Previous Examiantion Papers 1

Written Examination for Recruitment to the post of

Assistant Public Prosecutor — 2013

Paper - 1
PART-A
1) According to Section 436A Criminal Procedure Code, in no case, the maximum
period for which an undertrial can be detained of an offence not punishable
with death:
(A) Shall be more than one half of the maximum period of imprisonment
specified for that offence
(B) Shall be more than one third of the maximum period of imprisonment
specified for that offence
(C) Shall be more than one fourth of the maximum period of imprisonment
specified for that offence
(D) Shall be more than the maximum period of imprisonment provided for
the said offence under that law
2) During investigation of a cognizable case, the maximum period of detaining
an accused in police custody is:
(A) 15 days from the day of first remand order
(B) 15 days from the day of arrest
(C) 15 days from the day of receiving an FIR
(D) Any of the above
3) A charge sheet is a report submitted by:
(A) A Magistrate before starting the trail
(B) A Magistrate after taking cognizance
(C) An investigating officer before starting an investigation
(D) An investigating officer after the completion of investigation
4) State Governments are required to prepare a Scheme to compensate victims
of crime according to:
(A) Section 357 criminal procedure code
(B) Section 357A criminal procedure code
(C) Section 357B criminal procedure code
(D) Section 357C criminal procedure code
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5) A ‘charge’ under Criminal Procedure Code is:

(A) A Charge Sheet prepared by police
(B) A written formulation of accusation prepared by a Magistrate
(C) Both the (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
6) An arrested suspect can be released by an investigating officer on the
ground of deficient evidence under:
(A) Section 167, Criminal Procedure Code
(B) Section 168, Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Section 169, Criminal Procedure Code
(D) None of the above
7) Section 173(8), Criminal Procedure Code provides for:
(A) first investigation of a case (B) further investigation of a case
(C) re-investigation of a case (D) all the above
8) A non-bailable offence is the one for which:
(A) bail can be granted by the Court exercising its discretionary power
(B) bail can be granted by police in the station exercising his discretionary
power
(C) bail cannot be granted until completion of investigation
(D) bail cannot be granted until completion of trial
9) The purpose of Section 313 of Criminal Procedure Code is to provide for:
(A) an opportunity to the accused to explain the circumstances against him
(B) the cross examination of an accused
(C) entrapment of an accused making him confess the guilt
(D) all the above
10) Generally, a court of session as a court of original jurisdiction:
(A) can take cognizance of a matter without committal orders of a
Magistrate
(B) cannot take cognizance of a matter without committal orders of a
Magistrate
(C) can issue summons without taking cognizance of a matter
(D) can issue warrants without taking cognizance of a matter
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11) The object of inquest is to find out the:

(A) medical reason causing death (B) apparent cause of death
(C) possible offender causing death (D) all the above
12) Identification parade is at the stage of:
(A) Investigation (B) Inquiry
(C) Trial (D) All the above
13) Right to speedy trial was declared as a constitutional right of an accused
in
(A) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, AIR 1979 SC 1377
(B) Selvi v. State of Karnataka [2010(7)] SCC 263
(C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)2 SCR 621
(D) All the above
14) First Information Report is a:
(A) Substantive piece of evidence (B) Corroborative piece of evidence
(C) Conclusive piece of evidence (D) Not a piece of evidence
15) Pleabargaining is not applicable in case of:
(A) An offence punishable with less than 7 years
(B) An offence not affecting socio-economic condition of the country
(C) An offence committed against women or a child below the age of
14 years
(D) All the above
16) To proclaim an offender as a “proclaimed offender”, the procedure to be
complied with should be as per:
(A) Section 81, Criminal Procedure Code
(B) Section 82, Criminal Procedure Code
(C) Section 83, Criminal Procedure Code
(D) Section 84, Criminal Procedure Code
17) The maximum period during which an arrested person can be detained in
police custody under Section 167 of CrPC is:
(A) First fifteen days from the date of arrest
(B) First fifteen days from the date of judicial remand order
(C) Fifteen days in total spread during the period of investigation
(D) None of the above
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18) A committal procedure is a part of

