat
and rice in the mid 1960’s as a result of various plant breeding techniques lead to dramatic increase
in food production in our country this is due to development of semi dwarf varieties of wheat and
rice. Noble Laureate Norman E. Borloug at International Centre for wheat and maize improvement
in Mexico developed semi dwarf wheat.

Wheat
During 1960-2000, wheat production increased from 11 million tones per annum to 275
million tones per annum
In 1963, several semi dwarf wheat varieties such as Sonalika and Kalyan sona- high yielding and
disease resistant- were introduced into India

Rice
During 1960-2000 rice production increased from 35 million tones per annum to 89.5 million
tones per annum.
In 1966, semi Dwarf rice varieties like IR-8 developed at International Rice Research Institute (IRRI)
phillipines and Taichung Native 1 (From Taiwan) were introduced into India. Later better yielding
and semi-dwarf rice varieties like Jaya and Ratna were developed in India

Sugarcane
Sachharum barberi from north India with poor sugar content and yield crossed with
Sacchcrum Officinarum from south India with high sugar content with to get a variety with sugar
content and which also grown in all parts of India is produced

Millets
Hybrid maize, Jowar and Bajra with high yield and water stress tolerant variety have been
developed in India

Plant Breeding for disease resistant

Pathogen is an organism that causes disease in another organism – the host. A wide range
of fungal, bacterial and viral pathogens affect the yield of cultivated crop species so that crop losses
can upto 20 to 30 percent, sometimes even total.
In such situations, if the crops are made disease resistant, food production is increased and the use
of fungicides and bactericides would be reduced. Example of diseases caused by,
Bacteria:- Black rot of crucifiers
Fungal:- Brown rust of wheat red rot of sugar cane and late blight of potato
Viral :- Tobacco Mosaic, Turnip Mosaic virus

Methods of plant breeding for disease resistance

1. Old conventional method (Hybridisation Method)
Steps involved:-
i) Screening germplasm for resistance source
ii) Hybridisation of selected parents
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iii) Selection and evaluation of hybrids
iv) Testing and release of new varieties
Eg:-1
Resistance to yellow mosaic virus was incorporated in bhindi (Abelmosues esculentus) from
a wild species abelmoscus manihotland. The new resistant variety produced is Parbhani Kranti.
Eg: 2. Some crop varieties bred by hybridisation are as follows:-

Crop Variety Resistance to Diseases

Wheat Himgiri Leaf and stripe rust hill bunt

Brassica Pusa Swarnim White rust

Cauliflower Pusa shubra Black rot and curl blight black

Pusa snowball k1 rot

Cowpea Pusa komal Bacterial blight

Chilli Pusa sadabahar Chilli mosaic virus,Tobacco

mosaic virus and Leaf curl

Mutational breeding
It is the process by which genetic variations are created through changes in base sequence
within gene resulting in creation of new characters that are not present in their parents Mutations
are created by the substances called mutagens which may be physical or chemical
Physical mutagens:- gamma rays and UV rays
Chemical mutagens:-Ethyl methane sulphonate
Eg:- In mung bean mutations are induced through gamma radiation which is resistant to Yellow
mosaic virus and Powdery mildew disease

Plant breading for developing resistance to insect pests

Insects and plants are the major cause for large destruction of crop plants and its products
Insect resistance in host crop plant is due to morphological, Biochemical or physiological means.

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Crop Reason for resistance Resistance to Type of character

insect/ Pests

Wheat Hairy leaves Cereal leaf Morphological

beetle

Cotton Hairy leaves Jassids Morphological

Wheat Solid stem Stem saw fly Morphological

Cotton Smooth leaves Bollworms Morphological

Absence of nectar Biochemical

Maize Low nitrogen, low sugar, Stem borer Biochemical

High aspartic acid

Breeding methods for insects or pest resistance include some steps as those for any agronomic trait
such as yield or quality
Sources of resistance genes may be cultivated varieties, germplasm collection of the crop or wild
varieties or relatives.
Some of the released crop varieties bred by hybridisation and selection for insect and pest
resistance are given below

Crop Variety Insect Pests

Brassica (rapeseed Pusa Gaurav Aphids

mustard)

Flat bean Pusa Sem 2, Pusa Sem 3 Jassids, aphids and

fruit borer

Okra (Bhindi) Pusa Sawani, Pusa A-4 Shoot and Fruit

borer

Plant breeding for improved food quality

More than 840 million people in the world do not have adequate food to meet their daily
food and nutritional requirements.
Three billion people suffer from micronutrient, protein and vitamin deficiency or hidden
hunger

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Diets lacking essential micro nutrient particularly iron, Vitamin A and Zinc, increased the risk
of disease, reduce life span and reduce mental abilities
Bio fortification :-
It is the method of growing crops with higher levels of vitamins, minerals, proteins and
healthyier fat in order to improve public health

Objective of bio fortification

 To improve protein content and quality
 To improve oil content and quality
 To improve vitamin content and quality
 To improve micro nutrient and mineral content
Eg: In 2000, Maize hybrids with twice the amount of amino acids, lysine and tryptophan compared
to existing maize hybrids were developed
Attas-66 A Wheat variety having high protein content used as a donor for improving
cultivated wheat.
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), New Delhi released several crops rich in vitamins
and minerals
Vitamin-A enriched spinach, carrots and pumpkin
Vitamin –C Enriched bittergourd, Bathua, mustard, and tomato
Iron and calcium enriched spinach and bathua
Protein enriched beans- broad bean, Lab lab bean French beans
Protein enriched garden peas

Single cell protein (SCP)

SCP is one of the alternate source of proteins for animal and human nutrition.
There is a need for the production of SCP because,
 Conventional (old) agricultural production of cereals, vegetables and fruits may not be able
to meet the demand of food at the rate at which human and population is increasing
 The shift from grain to meat does not solve the problem as it takes 3 to 10 kg of grain to
produce 1 kg of meat by animal farming
 Already more than 25% of human population is suffering from mal nutrition.
 The term SCP however is misleading because it is not only obtained from unicellular
organisms but also from multicellular organisms also it is not only protein but other
nutreints like lipids, carbohydrates etc can also be produced.
The organism which can be used for obtaining SCP are

i) Cyanobacteria: Spirulina
Spirulina is an unicellular algae contains 65 to 70% of protein. It can be grown easily on
materials like waste water from potato processing plants (containg starch), straw (dry
grass), molasses, animal manure and sewage to produce large quantities.
SCP serves as food rich in protein minerals fat. Carbohydrates and vitamins

ii) Bacteria: Methylophilus methylotrophus

It has been estimated that 250 kg cow produces 200g of protein per day. In the same
period 250 g of bacteria like Methylophilus methlotrophus, because of its high rate of
biomas prodcution and growth can produce about 25 tones of protein per day.

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iii) Fungi: Yeast, Mushroom

Mushrooms are eaten by many people and large scale mushroom culture is a big
growing industry.
Tissue Culture: It is a method of growing plant cell or tissue or organ on an artificial nutrient
medium in order to produce new independent plant body
Explant it is the part of the plant used in tissue causes
Totipotency it is the complete ability of the explants to grow into new independent plant body
Somaclones The progenies obtained in tissue culture are genetically similar to their parents as
they obtained from somatic cells
Micro propagation it is the method of production of hundreds and thouands of plants in tissue
culture
Culture/ Nutrient medium it contains sucrose as carbon source inorganic salts, vitamins, amino
acids, fruit juices, tender coconut and plant hormones like auxin (2,4-D) and cytokinin (benzyl
amino purine-BAP)
– Growth regulators are required for cell division and organ regeneration.
– Culture medium may be liquid or solid
– The optimum PH should be 5.7
Meristem culture it is the method of growing apical meristem and axillary meristem as an
explant in order to produce virus free plants form virus infected plant as viral multiplication is
slower than that of meristem cells
Somatic Hybridization/Protoplast fusion it is the fusion of protoplast of a plants belonging to
different varieties species and even genera.

Steps involved
 The cells of tomato and potato are treated with cellulase and pectin to remove the cell wall
as a result naked protoplast are produced
 The naked protoplast are fused using poly ethelene glycol (PEG) it results in hybrid
protoplast called somatic hybrid and the process is called somatic hybridization
 The somatic hybrid is further grown to form new pomato plant.
Unfortanetly, Pomato did not have all the desired combination of characteristics for its
commercial utilization.The first somatic hybrid was obtained by Carlson in Nicotiana
(tobacco).
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
SESSION I

ANIMAL HUSBANDRY:
 The agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock.
 Deals with care and breeding of livestock like buffaloes, cows, pigs, horses, cattle, sheep,
camels, goats etc.
 Extended form includes poultry farming and fisheries.
 Fisheries include rearing, catching selling etc. of fish, mollusks (shell fish) and crustaceans
(prawns, crabs etc.)

Diary farm management:

 Dairying is the management of animals for milk and its products.
 Use of improved breed of cow such as Jersey.

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 Well housed.
 Should have adequate water.
 Maintained disease free. Feeding should be scientific manner.
 Quantity and quality of fodder. Stringent cleanliness and hygiene.
 Regular visit by a veterinary doctor would be mandatory.

Poultry farm management:

 Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl (birds) used for food and eggs.
 Selection of disease free and suitable breeds.
 The improved breed of poultry is Leghorn.
 Proper and safe farm conditions
 Proper feed and water
 Hygiene and health care.
SESSION II

Animal breeding:
Inbreeding:
 A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like general
appearance, features size, configuration, etc, are said to be a breed.
 Inbreeding: crosses between same breed. Outbreeding: crosses between different breeds.
 Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations.
 Superior male and female is identified and mated in pairs.

Out breeding:
 Cross between distantly related individuals of the same breed or different breeds or different
species is known as out breeding
1. Out-crossing:
 Progeny obtained are evaluated and superior males and females among them are identified
for further mating.
 More milk per lactation is the criteria for superior female for cow and buffalo. Superior male
which gives rise to superior progeny.
 Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
 Inbreeding is necessary to create pure line in any animal.
 Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive gens that are eliminated by selection.
 Helpful in accumulation of superior genes.
 Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity. This is called inbreeding
depression.
 Out-breeding is the breeding of unrelated animals.
 Mating of animals within the same breed but having no common ancestor on either side of
their pedigree upto 4-6 generations.
 Offsprings of such mating is called out-cross.
 A single outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression.

2. Cross-breeding:
 Superior male of one breed are mated with superior female of another breed.
 It allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.

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 Hisardaleis a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and
Marinorams. Interspecific hybridization:
 Male and female of two different species are mated.
 The progeny may combine desirable features of both the parents.(mule) Artificial
insemination:
 Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using artificial insemination.
 The semen is collected from the male and injected into the reproductive tract of the
selected female by the breeder.
 The semen collected may be used immediately or can be frozen for later use. The semen can
be transported in a frozen form to where the female is housed.
 Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology: It is used to improve chances of successful
production of hybrids.
 Cow is administered hormones with FSH-like activity induce follicular maturation and super
ovulation
 Production of 6-8 eggs instead of one egg per cycle.
 The female is either mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated.
 Non-surgical recovery of fertilized eggs at 8-32 cells stages.
 Each one transferred to surrogate mother.
 The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.
 This technology is used to increase herd size in a short time.

3. Intraspecific hybridization:

 Cross between individuals belongs to different species is known as interspecific

hybridization
 Mules are obtained by crossing female donkey and male horse.
SESSION III

Bee – keeping:
 Bee-keeping is called apiculture.
 It includes maintenance of hives of honeybees for production of honey.
 Honey is a food of high nutritive values and also used as medicine.
 Honey bees also produce beeswax which has many used in industry, like preparation of
cosmetics and polishes of various kinds.
 Bee-keeping practiced in area with sufficient bee pastures of some wild shrubs, fruit
orchards and cultivated crops.
 Apis indica is most common species used in apiculture.

The following points are important for successful bee-keeping:

 Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
 Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives.
 Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees)
 Management of beehives during different seasons.
 Handling and collection of honey and of beeswax.

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 Bees are the pollinator for many plants, hence keeping beehives in crop fields during
flowering period, increases pollination and improve honey yield.
 Fishery industry related to catching, processing or selling of fish shellfish or other aquatic
animals.
 Common fresh water fish: Catla, Rohu and common carp. Common marine fishes: Hilsa,
Sardines, Mackerel and Pomfrets.
 Production of aquatic plants and animals, both freshwater and marine water is increased by
Pisciculture and aquaculture.
 Increasing production of the fish is called Blue revolution.

MCQs
1. India and China have more than _______ of the world livestock population.
(1) 70% (2) 75% (3) 80% (4) 90%
2. A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to
as
(1) Breed (2) Race (3) Variety (4) Species
3. An example for improved breed of chicken is
(1) Jersey (2) Hisardale (3) Bikaneri (4) Leghorn
4. Leghorn is an improved breed of
(1) Cattle (2) Chicken (3) Fish (4) Buffalo
5. An example for improved breed of cattle is
(1) Jersey (2) Hisardale (3) Bikaneri (4) Leghorn
6. Jersey is an improved breed of
(1) Cattle (2) Chicken (3) Fish (4) Buffalo
7. A cross between animals of the same breed is called
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Out-breeding (4) Cross-breeding
8. Homozygous purelines in any breed of animal is developed by
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Out-breeding (4) Cross-breeding
9. _________ exposes harmful recessive genes and also helps in accumulation of superior
genes and elimination of less desirable genes.
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Out-breeding (4) Cross-breeding
10. Inbreeding is necessary for
(1) Developing pure lines (2) Deleting superior genes
(3) Enhancing less desirable genes (4) Increasing hybrids
11. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by
(1) Cross breeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Inbreeding (4) Inter-specific hybridisation
12. Fertility and productivity of any animal breed is reduced due to continuous
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Out-breeding (4) Cross-breeding
13. Mating of animals of the same breed but having no common ancestors on either side of
their pedigree up to 4 – 6 generations is called
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Out-breeding (4) Cross-breeding
14. Mating of animals of two different breeds of animals is called
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Out-breeding (4) Cross-breeding
15. Hisardale is a breed of
(1) Cattle (2) Chicken (3) Sheep (4) Fish
16. A new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams is
(1) Jersey (2) Hisardale (3) Apis (4) Leghorn
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17. Hisardale is produced by the method of
(1) Inbreeding (2) Cross breeding (3) Interspecific hybridization (4) Out-crossing
18. Mule is produced by
(1) Interspecific hybridisation (2) Intraspecific hybridisation
(3) Selection (4) Inbreeding
19. MOET refers to
(1) Multiple ovulation and embryo transfer
(2) Multiple oogenesis and embryo transfer
(3) Multiple ovulation and endosperm transfer
(4) Multiple oogenesis and endosperm transfer
20. In Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) technology, follicular maturation and super
ovulation are induced by administering the cows with hormones which have _____ like
activity.
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
21. Administering hormone with FSH-like activity in cow
(1) Induces super ovulation (2) Increases milk production
(3) Improves growth of the body (4) Gives disease resistance
22. Apiculture refers to
(1) Bee keeping (2) Breeding of cows (3) Cultivation of fish (4) Breeding of sheep
23. Apis indica is the scientific name of
(1) Honey bee (2) Cattle (3) Chicken (4) Common carp
24. An example for edible freshwater fish is
(1) Catla/Rohu/Common carp (2) Hilsa (3) Sardine (4) Mackerel
25. An example for edible marine fish is
(1) Catla (2) Common carp (3) Rohu (4) Hilsa/Sardine/Mackerel/Pomfret
26. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is
(1) Germplasm (2) Gene library (3) Protoplast (4) Somatic hybrid
27. The scientist at International Centre for Wheat and Maize Improvement in Mexico who
Developed semi-dwarf wheat variety is
(1) Herbert Boyer (2) Norman E Borlaug (3) Stanely Cohen (4) Frederick Sanger
28. Soanlika and Kalyan Sona are high yielding and disease resistance varieties of
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Sugar cane (4) Maize
29. A high yielding and disease resistant variety of wheat is
(1) Sonalika/Kalyan sona (2) Taichung Native-I (3) Jaya (4) IR-8
30. One of the following is not a wheat variety.
(1) Himagiri (2) Sonalika (3) Kalyan sona (4) Ratna
31. IR-8 is a variety of
(1) Rice (2) Wheat (3) Maize (4) Sugar cane
32. Better yielding semi dwarf variety of rice is
(1) Jaya/Ratna (2) Kalyan sona (3) Sonalika (4) Himagiri
33. Jaya and Ratna are better yielding semi dwarf varieties of
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Maize (4) Jowar
34. Taichung Native-I is a variety of
(1) Rice (2) Wheat (3) Maize (4) Sugar cane
35. The species of sugar cane originally grown in north India is
(1) Saccharum officinarum (2) Saccharum barberi
(3) Taichung Native-I (4) Jaya
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36. The species of sugar cane grown in south India is
(1) Saccharum officinarum (2) Saccharum barberi
(3) Taichung Native-I (4) Sonalika
37. The species of sugar cane which has thicker stems and higher sugar content is
(1) Saccharum officinarum (2) Saccharum barberi
(3) Taichung Native-I (4) Sonalika
38. The species of sugar cane, Saccharum barberi has
(1) Thick stem (2) High sugar content (3) Poor sugar content (4) Longer life span
39. The species of sugar cane, Saccharum officinarum has
(1) Thick stem/High sugar content (2) Longer life span
(3) Poor sugar content (4) Thin stem
40. The crop variety bred by hybridisation and selection for insect pest resistance is
(1) Brassica (2) Flat beans (3) Okra (4) All of the above
41. Himgiri is an improved variety of
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica
42. Himgiri variety of wheat was developed to provide resistance against
(1) Leaf and stripe rust/Hill bunt (2) White rust
(3) Bacterial blight (4) Black rot
43. The name of wheat variety which was developed to provide resistance against leaf and
stripe rust/hill bunt is
(1) Pusa swarnim (2) Pusa shubra (3) Himagiri (4) Pusa komal
44. Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) is an improved variety of
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica
45. Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) variety of Brassica was developed to provide resistance against
(1) White rust (2) Leaf and stripe rust (3) Bacterial blight (4) Black rot
46. The name of Brassica variety which was developed to provide resistance against white rust
is
(1) Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) (2) Pusa shubra (3) Himagiri (4) Pusa komal
47. Pusa shubra/Pusa snowball K-1 is an improved variety of
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica
48. Pusa shubra/Pusa snowball K-1 variety of cauliflower was developed to provide resistance
against
(1) Black rot/Curl blight black rot (2) Leaf and stripe rust
(3) Bacterial blight (4) White rust
49. The name of cauliflower variety which was developed to provide resistance against black
rot/curl blight black rot is
(1) Pusa swarnim (2) Pusa shubra/ Pusa snowball K-1
(3) Himagiri (4) Pusa komal
50. Pusa komal is an improved variety of
(1) Wheat (2) Cowpea (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica
51. Pusa komal variety of cow pea was developed to provide resistance against
(1) Black rot (2) Leaf and stripe rust (3) Bacterial blight (4) White rust
52. The name of cow pea variety which was developed to provide resistance against bacterial
blight is
(1) Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) (2) Pusa shubra (3) Himagiri (4) Pusa komal
53. Pusa sadabahar is an improved variety of
(1) Chilli (2) Rice (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica
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54. Pusa sadabahar variety of chilli was developed to provide resistance against
(1) Leaf and stripe rust (2) Black rot and curl blight black rot
(3) Tobacco mosaic virus/Leaf curl (4) Bacterial blight
55. The name of chilli variety which developed to provide resistance against tobacco mosaic
virus and leaf curl is
(1) Pusa swarnim (Karan rai) (2) Pusa shubra
(3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Pusa komal
56. Pusa Gaurav is an improved variety of
(1) Chilli (2) Rice (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica (rapeseed mustard)
57. Pusa Gaurav variety of Brassica (rapeseed mustard) was developed to provide resistance
against
(1) Aphids (2) Jassids (3) Fruit borer (4) Stem borer
58. The name of Brassica (rapeseed mustard) variety which was developed to provide resistance
against aphids is
(1) Pusa gaurav (2) Pusa shubra (3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Pusa komal
59. Pusa sem2/Pusa sem 3 is an improved variety of
(1) Cow pea (2) Flat bean (3) Cauliflower (4) Brassica (rapeseed mustard)
60. Pusa sem2/Pusa sem 3 variety of flat bean was developed to provide resistance against
(1) Aphids/Jassids/Fruit borer (2) Bollworm (3) Shoot borer (4) Stem borer
61. The name of flat bean variety which was developed to provide resistance aginst jassids,
aphids and fruit borer is
(1) Pusa gaurav (2) Pusa shubra (3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Pusa sem 2/Pusa sem 3

