17-08-2025

1803CMD303016250015 MD

PHYSICS

1) A coin is placed on a gramophone record rotating at a speed of 45 rpm. It flies away when the
rotational speed is 50 rpm. If two such coins are placed one over the other on the same record at
same position, both of them will fly away when the rotational speed is:-

(1) 12.5 rpm

(2) 25 rpm
(3) 50 rpm
(4) 100 rpm

2) A particle of mass 'm' describes a circle of radius (r). The centripetal acceleration of the particle

is . The momentum of the particle :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 5 kg moving in concentric orbits of radii R and r such that their
time periods are the same. Then the ratio between their centripetal acceleration is :-

(1) R/r
(2) r/R
(3) R2/r2
(4) r2/R2

4) A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of

velocities at points A, B and C is :

(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

5) A wheel has a speed of 1200 revolutions per minute and is made to slow down at a rate of 4
radians/s2. The number of revolutions it makes before coming to rest is :-

(1) 143
(2) 272
(3) 314
(4) 722

6) Two cars having masses m1 and m2 move in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. If they complete
the circles in equal time. The ratio of their angular speeds ω1/ω2 is :-

(1) m1/m2
(2) r1/r2

(3)

(4) 1

7) Two moving particles 'P' and 'Q' are 10 m apart at an instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s making an
angle 30° with line joining P and that of Q is 6 m/s making and angle 30° with PQ as shown in figure.

Then angular speed of P with respect to Q is -

(1) 0 rad/s
(2) 0.1 rad/s
(3) 0.4 rad/s
(4) 0.7 rad/s

8) Find angular velocity of A with respect to O at the instant shown in the figure.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with an angular velocity ω = a – bt where a and b
are positive constants and t is time. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle after time
is :-

(1)

(2)
(3) R(a2 + b)
(4) a2R

10) A particle is moving on a circular path of radius r with uniform speed v. The magnitude of

change in velocity when the particle moves from P to Q is : (∠POQ = 40°) :-

(1) 2v cos 40°

(2) 2v sin 40°
(3) 2v sin 20°
(4) 2v cos 20°

11) A string of length 1 m is fixed at one end and carries a mass 100 g at the other end.The string
makes (2/π) revolutions per second around a vertical axis through fixed end. The tension in the

string is : (Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 16 N
(2) 1.6 N
(3) 0.16 N
(4) none of the above

12) What is the value of linear velocity, if and :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Three particles of masses m, 2m, 3m are performing circular motion as shown in figure. Identify

which string has the maximum possibility of breaking.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) equal possibility

14) An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly (see figure). The coefficient of friction
between the insect and the surface is 1/3. If the joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to
the insect makes an angle α with the vertical, the maximum possible value of α is given by :-

(1) cot α = 3
(2) tan α = 3
(3) sec α = 3
(4) cosec α = 3

15) Due to global warming, ice on polar caps is likely to melt in large quantity. Due to this effect :-

(1) Moment of inertia of earth shall decrease

(2) Duration of the day shall decrease
(3) Angular velocity of earth shall decrease
(4) Angular momentum of earth shall decrease

16) A vehicle of mass 1500 kg is moving along a quarter circular path of length 314 m with a speed
of 20 ms–1 then centripetal force needed by the vehicle is :

(1) 1000 N
(2) 2000 N
(3) 3000 N
(4) 4000 N

17) A car of mass m when passes over a convex bridge of radius of curvature 'r', with a velocity v,
then the normal force excreted by the bridge on the car is :-

(1) Zero
(2) mg

(3)

(4)

18) A uniform circular disc A of radius r is made from a metal plate of thickness t and another
uniform circular disc B of radius 4r is made from the same metal plate of thickness t/4. If equal
torques act on the discs A and B, initially both being at rest. At a later instant, the angular speeds of
a point on the rim of A and another point on the rim of B are ωA and ωB respectively. We have

(1) ωA > ωB
(2) ωA = ωB
(3) ωA < ωB
(4) the relation depends on the actual magnitude of the torques.

19) A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring, all having equal mass and radius, are placed at the
top of an incline and released. The friction coefficients between the objects and the incline are equal
and but not sufficient to allow pure rolling. The greastest kinetic energy at the bottom of the incline
will be achieved by

(1) the solid sphere

(2) the hollow sphere
(3) the ring
(4) all will achieve same kinetic energy.

20) A wheel of moment of inertia 2.0 × 103 kgm2 is rotating at uniform angular speed of 4 rads–1.
What is the torque required to stop it in one second.

(1) 0.5 × 103 Nm

(2) 8.0 × 103 Nm
(3) 2.0 × 103 Nm
(4) None of these

21) Four thin rods of same mass m and same length L form a square as shown in the figure. M.I. of

this system about an axis through center O and perpendicular to its plane is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) Three identical rods, each of length L, are joined to form a rigid equilateral triangle. Its radius of
gyration about an axis pass through a corner and perpendicular to the plane of triangle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A square plate of side ℓ has mass per unit area μ. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing
through the centre and perpendicular to its plane is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) On a disc of radius R a Concentric circle of radius R/2 is drawn. The disc is free to rotate about a
frictionless axis through its centre and perpendicular to plane of the disc. All three forces (in plane
of the disc) shown in figure are exerted tangent to their respective circular periphery. The
magnitude of the net torque (about centre of disc) acting on the disc is :-

(1) 1.5 FR
(2) 1.9 FR
(3) 2.3 FR
(4) 2.5 FR

25) A uniform cylinder free to turn around a fixed axis has a string wrapped around it as shown to
the right. The string is pulled with a force F equal to the cylinders weight. What is the acceleration
of the string?

(1) 2g
(2) g
(3) g/2
(4) g/4

26) A cubical block of side 1m and mass 1kg is pulled by a force F applied to central line so that it
slides with an acceleration of 1m/s2. What is the net torque on it about O.

(1) 1 Nm

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

27) Assume body B to be uniform :

(1) (A) Q, (B) P, (C) R
(2) (A) P, (B) Q, (C) R
(3) (A) Q, (B) P, (C) P
(4) (A) R, (B) P, (C) Q

28) If the angular momentum of any rotating body increases by 200%, then the increase in its kinetic
energy

(1) 400%
(2) 800%
(3) 200%
(4) 100%

29) A metre stick is held vertically with one end on the floor and is then allowed to fall. if the end
touching the floor is not allowed to slip, the other end will hit the ground with a velocity of (g = 9.8
m/s2) :-

(1) 3.2 m/s

(2) 5.4 m/s
(3) 7.6 m/s
(4) 9.2 m/s

30) Find the torque of a force acting at the point

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) A wheel rotates under constant angular acceleration starting from rest. Find the ratio of angle
rotated in n second and nth second :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

32) As shown in the figure, two blocks, each of mass m, suspended from the ends of a rigid light rod
of length L. The rod is held horizontally on the fulcrum and then released. Find the initial angular
acceleration of the rod :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A particle of mass m is thrown with speed v0 at angle 30° with horizontal. Find the angular
momentum about the point of projection when the particle is at the highest point of its trajectory :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A dancer during rotation folds her hand, due to which her moment of inertia decreases by 50%
then her final angular velocity will becomes :-

(1) Double
(2) Four times
(3) Half
(4) Remains same

35) A cube of each side 2a and a solid sphere of radius a of same density are placed in contact as

shown in figure. The distance of centre of mass of the system from point O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A quarter sector of a uniform disc of radius R is shown in figure. The coordinates of center of

mass is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Blocks A and B are resting on a smooth horizontal surface given equal speeds of 2 m/s in

opposite sense as shown in the figure. At t = 0 the position of

blocks are shown, then the co-ordinates of center of mass at t = 3s will be :-

(1) (1, 0)
(2) (3, 0)
(3) (5, 0)
(4) (2.25, 0)

38) A non-zero external force acts on a system of particles. The velocity and the acceleration of the
centre of mass are found to be and at any instant t. It is possible that :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

39) A highly elastic ball moving at a speed of 3 m/s approaches a wall moving towards it with a

speed of 3 m/s. After the collision, the speed of the ball will be :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 9 m/s
(4) zero

40) A boy of mass 40 kg is running with a velocity of 2 m/s on ground just tangentially to a merry-
goround at rest, which has radius R = 2 m, mass 100 kg and radius of gyration 1 m. If the boy
suddenly jumps on to the merry-go-round and sits on it, the angular velocity acquired by the system
is

(1)
rad/s

(2)
rad/s

(3)
rad/s

(4)
rad/s

41) A sphere of mass m moving horizontally with velocity v0 collides against a pendulum bob of mass
m. If the two masses stick together after the collision, then the maximum height attained is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A shell is fired from a gun with a muzzle velocity u m/sec at an angle θ with the horizontal. At the
top of the trajectory the shell explodes into two fragments P and Q of equal mass. If the speed of the
fragments P immediately after explosion becomes zero, where does the centre of mass of the
fragments hit the ground ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) A shell in free space initially at rest explodes into two pieces, A and B, which then move in
opposite directions. Piece A has less mass than piece B. Ignore all external forces. Identify correct
statement.