(A) Investigation (B) Trial
(C) Inquiry (D) None of the above
19) Investigation of a case does not include:
(A) Proceeding to the crime scene (B) Arrest of suspect
(C) Examination of witness (D) None of the above
20) A police can examine a witness under Section:
(A) Section 158 (B) Section 159
(C) Section 160 (D) Section 161
21) “A compelled testimony is violative of Art. 20(3)” was the precedent laid
down in the case of
(A) Selvi v. State of Karnataka
(B) Nandini Sathpaty v. P.L. Dani
(C) Joginder Kumar v. State of UP
(D) Roshan Beebi v. Joint Secretary to Government of Tamil Nadu
22) According to Criminal Procedure Code, process to compel appearance of a
person before court does not include:
(A) Issuance of summons (B) Issuance of arrest warrants
(C) Issuance of search warrants (D) Proclamation
23) The system of plea bargaining currently allowed in India is:
(A) Sentence bargaining
(B) Charge bargaining
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) and (B)
24) As a general rule, a witness has to be examined in the court. However, the use
of video conference mechanism in permissible cases for the examination of
witness can be permitted as per the precedent set in:
(A) State of Maharashtra v. Praful B. Desai
(B) Abayaswari Debi v. Kishori Mohan Banerjee
(C) Ratanlal Bhanji Mithani v. State of Maharashtra
(D) Raj Kumar Kochan v. State of Maharashtra
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25) Evidence collected during investigation by illegal search and seizure is:
(A) admissible as evidence subject to verification
(B) inadmissible as evidence whatsoever
(C) leads to vitiation of such procedure of search and seizure
(D) leads to vitiation of the entire investigation procedure
26) Anticipatory bail can be granted for:
(A) Bailable offence (C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(B) Non-bailable offence (D) Both (A) and (B)
27) A police can arrest a person involved in commission of a non-cognizable
offence if:
(A) the accused fails to give details of his name and identification to such police
(B) the accused surrenders before such police
(C) the police receives a complaint relating to such offence
(D) the police has reasonable apprehension of such accused avoiding the
criminal procedure
28) Section 164 of Criminal Procedure Code provides for judicial recording of:
(A) witness statements (B) statement of investigating officer
(C) expert evidence (D) victim statement
29) The maximum period during which an arrested person can be detained in
police custody under Section 167 of Cr.P.C. is:
(A) First fifteen days from the date of arrest
(B) First fifteen days from the date of judicial remand order
(C) Fifteen days in total spread during the period of investigation
(D) Sixty or ninety days depending upon the extent of punishment prescribed
for the offence
30) Offences committed through telecommunication messages can be inquired
or tried at:
(A) the place from where such message was sent
(B) the places through which such message is sent
(C) the place to which the accused belongs to
(D) the place where victim resides
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31) When a special Act makes a special offence and a special procedure, contrary
to rules laid down under Criminal Procedure Code, the offence must be dealt
with according to:
(A) the Special Act itself (B) the Criminal Procedure Code
(C) both the above (D) none of the above
32) Criminal Procedure Code empowers High Courts with inherent powers under
(A) Section 480 (B) Section 481
(C) Section 482 (D) Section 483
33) Bailable offence is not the one which:
(A) is shown as bailable in the First Schedule
(B) is made bailable by any special law in application
(C) bail can be granted by a Police officer
(D) none of the above
34) Generally the competency of the Court to inquire and try criminal offences
is determined by:
(A) the place in which the offence may have been committed
(B) the place of which the accused is a resident
(C) the place of which the victim, is a resident
(D) all the above
35) A Charge is framed by a:
(A) Trial Court (B) Investigating Officer
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
36) Framing of a Charge is mandatory in:
(A) A case before Sessions Court (B) A Summons case
(C) Summary trial (D) All the above
37) Inquiry under Section 2(g) is conducted by a--
(A) Magistrate (B) High Court
(C) Police Officer (D) Any of the above
38) According to Criminal Procedure Code, an offence punishable with less
than 2 years of imprisonment is a
(A) Warrant case (B) Summons case
(C) Cognizable case (D) Non-bailable case
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PART-B
39) Identify the incorrect among the following:
(A) Admissions may be proved as against the person who makes them or his
representative in interest
(B) Admissions may be proved if made by persons expressly referred to by
party to a suit
(C) Admissions may be proved on behalf of the person who makes or Ins
representative in interest
(D) Admissions may be proved on behalf of the person who makes or his
representative in interest only in exceptional circumstances
40) State of Maharashtra v. Praful B. Desai 2003 Cri.L.J. 2033 (SC), held admissible
(A) Evidence of Video Conferencing
(B) Evidence of Tape Recorded Conversation
(C) Evidence of Digital Signature Certificate
(D) Evidence of DNA
41) In a prosecution for rape or attempt to commit rape, in the cross examination
of the prosecutrix; questions as to her general immoral character
(A) Can be put
(B) May be put
(C) Permissible with the permission of die court
(D) Not permissible
42) Hostile witness is a witness that
(A) entertains hostility towards the party that called him as a witness
(B) entertains hostility towards the party that did not call him as a witness
(C) gives evidence against the party that called him as a witness
(D) gives evidence in favour of the party that did not call him as a witness
43) A prosecutes B for stealing a cow from him. B is convicted. A, afterwards sues
C for the cow, which B had sold to him before his conviction to prove that he
is entitled to the cow. A brings the judgment against B as evidence of his right.
The judgment is
(A) Relevant (B) Irrelevant
(C) Not reliable (D) Worthy of consideration by the court
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44) Indian Evidence Act sought to

(A) Consolidate law of evidence
(B) Consolidate and define the law of evidence
(C) Consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
(D) Consolidate Law of evidence in Britain as Indian Law of Evidence
45) Indian Evidence Act is not applicable to
(A) Courts-Martial Proceedings (B) Civil Suits
(C) Proceedings before an Arbitrator (D) Criminal Trials
46) Evidence of which of the following witness is not admissible?
(A) Partisan witness (B) Chance witness
(C) Inimical witness (D) None of the above
47) Indian Evidence Act came into force from
(A) 31st March 1871 (B) 15th March 1872
(C) 1st September 1872 (D) 30th January 1872
48) “Men may lie but circumstances never do” implies that
(A) Men do not speak the truth
(B) Circumstances speak the truth
(C) It is easy to lie in direct evidence
(D) It is not that easy to lie in circumstantial evidence
49) Indian Evidence Act does not lay down when the court
(A) can drew presumptions of law
(B) shall presume a fact
(C) may presume a fact
(D) may draw presumptions of fact
50) Burden of proof as to ownership when anything is shown to be in the
possession of a person is
(A) On the person who asserts that the possessor is not the owner
(B) On the person having possession that claims ownership
(C) On both
(D) None of the above
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51) Evidence of a contemporaneous agreement varying the terms of a