62. Pusa sawani/Pusa A-4 is an improved variety of

(1) Cow pea (2) Flat bean (3) Cauliflower (4) Okra (bhindi)
63. Pusa sawani/Pusa A-4 variety of okra (bhindi) was developed to provide resistance against
(1) Aphids (2) Jassids (3) Shoot and fruit borer (4) Stem borer
64. The name of okra (bhindi) variety which was developed to provide resistance against shoot
and fruit borer is
(1) Pusa gaurav (2) Pusa shubra (3) Pusa sadabahar (4) Pusa sawani/Pusa A-4
65. Parabhani kranti is a variety of _______ which gives resistance to yellow mosaic virus.
(1) Cow pea (2) Flat bean (3) Cauliflower (4) Okra (bhindi)
66. Parabhani kranti variety of okra (bhindi) was developed to give resistance against
(1) Yellow mosaic virus (2) Jassids (3) Shoot and fruit borer (4) Stem borer
67. The name of okra (bhindi) variety which was developed to provide resistance against yellow
mosaic virus is
(1) Parabhani kranti (2) Himagiri (3) Pusa swarnim (4) Pusa sadabahar
68. Parabhani kranti variety of okra (bhindi) was developed to provide resistance against yellow
mosaic virus by
(1) Somatic hybridisation (2) Tissue culture
(3) Mutation breeding (4) Genetic engineering
69. The morphological feature which gives resistance to jassids in cotton and cereal leaf beetles
in wheat is
(1) Solid stems (2) Hairy leaves (3) Smooth leaves (4) Hairy shoot
70. Hairy leaves in cotton provide resistance against
(1) Jassids (2) Leaf beetle (3) Aphids (4) Bollworm
71. Hairy leaves in wheat provide resistance against
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(1) Jassids (2) Cereal leaf beetle (3) Aphids (4) Bollworm
72. Solid stems in wheat provide resistance against
(1) Stem borer (2) Stem sawfly (3) Corn borer (4) Bollworm
73. The morphological feature which gives resistance to stem sawfly in wheat is
(1) Solid stems (2) Hairy leaves (3) Smooth leaves (4) Hairy shoot
74. Smooth leaved and nectar-less cotton variety is resistant to
(1) Stem borer (2) Stem sawfly (3) Fruit borer (4) Bollworm
75. The features in cotton which give resistance against bollworm are
(1) Solid stems and hairy leaves (2) Hairy leaves and lack of nectar
(3) Smooth leaves and lack of nectar (4) Hairy shoot and smooth leaves
76. High aspartic acid and low nitrogen and sugar content in maize gives resistance against
(1) Stem borer (2) Stem sawfly (3) Corn borer (4) Bollworm
77. The features in maize which give resistance against stem borer are
(1) Solid stems & hairy leaves
(2) Smooth leaves and lack of nectar
(3) High aspartic acid and low nitrogen and sugar content
(4) Hairy shoot and smooth leaves
78. “Hidden Hunger” refers to
(1) Deficiency of protein, vitamin and micronutrients
(2) Inability to absorb micronutrients from food
(3) Inability to digest proteins and carbohydrates in food
(4) Deficiency of water and roughage
79. Biofortification refers to
(1) Breeding crop plants with higher level of vitamin/oil/protein/micronutrient/mineral
content
(2) Breeding crop plants to develop pest resistance
(3) Breeding crop plants to develop disease resistance
(4) Breeding crop plants to increase their yield
80. Breeding crop plants with higher level of vitamin/oil/protein/micronutrient/mineral content
is called
(1) Bioprospecting (2) Biopiracy (3) Biofortification (4) Biomagnification
81. A wheat variety which has a high protein content is
(1) Parbhani kranti (2) Atlas 66 (3) Himagiri (4) Karan rai
82. Atlas 66 which has a high protein content is a variety of
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (3) Maize (4) Bathua
83. Atlas 66 is a variety of wheat which is biofortified with high content of
(1) Iron (2) Protein (3) Oil (4) Vitamin C
84. Atlas 66 is
(1) Wheat variety having high protein content (2) Bitter gourd enriched with vitamin C
(3) Pumpkin enriched with vitamin C (4) Protein enriched beans
85. Biofortified bitter gourd is enriched with
(1) Vitamin A (2) Protein (3) Vitamin C (4) Iron
86. An example for an organism used to produce single cell protein is
(1) Spirulina /Methylophilus (2) Saccharum (3) Glomus (4) Rhizobium
87. Mythylophilus methylotropus is used in producing
(1) Single cell proteins (2) Cyclosporin A (3) Statins (4) Antibiotics
88. The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called
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(1) Micropropagation (2) Somatic hybridization (3) Biofortification (4) Bioprospecting
89. Plants produced by tissue culture which are genetically identical to the original plant are
referred to as
(1) Somatic hybrids (2) Somaclones (3) Genetically modified plants (4) Explants
90. Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube under sterile conditions in special
nutrient medium is called
(1) Somaclone (2) Explant (3) Germplasm (4) Protoplast
91. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any explant or cell is called
(1) Totipotency (2) Micropropagation (3) Apomixis (4) Emasculation
92. Virus-free plants can be obtained by growing _______ in vitro through tissue culture.
(1) Meristem (2) Seed (3) Pollen grain (4) Stem
93. Growing hybrid protoplasts obtained by fusing protoplasts of two varieties of plants with
desirable characters by tissue culture results in
(1) Somatic hybrids (2) Somaclones (3) Apomictic plants (4) Parthenocarps
94. Growing meristem in vitro by tissue culture helps in producing
(1) Virus free plants (2) Nutrient rich plants
(3) Disease resistant plants (4) Draught resistant plants
95. Pomato is an example for
(1) Somaclone (2) Somatic hybrid (3) Apomictic plant (4) Parthenocarps
96. Biofortified carrot, spinach and pumpkin are enriched with
(1) Vitamin A (2) Protein (3) Vitamin C (4) Iron
------

Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name any two poultry birds which are used for food and eggs.
2. Write any two advantages of inbreeding.
3. What is inbreeding? Mention the drawback of inbreeding?
4. Write the reason for inbreeding depression. How can it be overcome?
5. What happens if there is continuous inbreeding in animals? Discuss the strategy to overcome the
problem associated with continuous inbreeding.
6. Write the difference between inbreeding and outbreeding.
7. Differentiate between outcrossing and crossbreeding.
8. What is interspecific hybridization? Give suitable example.
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9. Name two major controlled breeding techniques employed in animal breeding.
10. Name the breeds used to develop a new breed of sheep called Hisardale.
11. Why bee hives are kept in a crop field during flowering period? A
12. Give any two examples for edible fresh water fishes.
13. Give any two examples for edible marine water fishes.
14. List any two edible aquatic animals other than fishes.
15. Name the two culture techniques which can increase production of both marine and fresh
water plants and animal.
16. Write any four traits for which plant breeding is done.
17. Mention the drawbacks of cross hybridization among selected parents in plant breeding?
18. Name two high yielding wheat varieties which were introduced in India in 1963.
19. Which are the two rice varieties that were used to produce semi dwarf rice variety in 1966 in
our country?
20. Name two high yielding semi dwarf rice varieties developed in India.
21. Why Sonalika and Kalyan varieties are superior to the traditional varieties of wheat?
22. Why is the south Indian sugarcane, Saccharum officinarum, preferred by agriculturists?
23. Name two species of sugar cane of India which were hybridized to get a better variety.
24. What do you mean by resistance of host plant to diseases?
25. Name any two fungal diseases in plants.
26. Name any two viral diseases in plants.
27. How are disease resistant varieties advantageous over traditional varieties of crop plants in
plant breeding?
28. Name any two diseases for which Himgiri variety of wheat is resistant.
29. What are the effects of diet which lacks essential micronutrients?
30. Mention any two objectives of biofortification.
31. How biofortified maize and wheat are considered as nutritionally improved?
32. Name any two microorganisms which are used for the production of single cell proteins.
33. Write the ingredients that are used in the tissue culture nutrient medium.
34. Name two growth regulators used in plant tissue culture nutrient medium.
35. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and explant.
36. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and micropropagation.
37. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and somaclones.
38. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and meristem culture.
39. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and somatic hybrid.
40. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms totipotency and somatic hybridisation.
41. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and micropropagation.
42. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and somaclones.
43. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and meristem culture.
44. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and somatic hybrid.
45. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms explant and somatic hybridisation.
46. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and somaclones.
47. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and meristem culture.
48. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and somatic hybrid.
49. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms micropropagation and somatic hybridisation.
50. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms somaclones and meristem culture.
51. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms somaclones and somatic hybridisation.
52. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms meristem culture and somatic hybrid.
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53. With reference to tissue culture, define the terms meristem culture and somatic hybridisation.
54. Differentiate between somaclones and somatic hybrids.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the measures to be taken to realize the yield potential in cattle in a dairy farm.
2. What is inbreeding? Describe the breeding strategy employed in inbreeding.
3. What is inbreeding? Write any two advantages of inbreeding.
4. Differentiate out-crossing, cross breeding and interspecific hybridization.
5. Differentiate inbreeding, outbreeding and cross breeding.
6. Explain cross breeding with an example.
7. Explain the steps involved in MOET.
8. List the characteristics of Saccharum officinarum and Saccharum barberi. What are the combined
desirable characters obtained by hybridizing these two varieties?
9. List the diseases caused by fungi in cultivated crops.
10. Write the disease resistant crop varieties for the following diseases.
(a) White rust (b) Black rot (c) Hill bunt
11. Write the resistant crop varieties for the following insect pests:
(a) Aphids (b) Jassids (c) Shoot borer
12. List three examples for morphological, biochemical or physiological characters which give
natural insect or pest resistance in host crop plants.
13. What is biofortification? List two examples for biofortified crop plants and their importance.
14. Write any three objectives of plant breeding for improved nutritional qualities.
15. Give any three examples for biofortified plants with their significance.
16. Mention any three biofortified vegetable yielding plants with their significance.
17. Write three applications of plant tissue culture.
18. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Micropropagation
19. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somaclones
20. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somatic hybrid
21. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Meristem culture
22. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somatic hybridization
23. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somatic hybrid
24. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somaclone
25. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somatic hybrid
26. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Meristem culture
27. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Micropropagation (c) Somatic hybridisation
28. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Somaclones (c) Soamatic hybrid
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29. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Somaclones (c) Meristem culture
30. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Somaclones (c) Soamatic hybridisation
31. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Soamatic hybrid (c) Meristem culture
32. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Soamatic hybrid (c) Somatic hybridization

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. List out any five aspects of dairy farm management.
2. Define poultry. List out any four components of poultry farm management.
3. What is artificial insemination? What is its advantage in animal breeding? 2M
(b) Discuss the MOET technique of animal breeding. 3M
4. Write five requirements for successful Bee keeping.
5. What is bee-keeping? Write any four points to be followed for successful bee-keeping.
6. What is artificial insemination? What is its significance? Explain a controlled breeding technique
in which artificial insemination is employed.
7. Describe the steps involved in breeding a new variety of genetic crop.
8. What is biofortification? Mention its objectives. Mention two examples for biofortified crops with
their importance.
9. With reference to tissue culture, explain the following:
(a) Explant (b) Totipotency (c) Somaclones (d) Somatic hybrids (e) Micropropagation.
10. List three objectives of biofortification. Why are biofortified maize and wheat varieties
considered as nutritionally improved varieties?
*********
CHAPTER : 10
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
● Microbe belongs to diverse groups of organisms like Bacteria, Fungi, protosome, virus, viroids,
prions.
● Aricrober like bacteria and fungi can be groom on negative media to form that can be seen with
naked eyes such culture are usefull in study of microbe
A. Microbes household products.
1. Curd
● Lactobacillus or lactiv acid bacteria (LAB) convert milk into curd.
● The LAB produced acids that coagulated and partially digot the milk protiens
● The Batter milk is used inoculum which contains LAB
● It contains high amount of vitamin B12
● The curd kills disease causing microbe dint he stomach
2. Cheese
● It is partially degraded concentrate of milk ‘fat’ and ‘casein’
● Different varies of cheese are know by charactstic texture , taste and flavor example : swich
cheese
● Produced by the bacteria. ‘Propionion bacterium sharmanii’
● It is charcterised by the presence of large hole Example: request chees
● It ripend by fangi penicillium ‘Penicillium Roquefortli’
3. Dough:
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Which is used in the preparation of idli and desa under fo formation by bacteria leuconostac
mesentonoids, steptococuus farcalis
4. Bread:
It is prepared by dough which is ferimented by baker’s yeast sachharomycus cervious.
Puffed up appearance of dough due to the production of C O2 during fermentation.
5. Toddy:
It is traditional drink of south India produced by the formation of ‘Palm Sap’
6. Microbes are also used to fament fish soyabeen abnd bamboo tomake foods.
B. Microbes in industrial products:
1. Organic Acid Source
Lactic Acid Lactobacillus
Acteic Acid Acitic bacter aceti
Butalic Acid Closterdium bacteliaum
Centric Acid Aspergillus Niger (Fungi)
2. Bio active molecular
a) Cyclosporin – A
Used as an immune supprime agent in organ transplant patients produced by the
fungi treatement polyporem
b) Statins :
Used as blood chelorostrol lowering agent produced by the yeast monascus
purpaccus It acts by competitively inhibiling the enzyme responsible for the synthesis
of cholestral.
c) Enzymes:
(i) Lipases :
These are used in detergent formaulations to remove oily stain from the laundry
They are obtained from Cadida. Species.
(ii) Pectaneases and protiases:
They help in classifying fruit juices making them cleares as compare to throx made at
home
They are patind from Aspergillus species
1. Streptokynax
● It is produced by streptococcus bacteria and modified by genetic generating is used
as dot badder for removing dots from the blood vessels of patient who have
undergone myocardial infarction, leading its herart attach.

Fermented beverages
Are by the fermentation of matled cerals and fruit juices. Land molar brenuers yeast
saccharomyces cerevisiac.
Depending on the type of paw meterials used for fermentation and the type of proan (with
or without destilation) different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained wine and beer,.
Product without distillation
Brandy, wiskhy and rum produced with distillation

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Beverages Substrate used Conc. of
alcohol

Beer Barley malt 3 to 6 %

Wine Fruit juices 9 to 10 %

Wiskhy Fermented 50 %
curdes

Brandy Fruit juices 60 to 70%

Rum Molacus 40 %

Ottka polalo 60 to 80 %

Beverages are produced in large cointains called Fermentors.

Antibiotics: They are chemicals ectracted from the microbes we to kill or blast thr growth of
disease causing organism.
● Antibiotic means “against life” in the context of dioxine causing organisms where as with
reference to human beings they are profile and not against.
● Antibiotic are regarded as one o fthe most significant discoveries of 20th century.
● The first antibiotic penicillin was discovered by these sander flenering while working on
stophytocai, bacteria, he observed a mould going in one of its unwanted culture plates
around wide which slaphyloccoi could not grow. He found the chemical was produced by it
and sacred it as penioides after the mould penicillum nectatum
● However, its full potential as effective antibiotic was established by ernest chain. Howeard
florey.
● This antibiotic wasintensively used to treat americal soldiers wounded cold war II
● Fleming, chain and florer. Were awarded Nobel award in 1946 for thid discovery.
● Antibiotic hasve greatly important are capacity tio treat deadly diseases on plague, whoing
cough (koli kharesi) diphtheria (Gal ghotu) and leprosy which used to kill million all over the
globe.
Biofertilizers:
● Heae are the microbes. That enrich neutrien qualify of the soil Ex: Bacteria, Cynobac, fungi’s

Bacteria:
● Rhizobium forms symbiotic association with root modulus of liqumences plantshelps in N 2 –
fix
● Azotobacter/and azoprillum can fix atmospheric n2 while from living in the soil
For example: Nitrosemanas, nitrobacteria, niteococcus
Cyno Bacteria [BGA]
Noistac, Anubera, oscillateria
In paddy fields, cyanobacteria same important bio fertilizer it helps in N 2 fix. And reduces
alkalinity of soil.
Myeoriza:
● It is the symbiotic association b/w fungai and roots of higher plants
● It help in absorption pf p from the soil.

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● Micorisha belongs to the genus glomus.
● Also helps in overall increase in plant growth and development.
● It shows resiatcne to root bone pathogens
● It also provide tolerance to salanity drought
Organic Farming
The method of processing crops using bio fertilizers and munule without chemical fertilizaers.
Bio Gas: [Gober Gas]
● A m,ixture of 60 - 70 % methane 30 % C O2 and 5 % H 2 and H 2 S produced by the
unaerochic fermentation of organic waste by methanogens
● Methanogens are found in cow dung, Swage, Rumen of cattle.
● The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the effects of
Indian Agricultural Research Institute. [IARI] Kadhi and Village Industries Commission [KVIC]
● The bio gas plant consists of
● A covered tank/digester of 10-15 feet deep in which bio waste or collectuel
● An inlet through which bio waste (sleevary) introduced into digestion.
● A floating gas holder is placed over the digestor which keeps on raising as the gas it
introduced in the tank due tomicrobial activity.
● It has an cut let, which is connected to the digester through which spent sluvary, is
remained and may be under fertilizer.

Microbes in Sewage treatment:

● Sewage is the municipal waste produced by house, offices, school, coleges etc., contain
large amount of or matter and microbes. May of which are pathogenic.
● Therefore, sewage to be treated in sewage treatment plant [STP’s] before its disposal into
the water bodies like river and oceans.
● Sewage treatment can be done in two logen
● Primary /Physical treatment
Secondary/Biological treatment
● Physical removal. Large and small particles from sewage through fil and sedimentation
● Floting debris, is removed by sequential fithation.
● The girl (Soil and small pubbler) are removed by sedmentation
● All solids that settle form the primary sluduge and supper nectant forms the primary
effluent.

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● The effluent is used in 2nd treatment.
Secondary/ Biological treatment
● Done by using hetrotrophic microbes natural present in sewage
● The primary effluent is passed into a large attraction tank where it is constant affilatted and
air is pumbed into it. It result in vigorous growth of usefull aerobic heteroptic microbes
called flocks.
● They are masses of bacteria ass. With fungal filaments to form mesh like structures
● While growing, these microbes consumes major part of the organic matter present in the
effluent. This significantly reduces bio chemical oxygen demand (BOD)
● BOD is the amount of oxygen required by the flokes to degrade the organic matter present
in 1L of water.
● BOD is the measure oforganic matter present in sewage. The greater the BOD of waste
H 2 O m,ore is it polating potential
● The sewage H 2 O is treated till the BOD is reduced
● Once the BOD is reduced, the effluent is transferred into settling tank
● The settling tank allowes the floaks to get settled.
● This sediment is called secondary or activated sledge
● A small part of the activated sledge is pumped back into a reaction tank of sence as
inaculum. The remaining part of the sledge is pumped into large unarobic sleedge digestor.
● In the arerobic sleedge digestor. The methanogenic bat. Digest, the bacteria fungi
presenting he sleedge. During this bacteria produced a mixture of gan
Methane, C O2 , H 2 S these gares form bio gas and continueous be uses as sources of
emerge.
● The effluent from the uses aerobic sleedge digestor is generally released into natural W.B.
like rines and steraman
● India, the mistry of environment and forest has insiated GAP ganga action plan and YAP
Yamuna action plan tosame these major sources of our country from pollution. Under this
plan it is purposed to build a large number of sewage treatment plants so that only treated
sewage may be dischargeble into the rivers.
Biocontrol agents:
● It refers to the use of microbes as other organism to control plant diseases and pests.
● In modern society, harmfull organisms are controlled by using inclides and petiodes these
chemicals are toxic acid extreamly harmfull to humans and use of cocucedicides to kill
weeds causes soil pol.
● Hence, bio control agents are used in agriculture tocontrol pesh that depends or natural
predation rather than chemicals , thus the use biocontrol agents reduced our dependence
of toxic chemicals and pesticids.
Example: lady bird kill →aphids
Dragonflies kill→ mosquitoes
Gambusia kill→ mosquito larane
Trichoderma fungus kill → Roat bornc pathogens
Bacilus turengensis ( BT ) kill→ control caterpiller larcus of butterfly
BT are available in shaten as dryed spores which are mixed with water and sparied on to catter
plants where there are eaten by curve in the gut of the larvae the toxin released and the larva
get killed.
● The transgenic plants developed by gentic engenering plant has BT toxic gene in the c. p such
plants are resistant to attacte by caterpillar larwa and ottur insects B T catton.
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● Bacclo virus kill→ insects∧other arthropods
They belong to the genus Neudo polyhedral virius (NPV) these V have species specific,
narrow spectrum, insectestidal applications they have no negative impacts on plants,
mamals, birds, fishes or non target insects.
Integrated post management (IPM)
This is desirable when berifies insects are loving consumed aid in an over all integrated post
management program. When an ecologically sensitive area is being treated, The overall objective of
IPM is to create and maintain sectivartion in which insects are presented from causing significant
damage to crops.
IPM has applied in agriculture is ideally the use of effective echonomical. safest. Echologically
sustainable and socialogiocally acceptable combination of physical chemical and biological methods
to limit the harmfull effects of crop pests.

MCQs

1. LAB is
(1) Lactic Acid Bacteria (2) Lactose Acid Bacteria
(3) Lactogenic Acid Bacteria (4) Lactulose Acid Bacteria
2. LAB grows in
(1) High temperatures (2) Milk (3) Cow dung (4) Soil
3. Milk is converted into curd by
(1) LAB (2) Escherichia coli (3) Propionibacterium (4) Saccharomyces
4. LAB improves the nutritional quality of curd by increasing
(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin B6 (3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin D
5. In our body, LAB plays a beneficial role in
(1) Checking disease causing microbes (2) Producing antibodies
(3) Neutralizing acid in stomach (4) Increase digestive enzymes
6. The puffed up appearance of dough (for idli and dosa) is due to the production of
(1) C O2 (2) Hydrogen sulphide (3) Methane (4) Hydrogen
7. The scientific name of baker’s yeast is
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Escherichia coli
8. Dough which is used for making bread is fermented using
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Escherichia coli
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Acetobacter aceti
9. Toddy, a traditional drink of some parts of southern India is made by
(1) Ethanol (2) Fermenting sap from palms
(3) Adding curd into milk (4) Butyric acid
10. The large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to production of a large amount of C O2 by
(1) Lactobacillus acidophilus (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
11. The Roquefort cheese is ripened by growing a specific type of ________ on it.
(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria (3) Blue green algae (4) Yeast
12. The scientific name of brewer’s yeast is
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Escherichia coli
13. The microbe used in the production of beverages like whiskey, brandy, rum, beer or wine is
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(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Escherichia coli
14. By using microbes, wine and beer are produced ________ of fermented broth.
(1) With distillation (2) Without distillation (3) By heating (4) By curdling
15. By using microbes, whiskey, brandy and rum are produced _______ of fermented broth.
(1) With distillation (2) Without distillation (3) By heating (4) By curdling
16. Chemical substance produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other
microbes is called
(1) Antibiotic (2) Antibody (3) Antigen (4) Statin
17. Alexander Fleming observed that ________ could not grow on unwashed culture plates
containing a mould
(1) Penicillin (2) Rhizobium (3) Escherichia coli (4) Staphylococci
18. Penicillin is obtained from a type of
(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast (3) Mould (4) Blue green alga
19. The full potential of Penicillin as an effective antibiotic was established by
(1) Ernest Chain and Howard Florey (2) Alexander Fleming
(3) Jacob and Monad (4) Hershey and Chase
20. The microbe which is used for the industrial production of citric acid is
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Lactobacillus
21. The microbe which is used for the industrial production of acetic acid is
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Lactobacillus
22. The microbe which is used for the industrial production of butyric acid is
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Lactobacillus
23. The microbe which is used for the industrial production of lactic acid is
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Lactobacillus
24. The microbe which is used for the industrial production of ethanol is
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Acetobacter aceti
(3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
25. Aspergillus niger is a
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungus (3) Virus (4) Alga
26. ____________is used in detergent formulations and is helpful in removing oily stains from
the laundry.
(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Lipase (3) Acetic Acid (4) Ethanol
27. The bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as compared to those made at
home. This is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of
(1) Pectinases and proteases (2) Endonucleases (3) Ethanol (4) Lipases
28. ____________ is used as a ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients
who have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack.
(1) Cyclosporin (2) Statin (3) Pectinase (4) Streptokinase
29. A bioactive molecule (Streptokinase) which is used as a clot buster is obtained from
(1) Streptomyces (2) Streptobacillus (3) Streptomycetes (4) Streptococcus
30. Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and modified by genetic
engineering is used as a
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(1) Clot buster (2) Immune suppressant
(3) Blood cholesterol lowering agent (4) Immunomodulator
31. A bioactive molecule called cyclosporin A that is used as an immunosuppressive agent in
organ transplant patients, is produced by the fungus
(1) Trichoderma polysporum (2) Monascus purpureus
(3) Streptococcus (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
32. Trichoderma polysporum is the organism from which an immunosuppressant called
________ is obtained.
(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statin (3) Pectinase (4) Streptokinase
33. Cyclosporin A is used as
(1) Clot buster (2) Immune suppressant
(3) Blood cholesterol lowering agent (4) Immunomodulator
34. Statins which have been commercialised as blood-cholesterol lowering agents are obtained
from a type of yeast called
(1) Trichoderma polysporum (2) Monascus purpureus
(3) Streptococcus (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
35. Monascus purpureus is a type of
(1) Bacterium (2) Yeast (3) Nematode (4) Protozoan
36. Statins produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus act by
(1) Competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
(2) Breaking the blood clots
(3) By enhancing Vitamin B12
(4) Blocking fats
37. The bioactive molecule obtained from Monascus purpureus which competitively inhibits the
enzyme responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol is
(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statin (3) Pectinase (4) Streptokinase
38. Statins obtained from Monascus purpureus are used as
(1) Clot busters (2) Immune suppressants
(3) Blood cholesterol lowering agents (4) Immunomodulators
39. Trichoderma polysporum is a type of
(1) Bacterium (2) Fungus (3) Yeast (4) Protozoan
40. Primary treatment of sewage basically involves physical removal of particles – large and
small – from the sewage through
(1) Filtration and sedimentation (2) Microbial action
(3) Flocs production (4) Aeration
41. The solid waste that settles in the tank after filtration and sedimentation of sewage during
primary treatment is called
(1) Activated sludge (2) Primary sludge (3) Slurry (3) Flocs
42. Secondary treatment of sewage is also called
(1) Sedimentation (2) Filtration (3) Centrifugation (4) Biological treatment
43. BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in
______ of water were oxidised by bacteria.
(1) One liter (2) One millilitre (3) One microliter (4) One deciliter
44. A mass of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structure is produced
during biological treatment of sewage. This is called
(1) Flocs (2) Activated sludge (3) Primary sludge (4) Slurry