(1) Both have the same momentum after the explosion.

(2) Piece B has greater magnitude of momentum than that of A after the explosion.
(3) Piece A has greater kinetic energy than that of B after the explosion.
(4) Both have the same kinetic energy after the explosion.

44) In the given diagram the distance travelled by the plank when A and B exchange their positions:

(1) 2 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 4.8 m
(4) 5.4 m

45) For the system shown in the figure the acceleration of centre of mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following molecules acts as a Lewis acid?

(1) (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)3B
(3) (CH3)2O
(4) (CH3)3P
2) Which of the following is electron deficient molecule?

(1) B2H6
(2) C2H6
(3) PH3
(4) SiH4

3) Assertion (A) : B(OH)3 is monobasic acid.

Reason (R) : In aqueous solution it takes up OH– from water to release 1 mole of OH+ ion per mole
of B(OH)3.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

4) Assertion (A) : Silicones are water proof.

Reason (R) : The repeating unit of silicones is .

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

5) The correct decreasing order of bond dissociation energy among halogens is

(1) F–F > CI–CI > Br–Br > I–I

(2) Cl–Cl > Br–Br > F–F > I–I
(3) Cl–Cl > Br–Br > I–I > F–F
(4) I–I > F–F < Cl–Cl > Br–Br

6) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Pb+4 is an oxidising agent

(2) Sn+2 is a reducing agent
(3) Stability order (Tl+ > Tl+3)
(4) In+3 is an oxidising agent

7) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

A Graphite P Purest form

 B Diamond Q Hardest form

C Fullerenes R Softest form

D Lamp-Black S Dry lubricant

(1) A - Q, B - S, C - P, D - R
(2) A - S, B - Q, C - P, D - R
(3) A - S, B - Q, C - R, D - P
(4) A - S, B - P, C - Q, D - R

8) The number of types of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide is :-

(1) One sigma, two pi

(2) One sigma, one pi
(3) Two sigma, one pi
(4) Two sigma, two pi

9) In which of the following N-Si bond length is shortest?

(1) N(SiH3)3
(2) NH(SiH3)2
(3) NH2(SiH3)
(4) All

10) Which of the following can act as an oxidising agent?

(1) Tl3+
(2) Pb4+
(3) Bi+5
(4) All

11) Which of the following does not contain 3c–2e bonds ?

(1) B2H6
(2) I2Cl6
(3) Al2Cl6
(4) Both (2) and (3)

12) Which one of the following compound give propyne on treatment with water ?

(1) CaC2
(2) Mg2C3
(3) Al4C3
(4) Be2C

13) Which of the following statement is incorrect about silicones ?

(1) R2SiCl2 & RSiCl3 are monomers of silicones
(2) Silicones are hydrophobic
(3) R3SiCl is used to close polymeric chain
(4) Polymers of (R3SiO)2

14) Which of the following is an type of pseudo alum :

(1) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(2) MnSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(3) K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O
(4) Na2SO4.Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O

15) Amongst the elements of group 14, the reducing power of the divalent species decreases in the
order

(1) Ge > Sn > Pb

(2) Sn > Ge > Pb
(3) Pb > Sn > Ge
(4) Sn > Pb > Ge

16) Match the column for hydrolysis product :-

(a) AlN (P) C2H2
(b) CaC2 (Q) HCl
(c) Al4C3 (R) NH3
(d) PCl3 (S) CH4

(1) a-R, b-P, c-S, d-Q

(2) a-P, b-S, c-R, d-Q
(3) a-R, b-S, c-P, d-Q
(4) a-R, b-Q, c-S, d-P

17) Back bonding is present in ?

–
(1) BF4
(2) H3N → BF3
(3) BF3
(4) NF3

18) With respect to graphite and diamond, the incorrect statement is :-

(1) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond

(2) Diamond is thermodynamically more stable than graphite
(3) Graphite has higher bond order than diamond
(4) Graphite is softer than diamond
19) Inorganic graphite is :-

(1) B3N3H6
(2) B2H6
(3) (BN)X
(4) BF3

20) Which of the following statements is true on the basis of back bonding?

(1) CHCl3 is stronger acid than CHF3

(2) Dimethyl ether acts as a better lewis base but not disiyl ether (SiH3-O-SiH3)
(3) (CH3)3C-O-H is less acidic than (CH3)Si-OH
(4) All of these

21) Statement (I) : Number of B–O–B bond in borax is 5

Statement (II) : Aqueous Solution of borax is alkaline in nature.

(1) Statement (I) and (II) both are incorrect.

(2) Statement (I) and (II) both are correct.
(3) Statement (I) is correct, (II) is incorrect.
(4) Statement (II) is incorrect, (I) is correct.

22) Which member of group-13 is liquid at room temperature ?

(1) B
(2) Al
(3) Ga
(4) Tl

23) Out of the following which is not the set of intensive properties?

(1) boiling point, pH, molarity

(2) volume, area, length
(3) freezing point, temperature, emf
(4) refractive index, molality, density

24) The gas absorbs 100 J and is simultaneously compressed by a constant external pressure of 1.50
atm from 8 lit to 2 lit volume. Hence ΔU will be :

(1) – 812 J
(2) 812 J
(3) 1011 J
(4) 911 J

25) 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litre to 40
litre. The work done (in kJ) by the gas is :
(1) w = –28.72 kJ
(2) w = –11.488 kJ
(3) w = –5.736 kJ
(4) w = –4.988 kJ

26) For which of the following change ΔH ≠ ΔE ?

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)

(2) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(ℓ)
(3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

27) One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L) to (2.0 atm, 7.0 L) with a
change in internal energy (ΔU) = 30 L-atm. The change in enthalpy (ΔH) of the process in L-atm:

(1) 22
(2) 38
(3) 25
(4) None of these

28) Which of the following is the least stable and its existence is doubtful

(1) SnI4
(2) CI4
(3) PbI4
(4) GeI4

29) A system has internal energy equal to E1, 450 J of heat is taken out of it and 600 J of work is done
on it. The final energy of the system will:-

(1) (E1 + 150)

(2) (E1 + 1050)
(3) (E1 – 150)
(4) None of these

30) For complete combustion of ethanol,

C2H5OH(ℓ) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ), the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb
calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol–1 at 25ºC. Assuming ideality the Enthalpy of combustion, ΔcH, for the
reaction will be :-
(R = 8.314 Jk–1 mol–1)

(1) –1460.50 kJ mol–1

(2) –1350.50 kJ mol–1
(3) –1366.95 kJ mol–1
(4) –1361.95 kJ mol–1
31) Which one is a state function :

(1) q
(2) w
(3) qv
(4) None

32) Oxygen is divalent, where as sulphur exhibits a valency of 2, 4 or 6. This is due to

(1) High electronegativity of oxygen than sulphur

(2) Large size of sulphur atom
(3) High ionisation potential of oxygen
(4) Availability of vacant d-orbitals in the valence shell of sulphur

33) Which statement is not true for reversible process ?