document can be given by persons who are
(A) the representatives in interest of the parties to the document
(B) the agents of the parties to the document
(C) not the parties to the document
(D) the parties to the document
52) Evidence is relevant if it establishes the identity
(A) of a person only
(B) of a thing only
(C) of both a person and a thing
(D) of both a person and a thing only in so far as necessary for the purpose
53) Identify the incorrect among the following:
(A) Evidence of previous good character is relevant in criminal cases
(B) Evidence of previous bad character is relevant in criminal cases
(C) Evidence of character to prove the conduct imputed is irrelevant in civil cases
(D) Evidence of previous bad character is relevant only in reply in criminal cases
54) When a statement is contained in part of electronic record, evidence can
be given of
(A) so much and no more of the electronic record as the court considers
necessary in that particular case
(B) the entire electronic record
(C) so much and no more of the electronic record if the opposite party objects
(D) the entire electronic record if the opposite party does not object
55) ‘R’, a witness, affirmed that he saw ‘Z’ at Lucknow on 1.4.2013. ‘R’ was
asked whether he himself was not on that day at Patna. He denied it. To
contradict ‘R’ which among the following is admissible?
(A) Evidence that ‘R’ was at Patna on 1.4.2013
(B) Evidence that ‘Z’ was at Lucknow on 1.4.2013
(C) Evidence that ‘R’ was at Lucknow on 1.4.2013
(D) Evidence that ‘Z’ was at Patna on 1.4.2013
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56) Presumption as to dowry death to be drawn by the Court is contained in

Section
(A) 111A (B) 113A
(C) 114A (D) 113B
57) A competent witness is one
(A) who is not below 7 years of age
(B) who is not below 12 years of age
(C) who is not below 18 years of age
(D) age is not the criterion to determine the competency
58) The principle that the Burden of Proof shifts from the prosecution to the
accused when the accused seeks shelter under any of the general
exceptions in IPC, is stated in
(A) Section 105 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 107 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act
59) Prosecutrix means-
(A) Female prosecutor
(B) A woman who is prosecuted
(C) In a trial for the offence of Rape, the rape victim
(D) Prosecutor in a rape case
60) Existence of any right can be proved by ,evidence of any transaction by
which (1) the right was created, (2) the right was modified, (3) the right
was recognized and (4) particular instance in which the right was exercised
A) 1, 2 & 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 & 4 are correct
61) A public officer cannot be compelled to disclose communications made to him
(A) under all circumstances
(B) in official confidence, when public interests would suffer by the
disclosure
(C) in official confidence
(D) when public interest would suffer by the disclosure
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62) The contents of a public document can be proved by a

(A) Copy compared with original
(B) Copy made from the original by mechanical process
(C) Oral account of the contents by a person that saw it
(D) Certified copy
63) Which of the following is correct?
(A) Evidence must be counted
(B) Evidence must be weighed
(C) Evidence must be weighed and not counted
(D) Evidence must be counted and not weighed
64) The Court should be guided in the matter of Retraction of a Confession by the
doctrine of
(A) Preference (B) Prudence
(C) Justice (D) Reversion back
65) ‘A’ intentionally led ‘B’ to believe that certain land belongs to ‘A’ and induced
‘B’ to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards become the property of ‘A’.
‘A’ seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that he had no title at the time
of the sale. Is he entitled to bring evidence to that effect?
(A) Entitled
(B) Entitled when court permits
(C) Not entitled if other party objects
(D) Not entitled
66) A fact is said to be ‘not proved’
(A) When the court believes it to exist
(B) When the court believes that it does not exist
(C) When it is neither proved nor disproved
(D) When a prudent man considers that it does not exist
67) Anything said, written or done by anyone of the conspirators is relevant if
it is
(A) In reference to their common intention
(B) In furtherance of their common intention
(C) In obedience to the orders of the head of the conspirators
(D) In executing their common design
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68) Any document proved to be thirty years old is called

(A) Public Document (B) Ancient Document
(C) Private Document (D) Genuine Document
69) Evidence given by a Dumb Witness as by writing or by signs in open court
is called
(A) Documentary Evidence (B) Hearsay Evidence
(C) Circumstantial Evidence (D) Oral Evidence
70) Which of the following confession is relevant?
(A) Confession caused by inducement
(B) Confession caused by threat
(C) Confession made under a promise of secrecy
(D) Confession made to a police officer
71) New Trial will be ordered on the ground of
(A) Improper admission of evidence
(B) Improper rejection of evidence
(C) Improper admission of evidence if there is sufficient independent
evidence
to justify the decision
(D) Improper rejection of evidence if rejected evidence varies the decision
72) Whose opinion among the following is relevant to prove hand writing
(A) Person specially skilled in identifying handwriting
(B) Person who is acquainted with the handwriting of the person by whom it is
purported to have been written
(C) Person that has received documents purporting to be written by that person
in answer to the document written by himself
(D) All the above
73) When the terms of a contract are reduced to the form of a document;
evidence of separate oral agreement is inadmissible
(A) To contradict its terms
(B) To explain a matter on which the document is silent
(C) To show a condition precedent for attaching the contractual obligation
(D) To rescind or modify the contract when the contract according to law need
not be reduced to the form of document
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74) Which among the following is incorrect?