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45. ___________ of effluent which is obtained after primary treatment of sewage decreases its
BOD.
(1) Aeration (2) Filtration (3) Sedimaentation (4) Inoculation
46. The sediment obtained during secondary treatment of sewage containing bacterial ‘flocs’ is
called
(1) Primary sludge (2) Secondary sludge (3) Activated sludge (4) Slurry
47. The dung of cattle which is also called gobar is rich in
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Azospirillum (3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus
48. The bacteria which is commonly found in anaerobic sludge produced during sewage
treatment is
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Azospirillum (3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus
49. During anaerobic sludge digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as
(1) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide
(2) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide and nitric oxide
(3) Methane, carbon monoxide and hydrogen sulphide
(4) Carbon dioxide, hydrogen peroxide and hydrogen sulphide
50. The bacteria found in the rumen of cattle which help in the breakdown of cellulose and play
an important role in the nutrition of cattle is
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Azospirillum (3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus
51. A common bacterium which is involved in the production of biogas is
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Azospirillum (3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus
52. Biogas is a mixture of gases which predominantly contains
(1) Methane (2) Nitric oxide (3) Hydrogen peroxide (4) Carbon monoxide
53. In biological control, dragonflies are used to get rid of
(1) Aphids (2) Mosquitoes (3) Bacteria (4) Nematodes
54. In biological control, the ladybird beetle is used to get rid of
(1) Aphids (2) Mosquitoes (3) Bacteria (4) Nematodes
55. An example of microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced in order to control
butterfly caterpillars is
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Azotobacter
(3) Methanobacterium (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
56. The fungus which is used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant diseases is
(1) Trichoderma (2) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Glomus
57. The fungus Trichoderma is an effective biocontrol agent of several
(1) Plant pathogens (2) Aphids (3) Butterfly caterpillars (4) Glomus
58. The viruses that are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal
applications are
(1) Nucleopolyhedrovirus (2) Lambda bacteriophage
(3) Φ 174 (4) T 4 bacteriophage
59. The organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called
(1) Biofertilizers (2) Biolistics (3) Biocontrollers (4) Bioplasma
60. The symbiotic bacterium present in the root nodules of leguminous plants which help in
fixing atmospheric nitrogen is called
(1) Rhizobium (2) Glomus (3) Anabaena (4) Oscillatoria
61. Free living soil bacterium which fixes atmospheric nitrogen is
(1) Azotobacteria/Azospirillum (2) Glomus (3) Anabaena (4) Oscillatoria
62. The bacterium which fixes atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms is
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(1) Rhizobium/Azotobacteria/Azospirillum (2) Glomus (3) Anabaena (4) Oscillatoria
63. Cyanobacterium widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial environments which can
fixatmospheric nitrogen is
(1) Anabaena/Nostoc/Oscillatoria (2) Azospirillum (3) Glomus (4) Rhizobium
64. Azospirillum and Azotobacter are
(1) Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria (2) Symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria
(3) Biological control agents (4) Autotrophic nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria
65. Symbiotic association between plant roots and fungus is called
(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Coleorrhiza (3) Mycoplasma (4) Coleoptile
66. A symbiotic fungus which forms mycorrhiza with roots of plants is
(1) Azotobacter (2) Glomus (3) Anabaena (4) Oscillatoria
67. The fungal symbiont in mycorrhiza which gives resistance to root-borne pathogens and
toleranceto salinity and drough is
(1) Azotobacter (2) Glomus (3) Anabaena (4) Oscillatoria
68. The fungal symbiont in mycorrhiza helps in the absorption of ______________ from the soil
andpasses it to the plant
(1) Phosphorus (2) Nitrogen (3) Potassium (4) Sulphur
------
Answer

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any two significant roles of LAB.
2. Write any two uses of LAB other than its role in converting milk into curd.
3. Name any two distilled and two undistilled alcoholic beverages.
4. Name two enzymes used to clarify bottled juices.
5. Name any two bacteria which are used in the production of organic acids.
6. Mention the scientific name of the source organism of streptokinase. How does this bioactive
molecule function in our body?
7. Mention the scientific name of the source organism of cyclosporin A. Mention the function of
cyclosporine A.
8. Mention the scientific name of the source organism of antibiotic penicillin. Mention the function
of penicillin.
9. List any two bioactive molecules of fungal origin and explain how those molecules help in
restoring good health in humans.
10. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of butyric acid and acetic acid.
11. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of butyric acid and citric acid.
12. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of butyric acid and lactic acid.

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13. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of acetic acid and citric acid.
14. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of acetic acid and lactic acid.
15. Mention the scientific names of the source organisms of lactic acid and citric acid.
16. Name the microbe used for statin production. How do statins lower blood cholesterol level?
17. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and butyric acid.
18. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and lactic acid acid.
19. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and acetic acid.
20. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and citric acid.
21. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and penicillin.
22. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and streptokinase.
23. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and cyclosporin A.
24. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of ethanol and statin.
25. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and penicillin.
26. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and streptokinase.
27. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and cyclosporin A.
28. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of butyric acid and statin.
29. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and penicillin.
30. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and streptokinse.
31. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and cyclosporin A.
32. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of lactic acid and statin.
33. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and penicillin.
34. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and streptokinase.
35. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and cyclosporin A.
36. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of acetic acid and statin.
37. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and penicillin.
38. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and streptokinase.
39. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and cyclosporin A.
40. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of citric acid and statin.
41. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of penicillin and streptokinase.
42. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of penicillin and cyclosporin A.
43. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of penicillin and statin.
44. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of streptokinase and cyclosporin A.
45. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of streptokinase and statin.
46. Mention the scientific names of source organisms of statin and cyclosporin A.
47. Write the steps involved in primary treatment of sewage.
48. What is BOD? Write its significance.
49. What are flocs? Write their significance in sewage treatment.
50. Name two groups of organisms which constitute flocs. Write their significance.
51. Name any two gases produced during sludge digestion in sewage treatment.
52. Write two uses of biogas.
53. Biocontrol of insects and pests is desirable and beneficial compared to the use of insecticides
and pesticides. Justify this with two reasons.
54. Give any two examples for free living bacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
55. Give any two examples for cyanobacteria which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
56. How do cyanobacteria act as biofertilizers?

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

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1. Write about any three microorganisms and their role in household products.
2. What are antibiotics? Name thefirst antibiotic to be discovered and the person who discovered it.
3. Mention any three bacteria which are used in the production of organic acids. Mention the
products obtained from them.
4. Explain three biological methods to control pests and diseases.
5. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of penicillin, cyclosporin A and
statin.
6. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of penicillin, cyclosporin A and
streptokinase.
7. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of penicillin, streptokinase and
statin.
8. Mention the microbial source (scientific name) and the function of streptokinase, cyclosporin A
and statin.
9. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and penicillin in human welfare.
10. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and streptokinase in human welfare.
11. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and statin in human welfare.
12. Explain the roles of lipase, pectinase and cyclosporin A in human welfare.
13. Explain the roles of pectinase, penicillin and streptokinase in human welfare.
14. Explain the roles of pectinase, penicillin and statin in human welfare.
15. Explain the roles of pectinase, penicillin and statin in human welfare.
16. Explain the roles of penicillin, statin and streptokinase in human welfare.
17. Explain the roles of penicillin, statin and cyclosporin A in human welfare.
18. Explain the roles of statin, streptokinase and cyclosporin A in human welfare.
19. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Biogas plant.
20. Explain the role of any three microorganisms as biofertilizers.
21. Mention any three significances for plants having symbiotic association with fungi. K
22. List any three benefits for plants from mycorrhiza.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain the role of microbes in house-hold products.
2. Explain the role of microbes in the production of industrial products.
3. Explain different stages involved in sewage treatment.
4. Describe the biogas plant with a neat labeled diagram.
5. Explain the role of any five microorganisms as biocontrol agents.
6. Describe the role of microbes as biofertilizers.
7. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Lactic acid
8. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Statin
9. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Streptokinase
10. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Ethanol (b) Acetic acid (c) Butyric acid (d) Citric acid (e) Cyclosporin A
11. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid (e) Statin
12. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid (e) Streptokinase
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13. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid (c) Citric acid (d) Lactic acid (e) Cyclosporin A
14. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Butyric acid (b) Citric acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Statin (e) Streptokinase
15. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Butyric acid (b) Citric acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Statin (e) Cyclosporin A
16. Write the scientific names of microbes from which following products are obtained:
(a) Citric acid (b) Lactic acid (c) Statin (d) Streptokinase (e) Cyclosporin A
17. Write the products obtained from following microorganisms:
(a) Clostridium butylicum (b) Trichoderma polysporum (c) Aspergillus niger
(d) Monascus purpureus (e) Streptococcus
18. Write the products obtained from following microorganisms:
(a) Clostridium butylicum (b) Aspergillus niger (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Monascus purpureus (e) Streptococcus
19. Write the products obtained from following microorganisms:
(a) Trichoderma polysporum (b) Aspergillus niger (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Monascus purpureus (e) Streptococcus
20. Mention the products obtained from the following microbes and explain their roles in human
welfare:
(a) Methanobacterium (b) Trichoderma polysporum (c) Penicillium notatum
(d) Monascus purpureus (e) Streptococcus

CHAPTER : 11
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES
BIOTECHNOLOGY
According to European Federation of Biotechnology ( EFB ) , Biotechnology is “The integration of
natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for products and
services”.

Principles of Biotechnology
The two important techniques that enabled the birth of modern biotechnology are –
i) Genetic Engineering:
It is a method of introduction of gene from one organism to another and thus changing the
phenotype of the host.
ii) Bioprocess Engineering:
It is the maintenance of sterile environment for chemical engineering processes to enable the
growth of only the desired microbes or eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the manufacture of
biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes etc.
The two main discoveries used in the field of genetic engineering are –
a) Presence of plasmids in bacteria which can undergo replication along with and independent of
chromosomal DNA.
b) Restriction endonucleases (REN) can break DNA at specific sites.
Construction of first recombinant DNA technology (rDNA – technology)
The first recombinant DNA was constructed by Stanely Cohen and Herbert Boyer in 1972.
They cut the piece of DNA from a plasmid carrying antibiotic resistance gene in the bacterium
Salmonella typhimurium using restriction endonucleases. This piece of antibiotic resistance gene

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was linked with a plasmid of E.coli bacteria using DNA Ligase. This newly formed DNA having
integrated fragment of antibiotic resistant gene is called recombinant DNA (rDNA)
When this rDNA is transferred into E.coli, it could replicate using DNA polymerase enzyme and
make multiple copies of rDNA.
The ability to produce multiple copies of antibiotic resistant gene in E.coli is called as cloning.
Steps involved in genetically modifying an organism:
i) Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
ii) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
iii) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

PROCESSES & TOOLS INVOLVED IN RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

1. ISOLATION OF THE GENETIC MATERIAL (DNA)
In majority of organisms, DNA is the genetic material.
In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, it needs to be in pure form, free from other
macro-molecules. Since the DNA is enclosed with few membranes, and other molecules, the
bacterial cell / fungal /cell / plant cell or animal cell is first treated with Lysozyme / chitinase /
cellulase to remove the cell walls first and then treated with RNases and proteases to remove RNA
and proteins respectively.
Other molecules can be removed by appropriate treatments and purified DNA ultimately
precipitates out after the addition of chilled ethanol by the process called Spooling.
2. RESTRICTION ENZYMES
In 1963, two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E.coli were
isolated.
a) Restriction endonucleases (REN)
They cut DNA at specific positions. They are also called molecular scissors.
b) The other enzyme adds methyl groups to DNA, so that the bacterial DNA gets protected from
Restriction endonucleases: (REN)
Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.
There are two types of nucleases.
● Endonucleases – Makes cuts at specific positions within the DNA.
● Exonucleases - Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA.
The First Restriction endonuclease is Hind II , isolated from the bacteria Haemophilus influenzae.
Hind II cut DNA molecule at a particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of 6 base pairs.
Today we have more than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from 230 strains of
bacteria.
REN – Nomenclature
Eg : 1 Hind II
H → Generic name – Haemophilus
in → Specific name – influenza
d → Strain name
II → Roman letter which refers to order at which the enzyme is extracted.
Eg : ECO RI
E → Generic name – Escherichia
co → Specific name – coli
R → Strain name
I → Roman letter – refers to the order at which the enzyme is extracted.

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Each restriction enzyme recognize a specific sequence and cuts the DNA. The REN recognition
sequence is called palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Palindromic sequence:
It is the sequence of DNA when read both from left to right and right to left, it remains the same.
Eg :51 G A A T T C 31
3 CTTAAG5
1 1

GEL ELECTROPHORESIS:

Gel electrophoresis is a method of separation of DNA fragments based on charge and size.
The matrix used in this process is Agarose gel which is extracted from sea weeds – Gracilaria and
Gelidium.
After cutting the DNA, using restriction endonucleases, the DNA fragments are placed in the wells
of matrix.
When electricity is passed along with sieving effect, the DNA molecules since carries negative
charges, move towards anode according to their size. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the
farther it moves and longer the size, the shorter it moves.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualized only after staining the DNA with Ethidium bromide
followed by exposure to UV radiation. The DNA bands appear as bright orange coloured bands. The
separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece called
Elution.

POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION (PCR) OR AMPLIFICATION OF GENE

Polymerase chain Reaction is technique of synthesizing multiple copies of the desired gene invitro.
This technique was developed by Kary Mullis in 1985.
Requirements :
● The gene /DNA to be amplified.
● Nucleotides – AMP , GMP, CMP & TMP
● Taq – polymerase – a temperature tolerant enzyme extracted from the bacteria Thermus
aquaticus.
● DNA Primer, complementary to 31 end of target DNA segment.

Steps involved:

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1. Denaturation:
The DNA segment is heated to high temperature (94 0C) Heating results in the separation of two
strands of DNA. Each strand of DNA now act as template for the synthesis of new DNA strand.
2. Annealing:
The temperature is lowered to 400 C to 600C , during this, the DNA primer hybridise at 31 end of
DNA template.
3. Primer Extension :
During this, the enzyme Taq polymerase synthesizes DNA segment between the primers, using DNA
nucleotides at 720C.
By PCR method, upto 1 billion copies of DNA can be made in around 30 cycles.
CLONING VECTORS :
The vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host
cell. Vectors may be plasmids or cosmids or bacteriophages or bacterial artificial chromosomes
(BAC) or Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC) The most commonly used vector are plasmids and
viruses.
PLASMID:
Plasmids are extrachromosomal self replicating, double stranded, circular, cytoplasmic component
of bacteria. Eg : pUC 18, pUC 19, pBR 322 etc.
pBR 322:

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It is the first artificial cloning vector constructed in 1977 by Boliver and Rodriguez.
Features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector.
Origin of replication (Ori)
Origin of replication is a specific sequence of DNA bases which is responsible for initiating
replication. This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
Selectable markers – Some genes called selectable markers help in selecting those host cells which
contain the vectors (transformants) and eliminating the non-transformants. Generally, the genes
encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicillin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, Kanamycin etc.,
are useful selectable markers.
pBR 322 has 2 selectable markers ampicillin resistance genes (amp R) and tetracycline resistance
gene (tetR)
3. Cloning sites / recognition sites :
pBR 322 has a variety of unique recognition sites for restriction endonucleases. Two unique sites Pst
I and Pvu I are located within ampR gene and Bam HI and Sal I are within tetR gene.
Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several fragments,
which will complicate the gene cloning.
Insertion of foreign gene/DNA into the plasmid using enzyme Pst I or Pvu I. Within the gene amp R
inactivates ampR gene. Bacterial cells containing such a recombinant pBR 322 will be unable to grow
in the presence of ampicillin, but will grow on tetracycline. Similarly, when restriction enzyme Bam
HI or Sal I is used to insert foreign gene / DNA within the gene tet R, inactivates tetR gene. Bacterial
cells possessing such a recombinant pBR 322 will, therefore, grow on ampicillin but not on
tetracycline.
Due to inactivation of antibiotics, selection of recombinants becomes a difficult process as it
requires simultaneous plating of two plates having different antibiotics. Thus alternative selectable
markers are developed to differentiate recombinants from non recombinants.
Insertional inactivation:
If a foreign gene is inserted in the coding sequence of an enzyme β – galactosidase, it causes
inactivation of the enzyme which is called insertional inactivation.
If the plasmid in the bacterium does not have an insert, the presence of chromogenic substrate
gives blue coloured colonies. Presence of an insert results into insertional inactivation of the β –
galactosidase and, therefore, the colonies do not produce any colour. These colonies are marked /
identified as recombinants / transformants.

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4. Vectors for cloning genes in plants and animals:
A Soil – inhabiting plant bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens causes plant cancer/crown galls in
plants through Ti-genes of Ti – plasmid. As Ti-gene of Ti- plasmid transfer occurs without human
effort, the bacterium is called natural genetic engineer. By replacing Ti- gene with desirable gene
we can modify this bacteria and can be used as a vector to transfer the desired genes to other
plants.
Similarly retroviruses are used to carry desirable genes into animal cells.
COMPETENT HOST – For transformation with Recombinant DNA.
A. Direct or vector less gene transfer
It is the process of gene transfer into the host cell without using a vector.
1. Microinjection:
It is suitable for animals in which the foreign DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell
by using micro needles.
2. Biolistics or Gene gun method:
Introducing DNA into cells that involves bombardment of cells with high-velocity micro particles of
gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
It is suitable for plants.
B. Vector mediated Gene transfer
Here the transfer of gene into the host cell takes place using a vector.
1. Heat shock :
Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule it cannot pass through membranes. So the bacterial cell and
rDNA along with a divalent calcium are incubated on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42 0C,
and then putting them back on ice. This makes pore on the bacteria hence the bacterial cell can
take up rDNA into it.
Recombinant protein:
Any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called a recombinant protein.

BIOREACTORS:

Bioreactors are the vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into specific products,
individual enzymes etc., using microbial plant, animal or human cells.

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A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing
optimum growth conditions like, temperature, pH, Substrate, Salts, vitamins, Oxygen etc.,
The most commonly used bioreactors are, 1) Simple stirred bioreactor
2) Sparged – tank bioreactor
A stirred –tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the
reactor contents. The stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability, throughout the
bioreactor.
A bioreactor has an agitator system, in oxygen delivery system and a foam control system, a
temperature control of system, pH control system and sampling ports so that small volumes of
the culture can be withdrawn periodically.
A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired product by providing optimal
growth conditions like temperature, pH, salts, vitamins, O2 etc.,
DOWNSTREAM PROCESSING:
A series of processes a biotechnological product has to be subjected after its production –which
includes-
-Separation and purification
-Addition of preservatives
-Clinical trials
-Quality control tests