(1) It takes place in a single step

(2) System and surrounding are in equilibrium in every step
(3) Work obtained is maximum in isothermal expansion reversible process.
(4) Driving force is not much greater than opposing force

34) Calculate the work done for the vaporisation of 1 mole of water in calories :-(1 atm, 100°C)

(1) 746 cal

(2) –746 cal
(3) –385 cal
(4) 385 cal

35) The product formed in the reaction,

(1) (BN)x
(2) B3N3H6
+
(3) [H2B(NH3)2] [BH4]¯
(4) B2H6·2NH3

36) The exhibition of highest co-ordination number depends on the availability of vacant orbitals in
the central atom. Which of the following elements is not likely to act as central atom in ?

(1) B
(2) Al
(3) Ga
(4) In
37) For the isothermal expansion of 1 mol gas

(1)
(2) = positive
(3) q = positive
(4) w = 0

38) Which one is dependent only on initial and final state?

(1) Heat supplied at constant pressure

(2) Heat supplied at constant volume
(3) Enthalpy
(4) All of the above

39) A certain mass of an ideal gas absorbs 80 kJ heat and gas is expanded from 2 L to 10 L at
constant pressure of 25 bar. What is ΔU for gas in the process? (1 bar-L = 100 J)

(1) 280 kJ
(2) –120 kJ
(3) 60 kJ
(4) 100 kJ

40) One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) →, (4.0 atm, 5.0L,
245 K) with a change in internal energy, ΔU = 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy (ΔH) of the
process in L atm is:

(1) 40.0
(2) 42.3
(3) 44.0
(4) not defined, because pressure is not constant

41)

At constant temperature for the reaction :

C4H10(g) + O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 5H2O(ℓ)

ΔE – ΔH is ?

(1) + RT
(2) – RT

(3)
+ RT
(4) –3RT

42) In an isochoric process, the increase in internal energy is

(1) Equal to the heat absorbed

(2) Equal to the heat evolved
(3) Equal to the work done
(4) Equal to zero

43) Which of the following is a state function & extensive property ?

(1) Temperature
(2) Pressure
(3) Internal energy
(4) None of these

44) In which process, work acts as a state function ?

(1) Isothermal
(2) Isobaric
(3) Adiabatic
(4) Isochoric

45) The value of for the following reaction at 27oC will be, 2NH3(g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g) :-

(1) 8.314 × 273 ×(–2) J

(2) 8.314 × 300 ×(–2) J
(3) 8.314 × 27 (+2) J
(4) 8.314 × 300 (+2) J

BIOLOGY

1) Growth is accompanied by -

(1) Anabolic process and energy.

(2) Catabolic process which occurs at the expense of energy.
(3) Metabolic processes which occur at the expense of energy.
(4) Energy only

2) The given figure show –

(1) Developmental heterophylly in buttercups

(2) Environmental heterophylly in larkspur
(3) Environmental heterophylly in buttercup
(4) Developmental heterophylly in Larkspur

3) The factors affecting growth can be –

(1) Water, temperature, light, gravity

(2) Water, temperature, light but not gravity
(3) Water, light but not temperature & gravity
(4) Water, light, gravity but not temperature

4) Match the column in respect with the measurement growth-

Column-I Column-II

a Maize i Length

b Watermelon ii Surface area

c Pollen tube iii Cell number

Dorsiventral
d iv Cell size
leaf
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

5)
Choose the correct label-

(i) (ii) (iii)

Shoot Root
Vascular
(1) apical apical
cambium
meristem meristem
 Shoot
Root apical Vascular
(2) apical
meristem cambium
meristem

Shoot Root Vascular

(3)
parenchyma parenchyma bundle

Root Shoot Vascular

(4)
parenchyma parenchyma bundle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Identify the given figures

Figure shows geometric growth with

(1)
formula Lt = Lo + rt
Figure shows geometric growth with
(2)
formula W1 = Wo ert
(3) Figure shows arithematic growth with formula Lt = Lo + rt
rt
(4) Figure shows arithematic growth with formula W1 = Wo e

7) a. Heterophyllyl is an example of plasticity

b. Development includes both growth and differentiation
c. Sigmoid growth curve is typical for all cell, tissue and organ of plant.
d. Absolute growth rate is always similar to the relative growth rate
Which of the above statements are correct:

(1) All of the given statements

(2) Statements a, b, c and d
(3) Statements a, b, d
(4) Statements a, b, and c

8) Formation of meristems like interfascicular cambium and cork cambium from parenchyma cells is

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

9) The maximum growth rate occurs in ________.

(1) Exponential phase
(2) Stationary phase
(3) Senescent phase
(4) Lag phase

10) Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different
kinds of structures. This ability is called :

(1) Elasticity
(2) Flexibility
(3) Plasticity
(4) Maturity

11) Assertion: Plant growth as a whole is indefinite.

Reason: Plants retain the capacity of continuous growth throughout their life due to meristems.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

12) Quantitative comparisons between the growth of living systems can be made by

(1) Absolute growth rate

(2) Relative growth rate
(3) Exponential growth rate
(4) Both (1) and (2)

13) The Measure of the plant to produce new plant material, referred to as -

(1) efficiency index

(2) heterophylly
(3) differentiation
(4) plasticity

14) Select the odd one w.r.t. developmental plasticity

(1) Coriander
(2) Cotton
(3) Larkspur
(4) Buttercup

15) Which of the following is true for arithmetic growth?

Following mitotic cell division, only one daughter cell continues to divide while the other
(1)
differentiates and matures
(2) Initial growth is slow (lag phase), and it increases rapidly thereafter
(3) With limited nutrient supply, the growth slows down leading to a stationary phase
(4) If we plot the parameter of growth against rime, we get a typical sigmoid or S-curve

16) The form of growth where new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of
meristem is called the

(1) Open form of growth

(2) Closed form of growth
(3) Determinate growth
(4) Both (1) and (3)

17) One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than _________ new cells per hour.

(1) 3,50,000
(2) 35,000
(3) 17,500
(4) 1,75,000

18) At the root apex the cells of the meristematic region are not characterized by :-

(1) Being rich in protoplasm

(2) Abundant plasmodesmatal connections
(3) A cell wall that is primary in nature
(4) Having small inconspicuous nuclei

19) Cells positioned away from root apical meristems differentiate as while those pushed
to the periphery mature as .

(1) A – Epidermis, B – Root cap

(2) A – Root cap, B – Epidermis
(3) A – Xylem, B – Epidermis
(4) A – Root cap, B – Xylem

20) Absolute growth rate is defined as the

(1) Synthesis of new intercellular and extracellular materials.

(2) Measurement & the comparison of total growth per unit time.
(3) Growth of the given system per unit time.
(4) Increased growth per unit time.

21) Select required conditions for growth :-

(A) Water to maintain turgidity
(B) Medium for enzymatic activities
(C) Very High temperature
(D) Micro nutrients in excess
(E) Low O2 level

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, E
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B

22) The figure given below shows growth of two leaves in one week. Select the correct option, if
RGR = relative growth rate and AGR = absolute growth rate.

RGR AGR RGR AGR

Options
of A of A of B of B

(1) 5% 100 cm2 5% 100 cm2

(2) 50% 5 cm2 50% 5 cm2

(3) 10% 5 cm2 100% 5 cm2

(4) 100% 5 cm2 10% 5 cm2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which of the following hormone closes stomata in response to water stress?

(1) IAA
(2) ABA
(3) NAA
(4) GA3

24) Assertion : 2, 4-D is extensively used in agricultural and horticultural practices.

Reason : 2, 4-D is a herbicide.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

25) Select the incorrect option among them -

(1) Ethylene is gaseous PGR.

(2) Mainly ethylen stimulates the closure of stomata.
(3) GA helps in seed germination
(4) Oxygen helps in releasing metabolic energy essential for growth activities.