(A) Evidence may be given to show the meaning of technical expressions
(B) Evidence may be given to show that it was used in a peculiar sense when
the language used in a document is plain in itself, but is unmeaning in
reference to existing facts
(C) Evidence may not be given to show that it was not meant to apply to the
existing facts when language used in a document is plain in itself and
accurately applies to existing facts
(D) Evidence may be given of facts which would show its meaning when the
language used in a document is on the face of it ambiguous
75) Indian Evidence Act directing the court to regard a fact as proved unless
until it is disproved, is called
(A) May presume (B) Shall presume
(C) Conclusive proof (D) None of the above
76) Which among the following is not primary evidence?
(A) Each part of a document executed in several parts
(B) Each counter part of a document as against the party that did not excuse it
(C) Each counter part of a document as against the party that executed it
(D) Each document made by one uniform process like lithography
77) Hearsay Evidence is Evidence
(A) perceived by the sense of hearing of a fact which could be heard
(B) perceived by the sense of hearing of a fact which could be seen
(C) of an opinion of a person who holds that opinion
(D) none of the above
78) Evidence of facts not otherwise relevant is relevant
(A) if they are inconsistent with the fact in issue
(B) if not objected by the adverse party
(C) if judge permits
(D) only when not contradicted
79) Evidence that an act formed part of series of similar occurrences is
relevant if in each of the occurrences:
(A) the person doing the act was only one
(B) the person doing the act was the same
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(C) the person doing the act was concerned

(D) the person doing the act was different
80) In respect of which of the following, presumptions cannot be made by the
court
(A) Document purporting to be a record of the evidence
(B) Maps or plans made
(C) Certified copies of foreign judicial records
(D) Electronic record purporting to be an agreement containing digital
signature
81) Which of the following is a dying declaration?
(A) Statement by a person as to the cause of his relative’s death
(B) Statement by a person as to the circumstances of the transaction which
resulted in his death
(C) Statement by a person as to known cause of death of another person
(D) Statement by a person as to the cause of death of a person he witnessed
82) Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Prosecution should prove the guilt of the accused
(B) Accused should prove that his case falls under general exceptions in IPC
(C) Accused should prove that his case falls under the specific exception
contained in the charged sections of IPC
(D) Prosecution should prove that the accused is not entitled to any general
exceptions in the IPC
83) Which of the following is not secondary evidence?
(A) Copies made from the original
(B) Copies made from the original by mechanical process
(C) Counterparts of documents as against the parties that executed them
(D) Oral account of the contents of document by a person that has seen it
84) Public records kept in any State of private documents are
(A) Official documents (B) Private documents
(C) State documents (D) Public documents
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85) The fact that, after B was robbed, C said in A’s presence - “The police are
coming in search of the man who robbed B”, and that immediately
afterwards A ran away, is relevant according to Indian Evidence Act
under:
(A) Section 8 (B) Section 10
(C) Section 15 (D) Section 32
86) Indian Evidence Act does not deal with
(A) Relevancy of Evidence (B) Reliability of Evidence
(C) Admissibility of Evidence (D) Forensic Evidence
PART-C
87) An unlawful assembly requires atleast the presence of
(A) More than five members (B) Less than five members
(C) Two members (D) Five members
88) When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the
public peace, the offence committed is:
(A) Affray (B) Unlawful assembly
(C) Dacoity (D) Rioting
89) A person who is legally bound by an oath or by an express provision of law
to state the truth, knowingly makes a statement which is false commits the
offence of
(A) Giving false evidence (B) Fabricating false evidence
(C) Both the above (D) None of the above
90) A person by intentionally causing “such bodily injury as the offender
knows to be likely to cause the death of the person to whom the harm is
caused” commits ;
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) Grievous hurt
(C) Negligent homicide
(D) Culpable homicide amounting to murder
91) The maximum punishment of imprisonment which can be imposed under
Section ________304A for rash and negligent homicide is
(A) Two years (B) One year
(C) Three years (D) Four years
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92) A person who transmits sexually transmittable disease to another can be