MCQs
1. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
(1) Template (2) Nucleoid (3) Vector (4) Biolistics
2. Making multiple copies of any template DNA is called
(1) Cloning (2) Elution (3) Biolistics (4) Transformation
3. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living
organisms?
(1) X – Ray diffraction (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Recombinant DNA technique (4) Somatic hybridization
4. Which of the following are used in gene cloning?
(1) Nucleoids (2) Plasmids (3) Mesosomes (4) DNA probe
5. Which of the following is related with genetic engineering?
(1) Nucleoids (2) Plasmids (3) Mesosomes (4) Lippes loop
6. The bacterium which is very widely used in genetic engineering is
(1) Agrobacterium (2) Clostridium (3) Pseudomonas (4) Azotobacter
7. An antibiotic resistance gene was isolated in 1972 by
(1) Herbert Boyer and Stanely Cohen (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Messelson and Stahl (4) Eli Lilly
8. The first recombinant DNA was constructed in 1972 by
(1) Herbert Boyer and Stanely Cohen (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Messelson and Stahl (4) Eli Lilly
9. The technique by which an animal is made superior (with respect to its genotype) by
introducing some foreign genes is called
(1) Somatic hybridization (2) Genetic engineering
(3) Polymerase chain reaction (4) Gel electrophoresis
10. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of
(1) Selectable markers (2) Ligases (3) Restriction enzymes (4) Exonucleases
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11. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the discovery
(1) Restriction endonuclease (2) DNA ligase (3) Transcriptase (4) Taq polymerase
12. _______ are also called ‘molecular scissors’.
(1) Restriction enzymes (2) DNA ligases (3) Exonuclease (4) Taq polymerase
13. Restriction enzymes help in
(1) Removing nucleotides from the ends of DNA(2) Cutting DNA at specific sites
(3) Producing multiple copies of gene in vitro (4) Joining foreign DNA and plasmid
14. The first restriction endonuclease to be discovered was
(1) Hind II (2) EcoR I (3) BamH I (4) Pvu I
15. Which of the following cuts the DNA at specific sites?
(1) EcoR I/BamH I (2) pBR 322 (3) Taq polymerase (4) Exonuclease
16. In EcoR I, the Roman number incdicates
(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Strain number (4) The order of the enzyme isolated
17. In EcoR I, the first letter incdicates
(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Strain number (4) The order of the enzyme isolated
18. In EcoR I, the second two letters number incdicate
(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Strain number (4) The order of the enzyme isolated
19. Identify the wrong statement with respect to restriction enzymes:
(1) They function by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence
(2) They cut the DNA at palindromic sites
(3) They are useful in genetic engineering
(4) They remove nucleotides from ends of DNA
20. The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoR I is
(1) 5’ GAATTC 3’ 3’ CTTAAG 5’ (2) 5’ GGAACC 3’ 3’ CCTTGG 5’
(3) 5’ CTTAAG 3’ 3’ GAATTC 5’ (4) 5’ GGATCC 3’ 3’ CCTAGG 3’
21. Choose the correct pair from the following;
(1) Ligases – Join two DNA molecules
(2) Polymerases – Break the DNA into fragments
(3) Exonucleases – Make cuts at specific locations within DNA
(4) Nucleases – Separate two DNA strands
22. Identify the incorrect statement with respect to the characteristics of restriction
endonuclease.
(1) It recognizes a specific palindromic sequence in the DNA
(2) It cuts DNA molecule at a specific position within the DNA
(3) It binds to DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands
(4) It binds to the DNA at specific points and cuts each of the two strands
23. A foreign DNA and a plasmid which are cut by the same restriction enzyme can be joined to
form a recombinant DNA using the enzyme
(1) Ligase (2) EcoR I (3) Exonuclease (4) Taq polymerase
24. A natural polymer extracted from sea weeds is used in
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) Electrophoresis
(3) Isolation of desired gene (4) Multiplication of desired gene
25. The fragments of DNA obtained by using restriction enzymes are separated by
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Somatic hybridization (4) Centrifugation
26. Gel electrophoresis is a procedure which helps in
(1) Selection of transformants (2) Separation of DNA fragments
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(3) Producing multiple copies of a gene (4) Identifying a palindromic sequence
27. The separated fragments of DNA on agarose gel can be visualized after staining with
(1) Ethidium bromide (2) Acetocarmine (3) Cotton blue (4) Saffranine
28. The cutting out of separated bands of DNA and its extraction from agarose gel piece is called
(1) Elution (2) Cloning (3) Inoculation (4) Gel electrophoresis
29. The copy number of a plasmid (vector) is controlled by
(1) Ori site (2) Palindromic sequence (3) Recognition site (4) Restriction site
30. A selectable marker in a plasmid helps in
(1) Selecting the transformants (2) Controlling the copy number
(3) Identifying the restriction site (4) Producing multiple copies of a gene
31. Selectable markers in a plasmid are normally
(1) Antibiotic resistance genes (2) Palindromic sequenes
(3) Variable tandem repeats (4) Minisatellites
32. Antibiotic resistance genes in plasmids
(1) Act as selectable markers (2) Regulate copy number of the plasmid
(3) Act as recognition sites for restriction enzymes (4) Cause insertional inactivation
33. Bombardment of plant cells with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated
with desired DNA is called
(1) Elution (2) Inoculation (3) Micro-injection (4) Biolistics/Gene gun technique
34. A suitable method to introduce alien DNA into animal cells is
(1) Biolistics (2) Gen gun (3) Micro-injection (4) Elution
35. A suitable method to introduce alien DNA into plant cells is
(1) Biolistics /Gene gun technique (2) Heat shock
(3) Micro-injection (4) Elution
36. In genetic engineering, biolistics or gene gun technique is suitable for
(1) Disarming pathogen vectors (2) Introducing foreign DNA into plant cells
(3) Transformation of animal cells (4) Inserting desired gene into a plasmid
37. In genetic engineering, micro-injection is suitable for
(1) Disarming pathogen vectors (2) Introducing foreign DNA into animal cells
(3) Transformation of plant cells (4) Inserting desired gene into a plasmid
38. The metal used in gene gun technique or biolistics to introduce foreign DNA into host cells is
(1) Platinum or Palladium (2) Gold or tungsten
(3) Platinum or tungsten (4) Gold and palladium
39. A gene in a vector (plasmid) which helps in identifying the transformed cell is
(1) Structural gene (2) Cistron (3) Selectable marker 4) Regulator
40. How many restriction sites are present in pBR 322?
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 11
41. The plasmid pBR 322 has a selectable marker which gives resistance against the antibiotic
(1) Kanamycin (2) Chloramphenicol (3) Terramycine (4) Tetracycline/Ampicillin
42. Which of the following is a restriction enzyme?
(1) pBR322 (2) DNAase
R
(3) am p (4) Hind II/Hind III/EcoR I/Pvu I/Pvu II/Pst I/Sal I/BamH I/Cla I
43. The presence of recombinant DNA within the coding sequence of the enzyme ß-
galactosidase does not produce any colour in the bacterial colony. The inference drawn
from this is that plasmids in bacterial colonies
(1) Do not have an insert & are non-transformants
(2) Have an insert & are transformants
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(3) Do not have cloning sites & are transformants
(4) Have selectable marker & are transformants
44. The Ti plasmid is a plasmid of the bacteiurm
(1) Azotobacter (2) Escherichia coli
(3) Thermus aquaticus (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
45. The technique by which multiple copies of gene (DNA) of interest is synthesized in vitro
using two sets of primers and DNA polymerase is called
(1) ELISA (2) PCR (3) ELSI (4) GEAC
46. PCR is a technique which is used to
(1) Separate DNA fragments (2) Produce multiple copies of desired gene
(3) Produce recombinant proteins on a alrge scale (4) Produce fragments of DNA
47. A thermostable enzyme which is obtained from a bacterium and which is used in PCR
technique is
(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase (3) Restriction enzyme (4) Taq polymerase
48. Taq polymerase which is used in PCR technique is obtained from the bacterium
(1) Azotobacter (2) Escherichia coli
(3) Thermus aquaticus (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
49. Select the correct sequence of steps in polymerase chain reaction;
(1) Annealing → Denaturation → Extension (2) Denaturation →Annealing → Extension
(3) Annealing → Extension →Denaturation (4) Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
50. The enzyme used to isolate DNA from bacterial cells in genetic engineering is
(1) Pectinase (2) Cellulase (3) Lysozyme (4) Chitinase
51. The enzyme used to isolate DNA from plant cells in genetic engineering is
(1) Pectinase (2) Cellulase (3) Lysozyme (4) Chitinase
52. The enzyme used to isolate DNA from the cells of fungi in genetic engineering is
(1) Pectinase (2) Cellulase (3) Lysozyme (4) Chitinase
53. Which of the following enzyme is not used in the isolation of genetic material (DNA) ?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Protease (3) Ribonuclease(RNAase) (4) Deoxyribonuclease
54. In genetic engineering, lysozyme enzyme is used to isolate DNA from the cells of
(1) Plants (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Protozoans
55. In genetic engineering, cellulase enzyme is used to isolate DNA from the cells of
(1) Plants (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Protozoans
56. In genetic engineering, chitinase enzyme is used to isolate DNA from the cells of
(1) Plants (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Protozoans
57. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(1) Plant cells – Cellulase (2) Bacteria – Lysozyme
(3) Cells of fungi – Chitinase (4) Animal cells – Taq polymerase
58. After the removal of other biomolecules in the mixture, purified DNA is precipitated using
(1) Chilled ethanol (2) Methane (3) Lysozyme (4) Agarose
59. During the process of isolation of DNA in genetic engineering, chilled ethanol is used to
(1) Precipitate DNA (2) Separate DNA from other biomolecules
(3) Break open the cell to extract DNA (4) Remove proteins like histones from DNA
60. The correct sequence of events in polymerase chain reaction is
(1) Extension – Annealing – Denaturation (2) Annealing – Extension – Denaturation
(3) Denaturaion – Annealing – Extension (4) Annealing – Denaturation - Extension
61. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein in genetic engineering is
called
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(1) Bioprospecting (2) Downstream processing (3) Bioprocessing (4) Biopiracy
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Answers

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What is biotechnology? Mention any two uses of it to mankind.
2. Mention two core techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology.
3. What is the limitation of traditional hybridization procedures of plant and animal breeding? How
is this overcome by genetic engineering?
4. Name two bacteria that were used for developing recombinant DNA technique by Stanley Cohen
and Herbert Boyer.
5. Mention any four biological tools required for recombinant DNA technology.
6. Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease.
7. Explain the convention for naming restriction endonucleases scientifically.
8. What are restriction enzymes? Mention any two examples.
9. Mention any four restriction enzymes.
10. Write note on functioning of restriction endonuclease.
11. Mention the roles of restriction endonucleases and DNA ligase in genetic engineering.
12. Name the technique involved in separation and isolation of DNA fragment. Which dye is used to
stain gel to make the DNA visible under UV light?
13. Explain the steps employed during genetic engineering to isolate the DNA fragments that are
separated by gel electrophoresis?
14. Draw a neat labeled diagram of a typical agarose gel electrophoresis unit.
15. What is selectable marker? What is its role in genetic engineering?
16. Write a note selectable marker.
17. With reference to plasmids, what are the roles of ‘ori’ and selectable marker?
18. A selectable marker is a must in a vector. Why?
19. With reference to rDNA technology, what do you mean by ‘insertional inactivation’ and write
the significance of it.
20. With reference to recombinant DNA technology, explain microinjection and biolistics.
21. How bacteria like Escherichia coli are made competent to take up recombinant DNA?
22. What is biolistics? In which organisms is it generally used?
23. Name the bacterium from which Taq polymerase is obtained. What is the unique feature of Taq
polymerase?

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What is biotechnology? Mention two core techniques that enabled the birth of modern
biotechnology.
2. Explain three basic steps of gene cloning.
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3. Mention the three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism.
4. What are restriction enzymes? How do they function?
5. Make a diagrammatic representation of recombinant DNA technology.
6. What is plasmid? Mention the significance of ‘ori’ in a plasmid.
7. What is plasmid? Mention the significance of selectable marker in a plasmid.
8. What is plasmid? Mention the significance of cloning site in a plasmid.
9. Explain the procedure of making bacterial cells and animal cells competent to take up
recombinant DNA.
10. Explain the procedure of making bacterial cells and plant cells competent to take up
recombinant DNA.
11. Sketch and label pBR322.
12. Sketch and label three steps of PCR technique.
13. What is polymerase chain reaction? List three stages of PCR technique. Mention the polymerase
enzyme used in PCR.
14. Mention six optimum conditions which are maintained in bioreactor.
15. Mention sequential steps involved in rDNA technology.
16. With reference to recombinant technology, define: (a) Cloning (b) Elution (c) Transformation
17. Write a note on isolation of DNA in recombinant DNA technology.
18. Explain the steps involved in the separation and isolation of DNA fragments in recombinant DNA
technology.
19. Write a note on bioreactor.
20. Draw a labelled diagram of simple stirred tank bioreactor.
21. Draw a neat diagram of sparged stirred tank bioreactor.
22. Write a note on downstream processing.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:
1. Explain structure of pBR322 with neat labeled diagram.
2. Describe the characteristics that a plasmid should possess to be used as a cloning vector in
genetic engineering.
3. Explain briefly the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology.
4. What is polymerase chain reaction? Name the bacterium from which the polymerase enzyme
used in this technique is obtained. Write the schematic representation of this technique. (K/S)
5. Give reason for the following statements:
(a) Alien DNA is linked with ‘ori’ site of a vector in gene cloning.
(b) Restriction enzymes are called ‘molecular scissors’.
(c) DNA ligase can be called ‘molecular glue’ or ‘molecular stitcher’.
(d) Gel electrophoresis is considered as a very important technique in recombinant DNA
technology.
(e) DNA fragments move towards anode under electric field through a medium in gel
electrophoresis.
6. Give reason for any five of the following statements.
(a) Origin of replication in a vector is an essential site required for gene cloning.
(b) Selectable marker in a vector is essential site without which identifying recombinant DNA
becomes difficult.
(c) Vectors need to have very few or preferably single recognition site in recombinant DNA
technique.
(d) Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome procedure.
(e) Chilled ethanol is used in DNA isolation.
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CHAPTER : 12
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATION
SESSION I

Biotechnology and its applications

Three critical research areas of biotechnology are: (3m)
 Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved microbe or pure enzyme.
 Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act
 Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein/organic compound.

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO) (1m)

 Organisms whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called Genetically Modified
Organisms (GMO).

Advantages of GM crops or transgenic plants (5m)

 made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses such as cold, drought, salt, heat
 reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
 helped to reduce post harvest losses.
 increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants that prevents early exhaustion of fertility of
soil
 enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., golden rice rich with Vitamin ‘A’

Pest resistant plants or Bt Cotton (3m/5m)

 Pest resistant plants could decrease the amount of pesticide used
 Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis
 B. thuringiensis produces a toxic insecticidal protein crystals
 Specific Bt toxin genes such as cryIAc and cryIIAb were incorporated into the cotton plant by
using Agrobacterium to make it Bt cotton.
 Bt cotton plant produces Bt toxin as inactive protoxins
 When boll worm insect ingest the plant, protoxin enters to its gut region
 At the gut of insect, basic pH or alkaline pH is present that converts protoxin into active
toxin
 The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores
 Pores cause swelling and lysis of cell that leads to death of the insect.

Bt Toxin (3m/5m)
 Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis
 B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals that contain a toxic insecticidal protein
 Bt toxins are insect-group specific that can kill lepidopterans (tobacco budworm,
armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies, mosquitoes)
 The toxin is coded by cry gene
 cryIAc and cryIIAb genes used to control the cotton bollworms
 cryIAb controls corn borer
 Bt toxin produced as inactive protoxins
 When insect ingest the protoxin that enters to its gut region
 At the gut of insect, basic pH or alkaline pH is present that converts protoxin into active
toxin

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 The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores
 Pores cause swelling and lysis of cell that leads to death of the insect

SESSION II

RNA interference (RNAi) or RNA silencing or transgenic tobacco plant (3m/5m)

 A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia causes root knot disease in tobacco plants that reduces
the yield
 A novel strategy called RNA interference was adopted to prevent the infestation in tobacco
plant
 This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA that
prevents translation of the mRNA
 The source of this complementary RNA could be retrovirus or transposons
 Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant
 Introduced DNA produced both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells.
 These two RNA’s being complementary to each other formed a double stranded (dsRNA)
that initiated RNAi and silenced the specific mRNA of nematode.
 Nematode could not survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering RNA.

Insulin
 Insulin is a proteinaceous hormone that maintains the blood sugar level in animals including
human
 Insulin produced as proinsulin that has 3 polypeptide chains called A, B and C chains.
 Chain A and chain B are linked together by disulphide bridges
 Proinsulin becomes active insulin after the removal of C chain

Insulin production (3m)

 Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of
slaughtered cattle and pigs.
 Such insulin caused serious allergy or other types of reactions in the patients
 In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared artificial insulin through rDNA technology
 Two genes corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin were isolated
 Isolated genes were introduced into the plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains
 Chains A and B were produced separately
 Chains A and B were extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to produce active
insulin

SESSION III

Gene therapy (3m/5m)

 Gene therapy is a collection of methods used to correct the defected gene by inserting
functional gene.
 The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4-year old girl (1990) with adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency

Steps in gene therapy

 Lymphocytes are extracted from the patient blood and culture in the lab

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 A functional ADA cDNA produced using a retrovirus
 Functional cDNA is then introduced into the cultured lymphocytes by using retrovirus
 Lymphocytes with functional cDNA injected back to patient
 The patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes since
lymphocytes have short life span
 If the disorder detected in the early stage and functional gene inserted at embryonic stage it
become the permanent cure

Molecular diagnosis
 Two molecular diagnosis tools used to detect the presence of pathogens like bacteria, fungi
and virus are PCR and ELISA

PCR- Polymerase Chain Reaction

 PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients
 It is used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients
 A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule called probe is used
 Probe is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA to detect mutation
 Radioactivity can be detected by autoradiography if the probe binds to complimentary
strand, indicates non mutated gene
 If probe donot binds to the complementary strand indicates the gene is mutated
 Mutated gene do not showed radioactivity in autoradiography

ELISA - Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay

 ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
 Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigens
 Infection by pathogen can be detected by detecting the antibodies synthesized against the
pathogen

SESSION IV

Transgenic animals
 Animals with altered genome due to insertion of foreign gene are called transgenic animals
Examples-Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish

Applications of transgenic animals

 Transgenic animals are used to study - Normal physiology and development, disease,
vaccine safety and to produce biological products
(i) Normal physiology and development: Transgenic animals are used to study the gene
regulation and their effects on physiology
 Ex. insulin-like growth factor (IGF) gene can be inserted to animals to study the effect of the
IGF on the physiology and growth
(ii) Study of disease: Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as cancer,
cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s.
 By using those transgenic animals we can study the contribution of genes to the
development of disease and also investigation of new treatment
(iii) Biological products: Transgenic animals are made to produce useful biological products by
introducing desired gene that codes for a particular product.

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 Ex.
1. The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced milk that contains human protein alpha-
lactalbumin (2.4 grams per litre).
The milk was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow-
milk.
2. Transgenic sheep can produce milk that contains alpha-1-antitrypsin used to treat
emphysema
3. Similar attempts are made for treatment of phenylketonuria (PKU) and cystic fibrosis
(iv) Vaccine safety: Transgenic mice are being used in testing the safety of vaccines before they
are used on humans.
(v) Chemical safety testing: This is known as toxicity/safety testing.
 Transgenic animals are made sensitive to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.
 They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects studied.
Ethical issues
 Genetic Engineering Approval Committee(GEAC), Took the decisions regarding the
validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
Basmathi rice
 According to some estimates 200,000 varieties of rice growing in India.
 The diversity of rice in India is one of the richest in the world.
 Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 documented varieties of
Basmati are grown in India.
 There is reference to Basmati in ancient texts, folklore and poetry, as it has been grown for
centuries.
Biopiracy (2m/3m)
 Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies
and other organizations without proper authorisation from the countries.
 Ex. In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent
and Trademark Office.
 This allowed the company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and abroad.
 This ‘new’ variety of Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer’s varieties
 This patent restricted other people selling Basmati rice
 Same kinds of attempts were made on Neem and turmeric

Traditional Knowledge
 Traditional knowledge related to bio-resources can be used to develop modern applications
 It can also be used to save time, effort and expenditure during the commercialization of
products
 The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the Indian Patents
Bill
 Indian patent bill takes consideration regarding patent terms emergency provisions and
research and development initiative.
 Indian patent bill prevent unauthorised exploitation of their bio-resources and traditional
knowledge.

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MCQs
1. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
thuringiensis is resistant to
(1) Insect pests (2) Fungal diseases (3) Plant nematodes (4) Insect predators
2. Bt cotton is an example of a transgenic crop. In this, Bt refers to
(1) Bacillus tuberculosis (2) Biotechnology
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Bordetella thuringiensis
3. What triggers the activation of protoxin (insecticidal protein) to active toxin of Bacillus
thuringiensis in bollworm?
(1) Acidic pH of stomach (2) Body temperature
(3) Moist surface of gut (4) Alkaline pH of gut
4. The toxic protein encoded by the cry gene _______ controls bollworms.
(1) cryIAb (2) cryIIAc (3) cryIIIAb (4) cryIAc/cryIIAb
5. The toxic protein encoded by the cry gene _______ controls corn borer.
(1) cryIAb (2) cryIIAc (3) cryIIAb (4) cryIAc
6. The toxic protein encoded by the cry gene cryIAb controls
(1) Cotton bollworm (2) Corn borer (3) Jassids (4) Ladybird beetle
7. The toxic protein encoded by the cry gene cryIAc/cryIIAb controls
(1) Cotton bollworm (2) Corn borer (3) Jassids (4) Ladybird beetle
8. The cry gene cryIAb/cryIIAb/cryIAc is isolated from the bacterium
(1) Agrobacteium tumefaciens (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Thermus aquaticus
9. In RNAi, translation of mRNA is prevented due to a complementary
(1) ssRNA (2) dsRNA (3) ssDNA (4) dsDNA.
10. The mobile genetic elements are called
(1) Transposons (2) Recombinant proteins (3) Statins (4) Interferons
11. One of the sources of complementary RNA which are used in RNA interference is
(1) Transposons (2) Recombinant proteins (3) Statins (4) Interferons
12. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognitia?
(1) Stem (2) Root (3) Flower (4) Fruit
13. A nematode which infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in the
yield is
(1) Meloidogyne incognitia (2) Monascus purpureus
(3) Caenorhabditis elegans (4) Trichoderma polysporum
14. RNA interference involves the prevention of the
(1) Translation of mRNA (2) Transcription of mRNA
(3) Synthesis of RNA (4) Synthesis of complementary RNA
15. Eli Lilly company introduced two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of insulin
in the plasmids of ________ to produce human insulin.
(1) Agrobacteium tumefaciens (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Escherichia coli
16. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA
that produces (in the host cells)
(1) Both sense and anti-sense RNA (2) Complementary DNA
(3) An insecticidal protein (4) An inactive protoxin
17. Silencing of mRNA (RNA interference) has been used in the production transgenic tobacco
plant resistant to
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(1) Bollworms (2) Nematodes (3) Corn borer (4) Stem borers
18. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene for the synthesis of
adenosine deaminase gene therapy?
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid (3) pBR 322 (4) Rhinovirus
19. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating
(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Cystic fibrosis (3) Rheumatoid arthritis (4) ADA deficiency.
20. The enzyme required for the functioning of immune system is
(1) Adenosine deminase (2) Transcriptase (3) Streptokinase (4) a-1 antitrypsin
21. Very low concentration of a bacteria or a virus in a person can be detected by amplification
of their nucleic acid by
(1) ELISA (2) PCR (3) MOET (4) IVF
22. HIV can be detected in suspected AIDS patients by
(1) PCR (2) IVF (3) DNA probe (4) IUI
23. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(1) ELISA (2) IVF (3) DNA probe (4) MOET
24. A diagnostic test which is based on antigen-antibody interaction is
(1) ELISA (2) IVF (3) PCR (4) MOET
25. Emphysema is treated by
(1) a-1 antitrypsin (2) Alpha lactalbumin (3) Cyclosporin A (4) Statin
26. a-1 antitrypsin is used to treat
(1) Typhoid (2) Cystic fibrosis (3) Rheumatoid arthritis (4) Emphysema
27. Milk obtained from transgenic cow ‘Rosie’ has higher content of a human protein called
(1) a-1 antitrypsin (2) Alpha lactalbumin (3) Cyclosporin A (4) Interferon
28. The name of the first transgenic cow whose milk was enriched with a – lactalbumin is
(1) Hisardale (2) Rosie (3) Leghorn (4) Jersey
29. The organization which makes decision on validity of GM research and safety is
(1) NACO (2) ELISA (3) ELSI (4) GEAC
30. A ‘new’ variety of rice patented by an US company which is known for its distinct aroma and
flavour is
(1) Basmati (2) IR 8 (3) Taichung Native-1 (3) Ratna
31. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation
from the concerned country and its people is called
(1) Biopiracy (2) Bioprospecting (3) Bio-exploitation (4) Biofortification
------
Answers

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Mention any four benefits of genetically modified organisms.
2. Mention two genes that are responsible for producing Cry protein to control cotton bollworms.
3. How does inactive protoxin of Bt toxin kills the insect once it is ingested?