26) Ethylene promotes –

(1) Senescence and abscission of flowers

(2) Senescence but not abscission of flowers
(3) Abscission of flowers but not senescence
(4) Neither senescence nor abscission of flowers

27) Abscisic acid is –

(1) Indole compound

(2) Adenine compound
(3) Carotenoid derivative
(4) Terpene derivative

28) The figure shows -

(1) Experiment to show that tip of coleoptile produces gibberelin

(2) Experiment to show that tip of coleorhiza produces gibberelin
(3) Experiment to show that tip of coleorhiza produces auxin
(4) Experiment to show that tip of coleoptile produces auxin

29) Cousins confirmed the release of a volatile substance , from ripened that hastened
the ripening of stored unripe

(1) (i)-ABA, (ii)-banana, (iii)-orange

(2) (i)-ABA, (ii)-orange, (iii)-banana
(3) (i)-C2H4, (ii)-banana, (iii)-orange
(4) (i)- C2H4, (ii)- orange, (iii)-banana

30) Read the following statements regarding cytokinin -

i) Kinetin occurs naturally in plants
ii) Kinetin was discovered from coconut milk
iii) Zeatin does not occur naturally in plants
iv) Zeatin was isolated from human DNA
How many of the statements are incorrect

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Match the scientist with the plant they worked on-

Column-I Column-II

a F.W. Went i Canary grass

b E. Kurosawa ii Avena(oat)

Charles & Francis

c iii Tobacco
Darwin

d F.S koog iv Rice

(1) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i
(2) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
(3) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii

32) The PGRs that play important role in plant responses to wounds are -

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Abscisic acid

33) Select the correct option for given diagram -

(1) A- Plasmatic growth; B- Expansion; C- Differentiaiton; D- Maturation

(2) A- Plasmatic growth; B- Differentiaiton; C- Expansion; D- Maturation
(3) A- Differentiaiton; B- Plasmatic growth; C- Expansion; D- Maturation
(4) A- Plasmatic growth; B- Differentiaiton: C- Maturation; D Expansion
34) Among them which effects are due to Abscisic acid activity within plant.
I. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata and increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of
stresses.
II. It has role in seed development, maturation and dormancy
III. It has role in fruit ripening
IV. ABA acts as an antagonist to GAs

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

35) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Abscisic acid is also called stress hormone.

(2) Chemically all PGRs are purine derivatives
(3) ABA acts as antagonist to GAs in most of the cases
(4) GAs can speed up malting process.

36) Select out the incorrect match :

(1) GA speed up malting process

(2) Auxin Xylem differentiation
(3) Cytokinin Adventitious shoot formation
(4) Ethylene Lateral shoot growth

37) Select the wrong statement w.r.t. ethylene

(1) Inhibits senescence and abscission.

(2) Breaks seed and bud dormancy peanut & potato tuber respectively.
(3) Induces flowering in mango.
(4) Accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits like cotton, cherry and walnut.

38) The basic unit of classification is:

(1) Genus
(2) Order
(3) Species
(4) Family

39) Which of the following taxa belong to the same rank?

(1) Homo, Felis, pardus

(2) Solanaceae, leo, Convolvulaceae
(3) Mangifera, Solanum, Panthera
(4) Hominidae, Triticum, Dicotyledonae
40) Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the
codes given below:

Column - I Column - II

(a) Family (i) Diptera

(b) Order (ii) Arthropoda

(c) Class (iii) Muscidae

(d) Phylum (iv) Insecta

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii i iv ii

(2) iii ii iv i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) IV II I III

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Taxonomically number of species known and described are

(1) 1.7 billion

(2) 1.7 million
(3) 5-30 million
(4) 17 million

42) Which of the following statements about biological classification is/are correct?
I. Taxonomy helps in identifying an organism.
II. Nomenclature involves grouping similar organisms.
III. Systematics deals with the evolutionary relationships among species.

(1) Only I and II

(2) Only I and III
(3) Only II and III
(4) All of the above

43) Match the taxonomic terms with their definitions:

Column-I Column-II
(Term) (Definition)

A Binomial Nomenclature 1 Solanum tuberosum

 B Taxonomy 2 The naming system introduced by Linnaeus

C Potato 3 A unit used in the biological classification

D Taxon 4 Science of classification of living organisms

(1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(3) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

44) In the taxonomic categories which hierarchial arrangement in descending order is correct in
case of plants ?

(1) Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species.
(2) Kingdom-phylum-class-family-order-genus-species.
(3) Kingdom-division-class-order-family-genus-species.
(4) Kingdom-class-order-division-family-species-genus.

45) What does the word "Systematics" mean ?

(1) The study of organisms

(2) The systematic arrangement of organisms
(3) The study of evolutionary relationships
(4) The study of identification and classification

46) Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements ?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Diencephalon
(4) Medulla oblongata

47) Which of the following statement are/is true ?

(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick

(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter
(3) At the level of alveoli, gaseous exchange occurs by simple diffusion
(4) All of these

48) During normal expiration :-

(1) EICM and diaphragm muscles contract

(2) IICM and abdominal muscles contract
(3) EICM and muscles of diaphragm relax
(4) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure

49) Which of the following pulmonary volume can't be measured by spirometer directly ?
(1) Tidal volume
(2) Vital capacity
(3) Inspiratory capacity
(4) Residual volume

50) Exchange of gases :-

(1) Occurs between the alveoli and pulmonary blood capillary

(2) Occurs between blood and tissues
(3) By diffusion
(4) All

51) Human has the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration with the help of
additional muscle in :-

(1) Lungs
(2) Thorax
(3) Brain
(4) Abdomen

52) Which of the following factors favour the formation of Oxyghaemoglobin in lungs ?

(1) ↓, , Temperature , H⊕ concentration

(2) , , Temperature , H⊕ concentration

(3) ↓, ↓, Temperature↓, H⊕ concentration↓

(4) , ↓, Temperature↓, H⊕ concentration ↓

53) If a large number of people are enclosed in a room then

(1) Oxygen decreases and CO2 increases

(2) Oxygen increases and CO2 decreases
(3) Oxygen and CO2 decreases
(4) Oxygen and CO2 increases

54) Select the incorrect match

(1) Inspiratory capacity → (TLC – FRC)

(2) Expiratory capacity → [(FRC – RV) + TV]
(3) Vital capacity → (IRV + EC)
(4) Total lung capacity → (VC – RV)

55) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase
is present in RBC. B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma. C- Every 100 ml
blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli. D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as
carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, C and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

56) The structure which prevents the entry of food into respiratory tract is

(1) pharynx
(2) Larynx
(3) Glottis
(4) Epiglottis

57) Very high number of alveoli present in a lung is meant for

(1) More space for increasing volume of inspired air

(2) More area for diffusion
(3) Making the organ spongy
(4) Increasing nerve supply

58) The figure given below shows a small part of the human lung where exchange of gases takes
place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along

with its function?

(1) A- Alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases

(2) D- Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
(3) B- Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly.
(4) C -Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues

59) Choose the correct chemical equation related to respiration ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

60) Which of the following structure is commonly known as sound box?

(1) Pharynx
(2) Larynx
(3) Trachea
(4) Wind pipe

61) Blood carries the CO2 in 3 forms. The correct percentages of CO2 in these forms are :

As
Dissolved
carbamino
As bicarbonates form in
haemoglobin
plasma
in RBC

1 20 – 25% 70% 7%

2 70% 20-25% 7%

3 20-25% 7% 70%

4 7% 20-25% 70%
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Choose the correct match

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-iii

63) What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in atmospheric air as compared to alveoli?

(1) High pO2 and low pCO2

(2) High pCO2 and low pO2
(3) Both are equal (pCO2 = pO2)
(4) Low pO2 and low pCO2

64) What is the main site of human respiratory system where exchange of gases occurs ?

(1) Alveoli
(2) Bronchiole
(3) Primary and secondary bronchi
(4) Trachea

65) Identify A, B, C and D and choose correct option?