charged or:
(A) Grievous hurt (B) Hurt
(C) Assault (D) None of the above
93) A person by inciting his dog to spring upon another with the intention of
causing injury, fear or annoyance to that another
(A) Commits criminal intimidation (B) Commits hurt
(C) Uses criminal force (D) Uses force
94) Offence of Theft under IPC does not require the element of
(A) Dishonest intention to cause wrongful loss or wrongful gain
(B) Moving of the object
(C) Intention to permanently retain the properly
(D) None of the above
95) Section 34 of IPC is a:
(A) Rule of interpretation (B) Rule of liability
(C) Rule of evidence (D) Rule of exception
96) The constitutional validity of Section 309, IPC was upheld in:
(A) P. Rathinam v. Union of India (1994 Cr LJ 1605)
(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1994 Cr LJ 1005)
(C) Ram Sunder Dubey v. ST (AIR 1962 All 262)
(D) Maruti Shripati Dubai v. State of Maharashtra [1987 Cr LJ 743 (Bom)]
97) Acid attack disfiguring the victim is currently dealt with:
(A) Section 307, IPC (B) Section 320, IPC
(C) Section 326, IPC (D) Section 326A, IPC
98) According to the decision in Priya Patel v. State of MP and Another [2006
(6) SCC 263]:
(A) A woman can be held liable for the offence of gang rape
(B) A woman cannot be held liable for the offence of gang rape
(C) A woman can be held liable for rape
(D) None of the above
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99) Whoever does anything with the intention of causing wrongful gam to one
person or wrongful loss to another is said to do that thing-
(A) Intentionally (B) Fraudulently
(C) Dishonestly (D) Maliciously
100) According to Section 53, IPC the category of punishments imposed upon
offenders liable under the Code does not include:
(A) Life imprisonment (B) Forfeiture of property
(C) Transportation (D) None of the above
101) Generally the subject matter of theft under IPC is:
(A) moveable property (C) intangible property
(B) immovable property(D) incorporeal property
102) Currently the offence of Rape does not consist sexual intercourse between
a man and his wife who is below
(A) 18 years (B) 16 years
(C) 15 years (D) 12 years
103) While in contradiction to each other the law which prevails over is:
(A) Indian Penal Code
(B) Special Enactment
(C) Both Indian Penal Code and Special Enactment
(D) Neither Indian Penal Code nor Special Enactment
104) Solitary confinement, in whole under Indian Penal Code must not exceed:
(A) Thirty days (B) Thirty weeks
(C) Three years (D) Three months
105) Section 76 provides - ‘Mistake of fact’ as a defence to:
(A) Any person who in good faith mistakes the fact
(B) A person justified under law and in good faith mistakes the fact
(C) A person bound by law and in good faith mistakes the fact
(D) All the above
106) Ground of voluntary intoxication under IPC provides for:
(A) complete ground of exemption from criminal liability
(B) no ground of exemption from criminal liability
(C) presumption of intention based liability
(D) presumption of knowledge based liability
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107) Abduction is a
(A) A complete offence (B) A continuous offence
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
108) “Nationality cannot be a limiting principle in respect of criminal jurisdiction,
which is primarily concerned with security of the State and of the citizens of
the State” was the precedent set in the case of
(A) Mobarik Ali Ahmed v. State of Bombay - AIR 1957 SC 857
(B) Central Bank of India v. Ram Narain - AIR 1955 SC 36
(C) State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George - AIR 1965 SC 722
(D) Stale of Maharashtra v. Syndicate Transport Company (P) Ltd. -
1964 (2) CR LJ 276
109) Defence of Insanity under IPC Section 84 is based on
(A) Wild Beast Test (B) Madfield Test
(C) M’Naughten Test (D) Evil and Good Test
110) According to Section 52 of IPC, ‘good faith’ involves the element of
(A) Reasonableness (B) Due care and caution
(C) Honest intention (D) Reasonable knowledge
111) The period of solitary confinement in total must not exceed
(A) Three years (B) Three days
(C) Three months (D) Thirty days
112) A person who commits an offence while doing an act believing himself in
good faith as being bound by law gets the defence of
(A) Mistake of law (B) Mistake of fact
(C) Accident (D) Misfortune
113) Act causing slight harm is a ground of defence under
(A) Section 95 (B) Section 85
(C) Section 75 (D) Section 65
114) Abetment of abetment
(A) is covered in ‘Abetment’
(B) is covered in ‘Abetment by Conspiracy’
(C) is covered in ‘Conspiracy by Abetment’
(D) None of the above
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115) Wrongful restraint becomes wrongful confinement if

(A) The restraint caused prevents the victim to take one of the alternative
route available
(B) The restraint caused prevents the victim from, proceedings beyond certain
circumscribing limits
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
116) A woman who was pregnant for one month voluntarily causes herself to
miscarry and thereby commits an offence of:
(A) Causing miscarriage and Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) Causing miscarriage and Grievous hurt
(C) Causing miscarriage and Culpable homicide amounting to murder
(D) Only causing miscarriage
117) Justice Bachawat said: “The essence of a woman's modesty is her sex....
Young or old, intelligent or imbecile, awake or sleeping, the woman
possesses a modesty capable of being outraged” in the case of
(A) State of Punjab v. Major Singh - AIR 1967 SC 63
(B) Rupan Deal Bajaj Case v. Kanwar Pal Singh Gill - (1995) 6 SCC
194
(C) Vidyadharan v. State of Kerala - (2004) 1 SCC 215
(D) Durga Charan Naik v. State of Orissa - AIR 1966 SC 1775
118) Members of the funeral procession who applauded the widow who
committed sati by shouting “Sati mata ki jai” and by chanting other
mantras committed the offence of:
(A) Abetment (B) Attempt
(C) Conspiracy (D) All the above
119) Changes made to- ‘Rape law’ through the Criminal Law (Amendment)
Act of 1983 was a result of-
(A) State of Maharashtra v. Chandraprakash Kewalcha Jain
(B) State of Maharashtra v. Prakash
(C) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra
(D) Uttam Kumar v. State
20 Previous Examiantion Papers

120) Public servant is defined under

(A) Section 22 (B) Section 20
(C) Section 21 (D) Section 23
121) “The essence of a woman’s modesty is her sex _____Young or old,
intelligent or imbecile, awake or sleeping, the woman possesses a modesty
capable of being outraged” said Supreme Court in:
(A) State of Punjab v. Major Singh (AIR 1967 SC 63)
(B) Vidyadharan v. State of Kerala (2004)1 SCC 215
(C) Rupan Deol Bajaj v. Kanwar Pal Singh Gill (1995) 6 SCC 194
(D) Durga Charan Naik v. State of Orissa (AIR 1966 SC 1775
122) Application of the principle of Transferred malice is found in:
(A) Section 300 (B) Section 301
(C) Section 302 (D) Section 303
123) The formula of awarding death sentence in the rarest of the rare cases
was evolved in:
(A) Machi Singh v. Stale of Punjab (AIR 1983 SC 957)
(B) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1980 SC 898)
(C) Kehar Singh v. State (1988)3 SCC 609
(D) State of U.P. v. Rajendra Prasad (1979)3 SCC 646
124) According to Section 304B, whoever commits dowry death shall be
punished with
(A) Not less than five years
(B) Not less than three years
(C) Not less than seven years
(D) Not less than four years
125) Section 308 of IPC deals with
(A) Attempt to murder (B) Attempt to culpable homicide
(C) Attempt to suicide (D) None of the above
126) A man’s signature of his own name may amount to
(A) Forgery (B) Fraud
(C) Perjury (D) No offence
 Previous Examiantion Papers 21