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4. Which animals were the sources of insulin before the genetically engineered insulin was
produced? Why this insulin was replaced by genetically engineered insulin.
5. Define gene therapy. Mention a disease which has been treated using this technique.
6. Why is the introduction of genetically engineered lymphocytes into a ADA deficiency patient not
a permanent cure? Suggest a possible permanent cure.
7. Mention any two modern methods of disease diagnosis.
8. Mention two applications of Polymer Chain Reaction as a molecular diagnostic tool.
9. ELISA is one of the methods of molecular diagnosis. What is the principle of this technique and
how does it help in detecting HIV infection ?
10. What are transgenic animals? Give any two examples.
11. What is the role of Genetic Engineering Approval committee (GEAC)?
12. Explain any two benefits of transgenic animals.
13. How transgenic animals can help in the study normal physiology and development?
14. How transgenic animals can help in the study diseases?
15. Transgenic animals can be used to produce biological products. Justify with two examples.
16. How transgenic animals can be help in the study of vaccine safety?
17. How transgenic animals can help in the study chemical safety?
18. Differentiate between pro-insulin and a mature insulin.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Mention three critical research areas of biotechnology.
2. What are genetically modified organisms? Mention any four benefits of genetically modified
organisms.
3. Mention six benefits of genetically modified organisms.
4. What is Bt toxin? How does it kill cotton boll worms?
5. Explain the procedure of developing nematode resistant tobacco plant by RNA interference.
6. What is gene therapy? Explain the steps involved in curing ADA deficiency by gene therapy.
7. Mention three applications of PCR as a tool of molecular diagnosis.
8. Briefly explain the steps involved in PCR based molecular diagnosis to detect mutations in cancer
patients.
9. What is biopiracy? Explain it with respect to Basmati rice.
10. Write a note on production of human insulin by genetic engineering.
11. Explain any three benefits of creating transgenic animals.
12. What is biopiracy? Explain it with reference to Basmati Rice.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. “Genetically modified plants can reduce the use of chemical pesticides”. Justify this. .
2. Define RNA interference. Name the nematode for which tobacco plant was made resistant by
this technique. Explain how this resistance was achieved in tobacco plant.
3. Explain the applications of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
4. One of the applications of biotechnology is the production of insect resistant crop plants. Justify
the statement with reference to Bt cotton.
5. Explain various techniques of molecular diagnosis.
6. Give reasons:
(a) Even though Bt toxin can kill many insects, it will not kill the bacteria that produces it.
(b) Even though Bt toxin is inactive, it kills the insect when enters its midgut.
(c) The gene encoding ‘cry’ protein inserted into a crop plants.
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(d) The translation of mRNA is prevented in RNA interference process.
(e) It advisable to use insulin obtained through genetic engineering rather than insulin
obtained from an animal source.
*******
CHAPTER : 13
ORGANISM AND POPULATION
SESSION I

ORGANISM AND ITS ENVIRONMENT:

 Rotation of sun and the tilt of its axis cause annual variations in the intensity and duration of
temperature, resulting distinct seasons.
 These variations along with annual variations in precipitation, forms major biomes, such as
desert, rain forest, and tundra.
 Temperature, water, light and soil are the key elements that lead to so much variation in the
physical and chemical conditions of habitats.
 Both abiotic (physic-chemical) and biotic components (pathogen, parasites, predators,
competitions) characterize the habitat of an organism.

Major abiotic factors:

Temperature:
Water:
Light:
 Temperature decreases progressively from equator towards the pole and high altitudes to >
50 C in tropical deserts in summer.
0

 Thermal springs and deep-sea hydrothermal vents are unique with >100 Temperature
affects the kinetics of enzymes, BMR and other physiological actions.
 Eurythermals: organism which can tolerate wide range of temperatures.
 Stenothermal: organism which can tolerate narrow range of temperatures.
 Water is also important factor that influence the life of organism.
 The productivity and distribution of plants is also depends on water.
 The salinity varies in aquatic environment:
 5% in inland waters (fresh water)

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 30-35 in sea water
 More than 100percent in hyper saline lagoons.
 Euryhaline: organism which can tolerate wide range of salinity
 Stenohaline: organism which can tolerate narrow range of salinity. oC.
 Plant produce food by photosynthesis, which only possible in presence of light. Hence it very
important for autotrophs.
 Plant species (herbs and shrubs) adapted for photosynthesize under canopy
 Sunlight is required for photoperiodic response like flowering.

SESSION II
Soil:
 Animals use diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and photoperiod as cues for
timing their foraging, reproductive and migration.
 Properties of soil vary according to the climate, the weathering process.
 Soil composition, grain size and aggregation determine the percolation and water holding
capacity of the soil.
 These characteristic along with pH, mineral composition and topography determine to a
large extent the vegetation in any area.
 The sediment-characteristic often determine the type of benthic animal in aquatic
environment. Response to Abiotic Factors:

 Homeostasis; the process by which the organism maintain a constant internal environment
in respect to changing external environment.
How does organism cope with the changing environment? Regulate:
Conform:
 Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis physiological (sometimes behavioral also)
means which ensures constant body temperature, constant osmotic concentration.
 All birds and mammals and few lower invertebrates are capable of such regulation i.e.
thermo regulation and osmo regulation.
 Success of mammals is due to thermoregulation.
 We maintain a constant body temperature of 37 0C.
 When outside temperature is high we sweat profusely and evaporative cooling take place to
bring body temperature down.
 In winter due to low temperature outside our body temperature falls below 37 0C, we start
to shiver, to generate heat to raise body temperature.
 Majority (99%) of animals and plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment; their
body temperature varies according to ambient temperature.

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 In aquatic animals the osmotic concentration of body fluid varies with ambient water
osmotic concentration.
 All the above animals and plants are simply called as conformer. Why the conformer not
evolved to became regulators?
 Thermo regulation is energetically expensive for many animals.
 Small animal like shrews and humming birds cannot afford so much energy for
thermoregulation.
 Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area.
 Small animals have larger surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose body heat
very fast when it is cold outside; then has to expend much energy to generate body heat
through metabolism.
 This is why very small animals are rarely found in Polar Regions. Alternative response for
stressful conditions is localized or remains for short duration.

Migrate:

 The organism moved away temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more hospitable area
and return when stressful condition is over.
 Bird migrate form the colder region to warmer region.

Suspend:
 Thick walled spores are formed in microbes to overcome unfavourable stressful external
environment. Spores germinate in favourable condition.
 In higher plants seeds and other vegetative reproductive structures are means to tide over
the stress. They reduce their metabolic activity and going into a state of ‘dormancy’.
 Hibernation: during winter animals like bears escape in time
 Aestivation: animals like snail and fish avoid summer related problem like heat and
desiccation.
 Diapauses: many zooplanktons undergo a stage of suspended development in unfavourable
conditions.
SESSION III

ADAPTATION:
 Adaptation: is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, and behavioral)
that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.

Adaptation of animal in desert:

 Kangaroo rat meets their water requirement from oxidation of fat.
 Excrete very concentrate urine to conserve water.

Adaptation of plant in desert (xerophytes)

 Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.
 Sunken stomata, both to reduce transpiration.
 Have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM), stomata closed during day time and remained
open during night.
 Opuntia has no leaf- they are reduced to spines.
 Photosynthesis takes place in flat green stems.
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Adaptation of animal in cold climate:

 Allen’s Rule: mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to
minimize heat loss.
 Seals of polar aquatic seas have a thick layer of fat called blubber below their skin that acts
as insulator and reduces loss of body heat.

Adaptation in high altitude:

 A person move to high altitude (>3,500 meter), develop altitude sickness.
 Symptoms developed are nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations.
 This is due to low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes; the body does not get enough
oxygen. How the bodies solve the problem?
 The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production.
 The body compensates decreasing binding capacity of hemoglobin with oxygen by
increasing rate of breathing.

Behavioral adaptation:
 Desert lizards are conformer hence they cope with the stressful environment by behavioral
adaptations:
 They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the
comfort zone in winter.
 Move to shade when the ambient temperature starts increasing.
 Some species burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from the above-ground heat.
POPULATION:
Population attributes:

Population:
a group of individual living in a well defined geographical area, share or compete for similar
resources, potentially interbreed.
 Birth rate and death rate refers to per capita births and deaths respectively.
 Another attribute is sex ratio. The ratio between male female in a population.
 If the age distribution is plotted for a population the resulting structure is called age
pyramid.
 The shape of the pyramids reflects the growth status of the population like growing, stable
or declining.
 The population size is more technically called as population density.

Methods for measurement of population density:

∙ Counting the number

∙ Percent cover
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∙ Biomass.
∙ Pug marks and fecal pellets for tiger census

Population growth:

 The size of the population changes depending on food availability, predation pressure and
reduce weather.
 Population size fluctuated due to changes in four basic processes, two of which (Natality and
immigration) contribute an increase in population density and two (mortality and
emigration) to a decrease.
 Natality: number of birth in given period in the population.
 Mortality: number of deaths in the population in a given period of time.
 Immigration: is the number of individuals of same species that have come into the habitat
from elsewhere during a given period of time.
 Emigration: number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and gone
elsewhere during a given time period.
 If ‘N’ is the population density at time ‘t’, then its density at time t + 1 is :

SESSION IV

Exponential growth:
 The Exponential growth equation is Nt = N0ert
 Nt = Population density after time t
 N0 = Population density at time zero
 r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
 e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828)

Exponential growth (‘J’ shape curve is obtained).

* When resources are not limiting the growth.
* Any species growth exponentially under unlimited resources conditions can reach
enormous population densities in a short time.
* Growth is not so realistic.

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Logistic growth model

 Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth is described by the following equations
dN/dt = rN (K–N / N)
 Where N = Population density at time t
 r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
 K = Carrying capacity

Logistic Growth (Sigmoid curve is obtained)

 When responses are limiting the Growth.
 Resources for growth for most animal populations are finite and become limiting.
 The logistic growth model is a more realistic one.

POPULATION INTERACTIONS:

Predation:
 Organism of higher trophic level (predator) feeds on organism of lower trophic level (prey) is
called the predation.
 Even the herbivores are not very different from predator.
 Predator acts as a passage for transfer of energy across trophic level.
 Predators keep prey populations under control.
 Exotic species have no natural predator hence they grow very rapidly. (prickly pear cactus
introduced in Australia created problem)
 Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a community, by reducing the
intensity of competition among competing prey species. (Pisaster starfish field experiment)

Defense developed by prey against predators:

Animals:
 Insects and frogs are cryptically coloured (camouflaged) to avoid being detected by the
predator.
 Some are poisonous and therefore avoided by the predators.
 Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator (bird) due to presence of special
chemical it its body. The chemical acquired by feeding a poisonous weed during caterpillar
stage.
Plants:

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 Thorns in Acacia, Cactus are morphological means of defense.
 Many plants produce and store some chemical which make the herbivore sick if eaten,
inhibit feeding, digestion disrupt reproduction, even kill the predators.
 Calotropis produces poisonous cardiac glycosides against herbivores.
 Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium etc. are produced by plant actually as
defenses against the grazers and browsers.
SESSION V

Competition:
 Interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution.
 Competition generally occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources
that are limiting, but this not entirely true:
 Firstly: totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resources.
American lakes visiting flamingoes and resident fishes have their common food,
zooplanktons.
 Secondly: resources need not be limiting for competition to occur.
 Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island, due to greater browsing ability.

Competitive release: A species, whose distribution is restricted to a small geographical area

because of the presence of a competitively superior species, is found to expand its distributional
range dramatically when the competing species is experimentally removed. Connell’s elegant field
experiment showed that superior barnacle Balanus dominates the intertidal area and excludes the
smaller barnacle Chathamalus from that zone.

Gause’s ‘competitive Exclusion Principle’: two closely related species competing for the same
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior will be eliminated eventually.
Resource partitioning: If two species compete for the same resource, they could avoid competition
by choosing, for instance, different times for feeding or different foraging pattern.

Parasitism:
 MacArthur showed five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree were able
to avoid competition and co-exist due to behavioral differences in their foraging activities.
 Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and meals.
 Some parasites are host-specific (one parasite has a single host) in such a way that both host
and parasite tend to co-evolve.

Parasitic adaptation
 Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
 Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to the host.
 Loss of digestive system.
 High reproductive capacity
 Parasites having one or more intermediate host or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its
primary host.
 Liver fluke has two intermediate hosts (snail and a fish) to complete its live cycle.

Effects on the host:

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 Parasite always harms the host.
 They reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of the host.
 Reduce its population density.
 They make the host more vulnerable to the predators, by making it physically weak.

Ectoparasite: feeds on the external surface of the host.

o Lice on human
o Ticks on dog
o Marine fish infested with copepods
o Cuscutaa parasitic plant grow on hedge plants.

Endoparasites: are those that live inside the host body at different sites.
o Life cycle is more complex.
o Morphological and anatomical features are greatly simplified.
o Highly developed reproductive system.

Brood parasitism:
o Special type of parasitism found in birds.
o The parasitic birds lay its eggs in the nest of its host and let the host incubate them.
o The egg of the host is very similar with the egg of the host.
o Cuckoo lays eggs in the nest of the crow.
SESSION VI

Commensalism: This is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is neither
benefited nor harmed.
 Orchids growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch.
 Clown fish living among tentacles of sea anemone.
 Barnacles on back of whales.
 Cattle Egret and grazing cattle.

Mutualism: interaction between two living organism, both are equally benefited, no one is harmed.
 Lichen: a mycobiont and a Phycobiont.
 Mycorrhiza: relationship between fungi and root of higher plant.
 Pollinating insects and flowering plants.
 Fig trees and its pollinating agent wasp.

Sexual deceit
 Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’.
 Petal of the flower resembles the female bee.
 The male bee attracted to what it perceives as a female, ‘pseudocopulates’ with the flower
but does not get any benefits.

MCQs
1. Niche refers to
(1) Biological factors in the organism’s environment
(2) Physical space where an organism lives
(3) Range of temperature that the organism needs to live

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(4) Functional role played by the organism where it lives
2. Organisms which can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperature are called ______
animals.
(1) Euryhaline (2) Eurythermal (3) Stenohaline (4) Stenothermal
3. Organisms which are restricted to narrow range of temperature are called ________
animals.
(1) Euryhaline (2) Eurythermal (3) Stenohaline (4) Stenothermal
4. Organisms which can tolerate a wide range of salinity are called ______ animals.
(1) Euryhaline (2) Eurythermal (3) Stenohaline (4) Stenothermal
5. Organisms which are restricted to a narrow range of salinity are called ______ animals.
(1) Euryhaline (2) Eurythermal (3) Stenohaline (4) Stenothermal
6. Eurythermal organisms can tolerate and survive in a
(1) Wide range of temperature (2) Narrow range of temperature
(3) Wide range of salinity (4) Narrow range of salinity
7. Stenothermal organisms can tolerate and survive in a
(1) Wide range of temperature (2) Narrow range of temperature
(3) Wide range of salinity (4) Narrow range of salinity
8. Euryhaline organisms can tolerate and survive in a
(1) Wide range of temperature (2) Narrow range of temperature
(3) Wide range of salinity (4) Narrow range of salinity
9. Stenohaline organisms can tolerate and survive in a
(1) Wide range of temperature (2) Narrow range of temperature
(3) Wide range of salinity (4) Narrow range of salinity
10. Soil composition, grain size and aggregation determine
(1) Percolation and water holding capacity (2) Sol flora and fauna
(3) Temperature of soil (4) Type of organisms in the soil
11. Homeostasis means maintenance of _________ in an organism.
(1) Constant internal environment (2) Higher reproductive capacity
(3) Greater physical activities (4) Variations in physiological activities
12. Homeostasis is
(1) Change in the external environment
(2) Maintenance of constant internal environment
(3) Disturbance of self-regulatory system
(4) Variations in surrounding environment
13. Organisms which are capable of maintaining constant body temperature are called
(1) Poikilotherms (2) Exotherms (3) Regulators (4) Conformers
14. Profuse sweating in mammals results in
(1) Increased body temperature (2) Evaporative cooling
(3) Lower osmotic concentration (4) Generation of body heat
15. When stressful conditions are localized or remain only for a short duration, the organisms
________ for their survival.
(1) Regulate (2) Conform (3) Migrate or suspend (4) Evolve
16. To escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from
Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions migrate to
(1) Western Ghats (2) Himalayas (3) Corbett National Park (4) Keoladeo National Park
17. To avoid heat and dessication during summer, animals go into
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation (3) Diapause (4) Migration
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18. To avoid stress during winter and escape in time, animals go into
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation (3) Diapause (4) Migration
19. A stage of suspended development under unfavourable conditions in many zooplanktons is
called
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation (3) Diapause (4) Conformation
20. Any morphological or physiological or behavioural attribute of the organism which enable it
to survive in the habitat is called
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation (3) Diapause (4) Adaptation
21. What type of adaptation does the kangaroo rat show?
(1) Morphological adaptation (2) Physiological adaptation
(3) Behavioural adaptation (4) Biochemical adaptation
22. In the absence of an external source of water, kangaroo rats
(1) Oxidise internal fat/Produce concentrated urine (2) Produce dilute urine
(3) Store water in their body (4) Hide in the shadow
23. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass in Manali
exhibit
(1) Decreased RBC production
(2) Lower binding affinity of haemoglobin/Increased RBC production
(3) Decreased breathing rate
(4) Less haemoglobin content
24. Which of these is not a response produced by the body to overcome altitude sickness ?
(1) Increased RBC production (2) Increased binding affinity of haemoglobin
(3) Increased breathing rate (4) Decreased binding affinity of haemoglobin
25. To minimize water loss, many desert plants
(1) Have sunken stomata/Close stomata during day time
(2) Close their stomata during night
(3) Posses broader leaves
(4) Thin cuticle on the leaf surface
26. A special photosynthetic pathway called CAM pathway is seen in
(1) Cactus (Opuntia) (2) Calotropis (3) Rauwolfia (4) Banyan
27. Mammals from cold climates have relatively shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss.
This is called
(1) Verhulst – Pearl rule (2) Humboldt’s rule (3) Allen’s rule (4) 10 percent Law
28. According to Allen’s rule, mammals from colder climate have
(1) Longer ears and shorter limbs (2) Shorter ears and shorter limbs
(3) Shorter ears and longer limbs (4) Longer ears and longer limbs
29. Desert lizards bask in the sun when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone
and move into shade when ambient temperature starts increasing. This is an example for
(1) Morphological adaptation (2) Physiological adaptation
(3) Behavioural adaptation (4) Biochemical adaptation
30. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
(1) Sex ratio (2) Natality (3) Mortality (4) Carrying capacity
31. The age pyramid with broad base indicates
(1) High number of pre-reproductive individuals
(2) Low number of pre-reproductive individuals
(3) High number of reproductive individuals
(4) High number of post-reproductive individuals
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32. What parameters are used for tiger census in our country’s National Parks and Tiger
Reserves?
(1) Pug marks only (2) Pug marks and fecal pellets
(3) Fecal pellets only (4) Acyual head counts
33. Natality refers to
(1) Death rate (2) Birth rate (3) Sex ratio (4) Age distribution
34. Mortality refers to
(1) Death rate (2) Birth rate (3) Sex ratio (4) Age distribution
35. The number of births in a population during a given period is
(1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) Emmigration (4) Immigration
36. Population density increases as
(1) Natality and emigration increase (2) Mortality and emigration increase
(3) Natality and immigration decrease (4) Natality and immigration increase
37. When resources are not limited, population growth will be
(1) Logistic (2) Exponential (3) Asymptote (4) Limited
38. When resources are limited, population growth will be
(1) Logistic (2) Exponential (3) Asymptote (4) Limited
39. Population growth will be exponential when
(1) Resources are limited (2) Resources are not limited
(3) Natality is less than mortality (4) Mortality is more than natality
40. Population growth will be logistic when
(1) Resources are limited (2) Resources are not limited
(3) Natality is less than mortality (4) Mortality is more than natality
41. When the resources are unlimited in the habitat, the growth of the population will
(1) Increase beyond the carrying capacity (2) Be below the carrying capacity
(3) Increase in exponential manner (4) Be equal to the carrying capacity
42. The formula for exponential growth is
(1) dN/dt = rN (2) dt/dN = rN (3) dN/rN = dt (4) rN/dN = dt
43. The formula for exponential growth is dN/dt = rN. In this equation, ‘r’
(1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase (2) Carrying capacity
(3) Population density (4) Growth rate
44. The integral form of exponential growth of population is
rt
(1) N t =N 0 e r (2) N 0=N t e r rt (3) N t =N 0 e r (4) N 0=N t e r
45. Verhulst – Pearl logistic growth is described by the equation
(1) dN/dt = rN [(K – N)/K] (2) dt/dN = rN [(N – K)/K]
(3) dN/dt = rN [(K – N/N] (4) dN/dt = rK (K /(K – N)]
46. If ‘+’ refers to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ refers to detrimental interaction and ‘0’ refers to
neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+ and –’ refers to
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism/Predation
47. If ‘+’ refers to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ refers to detrimental interaction and ‘0’ refers to
neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+ and +’ refers to
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
48. If ‘+’ refers to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ refers to detrimental interaction and ‘0’ refers to
neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘– and –’ refers to
(1) Competition (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Predation
49. If ‘+’ refers to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ refers to detrimental interaction and ‘0’ refers to
neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+ and 0’ refers to
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(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Competition
50. If ‘+’ refers to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ refers to detrimental interaction and ‘0’ refers to
neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘– and 0’ refers to
(1) Parasitism (2) Amensalism (3) Competition (4) Predation
51. A population interaction in which one partner is benefitted and the other is harmed is called
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism/Predation
52. A population interaction in which both the partners are benefitted is called
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Predation
53. A population interaction in which both the partners are harmed is called
(1) Competition (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
54. A population interaction in which one partner is benefitted and the other is neither
benefitted nor harmed is called
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitsm
55. A population interaction in which one partner is harmed and the other is neither benefitted
nor harmed is called
(1) Predation (2) Amensalism (3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism
56. Competitive exclusion principle was given by
(1) Gause (2) Mac Arthur (3) Verhulst and Pearl (4) Connell
57. Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely
and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. This is known as
(1) Allen’s law (2) Gause’s principle (3) Connell’s hypothesis (4) Mac Arthur’s law
58. Cattle or goats do not browse on Calotropis because
(1) It has leaves modified into spines (2) It produces a poisonous cardiac glycoside
(3) It has distasteful and poisonous leaves (4) Its leaves are hairy
59. The population interaction in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the
presence of another species is
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism (3) Competition (4) Commensalism
60. Five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree were able to avoid
competition and co-exist due to behavioural differences in their foraging activities. This is an
example for
(1) Interference completion (2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Competitive release (4) Resource partitioning
61. If two species compete for the same resource, they avoid competition by choosing different
times for feeding or different foraging patterns. This is called
(1) Interference completion (2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Competitive release (4) Resource partitioning
62. Biological control method adopted in agricultural pest control is based on the following
population interaction;
(1) Parasitism (2) Amensalism (3) Competition (4) Predation
63. Monarch butterfly is avoided by the predators because
(1) It is cryptically coloured (camouflaged) (2) It is highly distasteful
(3) It produces a poisonous cardiac glycoside (4) It has stinging cells on its body
64. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
(1) Presence of adhesive organs /High reproductive capacity/Complex life cycle
(2) Loss of digestive system
(3) Very low reproductive capacity
(4) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
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65. The two intermediate hosts of human liver fluke which are necessary for completing their
life cycle are
(1) Snail and fish (2) Fish and sheep (3) Goat and snail (4) Sheep and goat
66. Examples for ectoparasites are
(1) Lice/Ticks/Copepods (2) Liver flukes (3) Female Anopheles (4) Tapeworm
67. An example for endoparasite is
(1) Tick (2) Leech (3) Copepod (4) Liver fluke/Plasmodium
68. In the course of evolution, chlorophyll and leaves have been lost by
(1) Cuscuta (2) Acacia (3) Calotropis (4) Opuntia
69. Cuscuta growing on hedge plants is an example for
(1) Ectoparasitism (2) Brood parasitism (3) Predation (4) Endoparasitism
70. The cuckoo (koel) laying eggs in the nest of crow is an example for
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism (3) Amensalim (4) Brood parasitism
71. Brood parasitism is seen in
(1) Birds (2) Reptiles (3) Fishes (4) Amphibians
72. Which of the following relationship is an example for commensalism?
(1) Epiphyte (orchid) and mango tree/Barnacles and whale/ Cattle egret and grazing
cattle/Sea anemone and clown fish
(2) Mycorrhiza (3) Lichen (4) Plant and its pollinator
73. A Clown fish trapped among the tentacles (containing stinging cells) of sea anemone is an
example for
(1) Predation (2) Commensalism (3) Amensalism (4) Mutualism
74. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Parasitism – Cuscuta (2) Mutualsim – Mycorrhiza
(3) Wasp & fig – Commensalism (4) Clown fish & sea anemone – Commensalism
75. Which of the following relationship is not an example for commensalism?
(1) Epiphyte (orchid) and mango tree
(2) Cattle egret and grazing cattle
(3) Sea anemone and clown fish/Barnacles and whale
(4) Female wasp and fig species
76. An example for mutualism is
(1) Mycorrhiza/Lichen/Wasp and Fig/Animal and the pollinated plant/Animal and plants
whose seeds are dispersed
77. Which type of association is found in between flower and pollinating agent?
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism (3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism
78. A plant – animal interaction which involves co-evolution is
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism (3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism
79. Bees exhibit pseudocopulation with
(1) Yucca (2) Ophrys (3) Orobanche (4) Striga
80. The Mediterranean orchid which employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollinated by a species of
bee is
(1) Cuscuta (2) Ophrys (3) Orobanche (4) Striga
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Answers

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TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Mention the four basic levels of biological organization that ecology is concerned with?
2. Name the two factors responsible for the formation of major biomes on earth.
3. List the major biomes of India.
4. Mention the major abiotic factors of an environment.
5. Differentiate eurythermal and stenothermal organisms.
6. Differentiate euryhaline and stenohaline organisms.
7. Mention four measures by which organisms cope with stressful conditions in their habitat.
8. Write the mechanisms in humans to regulate body temperature in summer and winter.
9. Show a diagrammatic representation of organismic response to abiotic stresses.
10. Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many organisms. Justify the statement with
example.
11. Explain with an example how animals keep constant body temperature by behavioral means?
12. What is migration? Give an example.
13. The organisms if unable to migrate might avoid the stress by escaping in time. Justify the
statement with two examples.
14. What is diapause? Mention an example.
15. Write any two adaptations in desert plants to minimize water loss.
16. How do kangaroo rats meet their water requirement and also minimize water loss?
17. Mention two physiological adaptations in kangaroo rat for desert life.
18. Mention any two measures by which the human body compensates low oxygen availability at
higher altitudes.
19. Mention any four population attributes.
20. Name the four basic processes that fluctuates population density.
21. Mention the two patterns of population growth in organisms.
22. Show diagrammatic representation of exponential and logistic growth curves of population
growth in a combined diagram.
23. Mention any four types of interspecific interactions in organisms.
24. Define predation. Give any two examples.
25. Mention two adaptations in plants to escape from grazers and browsers.
26. Explain interference competition with an example.
27. Explain competitive release with an example.
28. Write short note on resource partitioning with a suitable example.
29. Mention two adaptations in organisms for parasitic mode of life.
30. What are ectoparasites? Give example.
31. What are endoparasites? Give an example.