A B C D
Pleural
(1) Diaphragm Trachea Bronchus
fluid
Pleural
(2) Trachea Bronchus Diaphragm
membranes
Pleural
(3) Bronchus Diaphragm Bronchus
fluid
Pleural
(4) Epiglottis Trachea Bronchus
membranes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

66) Assertion :- At the tissue site CO2 diffuses into blood & forms .
Reason :- The is high at tissue site due to catabolism.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

67) Assertion (A) : CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at tissue level & transported to the Alveoli is
released out as CO2.
Reason (R) : Carbonic anhydrase facilitates the trapping of CO2

(1) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(2) Assertion is true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion & reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Both assertion & reason are true

68) Assertion : Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production.

Reason : Epiglottis flap covers the glottis during swallowing of food.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

69) Assertion : The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per
unit difference in partial pressure is much higher when compared to that of O2 .
Reason : The solubility of CO2 is 20 to 25 times higher than that of O2.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

70) Under a given O2 concentration in blood, dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will increase if :-

(1) pH of blood falls

(2) pH of blood rises
(3) CO2 concentration in blood falls
(4) Free fatty acid concentration in blood falls

71) Which of the following is true.

(1) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin takes place at tissue site

(2) More oxyhaemoglobin formation occur at alveoli site
(3) More pCO2 leads to formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(4) Both (1) and (2)
72)

Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a - d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of normal
human adult :

Respiratory capacities Respiratory volumes

(a) Residual volume 2500 mL

(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL

(c) Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL

(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL

Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes ?
(1) (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
(2) (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500mL
(3) (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL
(4) (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL

73)

Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

Sponges and O2/CO2 exchange

A. i.
Coelenterates by gills

Trachea for
Aquatic
B. ii. transport of
arthropods
gases

Lungs for
C. Insects iii. gaseous
exchange

O2/CO2 exchange
Mammals, by simple
D. birds and iv diffusion over
reptiles entire body
surface
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

74) Given below is a list of different steps (i–vi) involved in respiration.

(i) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions.
(ii) Transport of gases by the blood.
(iii) Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in & CO2 is released out.
(iv) Release of resultant CO2
(v) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood & tissue
(vi) Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar level.
Select an option which has correct sequence of all the steps :-

(1) iii, vi, ii, v, i, iv

(2) iv, vi, ii, v, i, iii
(3) iii, vi, i, v, ii, iv
(4) iv, ii, v, iii, i, vi

75) Read the following steps of inspiration.

(a) Increases thoracic volume
(b) Air move into lungs
(c) Contraction in diaphragm and EICM
(d) Increases pulmonary volume
(e) Lungs expand
(f) Decreases the intra pulmonary pressure (IPP)
Find out the correct sequence of these steps.

(1) a, b, c, d, e, f
(2) c, d, a, e, f, b
(3) c, a, e, d, f, b
(4) c, e, d, a, f, b

76) The lungs expand in inspiration because :-

(a) diaphragm contracts
(b) diaphragm relaxes
(c) EICM relaxes
(d) the volume of thoracic cavity decreases

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) only (a)

77) Assertion : All the factors in our body are favorable for diffusion of O2 from alveoli to tissues
and that of CO2 from tissue to alveoli.
Reason : The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite significant.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

78) Assertion (A): Pneumotaxic centre controls rate of respiration.

Reason (R) : Primarily it controls switch off point of inspiration.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

79) What is the value of Po2 and Pco2 in pulmonary vein ?

(1) PCO2 = 95 mmHg; PO2 = 45 mmHg

(2) PO2 = 95 mmHg; PCO2 = 40 mmHg
(3) PCO2 = 40 mmHg; PO2 = 45 mmHg
(4) PCO2 = 45 mmHg; PO2 = 45 mmHg

80) Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph?

(1) The curve is called oxygen dissociation curve

(2) The part 'A' represents percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
(3) The part 'B' represents partial pressure of carbon dioxide
+
(4) This curve is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2, H concentration, etc.

81) Assertion : On an average female cockroach produces 9 - 10 ootheca.

Reason : Development in cockroach is paurometabolous.

(1) Both Assertion & reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

82) Labelled the structures A, B and C in following diagram

A B C

Chambers of Anterior Alary

(1)
Heart Aorta Muscles
 Chambers of Anterior
(2) Alary Muscles
Heart Aorta

Chambers
(3) Anterior Aorta Alary Muscles
of Heart

Posterior Chambers of Alary

(4)
Aorta Heart Muscles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Mark the column I with column II

Column I Column II

a. Gizzard i. Plasma and haemocytes

b. Hepatic caeca ii. 100-150

c. Malpighian tubules iii. Proventriculus

d. Haemolymph iv. 6-8

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

84) Which of the following sentence is/are correct regarding eye cockroach.

(1) Vision with less sensitivity but less resolution

(2) Vision with more sensitivity but more resolution
(3) Vision with more sensitivity but less resolution
(4) Vision with less sensitivity but more resolution

85) Assertion: Head of cockroach shows great mobility in all direction

Reason: Cockroach possess flexible neck

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

86) The given figure represents mouth parts of cockroach, choose correct options for labelled part of
mouth parts :

(1) A-Labium, B-Mandible, C-Maxilla, D-Hypopharynx, E-Labrum

(2) A-Labrum, B-Mandible, C-Maxilla, D-Labium, E-Hypopharynx
(3) A-Labrum, B-Mandible, C-Hypopharynx, D-Maxilla, E-Labium
(4) A-Labrum, B-Mandible, C-Maxilla, D-Hypopharynx, E-Labium

87)

Number of ommatidia in cockroach are ?

(1) 1000
(2) 2000
(3) 3000
(4) 4000

88)

The nymphs look very much like adults, the nymph grows by moulting about :

(1) 14 times
(2) 11 times
(3) 13 times
(4) 14 times

89)

Genital chamber of female cockroach contains:

(1) Female genopore

(2) Spermathecal pore
(3) Collaterial glands
(4) All are correct
90) Which type of structure represent the brain of cockroach :-

(1) Supra-pharyngeal ganglion

(2) Supra-oesophageal ganglion
(3) Sub-pharyngeal ganglion
(4) Segmental ganglion
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 1 2 3 4 4 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 4 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 4 2 4 2 1 1 3 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 1 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 1 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 3 2 4 1 3 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 4 4 1 4 3 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 1 2 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) ω2R ≤ μg
for coin to rotate with gromophone & fly away if ω increased or R increased or μ decreased,
does not depend on mass of coin.

2) Explain - Centripetal acceleration is given and momentum is asked for a particle

performing circular motion.
Concept - Centripetal & acceleration and momentum both depends on speed.
Formula -

1)
2) p=mv
Calculation

(Given)

3) as time period is same

ω 1 = ω2

4)

(1) Asking About:

Velocity ratio at A,B, and C in vertical circular motion.

(2) Concept:

A. Energy conservation governs velocity changes.

(3) Formula:
Critical speed at C:

Energy conservation from C to any other point x :

Heights: hC = 2R, hB = R, hA = 0.

Calculation / Explanation:

Using energy conservation at each point:

 A. At C :

At B (midway point, R below C):

At A (lowest point, 2R below C):

Final Answer: Option (2)

5)

Question Asking About:

A wheel is rotating at 1200 revolutions per minute ( rpm ) and is slowing down with an angular
acceleration of . We need to find how many revolutions it makes before it comes to
rest.

Key Concept: Kinematic equation for angular motion.

Formula:

Then, to convert radians to revolutions:

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Step 1: Convert the initial speed to radians per second.

We know the initial speed is 1200 rpm . To convert this to radians per second:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

6) As they complete the circles in equal time ⇒ T1 = T2

7) :-

8)

ω=

9)

At

⇒ Now

10)

11)

Tsinθ = mrω2

⇒ = mrω2

⇒ T = mℓω2 =
 12)

Question Explain : We are given the angular velocity vector ω and the position vector of a
point on a rotating body. We need to find the linear velocity v of this point.