PART-D
127) Power of the Supreme Court to review is provided under
(A) Article 136 (B) Article 142
(C) Article 32 (D) Article 137
128) The method of proportional representation is adopted in the case of
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Minister
(C) The Governor
(D) The President and Vice-President
129) ____ Article empowers the President to appoint the Prime Minister of
India
(A) 74 (B) 73
(C) 77 (D) 75
130) _______ is the recently constituted Commission to review the Centre-
state relations in India
(A) Justice Madan Mohan Puncchi Commission
(B) Justice Shah Commission
(C) Justice Venkatachaliah Commission
(D) Justice Sarkaria Commission
131) The total number of Union Territories is
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 7
132) Supreme Court or the High Court may issue any appropriate __ __ to
enforce the Fundamental Rights
(A) Writ (B) Writ/order/decree
(C) Decree (D) Only writ and order
133) ____acts as the President, when the President or the Vice-President is not there
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Former President
(C) Senior Member of the Parliament
(D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
22 Previous Examiantion Papers
134) The Parliament has exclusive power to legislate upon the entries
mentioned under
(A) List-I of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(B) List-II of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(C) List-III of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(D) All the above
135) Which High court of India started E-court fee system in its premises?
(A) Kolkata High Court (B) Delhi High Court
(C) Jabalpur High Court (D) Bombay High Court
136) The total number of High courts at present are
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 23 (D) 26
137) In a ruling that will help patients continue to buy several life-saving
medicines as generic drugs, recently the Supreme Court held that the
modification of a well-known cancer fighting drug is not a patentable new
invention. The firm that was effected was:
(A) Novartis’ Glivec (B) Glaxo
(C) Reddy Labs (D) Leaderle
138) Match the following:
1. Freedom of Religion (A) Art. 301
2. Trade and Commerce (B) Art. 368
3. Rights of minorities (C) Art. 25
4. Constitutional Remedies (D) Art. 30
5. Amending process (E) Art. 32
(A) 1-C; 2-B; 3-E; 4-D; 5-A
(B) 1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-E; 5-B
(C) 1-C; 2-B; 3-A; 4-E; 5-D
(D) 1-A; 2-B; 3-D; 4-E; 5-C
 Previous Examiantion Papers 23

139) Attorney-General of India is appointed by

(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Registrar of the Supreme Court
140) The word “Power to Reprieve” means-
(A) Change of sentence
(B) Postponement of execution of sentence
(C) To excuse
(D) Stay of execution of sentence
141) Attorney-General of India shall hold office-
(A) for a period of five years
(B) for a period of three years
(C) for a period of six years
(D) during the pleasure of the President
142) Article 265 states that taxes cannot he imposed save by authority of
law. This means i) There must be law ii) The law must authorize the tax
iii) The tax must be levied and collected according to the law
(A) i & ii (B) ii
(C) iii (D) i, ii & iii
143) The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council
of Ministers shall not exceed ______ of the total number of Members of the
legislative assembly of that state
(A) Twenty percent (B) Thirty percent
(C) Twelve percent (D) Fifteen percent
144) Comptroller Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India
who shall be removed from his office in ____ manner
(A) By the pleasure or will of the President
(B) Like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Resolution as to removal of Comptroller Auditor General by the Finance
Commission
(D) Order of the Prime Minister
24 Previous Examiantion Papers

145) Even though an Act is put in the Ninth Schedule by a constitutional

amendment, its provisions would be open to attack on the ground that they
destroy or damage the basic structure if the fundamental right or rights
taken away or abrogated pertains or pertain to the basic structure. Held in
the case of
(A) I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu
(B) Keshavananda Bharathi v. State of Kerala
(C) M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
(D) Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
146) “Third Degree methods or inhuman treatment by the police is violative of
Art. 21” - held in the case of-
(A) Francis Coralie‘s case (C) Kishori Singh case
(B) Maneka Gandhi’s case (D) M. C. Mehta case
147) “India is not true to any traditional pattern of federation” - held in the
case of-
(A) State of Rajasthan v. Union of India
(B) State of West Bengal v. Union of India
(C) State of Karnataka v. Union of India
(D) Karunanidhi v. Union of India
148) There shall be National Commission for Scheduled Castes - it is
envisaged under which Article of the Constitution
(A) Art. 335 (C) Art. 15
(B) Art. 348 (D) Art. 338
149) Under Public Interest Litigation
(A) Locus standi is relaxed (C) Precedent has no value
(B) Res judicata has no application (D) Rule nisi is made applicable
150) Constitutionalism refers to
(A) Absolute powers on the executive
(B) Judicial supremacy
(C) Legislative supremacy
(D) Limited government or government with limitations
 Previous Examiantion Papers 25
151) Which provision of the Constitution calls for all civil and judicial
authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court?
(A) Article 142 (B) Article 143
(C) Article 144 (D) Article 145
152) Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19(l)(a) is subject to
reasonable restriction
(A) Article 19(3) (B) Article 19(4)
(C) Article 19(2) (D) Article 19(6)
153) When national emergency is proclaimed, the fundamental freedoms guaranteed
by Article 19 automatically stand suspended. On which ground this can happen?
(A) War or insurrection (B) War or armed rebellion
(C) War or external aggression (D) War
154) Under ___ Article, State has duty to raise the level of nutrition and the
standard of living and to improve public health
(A) 45 (B) 46
(C) 44 (D) 47
155) ____ Article provides for establishment of Administrative Tribunal
(A) 323-A (B) 323-B
(C) 343 (D) 334
156) Under _____ provision it is prescribed that the proceeding in Supreme
Court shall be conducted in the English language
(A) 348 (B) 343
(C) 350 (D) 349
157) Identify the correct order of words as provided in the preamble
(A) Socialist sovereign secular democratic republic
(B) Sovereign socialist secular republic democratic
(C) Sovereign socialist secular democratic republic
(D) Sovereign secular socialist democratic republic
158) How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
of India?
(A) Eighteen languages (B) Nineteen languages
(C) Sixteen languages (D) Twenty two languages
26 Previous Examiantion Papers

159) Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to-

(A) Panchayats (B) Reservation in panchayats
(C) Municipalities (D) Corporations
160) Right to work is
(A) A fundamental right
(B) A fundamental duty
(C) A Directive Principle of State Policy
(D) An ordinary constitutional right
161) Parliament consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) President, Vice-President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) President, Speaker, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
162) Right to Property is recognized under:
(A) Art. 31 (B) Art. 19(f)
(C) Art. 300A (D) Art. 329A
163) In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that
Indian Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive-
(A) Drafting Committee (B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee (D) All the above
164) The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
(A) Elected members of both the houses of parliament and elected members
of the legislative assemblies of the states
(B) Elected members of both the houses of parliament and elected members
of the legislature of the states
(C) Members of both the houses of parliament and members of the legislative
assemblies of the states
(D) Elected members of both the houses of parliament and members of the
legislative assemblies of the states
 Previous Examiantion Papers 27

PART-E
165) The grass root level organization that took initiative for right to
information:
(A) Mazdoor Kisan Sramic Sanghatan (MKSS)
(B) Mazdoor Kisan Saman Sanghatan (MKSS)
(C) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan (MKSS)
(D) Mazdoor Kisan Sena Sanghatan (MKSS)
166) The following is not: open for disclosure under Right to Information Act:
(A) Material affecting sovereignty and integrity of India
(B) Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of
Parliament
(C) Information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual
property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a
third party
(D) All the above
167) What is the time limit to get the information under RTI regarding the
life and liberty of a person?
(A) 30 days (B) 24 hours
(C) 48 hours (D) 15 days
168) RTI Act gives the right to information only
(A) to the citizens of India
(B) to both the citizens and non-citizens
(C) to foreign nationals only
(D) all the above
169) Right to information is implicit under which Fundamental right of the
Constitution of India
(A) A. 22 (B) A. 26
(C) A. 25 (D) A. 19(l)(a)
28 Previous Examiantion Papers

170) “Knowledge will, forever govern ignorance and people who mean to be
their own governors must arm themselves with the power knowledge
gives”. Who said so?
(A) James Madison (B) Blackstone
(C) Bentham (D) Hart
171) Whoever not being a member of SC and ST institutes false suit is
punishable
(A) With imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but
which may extend to five years and with fine
(B) With imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year but
which may extend to five years and with fine
(C) With imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but
which may extend to 10 years and with fine
(D) With imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than six months but
which may extend to five years and with fine up to Rs. 5000/-
172) By passing THE SCHEDULED CASTES AND THE SCHEDULED
TRIBES (PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES) ACT, 1989, the Protection
of Civil Rights Act, 1955 is
(A) Repealed (C) Becomes part of penal law
(B) Not repealed (D) None of the above
173) Any person who is found guilty under THE SCHEDULED CASTES AND
THE SCHEDULED TRIBES (PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES) ACT,
1989 and who is above the age of 18 years is
(A) Not subject to Probation of Offenders Act
(B) Subject to Probation of Offenders Act
(C) Not subject to Probation of Offenders Act and Civil Rights Act
(D) Subject to Probation of Offenders Act and Civil Rights Act
174) Charge sheet for the offence under Sec. 3(1)(X) SC/ST Act submitted by
the Circle Officer concerned on the basis of the investigation carried out
by the Sub-inspector is not valid - held in the case of
(A) Joshi & Another v. State of’ U.P & Another (Allahabad High Court, 2009)
(B) Jwahir Sharma & Another v. State of U.P. & Another (Allahabad High
Court, 2009)
 Previous Examiantion Papers 29

(C) Jwala & Another v. State of U.P. & Another (Allahabad High Court, 2009)
(D) Jahangir v. State of U.P. & Another (Allahabad High Court, 2009)
175) The official format in which the complaint under Protection of Women
from Domestic Violence Act will be registered
(A) Domestic Violence Report
(B) Domestic Incident Report
(C) First Information Report
(D) Domestic Violence First Information Report
176) S. 29 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
allows appeals to _______ against any orders passed by the Magistrate
(A) District court (B) Sessions court
(C) Family court (D) Either of these
177) The period of limitation stated in the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 within which the Aggrieved Party should
approach the court.
(A) Thirty days (B) One year
(C) Six months (D) No limitation period
178) The failure to comply with a court order under the Protection of Women
from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 amounts to
(A) cognizable offence only
(B) non-bailable offence only
(C) cognizable and non-bailable offence
(D) none of the above
179) According to Prevention of Corruption Act, “public duty” means
(A) a duty imposed on the State and the citizens which is not enforceable in
the ordinary courts
(B) a principle which is fundamental in the governance of the country and
enforceable in a court of law
(C) a duty in the discharge of which the State the public or the community at
large has an interest
(D) a duty in the discharge of the community at large has an interest
30 Previous Examiantion Papers