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32. Define commensalism. Give examples.
33. Define mutualism. Give an example.
34. What is brood parasitism? Give an example.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Describe any three suspended activities in organisms against abiotic stresses with appropriate
examples.
2. Mention the cause and any two symptoms of altitude sickness. Explain how the human body
compensates oxygen loss at high altitude?
3. Write a note on altitude sickness.
4. What is resource partitioning? Describe with an example.
5. What is parasitism? Mention the types of parasites with an example for each.
6. What is parasitism? Write a note on brood parasitism.
7. What is parasitism? Mention two adaptations in organisms for parasitic mode of life.
8. What is mutualism? Why plant – animal interaction often involves co - evolution of mutualists?
9. Explain how Mediterranean orchid ‘Ophrys’ employs sexual deceit to ensure pollination?

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is ecology? Explain the role of major abiotic factors in any ecosystem.
2. Define homeostasis. Describe how organisms cope with stressful conditions in their habitat.
3. Explain Verhulst – Pearl logistic growth with a diagram and write its mathematical expression.
4. Describe exponential growth with a suitable diagram and give its mathematical equation.
5. Mention any five population interactions with an example for each.
6. Define competition. Explain interference competition and competitive release with suitable
examples.
7. Explain the role of predation in an ecosystem with suitable examples. Add a note on
morphological and defensive adaptations in plant and animal preys against their predators?
8. What is mutualism? Explain any four examples of mutualism.
10. What is mutualism? Why does plant - animal interaction often involves co - evolution of
mutualists? Justify your answer with an example.
9. ‘Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and free meals’. Justify the statement by listing the
special adaptations developed by parasites.
10. Name the type of interactions seen in each of the following examples:
(a) Ascaris worms living in the intestine of humans
(b) Wasp pollinating an inflorescence
(c) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone
(d) Disappearance of smaller barnacles when Balanus dominated the coast of Scotland
(e) Five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree

CHAPTER : 14
ECO SYSTEM
SESSION I
The interaction between the living organism and the non-living environment is called ecosystem.
ECOSYSTEM– STUCTURE AND FUNCTION:

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Interaction of biotic and abiotic components results in a physical structure that is characteristic of
each type of ecosystem. Identification and description of plant and animal species of an ecosystem
gives its species composition. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is
called stratification.
The components of the ecosystem are seen tofunction as a unit:
Productivity.
Decomposition.
Energy flowand
Nutrient cycle.
Description of pond as an ecosystem:
o The abiotic components include all dissolved in organic and organic substances and
the rich soil deposit at the bottom of the pond.
o The solar input, cycle of temperature, day length, regulates theraterof function of
the entire pond.
o The producer (autotrophic) includes phyto plankton, some algae and the floating,
submerged and marginal plants found in edge of pond.
o The consumers are represented by zoo plankton, free swimming and bottom
dwelling animals.
o The decomposers are the fungi, bacteria especially abundant at the bottom of the
pond.
Basic events (interms of function) in an ecosystem:
Conversion of inorganic into organic material (photosynthesis) by producers. Consumption
of the auto trophs by heterotrophs. Decomposition and mineralization of the dead organic matter
to release them back for re use by the autotrophs. There is unidirectional flow of energy towards
the higher trophic levels and its dissipation and loss as heat to the environment

PRODUCTIVITY:
Primary productivity:
The amount of biomass or organic matter produced perunit area over a time period by
plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed interms of weight (g-2) or energy (kcalm-2)
The rate of biomass production is called productivity.

Gross primaryproductivity: (GPP) is the rate of production of organic matter during

photosynthesis. Net primary productivity:
A considerable amount of energy isutilized by plants in respiration.
Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R) is the net primary productivity.
GPP–R=NPP
Net primary productivity is the available biomass forth econsumption to heterotrophs (herbivore
and decomposers).

Secondary productivity: is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by the
consumer.
SESSION II

DECOMPOSITION:
● Earthworm is said to be‘friends’of farmer:
● Break down the complex organic matter.
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Loosening of the soil helps in a eration and entry of root.

● The decomposers break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like carbon
dioxide, water and nutrients, called decomposition.
● Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead remains of animals, including
feca matter, constitute the detritus.
The process of decomposition completed infollowing steps:
Fragmentation : Break down of detritus into smaller particles by detritivore (earthworm).
Leaching: Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated
as un available salts.
Catabolism: Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simple inorganic substances.
Humification: Accumulation of dark colour edamorphous substances called humus.
Importance of humus:
 Highly resistance to microbial action.
 Undergo decomposition at anextremely slow rate.
 Being colloidal innature, it serves as reservoir for nutrients.

Mineralization: The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients
occur.
Factor affects rate of decomposition:
● Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process.
● Detritus rich in chitin and lignin has slowrate of decomposition.
● Detritus rich in nitrogen and water-soluble substance like sugar has faster decomposition.
● Temperature and soil moisture are most important climatic factor that regulate
decomposition
Warm and moist environment favor decomposition.
Low temperature, dryness and an erobios is inhibit decomposition.
SESSION III

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ENERGY FLOWIN ECOSYSTEM:

1) Except for deep sea hydro thermal ecosystem, sunis the only source of energy for all
ecosystems on earth.
2) Lessthan 50% of incident solar radiation is photosynthetically active radiations.(PAR).
3) Plants capture 2-10 % of PAR and used in photosynthesis.
4) Allorganisms depend on the producers, either directly or indirectly.
5) Energy flow in the ecosystem is unidirectional i.e. energy transferred from producer to
consumers.
6) Energy transfer is not absolute, and spontaneous, unless energy is degraded it cannot be
transfer. When energy transferred from one trophic level to another, lot of energy lost in
the form of heat to the environment.
7) Only 10% of energy transferred from onetrophic level to other.
Foodchain:
Grazing food chain: it extends from producers through herbivore to carnivore.
Detritus food chain: Begins with dead organic matter (detritus) and pass through detritus feeding
organism in soil to organisms feeding on detritus-feeders.
Inaquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
Interrestrial ecosystems a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain
than through GFC. Different food chains are naturally interconnected e.g. a specific herbivore of
one food chainmay serve as Food of carnivores of other food chains. Such interconnected matrix
of food chains is called foodweb.
Trophiclevel: A group of organism irrespective of their size having same source of energy or similar
food habit constitute a trophic level.
Standing crop: each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as
the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the
numberina unit area. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is restricted by10% flow of
energy, less amount of energy available to the last trophic level.

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ECOLOGICAL PYRAMID:
1) The base of the pyramid is broad and it narrows down at the apex. The similar shape is
obtained when food or energy relationship between organismsat different trophic level.
2) The relationship can be expressed interms of number, energy or biomass.
3) The base of the pyramid represented by producer and apexis the top consumer; other
trophic levels are in between.
4) In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright.
5) The pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem is inverted.
6) The pyramid of biomass in sea also inverted because the biomass of fishes is far exceeds
that of phytoplankton.
7) Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows
from a particular trophic level to the next, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.

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Limitations of ecological pyramids:

1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
2) It assumes a simple food chain, it never exits in nature.
3) It dosenot accommodate food web.
4) Saprophytes are not given place in ecological pyramids.

SESSION IV
ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION:
1) The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is
called ecological succession.
2) Composition and structure of the community constantly change in response to changing
environmental condition.
3) This change is orderly and sequential, parallel with the changes in the physical
environment.
4) All the changes lead finally to a community that is in near equilibrium with the
environment and that is calledclimax community.
5) During succession some species colonize and area and their populations become more
numerous, whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear.
6) The entire sequences of communities that successively change in a given area are called
sere.
7) The individual transitional communities are termed as seral stages.

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8) In the successive seral stages there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms,
increase in number of species and total biomass.
Primary succession: succession that starts where no living organisms are there – these could be
areas where no living organism ever existed may be abare rock or new water body.
Secondary succession: succession that starts in areas that some how, lost all the living organisms
that existed there. Primary succession occurs in:-newly cooled lava, bare rock, Newly created
pondor reservoir. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have
been destroyed such as In abandoned farm lands. Burned or cut forest, landthat have been
flooded Since some soilor sediment is present, secondary succession is faster than primary
succession.

Succession in plants:
1) Based on the nature of habitat – whether it is water or it is on very dry areas – succession
of plants is called hydrarchor xerarch.
2) Hydrarch succession takes place in water areas and the successional series
progress from hydric to mesic condition.
3) Xerarch succession takes place indry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic
conditions.
4) Both hydrarchand xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) –neither
too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric)
Xerarch succession: Succession in bare rock:
1) The species that in vadesbare area are called pioneer species.
2) In primary succession on barerock the pioneer species is the lichen.
3) Lichen secretes acid to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
4) The little soil, leads to growth of bryophytes (mosses).
5) The mosses speed up the process of soil accumulation by trapping wind – blown
particles.
6) Lichen moss carpet provide ssuitable sub stratum for the germination of seeds of
herbaceous plants.
7) Gradually more soil is accumulated and herbaceous species makeway forth einvasion
of shrubs followed by trees.
8) The climax community is generally dominated by trees.
Hydrarch (succession inaquatic environment)
1) Inprimary succession in water, the pioneer species are phyto plankton. Zoo planktons.
2) Submerged plantstage. (rooted hydrophytes)
3) Submerged and free - floating plant stage.
4) Reed – swamp stage.
5) Marsh - meadow stage.
6) Shrub stage
7) Trees
8) The climax again would be the forest
9) All the succession whether taking place in water or on land, proceed stoa similar
climax community – the music.

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NUTRIENT CYCLING:
Organism needs constant supply of nutrients to grow, reproduce, and regulate various body
functions. Standing state : the amount nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calciumetc.
Present in soil at any given time.
Nutrient cycling : The movement of nutrient elements through the various component of an
ecosystem is called nutrient cycling.
Another name of nutrient cycling is bio geochemical cycle.
1) Nutrient cyclesareoftwotypes:
 Gaseouscycle
 Sedimentary cycle.
2) There servoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle (nitrogen, carbon) exists in the
atmosphere.
3) There servoir for sedimentary cycle (sulphur, phosphorus) is Earth’scrust.
4) Environmental factors like soil, moisture, pHtemperature regulate the rate of release of
nutrient into the atmosphere.
5) The function of there servoir is to meet the deficit which occurs due to imbalance in the
rate of influx and efflux.
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SESSION V
Ecosystem – Carbon cycle:
1) Carbon constitutes 49 percent of dry weight of organism.
2) Out of total global carbon: 71 percent carbon found dissolved in ocean. About 1percent in
the atmosphere.
3) 4X 1013kg of carbon is fixed in the biosphere by photosynthesis, annually.
4) Large amount of carbon returned to the atmosphere as CO 2 through respiration of
producers and consumers.
5) Decomposers also return CO2 to reservoir during decomposition process.
6) Some amount of Carbon is lost to sediments and removed from circulation.
7) Burning wood, forest fire, combustion of organic matter, fossil fuel, volcanic activities are
additional sources for releasing CO2 to atmosphere.
Influence of human activity on Carbon cycling.Rapid deforestation. Massiveburning of fossil fuel
for energy and transport Increased the rate of release of C O2 into the atmosphere.

Eco system Phosphorus cycle:

Phosphorusis a major constituent of biological membranes, nucleic acids and cellular energy
transfer system (ATP) Animals need phosphorus to make shell, bones and teeth. Reservoir pool of
phosphorus is the rock, which contain phosphorus in the form of phosphates. During weathering
of rock small amount of phosphates dissolved in soil solution and are absorbed by the roots of the
plants. Herbivore and other animals obtain organic form of phosphorus from plants. The waste
product and dead organisms are decomposed by phosphate - solubilising bacteria releasing
phosphorus.

Howphosphorus cycle differs from carboncycle?

1) There is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere.
2) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rain fall are much smaller.
3) Gaseous exchange of phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible.

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ECOSYSTEM SERVICES:

1) The products of ecosystem processes are named as ecosystem services.

2) Healthy forest ecosystems purify air and water.
3) Mitigated roughts and flood.
4) Cycle nutrients.
5) Generates fertile soil.
6) Provide wild life habitat.
7) Maintain biodiversity.
8) Pollinate crops.
9) Provide storagesite for carbon
10) Provides aesthetic, cultural and spiritual values
PAR: Photosynthetically Active Radiation
GAP: Gross Primary Productivity
NPP: Net Primary Productivity
DFC: Detritus Food Chain
GFC: Grazing Food Chain

MCQs
1. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is known
as
(1) Standing state (2) Stratification (3) Standing crop (4) Standing level
2. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem?
(1) Energy flow/Nutrient cycling (2) Decomposition (3) Productivity (4) Stratification
3. In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed
as
(1) Gross primary productivity (2) Net primary productivity
(3) Secondary productivity (4) Net productivity
4. In an ecosystem gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter by
(1) Producers (2) Consumers (3) Decomposers (4) Detritivores
5. The formula for calculating net primary productivity is
(1) NPP – GPP + R (2) NPP + GPP – R (3) NPP = R – GPP (4) NPP = GPP + NPR
6. In the equation GPR – R = NPP, the letter ‘R’ denotes
(1) Respiratory quotient (2) Respiration loss
(3) Intrinsic rate of natural increase (4) Regression coefficient
7. In an ecosystem, the biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the
decomposers is called
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(1) Gross primary productivity (2) Net primary productivity
(3) Secondary productivity (4) Standing crop
8. In an ecosystem, primary productivity is the biomass available for consumption by
(1) Producers (2) Herbivores and decomposers (3) Decomposers (4) Detritivores
9. In an ecosystem, rate of production of new organic matter by consumers is called
(1) Gross primary productivity (2) Net primary productivity
(3) Secondary productivity (4) Net productivity
10. In an ecosystem, secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by
(1) Producers (2) Consumers (3) Decomposers (4) Detritivores
11. The annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere is approximately ________ tons.
(1) 55 (2) 115 (3) 150 (4) 170
12. Which one of the following processes with respect to decomposition is incorrect?
(1) Catabolism – Degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic substance
(2) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into soil horizon
(3) Fragmentation – Break down of detritus into smaller particles
(4) Humification – Degradation of humus by into inorganic nutrients by microbes
13. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called
(1) Humification (2) Fragmentation (3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism.
14. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as
unavailable salts. This process is known as
(1) Humification (2) Leaching (3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism
15. Degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic substances is called
(1) Humification (2) Leaching (3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism
16. Accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous substance that is highly resistant to microbial
action and undergoes very slow decomposition is called
(1) Humification (2) Leaching (3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism
17. Degradation of humus by into inorganic nutrients by microbes is called
(1) Humification (2) Leaching (3) Mineralisation (4) Catabolism
18. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decomposition process?
(1) Fragmentation→ Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralisation
(2) Fragmentation → Catabolism → Leaching → Mineralisation → Humification
(3) Catabolism → Fragmentation → Mineralisation → Humification →Leaching
(4) Fragmentation → Leaching → Humification → Catabolism → Mineralisation
19. Decomposition rate of detritus will be slow if
(1) It is rich in nitrogen (2) It is rich in lignin and chitin
(3) It is rich in water soluble substances (4) It is rich in oxygen content
20. An animal which is referred to as ‘farmer’s friend’ is
(1) Earthworm (2) Leech (3) Liver fluke (4) Frog
21. The process of decomposition is inhibited due to
(1) Warm and moist environment (2) Low temperature and anaerobiasis
(3) Higher oxygen content (4) Water soluble substance like sugars

22. What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) in incident solar
radiation?
(1) 1% – 5 % (2) 2% - 10% (3) 50% (4) 100%
23. What is the percentage of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) captured by plants for
photosynthesis?

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(1) 1% – 5 % (2) 2% - 10% (3) 10% - 20% (4) 50%
24. The mass of living material at each trophic level at a particular time is called
(1) Gross primary productivity (2) Net primary productivity
(3) Standing crop (4) Standing state
25. Which of the following is the correct sequence in a food chain?
(1) Grass → Wolf → Deer → Buffalo (2) Bacteria → Grass → Rabbit → Buffalo
(3) Grass → Insect → Bird → Snake (4) Grass → Snake → Insect → Deer
26. Which of the following in an ecosystem shows unidirectional movement?
(1) Biomass (2) Energy (3) Carbon (4) Water
27. Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain?
(1) Producers (2) Primary consumers (3) Secondary consumers (4) Decomposers
28. In ecological pyramids, the first trophic level is always occupied by
(1) Primary consumers (2) Producers (3) Herbivores (4) Carnivores
29. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are
(1) Carnivores (2) Omnivores (3) Herbivores (4) Detritivores
30. The second trophic level in a lake is
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons (3) Fishes (4) Detritivores
31. Which of the following occupies more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem?
(1) Frog (2) Grass (3) Sparrow (4) Grass hopper
32. In any ecosystem, which trophic level will have maximum energy?
(1) First trophic level (2) Second trophic level
(3) Third trophic level (4) Fourth trophic level
33. Energy transfer from one trophic level to another trophic level in a food chain is
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 20% (4) 50%
34. If 500 J of energy is available at the producer level, then how much energy will be available
to frog in the following food chain? Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake
(1) 0.05 J (2) 0.5 J (3) 5 J (4) 50 J
35. Which ecological pyramid is always upright?
(1) Pyramid of energy (2) Pyramid of biomass (3) Pyramid of number (4) Pyramid of age
36. The pyramid of energy is always upright because
(1) Same amount of energy is transferred from one trophic level to another
(2) Energy is lost as heat at each trophic level during its transfer in a food chain
(3) Energy available at the producer level is less than that of consumers
(4) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
37. The pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted because
(1) Biomass of fishes is more than that of phytoplanktons
(2) Number phytoplanktons is more than that of fishes
(3) Biomass of phytoplanktons is more than that of fishes
(4) Number of fishes is more than that of phytoplanktons
38. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?
(1) Pyramid of biomass in a sea (2) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland

(3) Pyramid of energy in a forest (2) Pyramid of number in a lake

39. In which ecosystem, inverted pyramid of biomass is seen?
(1) Forest (2) Ocean (3) Grassland (4) Tundra
40. Which organism is not given any place in an ecological pyramid?
(1) Saprophyte/Decomposer (2) Autotroph (3) Carnivore (4) Herbivore

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41. The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called
(1) Accelerated eutrophication (2) Ecological succession
(3) Ecological diversity (4) Biofortification
42. Ecological succession is the fairly and predictable change in the ______ of a given area.
(1) Population interaction (2) Species composition
(3) Stratification (4) Genetic diversity
43. Climax community is in a state of
(1) Equilibrium (2) Diapause (3) Dormancy (4) Transformation
44. The species that invade a bare area are called
(1) Alien species (2) Pioneer species (3) Endemic species (4) Sacred species
45. Which of the following would appear as pioneer species on bare rocks (in xerarch
succession)?
(1) Mosses (2) Sedges (3) Lichens (4) Liverworts
46. Secondary succession takes place in an area like
(1) Newly created pond (2) Newly cooled lava
(3) Abandoned farmlands/Burned or cut forests (4) Bare rock
47. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
(1) It begins on a bare rock (2) It occurs on a deforested site
(3) It has no climax community (4) It has no seral stages
48. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to
(1) Medium water conditions (mesic) (2) Xeric conditions
(3) Highly dry conditions (4) Excessive wet conditions
49. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous, calcium, et., present in the
soil at any given time is referred to as the
(1) Productivity (2) Biomass (3) Standing crop (4) Standing state
50. The natural reservoir of phosphorus is
(1) Rock (2) Fossil fuels (3) Sea water (4) Animal bones
51. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem?
(1) Sulphur/Phosphorous cycle (2) Water cycle
(3) Nitrogen cycle (4) Carbon cycle
52. About 70% of total global carbon is found in
(1) Oceans (2) Forests (3) Grasslands (4) Agroecosystems
53. Estimated amount of carbon fixed annually in the biosphere through photosynthesis is
10
(1) 4 ×10 kg (2) 4 ×1011 kg (3) 4 ×1012 kg (4) 4 ×1013 kg
54. A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere asC O2 through
(1) Combustion of fossil fuels (2) Respiratory activities of living organisms
(3) Decomposition activity of microbes (4) Forest fires and volcanic eruptions
55. According to Robert Constanza, out of the total cost of ecosystem services, soil formation
accounts for about
(1) 6% (2) 10% (3) 20% (4) 50%
56. According to Robert Constanza, out of the total cost of ecosystem services, contribution of
services like recreation and nutrient cycling is
(1) Less than 10% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) More than 50%
57. According to Robert Constanza, out of the total cost of ecosystem services, the cost of
climate regulation and habitat for wildlife is about
(1) 6% (2) 10% (3) 20% (4) 50%
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Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. List two basic or fundamental categories of ecosystems on earth with an example for each.
2. Mention the four primary functions of an ecosystem.
3. Define productivity and mention its types.
4. Distinguish between primary productivity and secondary productivity.
5. Distinguish between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity.
6. Mention two conditions which increase the rate of decomposition in ecosystem.
7. Mention two conditions which decrease the rate of decomposition in ecosystem.
8. Show schematic representation of grazing food chain (GFC).
9. Distinguish between food chain and food web.
10. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with two reasons.
11. Distinguish between primary and secondary ecological successions.
12. What are pioneer species? Give an example.
13. Differentiate between pioneer species and climax community.
14. Differentiate standing crop and standing state.
15. Compare gaseous and sedimentary cycles.
16. List two differences between carbon cycle and phosphorous cycle.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Describe the components of an aquatic ecosystem taking pond as an example.
2. Explain the factors that regulate decomposition.
3. Define food chain. Mention the types of food chain.
4. Show diagrammatic representation of different trophic levels in an ecosystem.
5. What are ecological pyramids? Mention any two types.
6. Write the diagrammatic representation of pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem with
appropriate units.
7. Write diagrammatic representation of an erect pyramid of biomass with appropriate units.
8. Write the diagrammatic representation of pyramid of energy with appropriate units.
9. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with three reasons.
10. Define ecological succession. Differentiate primary and secondary ecological successions.
11. Define ecological succession. Mention the two types of succession in plants based on the nature
of habitat.
12. With reference to ecological succession, define the following:
(a) Sere (b) Pioneer species (c) Climax community.
13. Explain primary succession on bare rocks.
14. Explain primary succession in water.