Concept : The linear velocity of a point on a rotating body is related to its angular velocity and
position vector by the cross product

Formula :

Calculation :

Final Answer: Option (1).

13)

Explain : determine which string in a system of three particles in circular motion is most
likely to break, based on the masses of the particles and their arrangement.

Concept: Circular motion.

Explanation:
The tension in each string is equal to the centripetal force required to keep all the particles beyond
that string in circular motion, and the string with the highest tension is most likely to break.

Formula: Centripetal force:

Calculation: String 1 has the highest tension because it must provide the centripetal all three
masses, making it the most likely to break. force for

Ans (1) Difficulty level: easy

14)

For equillibrium

cot α ≤ 3
 15)
After melting the ice on polar caps it reaches towards equator (i.e. away from the axis)
Then I increases and w decreases because angular momentum is conserved.

16) Explain Question – Find the centripetal force acting on a vehicle moving along a curved
path at constant speed.

Concept – This question based on Centripetal force is required to keep the vehicle moving in a
circular path.

Formula - Fc=mv2 / R

Solution –

First find radius from path length of quarter circle, then apply centripetal force formula.

Calculation -
Length of quarter circle = 314m,
so full circumference = 4 × 314 = 1256m
R = C / 2π = 1256 / 2π ≈200m
Fc = (1500 × 202) / 200
= (1500 × 400) / 200
= 600000 / 200
= 3000N

Final Answer – Option (3)

17) Asking About:

The normal force exerted by the bridge on the car.
Concept:
At the highest point of the convex bridge, the forces acting on the car are:

A. Gravitational force mg (downward)

B. Normal force N (upward)

The car follows a circular path, so centripetal force is required, which is provided by the difference
between gravity and normal force.
Formula:
Using Newton's Second Law in the vertical direction:

Solving for N :

Calculation / Explanation:

A. The normal force decreases due to the requirement of centripetal force for circular motion.

Final Answer: Option (4):

18) τ = I α
τA = τB
IA αA = IB αB
IA < IB
αA > αB
ωA > ωB

19)
mg sinθ – f = ma

a= .......(i)
a is same for each body.
f.R = Iα

For solid sphere k2 = R2 is minimum there fore a is maximum hence, k.E. for solid sphere
will be max at bottom.

20)

α= = 4 rad/s2
t = Iα = 2 × 103 × 4 = 8 × 103 N
21)
M.I. of one rod about O

22)
IA = 3 mk2

23) As mass/area = μ and area of square plate = λ2 hence mass of plate,

24) Torque = (2F) R + F + FR(–1) =

25)

26) Net torque about O = Fnet × h = ma × =

27)

(1) (for rotational equilibrium )

(2) (for rotational equilibrium )

(3) (for rotational equilibrium )

28) L1 = L, L2 = 3L

29) In this process potential energy of the metre stick will be converted into rotational kinetic
energy.

P.E of meter stick = mg

Because its centre of gravity lies at the middle point of the rod.

Rotational kinetic energy E = Iω2

I = M.I of metre stick about point A =

ω = angular speed of the rod while striking the ground
vB = Velocity of end B of metre stick while striking the ground
By the law of conservation of energy.

By solving we get, vB = m/s

30)
=

31) θ = ω t +
0

=0+ ... (i)

 =0+ α (2n –1) ... (ii)

32)
Consider (blocks + rod) as system.
Taking torque about O.

33)
Angular momentum about O
= linear momentum × ⊥ar distance from O
= mv0 cos 30° × Hmax

0
= mv cos 30° ×

= mv0

34) From the conservation of angular momentum

35) Question Explanation :

A cube with side length 2a and solid sphere with radius a, both having the same density, are
placed in contact. We need to find the center of mass of this system.

Concept Based :
This problem involves calculating the center of mass of a composite system. The center of
mass formula is used to account for both the mass and positions of the cube and sphere.

Formula Used :
The formula for the center of mass xcm of two objects is:

Where:
• m1 and m2 are the masses of the cube and sphere.
• x1 and and x2 are positions of their centers of mass.

Calculation :
• Mass of the Cube m1: The side length of the cube is 2a, so its volume is (2a)3 = 8a3. The mass
of the cube is:
m1 = 8a3ρ
where ρ is the density.

• Mass of the Sphere m2: The radius of the sphere is a, so its volume is . The mass of the
sphere is:

Step 2: Positions of the Centers of Mass

• The center of mass of the cube is at point O, so x1 = 0.
• The center of mass of the sphere is at a distance of 2a from point O (since the sphere is in
contact with the cube), so x2 = 2a.
Step 3: Applying the Center of Mass Formula
Now, applying the center of mass formula:

Substituting the values:

Simplifying:

Canceling out a3 ρ from the numerator and denominator:

Simplifying the denominator:

Simplifying further:

Thus, the center of mass of the system is located at:

Correct Answer:
 Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

36)

37) and aCOM = 0

Here vcm =

xcm =
ycm = 0

38) Question Explanation:

A system of particles experiences a non-zero external force. We are asked which combination
of center of mass velocity and acceleration is possible under this condition.
Concept:
The acceleration of the center of mass depends on external force . Velocity of center of mass
depends on initial motion not force directly.
Formula

Calculation:
Given external force is not zero so
Velocity of center of mass can be zero or non-zero depending on initial state.
So, only and is possible
Final option : (2).

39)

Explain question:
A highly elastic ball and a wall move towards each other. After collision, we need to find the
ball's speed.
Concept:
elastic collision
Solution:
The wall is a large object so the speed of the wall after the collision does not change.
For an elastic collision, the coefficient of restitution e=1, meaning:
Relative velocity before collision = Relative velocity after collision

3+3=υ–3
Simplifying
6 = u –3
Solving for u :
v = 9m/s
So, the ball's speed after the collision is 9m/s

Final Answer : 3

40)

Li = Lf
40 × 2 × 2 = (40 × 22 + 100 × 12)w

= rod/sec.

41) 1. Explanation of the Question: A sphere of mass m is moving horizontally with velocity
v0 and collides with a pendulum bob of mass m. After the collision, the two masses stick
together. We are asked to find the maximum height attained by the combined masses after the
collision.

2. Concept:
• Conservation of Linear Momentum:
• Energy Conservation:
3. Formula:
• Momentum Conservation (just before and after the collision):
mv0 = (m + m) vf
Where vf is the velocity of the combined mass just after the collision.
• Energy Conservation (after the collision, at maximum height):

Where h is the maximum height attained and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

4. Brief Calculation:
1. Momentum Conservation: Just before the collision, the momentum of the system is mv0.
After the collision, the combined mass of 2m moves with velocity vf.
mv0 = 2mvf
Simplifying:

2. Energy Conservation: After the collision, the system's kinetic energy converts into
potential energy at the maximum height h.

Substituting :

Simplifying:
 Canceling m from both sides:

Solving for h:

Hence, option (4) is correct.

42)

Even after explosion.

centre of mass keeps on moving under acceleration due to gravity and will hit at the original
horizontal range.

43)

mAvA = –mBvB
and |mA vA| = |mB vB|

K.E. =

K.E. ∝ .

44)

mA = 90kg, mB = 40 kg, mC = 20 kg
Let plank moves by x along left.
mA(ℓ – x) + mB(–ℓ – x) + mC( – x) = 0
(mA – mB)ℓ = (mA + mB + mC)x
⇒ (90 – 40) × 12 = (90 + 40 + 20)x
x = 4m

45)

=
=

CHEMISTRY
46)

Concept:
Lewis acid

Soln/Explanation:

Lewis acid are those which accept lone pair of e–.

• B has vacant p-orbital can accept lone pair.