180) The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)
Rules were framed in
(A) 1998 (B) 1995
(C) 1997 (D) 1991
181) For speedy trial, Section 14 of the Act provides for a ______ to be
Special Court to try offences under this Act in each district:
(A) Court of Session
(B) District Court
(C) Civil Judge Senior Division Court
(D) Civil Judge Junior Division Court
182) The dowry under Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 does not include
(A) any property given or agreed to be given either directly or indirectly
(B) valuable security given or agreed to be given either directly or indirectly
(C) any property or valuable security given or agreed to be given either
directly or indirectly
(D) mahr or dower under Shariat Act
183) Under the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act of 1984 the minimum
punishment for demanding dowry is
(A) two years imprisonment and fine
(B) five years imprisonment and fine
(C) six years imprisonment and fine
(D) one year imprisonment and fine
184) Section 498-A has been added in the Indian Penal Code, and Section 198-A
has been added in the Criminal Procedure Code since the year 1983. It is
provided that in the case of suicide by a married woman, within 7 years
from the date of her marriage, the court may presume that such suicide has
been abetted, encouraged by her husband or his relatives. Provision to this
effect has been added in the Indian Evidence Act, by adding which Section?
(A) 115A (B) 114A
(C) 113A (D) 375A
 Previous Examiantion Papers 31

185) Dowry Death has been defined under Indian Penal Code under
(A) Section 497 A (B) Section 375B
(C) Section 304B (D) Section 113 A
186) The objectives of THE SCHEDULED CASTES AND THE SCHEDULED
TRIBES (PREVENTION OF ATROCITIES) ACT, 1989 includes
(A) Prevention of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to provide for Sessions courts for the trial
of such offences and for the relief and rehabilitation of the victims
(B) Prevention of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to provide for Special courts
for the trial of such offences and for the relief and rehabilitation of
the victims
(C) Prevention of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to provide for Sessions courts
for the trial of such offences
(D) Prevention of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to provide for Sessions courts
for the trial of such offences and for the relief
187) The establishment of a Sessions Court as a special court to try offences
under the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention and Atrocities)
Act, 1989 requires concurrence of:
(A) State government
(B) Chief Justice of the concerned High court
(C) District Judge of the concerned area
(D) Advocate General of the State
188) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)
Act, 1989 seeks to punish those who
i) Force a member of the Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribes
(ST) to eat and drink any inedible or obnoxious substance
ii) Forcibly removes clothes from a person of SC / ST
iii) Parades him / her naked
iv) An act against human dignity
(A) i, ii, iii (B) ii, iii, iv
(C) i, ii, iii, iv (D) i, iii, iv
32 Previous Examiantion Papers
189) Article _______ of Indian Constitution seeks to abolish untouchability and
its practice in any form is forbidden
(A) 17 (B) 18
(C) 22 (D) 21
190) Investigation of an offence committed under the SC / ST Act cannot be
investigated by an officer not below the rank of
(A) Deputy Superintendent of Police (B) Director General of Police
(C) Sub-Inspector (D) Circle Inspector
191) For the purpose of providing for speedy trial, the State Government shall,
with the concurrence of the .......... by notification in the Official Gazette,
specify for each district Court of Session to be a Special Court to try the
offences under SC & ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
(A) Chief Justice of the High court (B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(C) President of India (D) Prime Minister of India
192) The United Nations General Assembly adopted the Declaration on the
Elimination of Violence against Women in the year
(A) 1993 (B) 1979
(C) 1978 (D) 1992
193) An aggrieved person under the Prevention of Women from Domestic Violence
Act, 2005 should approach:
(A) First class or the Metropolitan Magistrate’s court
(B) Civil court senior division court
(C) District court
(D) Family court
194) Violation or non-compliance with the Order of the court passed under
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is a
(A) criminal offence
(B) civil wrong
(C) attracts both civil and criminal sanctions
(D) none of these
195) Appellate authority envisaged under the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act is the
(A) Protection Officer (B) Sessions Court
(C) District/Sessions court (D) High court
 Previous Examiantion Papers 33

196) The definition of ‘public servant’ under Prevention of Corruption Act

does not include the following:
(A) office-bearers of the registered cooperative ‘societies receiving any
financial aid from the Government
(B) office-bearers of the registered cooperative societies not receiving any
financial aid from the Government
(C) any person who is paid by the local authority
(D) any person who is a Chairman, member or employee of any Service
Commission
197) If a person not expecting to be in office obtains a gratification by deceiving
others into a believe that he is about to be in office, and that he will then serve
them, he may be guilty of-
(A) Offence under Prevention of Corruption Act
(B) Only civil wrong
(C) Cheating
(D) Innocent misrepresentation
198) Offences punishable under this Act can be tried by ________ only
(A) Special judges (B) Magistrates
(C) Judicial officers (D) District judge
199) Investigation in metropolitan areas shall be done by a police officer not
below the rank of:
(A) Assistant Commissioner of Police (B) Inspector of Police
(C) Deputy Superintendent of Police (D) None of the above
200) The authority responsible to give information to a person who seeks
information under the RTI Act is:
(A) Public Protection Officer (B) Principal Information Officer
(C) Public Information Officer (D) Public Information Secretary
—————