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15. What is biogeochemical cycle? Mention the types of biogeochemical cycles with an example for
each.
16. Compare gaseous and sedimentary cycles with an example for each.
17. List three differences between carbon cycle and phosphorous cycle.
18. Write the schematic representation of phosphorous cycle.
19. “Ecosystem services should carry a hefty price tag”. Justify with six of reasons.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What is productivity? Mention the types of primary productivity. Compare primary productivity
and secondary productivity in an ecosystem.
2. Describe the various steps involved in the process of decomposition.
3. What are ecological pyramids? Write the diagrammatic representation of pyramid of energy with
appropriate units. Why is pyramid of energy always upright and can never be inverted?
4. What are ecological pyramids? Write the diagrammatic representation of an erect pyramid of
biomass. Why pyramid of biomass in sea generally inverted?
5. ‘Ecological pyramids have limitations’. Justify with four reasons.
6. Define ecological succession. Differentiate primary and secondary ecological successions. Why
the rate of primary succession is slower but that of secondary succession is faster?
7. Describe ecological succession on bare rock and in water.
8. Write the simplified model of carbon cycle in the biosphere.
9. Explain carbon cycle in the biosphere.
10. Explain phosphorous cycle with a schematic representation.
********

CHAPTER : 15
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
SESSION I

Diversity of living organisms is known as biodiversity. Diversity occur at all levels from
macromolecules with in the cells to biomes. The term biodiversity popularised by Edward Wilson.
Most important biodiversity are genetic diversity, species diversity and ecological diversity.

Biodiversity with in the species is known as genetic diversity from the plant Rauwolfia vomitoria we
collect reserpine. It is used in the treatment of Hypertension. Reserpine extracted from Rauwolfia
of Himalayan region is more concentrates than reserpine collect from other parts of India. In
Himalayan region more genes involved in the production of reserpine.

Diversity at the level of species is known as species diversity. Species diversity of amphibians more
in western ghat when compared to eastern ghat. Diversity at the level of ecosystem is known as
ecological diversity. Ecosystem diversity more in deserts , rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs in
India when compare to scandinavian country like Norway. It has taken millions of years of evolution
to accumulate this rich biodiversity in nature. But we lose in less than two centuries. Biodiversity is
essential for our survival and well being on this planet.
How many species are there on earth and how many in India?
International union of conservation of nature and natural resources (IUCN 2004) declared total
number of plants and animals species together 1.5 millions for many taxonomical groups species

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inventories (complete list) comple in temperature than in tropical countries. Extreme estimate 20
to 50 million species are awaiting for discovery. According to conservatives estimate 7 million
species are awaiting for discovery. Robert may is famous conservist. More than 70 percent
discovered species are animals. Fungi bryophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms together 22
percent of total species. Out of every 10 animals 7 are insects. The number of fungi species more
than Pisces, Amphibia, Rephilia & Mammalian species together

India has only 2.4 percent of the world land area; its share of global species diversity is 8.1 percent.
Due to high biodiversity countries of the world. Nearly 45,000 plant species and twice as many of
according have been recorded in India. According to conservist more than1,00,000 plant species
and 3,60,000 animal species are awaiting for discovery. Large number of plant & animal species
faces the threat of becoming extinct even before discover them.
SESSION II
Pattern of Biodiversity:
1) Latitudinal gradients:
The diversity of plant and animal species not uniform through out the world. Species
diversity decreases as we move from equator towards poles. Species diversity is more from 23.50 N
to 23.50 S . Columbia located near the equator has 1400 bird species. New York at 41 0 N has 105 bird
species. Greenland at 710 N has 56 bird species only. India most of the land is tropical region has
1200 bird species.
Tropical amazon rain forest in south America has the greatest biodiversity on earth. It has more
than 40,000 plant species, 3000 fish species, 1300 bird species, 427 mammalian species, 427
amphibian species & 378 reptilian species.
Reasons for greatest biological diversity at tropics:
a) Tropical regions remain unchanged for several million years. Temperate regions under go
glaciation in the past.
b) Climate of tropical region is more stable and predictable but climate of temperate region is
unpredictable.
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c) Solar energy is more in tropics, which contributes high productivity.
Species area relationships:
Germen naturalist and geographer Alexander von Humboldt studied relationship between area and
species richness.

Area plotted on x – axis while species richness on y – axis. If species richness increases with in
proportionate to utilised area z value is 1. ‘z’ is the slope of the line. In case of birds, bats, fishes and
angiosperm plants more species in limited area curve is rectangular hyperbola (Non linear) birds in
California or molluscs in New York or plants in Britain z value is 0.1 to 0.2 (California, New York or
Britain small area when compare to planet earth that’s why z value is 0.1 to 0.2) Fruit eating birds
and mammals in the tropical forest of different continents is 0.6 to 1.15 (Area increases that’s why
2 value also increases)

The importance of species diversity to the ecosystem:

For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be
more stable than those with less species.
A stable community should not show too much variation productivity from year to year. It must also
be resistant to invasions by alien species. We don’t know how these attributes are linked to species.
Richness in a community, but David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots
provide some tentative answers.
Tilman found that plots with more species showed less year – to year variation in total bio – mass
Stanford ecologist paul Ehrlich In aeroplane all parts are joined together using thousands of rivets
(species). If every passenger eravelling in it starts popping a rivet to take home (casing a species to
become extinct) , it may not affect flight safety (proper functioning of the ecosystem) initially, but
as more and more rivets are removed, the plane becomes dangerously weak over a period of time

Loss of biodiversity
If any new species are being added (through speciation) into the earth’s treasury of species. There
is no doubt about their continuing losses. The biological wealth of our planet has been declining
rapidly and the accusing finger is clearly pointing to human activities. The colonisation of tropical
pacific islands by humans is said to have led to the islands by humans is said to have led to the
extinction of more than 2,000 species of native birds. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the
extinction of T84 species (including 338 vertebrates 359 invertebrates and 87 plants) in the last 500
years. Some examples of recent extinctions include the dodo (Mauritius), quagga (Africa) thylacine
(Austrailia), stellar’s sea cow(Russia) and three subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian) of tiger. The last
twenty years alone have witnessed the disappearance of 27 species.

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Adding to the grim scenario of extinctions is the fact that more than 15,500 species world wide are
facing the threat of extinction. Presently, 12 percent of all bird species, 23 % of all mammal species,
32 % of all amphibian species and 31 % of all gymnosperm species in the world face the threat of
extinction.
SESSION III
Causes of biodiversity losses:
There are four major causes (The evil quartet’ is the sobriquet used to describe them)

(i) Habital loss and fragmentation:

This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction. The most dramatic
examples of habital loss come from tropical rain forests. Once covering more than 14 % of the
earths land surface, these rain forests now cover no more than 6 %.
The amazon rain forest ( it is so huge that it is called the “lungs of the planet”) harbouring probably
millions of species is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans or for conversion to grasslands
for raising beef cattle. When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various
human activities, mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory
habits are badly affected, leading to population declines.

(ii) Over – exploitation:

Humans have always depended on nature for food and shelter, but when ‘need’ turns to
‘greed’, it leads to over – exploitation of natural resources. Many species extinctions in the last 500
years (stellar’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were due to over exploitation by humans. Many marine
fish populations around the world are over harvested.

(iii) Alien species invasions:

When alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately for whatever purpose,
some of them are turn invasive, and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species.
The Nile pearch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led eventually to the extinction of an
ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of Eichlid fish in the Lake
Invasive weed species like carrot grass (parthenium), Lantana and water hyacinth (Eicchornia) The
recent illegal introduction of the African cat fish clarias gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is
posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.

Co-extinctions:
When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory
way also become extinct. When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of
parasites also meets the same fate

Biodiversity conservation:
There are many reasons, some obvious and others not so easily understood, but all equally
important. They can be grouped into three categories, and ethical.
The broadly utilitarian argument says
That biodiversity plays a major role in many eco – system services that nature provides., the fast
dwindling amazon forest is estimated to produce , through photo synthesis, 20 % of the total
oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere. Can we put an economic value on this service by nature? You
can get some idea by finding out how much your neighbourhood hospital spends on a cylinder of

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oxygen. Pollination (without which plants cannot give us fruits or seeds) is another service, eco
systems provide through pollinators layer – bus, bumblebees, birds and bats.
There are other intangible benefits – that we drive from nature – the aesthetic pleasures of walking
through thick woods, watching spring flowers in full bloom or walking up to a bulbul’s song in the
morning.
The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity relates to what we owe to millions of plant, animal
and microbe species with whom we share this planet. We have a moral duty to care for their well –
being and pass on our biological legacy in good order to future generations.
SESSION IV

How do we conserve biodiversity?

Conservation is of two types namely insitu conservation and exsitu conservation.

Insitu conservation: Conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitats is known as insitu

conservation. Insitu conservation is 5 types namely biodiversity hotspots, biosphere reserve,
national parks, sancturies and sacred grooves.
Biodiversity hot spots: Areas having very high level of species richness and high degree of
endemism (species confined to that region not found any where else) are known as biodiversity hot
spots. 34 biodiversity hot spots all over the world. India has 3 biodiversity hot spots all over the
world. India has 3 biodiversity hot spots westernghat and Sri Lanka indo – Burma and Himalaya

Biodiversity hot spots cover less than 2 % of land area but they protect 30 % biodiversity
Biosphere reserve ecological unique and biodiversity rich regions having three zones called
biosphere resolves each biosphere reserve has 3 zones

No human activity allowed in core zone limited human activity allowed in buffer zone and more
human activity in manipulating zone.
Ecologically unique and biodiversity rich regions protect flora and fauna called national parks. India
has 90 national parks.
Some important National parks in Karnataka
1. Bannerghatta National park
2. Bandipur National park
3. Nagarhole National park
4. Kudremukh National park
5. Anshi National park
Ecological unique and biodiversity rich regions protect only fauna called sanctuaries
Some important sanctuaries in Karnataka
1. Mookambika wild life sanctuary
2. Cauvery wild life sanctuary
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3. Dandeli wild life sanctuary ]
4. Badra wild life sanctuary
5. Bhimgad wild life sanctuary
Group of trees present in a forest belong to a particular religion is known as secred grooves.

S/ NO STATE NAME OF THE SACRED GROOVE

1 MEGHALAYA KHASI AND JAINTIA

2 RAJASTHAN ARAVALLI HILLS

3 WESTERN GHAT KARNATAKA AND MAHARASTRA

4 MADHYA PRADESH SARGESJA, CHONDA AND BASTAR

Exsitu Conservation: Conservation away from the natural habitat. Zoological parks. Botanical
gardens and wild life safari parks are some examples are preserved by using cryopreservation
threatened plants are protected by tissue culture and seed banks
The earth summit was held in Rio De Janeiro in 1992. They taken appropriate measures for
conservation of biodiversity. “World summit” was held at Johannesburg, south Africa. 190 countries
committed to reduce the loss of biodiversity by 2010 take appropriate steps at global, region and
local levels.

MCQs

1. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is slightly more than
(1) 1.5 million (2) 2 million (3) 2.5 million (4) 3 million
2. According to Robert May, the estimated global species diversity is about
(1) 1.7 million (2) 2 million (3) 4 million (4) 7 million
3. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?
(1) Western Ghats of India (2) Madagascar (3) Himalayas (4) Amazon forests
4. There are more than 1000 varieties of mango. This variety or variability is called
(1) Species diversity (2) Genetic diversity
(3) Generic diversity (4) Habitat diversity
5. The most species-rich taxonomic group among animals is
(1) Mammals (2) Crustaceans (3) Molluscs (4) Insects
6. Out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are
(1) Mammals (2) Crustaceans (3) Molluscs (4) Insects
7. 70% of the total animals on this planet are
(1) Mammals (2) Crustaceans (3) Molluscs (4) Insects
8. Insects constitute more than _____ of the total animals on earth.
(1) 80% (2) 90% (3) 70% (4) 75%

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9. More than ______ of all the species recorded on earth are animals.
(1) 70% (2) 75% (3) 80% (4) 85%
10. Which among vertebrates exhibits maximum species diversity?
(1) Mammals (2) Birds (3) Amphibians (4) Fishes
11. Plants including algae, fungi, bryophytes, ferns and angiosperms comprise about ______ of
the total.
(1) 12% (2) 18% (3) 22% (4) 30%
12. Which among plants exhibits maximum species diversity?
(1) Angiosperms (2) Ferns (3) Fungi (4) Bryophytes
13. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Mango (2) Ground nut (3) Rice (4) Maize
14. The number of mega diversity countries of the world is
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 17
15. India’s share of global species biodiversity is
(1) 2.4% (2) 6.3% (3) 8.1% (4) 12.2%
16. If Robert May’s global biodiversity estimates are accepted, only ______ of the total species
have been recorded so far.
(1) 15% (2) 18% (3) 22% (4) 30%
17. In general, species diversity
(1) Increases from the equator to the poles (2) Decreases from the equator to the poles
(3) Is uniform throughout the world (4) Is maximum in the temperate regions
18. With respect to biodiversity, Alexander von Humboldt described for the first time
(1) Competitive exclusion (2) Species area relationships
(3) Exponential growth of population (4) Ecological biodiversity
19. With respect to biodiversity, species-area relationships was described by
(1) Alexander von Humboldt (2) Robert May (3) Robert Constanza (4) Paul Ehrlich
20. ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’ was proposed by
(1) Alexander von Humboldt (2) Robert May (3) Robert Constanza (4) Paul Ehrlich
21. The organization which publishes the Red list of species is
(1) NEERI (2) IUCN (3) UNEP (4) WWF
22. Red list contains data or information on
(1) All the endemic species (2) All the endangered species
(3) All the extinct species (4) All the pandemic species
23. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called
(1) Pandemic species (2) Endemic species (3) Endangered species (4) Sacred species
24. The species from Mauritius which is extinct now is
(1) Quagga (2) Dodo (3) Steller’s sea cow (4) Thylacine
25. The species from Africa which is extinct now is
(1) Quagga (2) Dodo (3) Steller’s sea cow (4) Thylacine
26. The species from Australia which is extinct now is
(1) Quagga (2) Dodo (3) Steller’s sea cow (4) Thylacine
27. The species from Russia which is extinct now is
(1) Quagga (2) Dodo (3) Steller’s sea cow (4) Thylacine
28. Which of the following group of animals comprises of extinct species?
(1) Quagga, Dodo, Steller’s sea cow, Thylacine, Passenger pigeon and Bali, Javan,
Caspian subspecies of tiger
(2) Quagga, Dodo, Nile perch, African catfish and Passenger pigeon
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(3) Dodo, Thylacine, African catfish, Steller’s sea cow and Clarias
(4) Thylacine, Steller’s sea cow, Caspian tiger, African catfish and Cichlid fish
29. Presently, _______ of all bird species face the threat of extinction.
(1) 12% (2) 23% (3) 31% (4) 32%
30. Presently, _______ of all mammal species face the threat of extinction.
(1) 12% (2) 23% (3) 31% (4) 32%
31. Presently, _______ of all amphibian species face the threat of extinction.
(1) 12% (2) 23% (3) 31% (4) 32%
32. Presently, _______ of all gymnosperm species face the threat of extinction.
(1) 12% (2) 23% (3) 31% (4) 32%
33. The most important cause for the extinction of animals and plants is
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Co-extinctions
(3) Over-exploitation (4) Alien species invasion
34. Decline in the population of indigenous catfishes due to the introduction of Clarias
gariepinus in Indian rivers can be considered as
(1) Co-extinction (2) Co-evolution (3) Over-exploitation (4) Alien species invasion
35. More than 200 species of cichlid fishes got extinct in lake Victoria in East Africa due to the
introduction of
(1) African catfish (2) Clarias gariepinus (3) Nile perch (4) Thylacine
36. Introduction of Nile perch into lake Victoria in East Africa led to the extinction of more than
200 species of
(1) Cichlid fish (2) Catfish (3) Carrot grass (4) Clown fish
37. In India, native species of plants have been threatened by the introduction of
(1) Carrot grass (Parthenium)/Lantana/ Water hyacinth (Eichhornia)
(2) Ficus (3) Acacia (4) Calotropis
38. An example for an invasive plant species is
(1) Carrot grass (Parthenium)/Lantana/ Water hyacinth (Eichhornia)
(2) Ficus (3) Acacia (4) Calotropis
39. In the history of earth, how many episodes of mass extinction of species were witnessed?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
40. Which one of the following in India is a biodiversity hotspot?
(1) Central India (2) Gangetic Plain (3) Sunderbans (4) Western Ghats
41. The number of biosphere reserves in India is
(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 14 (4) 15
42. Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found
anywhere else. These species of plants and animals are called
(1) Pandemic species (2) Endemic species
(3) Endangered species (4) Sacred species
43. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as
(1) Pandemic species (2) Endemic species (3) Endangered species (4) Sacred species
44. Which one of the following serves ex situ conservation of biodiversity?
(1) National park (2) Biosphere reserve
(3) Wildlife sanctuary
(4) Botanical garden/Zoological park/Seed bank/ Cryopreservation of gametes and seeds
45. Which of the following serves in situ conservation of biodiversity?
(1) National park/Biosphere reserve/Wildlife sanctuary
(2) Zoological park (3) Seed bank (4) Botanical garden
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46. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called for
(1) Biodiversity conservation (2) Reduced use of CFCs
(3) Reducing C O2 emissions (4) Reducing global warming
47. In 1992, ‘The Earth Summit’ in relation to biodiversity conservation was held in
(1) Rio de Janeiro (2) Johannesburg (3) Washington DC (4) Edinburgh
48. World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in
(1) Rio de Janeiro (2) Johannesburg (3) Washington DC (4) Edinburgh
49. World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held to get commitment from
countries to achieve
(1) Reduction in rate of biodiversity loss (2) Reduction in the use of CFCs
(3) Reduction in C O 2 emissions (4) Reduction in global warming
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Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Define biodiversity. Write any two levels of biodiversity.
2. Differentiate genetic diversity and species diversity.
3. Differentiate genetic diversity and ecological diversity.
4. Differentiate species diversity and ecological diversity.
5. “India is rich in genetic diversity”. Justify the statement by giving two examples.
6. How do ecologists estimate the total number of species present in the world?
7. Name the most species-rich taxonomic group among animals and mention its percentage within
animal species.
8. Write the major problems in completing the biological wealth inventory of India.
9. Mention David Tilman’s observation with respect to species richness in a community.
10. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.
11. Mention “The Evil Quartet” of biodiversity loss.
12. Give examples of two species which have become extinct due to overexploitation.
13. “Introduction of alien species causes biodiversity loss”. Justify this statement with two
appropriate examples.
14. Write a note on co-extinction.
15. List any two ecosystem services provided by biodiversity.
16. Mention two biodiversity hotspots of India.
17. Mention methods for conserving biodiversity.
18. Differentiate in situ conservation and ex situ conservation.
19. What is ex situ conservation? Mention two examples.
20. What are sacred groves? Mention any two examples.
21. Write any two advanced techniques used in ex situ conservation.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Briefly explain the three levels of biodiversity.
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2. “Tropical rain forests have greater biodiversity compared to temperate forest”. Justify with three
reasons.
3. Draw a graphical representation of species area relationship.
4. Explain the species-area relationship of biodiversity according to Alexander Von Humboldt.
5. In the formula Log S=Log C- Z log A to find out species-area relationship, what does ‘S’, ‘A’ and ‘Z’
stand for?
6. Write the salient features of stable community with reference to biodiversity.
7. Describe the “rivet popper” hypothesis.
8. List out the three general effects of loss of biodiversity.
9. Explain any three major causes of biodiversity loss.
10. “Alien species invasion leads to extinction of indigenous species”. Justify the statement by
giving three appropriate examples.
11. “There is a great need to conserve biodiversity”. Justify with six reasons.
12. Briefly explain narrowly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity.
13. Briefly explain broadly utilitarian reason for conserving biodiversity.
14. “Biodiversity plays a major role in providing many ecosystem services”. Justify the statement
with three reasons.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Define biodiversity. Explain the major causes of biodiversity loss.
2. What are endemic species? Differentiate in situ conservation and ex situ conservation with
examples.
3. Explain species area relationship with graphical representation.
4. Describe different ecosystem services provided by biodiversity.

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CHAPTER :16
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
SESSION I
Any undesirable change in physical, chemical or biological characters of air, land, water or
soil is known as pollution. Agents cause pollution are called pollutants. The government of India has
passed the environment protection act 1986 to protect the quality of our environment.