47) Explanation - The question asks which of the following molecules is electron-deficient.
Let's first understand the concept of electron deficiency and then analyze the given options.
Concept- (Concept of electron deficiency)
B2H6 (Diborane) : Baron has only three valence electrons, in diborane, each boron atom is
bonded to two terminal hydrogen atoms and two bringing hydrogen atoms. This structure
doesn't allow boron to achieve an octet (8 electrons), It only has six electrons around it. This
electron deficiency makes diborane highly reactive.
C2H6 (Ethane): Carbon has four valence electrons, and in ethane, each carbon atom bonded
to three hydrogen atoms, achieving a stable octet
PH3 (Phosphine). Phosphorus has five valence electrons in phosphine, I's bonded to three
hydrogen atoms, leaving one lone pair. It has a complete octet.
SiH4 (Silane): Silicon has four valence electrons, and in silane, it's bonded to four hydrogen
atoms, achieving a stabile octet.
Final Answer : (1)

48) Explanation : The question presents an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R), and asks you to
determine their relationship (whether both
are true, or if one is true and the other is false).
Concept : (Monobasic Acid & Boric Acid)
The correct answer is 1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
Assertion (A) : B(OH)3 is a monobasic acid. This is true. Boric acid acts as a monobasic acid.
Reason (R) : In aqueous solution it takes up OH– from water to release 1 mole of H+ ion per
mole of B(OH)3. This is also true, and it is the correct explanation. While it doesn't directly
donate a proton like a typical Bronsted-Lowry acid, it accepts an OH– ion. This shifts the
equilibrium of water, leading to an increases in the H+ concentration. Essentially, it indirectly
releases a proton by making the water release one. The net effect is the same as if it had
donated a proton directly.
The reaction is :
B(OH)3 + H2O [B(OH)4]– + H+
So, the reason correctly explains why B(OH)3 is monobasic : it accepts one OH– and, as a
consequence, effectively releases one H+.
Assertion (A) : B(OH)3 is monobasic acid.
Reason (R) : In aqueous solution it takes up OH – from water to release 1 mole of H+ ion per
 mole B(OH)3
1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. If assertion is true but reason is false.
4. If both assertion and reason are false.
Final Answer : (1)

49)

Concept: (Water intraction of silicon & repeating unit of silicon)

A. Assertion (A): Sillicones are waterproof. (True)

B. Reason (R) : The repeating unit of silicones is . (True)

While the reason is true, it doesn't provide the direct explanation of why silicones are waterproof. Th
hydrophobicity of silicones comes from the organic groups (like methyl groups) attached to the
silicon atoms, making the polymer non-polar. The reason only shows the basic siloxane backbone,
but not the organic group that provides the hydrophobic property.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (2) is correct.

50) Due to electron-electron repulsion of fluorine.

51) Explanation - The question asks you to identify the incorrect statement about the
oxidizing or reducing properties and stability of the given ions.

Concept - In³⁺ is not an oxidizing agent; it's relatively stable.

Final Answer - Option (4)

52)

Asking for : Matching items in Column-I (allotropes of carbon) with their corresponding
properties in Column-II.

Concept : Allotropes are different structural modifications of an element in the same form.
Solution: Carbon exhibits several allotropes with distinct physical properties due to variations
in their bonding and arrangement.

Graphite is a soft solid and acts as a dry lubricant.

Diamond has a strong network structure, making it the hardest natural substance.

Fullerenes are relatively pure forms of carbon.

Lamp-black is the softest form.

So, correct matching : A - S, B - Q, C - P, D - R

Answer : Option : 2

53)

Answer – Option(1)

Explanation – The question asks us to determine the types and number of bonds between the
two carbon atoms in calcium carbide (CaC₂).

Concept – (Bonding in Metal carbides)

54)

55)

Tℓ+3,Pb+4,Bi+5 all acts as O.A. (due to I.P.E.)

56)

As per structure

57) Explanation - The question asks you to identify which of the provided metal carbides,
when reacted with water, will produce propyne (CH3C≡CH).
Concept (Hydrolysis of metal carbide)
CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 (acetylene)
Mg2C3 + 4H2O → 2Mg(OH)2 + CH3C ≡ CH (propyne)
Al4C3 + 12H2O → 4AI(OH)3 + 3CH, (methane)
Be2C + 4H2O → 2Be(OH)2 + CH, (methane)
Final Answer : (2)

58)

Silicones polymers of ⇒ (R2 SiO)n

59) M2SO4 . M21(SO4)3 . 24H2O

↓ ↓
Monovalent trivalent
60)

Asking for: The correct order of decreasing reducing power of divalent species among group
14 elements (Ge, Sn, Pb).

Concept: Inert pair effect and the stability of divalent species in group 14 elements.

Formula: The stability of the +2 oxidation state increases down the group in group 14.

Solution/Explanation:
Ge+2 < Sn+2 < Pb+2 (Stability of +2 O.S.)
∴ Reducing power Ge+2 > Sn+2 > Pb+2

Therefore, the order of decreasing reducing power is Ge > Sn > Pb.

Final Answer: The correct option is (1).

61)

Explanation:
The question presents four chemical compounds (AlN, CaC2, Al4C3, and PCl3) in Column 1 and
four possible hydrolysis products (C2H2, HCl, NH3, and CH4) in Column 2. We need to match
each compound with its correct hydrolysis product.

Concept: (Hydrolysis Reaction)

(i) AlN + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + NH3
(ii) CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
(iii) Al4C3 + 12H2O → 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4
(iv) PCl3 + 3H2O → H3PO3 + 3HCl

Final Answer: Option (1)

62) Question Explanation -

The question asks you to identify the molecule or ion among the given options (BF4, H3N → BF3,
BF3, NF3,) where back bonding occurs.
Concept- (Back Bonding)
BF3 has trigonal planar structure all the three BF bonds lie in the plane and thus p-orbitals of
boron and fluorine become parallel
Boron has empty p-orbital and p-orbital of fluorine contains lone pairs and hence Boron acts as
Lewis acid and fluorine as Lewis base. Fluorine donates it's a lone pair to Boron and this
bonding is called back bonding
So, the correct answer is 'BF3'.

Final Answer (3)

63) NCERT Pg. # 326

64)
 Concept: (Inorganic graphite)
(BN) (Born nitride):

A. Boron nitride can exist in various forms, including a layered hexagonal form that is isoelectric
and isostructural with graphite.
B. This form is often called inorganic graphite.

Final Answer Hence, option (3) is correct.

65) Conceptual

66)
B–O–B linkage = 5

67) Because of Low melting point of Gallium (303K)

68)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify the set of properties that are not intensive.

Concept:

A. Intensive Properties: Properties that do not depend on the amount of substance (e.g.,
temperature, pressure, density, boiling point, refractive index).

Analysis:

A. Option 1: boiling point, pH, molarity - All are intensive.

B. Option 2: volume, area, length - All are extensive.
C. Option 3: freezing point, temperature, emf - All are intensive.
D. Option 4: refractive index, molality, density - All are intensive.

Final Answer:
The set of properties that are not intensive is volume, area, and length.
Therefore the correct answer is option (2).

69)
 ΔU = q + w
w = – Pext.ΔV

70) w = –nRT ln

w = –2 × 8.314 × 10–3 × 300 ln ,

w = –11.488 J

71)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : ΔH = ΔU – ΔngRT; Δng = –2
Final Answer : (4)

72) At constant pressure, ΔH = ΔU + P.ΔV

= 30 + 2 × 4 = 38 atm-L

73)

Due to strong oxidizing nature of Pb+4 and strong reducing nature of I– PbI4 does not exist or it
is least stable.

74)

75)

Explaining Question:
Calculate the enthalpy of combustion ( ΔCH ) for ethanol at 25°C, given the heat produced in a
bomb calorimeter.
Reaction: C2H5OH(1) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(1)
Heat produced in bomb calorimeter (ΔU) = – 1364.47 kJ mol–1 (negative as heat is produced)
Temperature (T) = 25°C = 298.15 K
R = 8.314 J K–1 = 8.314 × kJ K–1 mol–1
Concept: This question is based on Relationship between Enthalpy of Reaction ( ΔH ) and
Internal Energy Change ( ΔU ).
Solution:
Mathematical Calculation

A. Calculate the change in moles of gas Δng :

Δng = (moles of gaseous products) - (moles of gaseous reactants) Δng = (2) – (3) = –1 mol.
B. Use the relationship ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT :

ΔngRT=(–1 mol) × 8.314×10–3 kJ K–1 mol–1×(298.15 K)

ΔngRT ≈ –2.479 kJ mol–1.