Air pollution and its control:

We depends up on air for our respiratory requirements. Air pollutants reduce growth, yield
and premature death of plants. Air pollutants also harmfully affect the respiratory system of
animals. Effect of pollutant depends upon the exposure of the organism.
Smoke stakes (tall chimnies) of the thermal power plants, smelters and other industries
release.
Particulate and gaseous air pollutant together with harmless gases such a nitrogen oxygen etc.
These pollutants cause respiratory problems. According to central pollution control board (CPCB)
particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter more harm to human health. Electrostatic
precipitators remove 99 % particulate mater.
The industries release particulate mater fitted with electro static precipitators. Dirty air from
industries release into electrostatic precipitator. Electric wires present in electrostatic precipitators
release high voltage current. It gives negative charge to dust particles. Dust particles attached to
positive charges plates. Clean air passes to environment. Later they pass low voltage electric

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current, Now dust particles already attach to plates separated and collected from the collecting
plate kept at the bottom of electrostatic precipitator.
Electrostatic precipitator diagram 16.1 (page no 271)
Scrubbers: Scrubbers are used to remove SO 2 into atmosphere. They pass dirty air containing SO 2
into the scrubber. They use lime spray (CaCO3)
CaC O3 +S O2 → CaSO3 +C O2
CaC O3react with S O2 as a result calcium sulphite and C O2 is formed. Now C O2 is released into
environment CaS O3 is a solid collect at the bottom of scrubber.

Automobiles are a major cause for atmospheric pollution at least in metro cities. Catalytic
converters reduce air pollution. All ventricles should fitted with catalytic converters expensive
metals platinum, palladium and radium are used as catalysts.
Catalysts convert unborn hydrocarbon into C O2 and water. Catalysts also convert more harmful gas
into less harmful gases
CO → C O2
NO → N (Nitrogen gas)
In 1987 air act is amended. According to this amendment, Noise pollution consider as air pollution
noise is undesired high level of sound of any person expose to 150 db (Decibels) or more generated
by Jet plane or Rocket. May damage ear drums permanently.Even chronic (for a long time)
exposure to relatively low noise permanently damage hearing abilities of human.
Noise pollution cause sleeplessness, increased heart beat, altered breathing pattern.

Controlling vehicular air pollution :

Delhi leads the country regarding pollution in the 1990s Delhi ranked fourth among the 41
most polluted cities of the world. Public interest litigation was filled in the supreme court of India.
The supreme court direct the government to reduce the level of pollution.
All the buses of Delhi were convert to run on CNG (Compressed natural gas) by the end of
2002. CNG burns most efficiently than petrol and diesel. CNG is cheaper than petrol and diesel. CNG
cannot stolen unlike petrol and diesel. In Delhi low sulphur petrol and diesel only using for vehicles.
All vehicles fitted with catalytic converters.
The government of India introduce new auto fuel policy to reduce the release of air pollutants from
the vehicles.

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Euro II, petrol engine emissions 150 ppm and diesel engine emissions of sulphur dioxide is
350 ppm. They are using 42 percent of aromatic compounds and try to reduce upto 35 percent.

Ozone depletion in the stratosphere:

Ozone present in the trophosphere is known as bad ozone. Ozone present in the
stratosphere is known as good ozone. Ozone present in the stratosphere act as a shield and
absorbing ultra violet radiation coming from the sun. DNA and proteins absorb UV rays, UV rays
having high energy and breaks chemical bond with in these molecules. The thickness of ozone is
measured in terms of Dobson units (DU)
Ozone gas is continuously formed by UV rays. A balance is maintain between production and
degradation of ozone in the stratosphere. Now this balance has been disrespted due to increase of
ozone reducing substances like CFC (Chloroforo Carbons) from trophosphere CFC enter into
stratosphere by the action of uv rays C l −¿ ¿release from CFC
−¿→ O ¿
O3 C l 2

−¿→ O+O ¿
O3 C l
Thin ozone layer is known as ozonehole. Ozone hole observed over the Antarctica region from late
august to early October. UV radiation shorter than UVB (UVC) completely absorbed by earth
atmosphere of UVB radiation reaction the earth surface, it causes aging of skin, damage to skin cells
and various types of skin cancer. UVB causes snow blindness & cataracts to serve the earth from
dangerous effects of UVB representatives of different countries signed montreal protocol.

SESSION II

Water pollution and its control:

Human beings have been abusing the water – bodies around the world by disposing into them all
kinds of waste. We tend to believe that water can wash away everything not taking cognizance of
the fact that the water bodies are our lifeline as well as that of all other living organisms.
Realizing the importance of maintaining the cleanliness of the water bodies, the government of
India has passed the water (prevention and control of pollution) act 1974

Domestic sewage and industrial effluents:

We wash every thing into drains. A mere 0.1 percent impurities make domestic sewage unfit for
human use.
Dissolved salts such as nitrates, phosphates, and other nutrients and toxic metal ions and organic
compounds. Domestic sewage primarily contains biodegradable organic matter, which readily
decomposes thanks to bacteria and other micro – organisms, which can multiply using these
organic substances as substrates and hence utilize some of the components of sewage. The amount
of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water by measuring

Biochemical oxygen Demand (BOD)

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Discharge of sewage into a river. Micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in

the receiving water body consume a lot of oxygen and as a result there is a sharp decline in
dissolved oxygen down stream from the point of sewage discharge. This causes mortality of fish and
other aquatic creatures.
Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water also causes excessive growth of planktonic (free
floating) algae called an algal bloom which imparts a distinct colour to the water bodies algal
blooms cause deterioration of the water quality and fish mortality. Some bloom forming algae are
extremely toxic to human beings and animals.
The beautiful mauve – coloured flowers found on very appealingly – shaped floating plants in water
bodies these plants which were introduced into India for their lovely flowers have caused havoc by
their excessive growth by causing blocks in our waterways. They grow faster than our ability to
remove them, these are plants of water hyacinth eichhornia crassipes. The world’s most
problematic aquatic weed, also called “Terror of Bengali”.
They grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies, and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem
dynamics of the water body.
Sewage from out homes as well as from hospitals are likely to contain many undesirable pathogenic
micro – organisms and its disposal into a water without proper – treatment may cause out break of
serious diseases. Such as dysentery, typhoid , jaundice, cholera, etc.,
Heavy metals( defined as elements with density ¿ 5 g/C m3 such as mercury, cadmium, copper.
Copper,lead, etc., and a variety of organic compounds.
Bio magnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolized or
excreted, and is thus passed on to the next height trophic level. This phenomenon is well – known
for mercury and DDT.

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shows bio magnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain. In this manner, the concentration of DDT
is increased at successive trophic levels; say is it starts at 0.003 ppb (ppb = parts per billion) in
water, it can ultimately reach 25 ppm (ppm = parts per million) in fish – eating birds, through bio
magnification. High concentration of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes
thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking eventually causing decline in bird populations.
Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water. In a young lake the
water is cold and clear, supporting little life. With time, streams draining into the lake introduce
nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorous, which encourage the growth of aquatic organisms.
As the lake is fertility increases, plant and animal life burgeons, and organic remains begin to be
deposited on the lake bottom over the centuries, as slit and organic debris pile up, the lake grows
shallower and warmer, with warm – water organisms supplanting those that thrive in a cold
environment marsh plants take root in the shallows and begin to fill in the original lake basin,
Eventually, the lake gives way to large masses of floating plants (bog), finally converting into land.
Depending on climate, size of the lake and other factors, the natural aging of a lake may span
thousands of years. However, pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and
homes can radially accelerate the aging process. This phenomenon has been called cultural or
accelerated Eutrophication.
A case study of integrated waste water treatment:
Waste water including sewage can be treated in an integrated manner, by utilizing a mix of artificial
and natural processes. An example of such an initiatives the town of Arcata, situated along
northern cost of California. Collaborating with biologists from the Humboldt state university, the
town people created an integrated waste water treatment process within a natural system. The
cleaning occurs in two stages the conventional sedimentation, filtering and chloring treatments are
given.
After this stage, lots of dangerous pollutants like dissolved heavy metals still remain. To combat
this, an innovative approach was taken and (b) the biologists developed a series of six connected
marshes over 60 hectares of marshland appropriate plants, algae, fungi and bacteria were seeded
into this area, which neutralize, absorb and assimilate the pollutants, Hence, as the water flows
through the marshes , it gets purifies naturally.

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SESSION III

Solid wastes:
Solid wastes refer to everything that goes out in trash. Muncipal solid wastes are wastes from
homes, offices, stores, schools, hospitals etc. That are collected and disposed by the municipality.
The municipal solid wastes generally comprise paper, food wastes, plastics, glass, metals, rubber,
leather, textile, etc,. Burning reduces the volume of the wastes. Although it is generally not burnt to
completion and open dumps ofter serve as the breeding ground for rats and flies.
Sanitary landfills were adopted as the substitute for open – burning dumps. In a sanitary land fill,
wastes are dumped in a depression or French after compaction, and covered with dirt every day. If
you live in a town or city, do you know or city, do you know where the nearest landfill; site is?
All waste that we generate can be categorized into three types – bio- degradable, (b) recyclable
and (c) the non – bio- degradable. It is important that all garbage generated is sorted. What can be
reused or recycled should be separated out; our kabadiwallahs and ragpickers do a great job of
separation of materials for recycling. The biodegradable materials can be put into deep pits in the
ground and be left for natural breakdown. That leaves only the non – biodegradable to be disposed
off.
The need to reduce our garbage generating should be a prime goal, instead, we are increasing the
use of non – biodegradable products. Just pick any readymade packet of any ‘good quality’ eatable,
say a biscuit packet and study the packaging – do you see the number of protective layers used?
Note that at least one layer’s of plastic we can do our bit by carrying cloth or other natural fibre
carry – bags when we go shopping and by refusing polythene bags.
Hospitals generate hazardous wastes that contain disinfectants and other harmful chemicals, and
also pathogenic microorganisms. Such wastes also require careful treatment and disposal. The use
of incinerators is crucial to disposal of hospital waste.
Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as electronic wastes (e – wastes). E –
wastes are buried in landfills or incinerated over half of the e –wastes generated in the developed
world are exported to developing countries, mainly to China, India and Pakistan.
Where metals like Copper, Iron, Silicon, Nickel and gold are recovered during recycling process.
Unlike developed countries. Which have specifically built facilities for recycling of e - wastes,
recycling in developing countries often involves manual participation thus exposing workers to toxic
substances.

Case study of remedy for plastic waste:

A plastic sack manufacturer in Bangalore has managed to find the ideal solution to the ever –
increasing problem of accumulating plastic waste. Ahmed khan, aged 57 years old, has been
producing plastic sacks for 20 years. About 8 years ago, he realized that plastic waste was a real
problem, polyblend, a tine powder of recycled modifies plastic, was developed then by his
company.
This mixture is mixed with the bitumen that is used to lay roads. In collaboration with R.V. college
of engineering and the Bangalore city corporation. Ahmed khan proved that blends of polyblend
and bitumen, when used to lay roads, enhanced the bitumen’s water repellant properties, and
helped to increase road life by a factor of three, the raw material for creating polyblend is any
plastic film waste. So, against the price of Rs 0.40 per kg that rag pickers had been getting for plastic
waste, khan now offers Rs. 6, using khan’s technique, by the year 2002, more than 40 kms of road
in Bangalore has already been laid. At this rate, Khan will soon be running short of plastic waste in

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Bangalore, to produce poly blend. Thanks to innovations like poly blend, we might still avoid being
smothered by plastic waste.
Agro – Chemicals and their effects:
In the wake of green revolution, use of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides has increased manifold
for enhancing crop production. Pesticides, Herbicides, Fungicides, etc. are being increasingly used.
These incidentally are also toxic to non – target organisms, that re important components of the
soil ecosystem.
Do you think these can be biomagnified in the terrestrial ecosystems?
We know that the addition of increasing amounts of chemical fertlisers can do to aquatic
ecosystems vis – a – vis eutrophication. The current problem in agriculture are, therefore,
extremely grave
Case study of organic farming:
Integrated organic farming is a cyclical zero – waste procedure, where waste products fromone
process are cycles in as nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilization of
resource and increases the efficiency of production.
Ramesh Chandra Dagar, a farmer in Sonipat, Haryana, is doing just this. He includes bee- keeping,
dairy management , water harvesting, composting and agriculture in a chain of processes, which
support each other and allow an extremely economical and sustainable venture.
There is no need touse chemical fertilisers for crops, as cattle excreta (dung) are used as manure.
Crop waste is used to create compost, which can be used as a natural gas for satisfying the energy
needs of the farm.
Degradation by improper reserve utilization and maintenance.
Degradation of natural resources can occur not only by pollution but also improper resource
utilization and maintenance.
SESSION IV

SOIL EROSION AND DESERTIFICATION:

For the development of fertile soil takes centuries. But can be removes due to human activities like
over cultivation, unrestricted grazing,deforestation and poor irrigation result in acid patches of
land. When large barnen patches meat over time a desert is created.
Water logging and soil salinity: Irrigation without proper drainage of water leads to water logging in
the soil. Besides affecting the crops water logging draws salt to the surface of the soil is known as
soil salinity.
Case study of people participation in conservation of forests:
People participation has a long history in India. In 1731 the king of Jodhpur in Rajesthan asked one
of his ministers to arrange wood for constructing a new palace. The minister and workers went to a
forest near a village inhabitated by Bishnois. Bish nois hug the tree and request the workers not to
cut the trees. Sadly the kings men cut down the tree along with Amrita devi & her three daughters
and hundreds of other bishnoi lost their lives saving trees. The Indian government announced
“Amrita devi Bishnoi wild life protection award” for individual or communities from rural areas
shown extradinary courage and dedication in protecting wild life.
Chipko movement of garhwal Himalayans in 1974 local women showed bravery in protecting trees
from the axe of contractors by hugging them.
Government of India in 1980’s has introduced the concept of Joint forest management (JFM) so as
to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forests. In return for their
services to the forest, the communities get benefit of various forest products like fruits, gum,
rubber, medicine etc.
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MCQs
1. The Environment (Protection) Act was passed by the Government of India in
(1) 1975 (2) 1978 (3) 1986 (4) 1990
2. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed by the Government of India in
(1) 1974 (2) 1978 (3) 1981 (4) 1986
3. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed by the Government of India
in
(1) 1974 (2) 1978 (3) 1981 (4) 1986
4. The gas which is removed from the industrial smoke by the scrubber is
(1) Nitrogen oxide (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Sulphur dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide
5. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of
(1) Alcohol (2) Lime (3) Sodium hydroxide (4) Calcium chloride
6. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the harmful effects of particulate
matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less?
(1) It can cause respiratory problems
(2) It can cause damage to circulatory system
(3) It can cause inflammation of lungs
(4) It can cause damage to lungs
7. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in
micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health?
(1) 1.0 or less (2) 1.5 - 2.5 (3) 2.5 or less (4) 2.5 – 3.0
8. Which of the following is incorrect about catalytic converter in automobiles?
(1) It converts hydrocarbons into C O2 and water
(2) It converts nitric oxide into nitrogen gas
(3) It converts carbon monoxide into carbon dioxide
(4) It converts sulphur dioxide into sulphur
9. Catalytic converters in automobiles have metals like ______ which act as catalysts.
(1) Platinum/Palladium/Rhodium (2) Magnesium (3) Lithium (4) Titanium
10. Vehicles with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead
(1) Inactivates catalyst (2) Converts C O2 intoCO
(3) Converts C O2 into hydrocarbons (4) Converts sulphur dioxide into sulphur
11. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(1) Hydrocarbon (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Sulphur dioxide
12. Take off of a jet plane or rocket generates a sound with an intensity of
(1) 90 dB (2) 150 dB (3) 200 dB (4) 220 dB
13. Euro III norms stipulate that sulphur level should be controlled at
(1) 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in petrol
(2) 250 ppm in diesel and 100 ppm in petrol
(3) 200 ppm in diesel and 100 ppm in petrol
(4) 100 ppm in diesel and 50 ppm in petrol
14. Domestic sewage is unfit for human consumption of because the presence of a mere ____
impurities.
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.1% (3) 0.2% (4) 0.3%
15. The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a polluted water body
(1) Increases with increase in organic matter
(2) Decreases with increase in organic matter
(3) Will not change even if organic matter increases
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(4) Increases with decrease in organic matter
16. The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a polluted water body is reduced mostly by
(1) Anaerobic decay (2) Aerobic decomposition (3) Catabolism (4) Humification
17. A high value of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a water body indicates that
(1) Water is highly polluted (2) Organic matter in it is less
(3) Dissolved oxygen is more (4) Water is enriched with nutrients
18. Excessive growth of planktonic algae called algal bloom in a water body occurs due to
(1) Large amount of nutrients (2) Increased level of oxygen
(3) Large amount of non-degradable waste (4) Increased decomposition activity
19. The Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as
(1) Biofortification (2) Biotransformation (3) Biomagnification (4) Eutrophication
20. The natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water is called
(1) Leaching (2) Eutrophication (3) Biomagnification (4) Ecological succession
21. Eutrophication is a phenomenon which is often seen in
(1) Deserts (2) Fresh water lakes (3) Oceans (4) Grasslands
22. When sewage is dumped into a river, its Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(1) Will decrease (2) Will increase (3) Will remain unchanged (4) Will be very low
23. A fine powder of recycled modified plastic is
(1) Polythene (2) Polyblend (3) Polyster (4) Polygel
24. When a mixture of polyblend and bitumen was used to lay roads, the bitumen’s water
repellent properties increases by a factor of
(1) 2 (2) 2½ (3) 3 (4) 4
25. Which of the following is a group of non-biodegradable wastes?
(1) Plastic, DDT, mercury (2) Plastic, sewage, vegetable waste
(3) DDT, mercury, sewage (4) Sewage, DDT, radioactive waste
26. Without greenhouse effect, the average temperature at surface of earth would have been
(1) –15°C (2) –18°C (3) 10°C (4) 15°C
27. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly responsible for greenhouse effect?
(1) C O2 and C H 4 (2) N and O3 (3) NO and O3 (4) C H 4 and N H 3
28. Snow-blindness is the ______ due to UV-B radiation.
(1) Drying of the conjunctiva (2) Inflammation of cornea
(3) Damage of the retina (4) Damage of the lens
29. The thickness of ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is
measured in terms of
(1) Decibel (2) Dobson units (3) Parts per million (4) Micrometers
30. The ‘good’ ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere called
(1) Stratosphere (2) Ionosphere (3) Troposphere (4) Mesosphere
31. Ozone degradation in the stratosphere is enhanced by
(1) CFCs (2) Methane (3) UV radiation (4) DDT
32. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 to control
(1) Depletion of biodiversity (2) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(3) Release of greenhouse gases (4) Disposal of e-wastes
33. Which of the following international treaty was aimed at reducing emission of
chlorofluorocarbons into atmosphere ?
(1) Geneva Protocol (2) Montreal Protocol (3) Earth Summit (4) Kyoto Protocol
34. In stratosphere, which of the following atom acts as a catalyst in the degradation of ozone
and release of molecular oxygen?
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(1) Carbon (2) Chlorine (3) Nitrogen (d) Fluorine
35. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin
cancers?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Methane (3) Nitrous oxide (4) Ozone
36. Which of the following is the main cause for desertification?
(1) Global warming (2) Overgrazing (3) Irrigated agriculture (4) Eutrophication
37. The National Forest Policy (1988) of India has recommended _____ forest cover for the
plains and the hills respectively.
(1) 40% and 60% (2) 30% and 70% (3) 33% and 67% (4) 35% and 65%
38. In India, slash and burn agriculture (Jhum cultivation) was practised in
(1) South-western states (2) Western states
(3) Northern states (4) North-eastern states
39. In India, slash and burn agriculture (Jhum cultivation) has contributed to
(1) Desertification (2) Deforestation (3) Eutrophication (4) Co-extinction
40. Joint Forest Management (JFM) concept was introduced in India in
(1) 1960s (2) 1970s (3) 1980s (4) 1990s
41. Chipko movement was launched for the
(1) Protection trees (2) Conservation of biodiversity
(3) Prevention of ozone depletion (4) Reduction of global warming
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Answers

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write any four effects of air pollution.
2. Mention four effects of noise pollution in humans.
3. Write any two preventive measures for noise pollution.
4. Write any two preventive measures of air pollution.
5. Name the gaseous pollutant that is removed by a scrubber. How is this pollutant removed by the
scrubber?
6. Write the harmful effects of particulate matter present in air on human health.
7. How do catalytic converters help in controlling air pollution?
8. “Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is better than petrol or diesel”. Justify with two reasons.
9. List two causes of water pollutuion.
10. List two effects of water pollution.
11. Write the effects of DDT magnification in fish eating birds.
12. What is algal bloom? Mention its effects.
13. What is cultural or accelerated? Mention the two chief contaminants present in sewage,
industrial and agricultural wastes which is responsible for this.
14. Write the effect of thermal waste water on aquatic ecosystem.
15. What is ecological sanitation? Mention its advantages.

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16. What is polyblend? Write the advantages of polyblend?
17. Name any four green house gases.
18. Write any two control measures of global warming.
19. Ozone layer in the stratosphere becomes thinner due to the release of CFCs. Give s reason.
20. Explain briefly the international efforts to prevent ozone layer depletion.
21. List four causes of desertification.
22. Mention the major causes for soil erosion.
23. Differentiate deforestation and reforestation.
24. Mention two causes of deforestation.
25. Mention the percentage of forest cover recommended by the National Forest Policy (1988) for
the plains and the hills.
26. Write four consequences of deforestation.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Draw a neat labeled diagram of scrubber.
2. What is electrostatic precipitator? How are particulate matter removed by electrostatic
precipitators?
3. Draw a diagram of electrostatic precipitator.
4. Write the measures taken by Delhi government to reduce the vehicular pollution.
5. What is noise? Mention four effects of noise pollution in humans.
6. List three causes of water pollutuion.
7. List three effects of water pollution.
8. What is biomagnification? How biomagnification of DDT affects fish-eating birds?
9. Schematically represent biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain.
10. Write a note on e-wastes.
11. Mention the effects of radioactive wastes in humans. How are these wastes disposed?
12. Explain the mechanism by which thinning of ozone layer occurs.
13. Name a chemical that causes ozone depletion in the stratosphere. Mention any two effects of
ozone depletion in humans.
14. List three effects of ozone depletion.
15. What is desertification? Mention the causes for desertification.
16. What is deforestation? Mention two causes of deforestation.
17. What is deforestation? List two consequences of deforestation.
18. Write a note on Jhum cultivation.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What is pollution? Mention the causes and preventive measures of air pollution.
2. Write a brief account of functioning of electrostatic precipitator with a neat labeled diagram.
3. Define eutrophication? Explain the stages involved in eutrophication.
4. Explain the effects of water pollution.
5. What measures, as an individual, would you take to reduce environmental pollution?
6. How does greenhouse effect occur in nature?
7. What is global warming? Explain effects of global warming and list the control measures to
prevent global warming.
8. Discuss the consequences of global warming and ozone layer depletion.
9. Write the meaning of the following:
(a) Algal bloom (b) Biomagnification
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(c) Eutrophication (d) Polyblend (e) Greenhouse effect
10. What is integrated organic farming? Explain the organic farming technique practised by Ramesh
Chandra Dagar.
11. Describe the participation of people in the conservation of forests by taking Bishnoi community
incident and Chipko movement as examples. Add a note on Joint Forest Management (JFM).

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