C. Calculate ΔH :

ΔH = –1364.47 kJ mol–1+ (–2.479 kJ mol–1)

ΔH = –1364.47– 2.479 kJ mol–1
ΔH = –1366.949 kJ mol–1
Rounding to two decimal places, ΔH ≈ –1366.95 kJ mol–1.
Final Answer
The Enthalpy of combustion, ΔcH, for the reaction will be -1366.95 kJ mol–1. Option (3)

76)

Explaining Question:
Identify which of the given options ( q, w, qv ) is a state function.
Concept: This question is based on State Functions vs. Path Functions in Thermodynamics.
Solution:
Reasoning

A. q (heat) and w (work) are path functions; their values depend on the path taken between
states.
B. qv (heat at constant volume): According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, ΔE = q + w. At
constant volume, w = –PΔV = 0 (if only PV work is considered). So, ΔE = qv . Since internal
energy ( E or U ) is a state function, qv (which is equal to ΔE under these conditions) is also a
state function.

Final Answer
qv is a state function. Option (3)

77)

Availability of vacant d-orbitals in the valence shell of sulphur.

78) Explanation:
Identify the statement that is not true for a reversible process.

Concept:
Characteristics of Reversible Thermodynamics Processes.

Solution:
• Reversible processes occur through an infinite series of infinitesimal steps not a single step.
Irreversible processes can occur in a single step.
• In a reversible process, the system is always infinitesimally close to equilibrium with the
surroundings at every step.
• The work obtained (done by the system) is maximum for a reversible expansion and work
done on the system is minimum for a reversible compression.
• The driving force in a reversible process is only infinitesimally greater than the opposing
force.
Statement 1 is not true for a reversible process.

Correct option:
(1) It takes place in a single step

79)

Explanation:
Calculate the work done (in calories) for the vaporization of 1 mole of water at 1 atm and
100°C.

Given data
n = 1 mole
Process: Vaporization , H2 O (I) → H2O (g)
P = 1 atm
T = 100°C = 373 K (approx.)
R ≈ 2 cal K–1 mol–1 (approximated for options)

Concept:
Work done during Phase Change (Vaporization) at Constant Pressure.

Solution:
For vaporization of a liquid to an ideal gas at constant pressure.
the work done on the system (W) is approximately W =- PΔV ≈ PVgas.
Using the ideal gas law, PVgas = nRT.
So, W ≈ nRT.
W = – (1 mol) × (2 cal K–1mol–1) × (373 K)
W = – 746 cal

Correct option:
(2)

80)

81)

Explanation – The question is asking which element is not likely to act as the central atom in
the ion MF₆³⁻.

Concept – (Central atom identification)

Boron's small size and lack of d-orbitals: Boron is a second-period element. It has a small
atomic size and, crucially, lacks available d orbitals in its valence shell. This limits its ability to
expand its octet and accommodate a large number of ligands (atoms or ions bonded to the
central atom). Boron typically forms a maximum of four bonds, and even this is often
accompanied by some electron deficiency.

Aluminum, Gallium, Indium: These elements are in the third, fourth, and fifth periods,
respectively. They have available d orbitals in their valence shells, which allows them to
expand their coordination number beyond four. They can accommodate more ligands and form
complexes with higher coordination numbers.

82)

83)

Heat supplied at constant pressure.

qp = ΔH (Enthalpy change)
Heat supplied at constant volume
qv = ΔE (Internal energy change)
ΔH, ΔE, Enthalpy all are state function,
depends only upon initial and final state.

84)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : W = –PΔV = –25 × 8 = –200 bar – L = –20 kJ
ΔU = Q + W = 80 – 20 = 60 kJ
Final Answer : (3)

85)

ΔH = ΔU + Δ(PV)
⇒ ΔH = 30 + (20 – 6) = 44 L-atm

86)

ΔH = ΔE + Δng RT
ΔE – ΔH = –Δng RT

ΔE – ΔH = – RT

= RT

87)

88)
 89)

Adiabatic process
q=0

∴ ΔE = w

90)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

92) NCERT Page No. 246

93) NCERT Page No. 244

94) NCERT Page No. 241

95) NCERT Page No. 241

96) NCERT Page No. 169

97) The correct answer is Statements a, b, and c.

Here's an explanation for each statement:

A. a. Heterophylly is an example of plasticity: This is true. Heterophylly refers to the

phenomenon where a plant exhibits different types of leaves in different environmental
conditions or stages of life, demonstrating plasticity (the ability of an organism to adapt its
growth patterns in response to environmental conditions).
B. b. Development includes both growth and differentiation: This is true. Development in
plants involves both growth (increase in size and mass) and differentiation (cells becoming
specialized for specific functions).
C. c. Sigmoid growth curve is typical for all cells, tissues, and organs of plants: This is
true. A sigmoid curve (S-shaped curve) is a typical growth pattern observed in plant cells,
tissues, and organs, especially during phases like the lag phase, log phase, and stationary
phase of growth.
D. d. Absolute growth rate is always similar to the relative growth rate: This is false.
Absolute growth rate (AGR) refers to the actual increase in size over time, while relative
growth rate (RGR) measures the growth relative to the size of the plant. These two rates are
not always the same and depend on various factors like the stage of growth and environmental
 conditions.
E. Conclusion: The correct option is Statements a, b, and c.

98) Fact, NCERT Page no. 245

Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed by dedifferentiation.

99)

NCERT Pg. # 170

100)

NCERT Pg. # 173

101) NCERT Page no. 167

102) NCERT –171

103)

NCERT XI Pg.# 170

104) NCERT_246_2021-22

105)

NCERT Page No. 170

106) NCERT Page No. 244

107) One single maize root apical meristem can give rise to more than 17,500 new cells per
hour.
Fact NCERT Page No: 241

108) NCERT Pg # 241

109)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 245

110) NCERT Page no. 244

111) NCERT XI Pg No. # 244, 15.1.5 Conditions for growth

112)

NCERT Pg. # 244

113) In guard cells, the plant hormone abscisic acid (ABA) inhibits stomatal opening and
induces stomatal closure through the coordinated regulation of ion transport.

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

Ethylene is not responsible for closure of stomata, for the closure of stomata ABA(Abscisic
acid) is responsible.

116) NCERT Page No. 250

117) NCERT Page No. 247

118) NCERT Page No. 175

119) NCERT Page No. 174

120) NCERT Page No. 176

121) NCERT Page No. 175

122) NCERT Page No. 174

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

124) XI NCERT Page # 177

125)

NCERT XI, Pg # 174, 176, 177, 178

126) NCERT Pg : 177 (new)

127) Ethylene promote senescence and abscission.

Fact NCERT Page No: 250

128) Species

129) Ncert Pg No: 7

130) NCERT pg # 8

131) NCERT Page no. 3

132) NCERT Page: 6

133) NCERT Page: 5

134) NCERT XI Pg # 08

135) NCERT pg # 5 (Class-11)

136)

NCERT-Pg. # 275, Para No. 17.5

137)

138) NCERT Pg. # 271

139)

Residual Volume can't be measured by spirometer directly.

141)

142)

143)
144)

145) NCERT – XI, Pg. #274

146)

147)

148)

149)

150)

151)

152)

153)

154)
155)

156) NCERT Pg. # 275

157)

158)

159)

160)

161)

162)

163)

164)

Ncert Page 270.

165)

166)
167) NCERT Pg # 273

168) NCERT Page no. 190

Pneumotaxic centre are switch off centre of inspiration.

169)

170)

171)

172)

173)

174)

175)

176)

177)

178)
179)

180) NCERT Pg. # 114 (E), Para no. 9