16-08-2024

1901CMD303001240075 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A block of mass M is pulled by a uniform chain of mass M tied to it by applying a force F at the
other end of the chain. The tension at a point distant quarter of the length of the chain from

force end will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Same spring is attached with 2kg, 3kg and 1 kg blocks in three different cases as shown in figure.
If x1, x2 and x3 be the respective extensions in the spring in these three cases, then :

(1) x1 = 0, x3 > x2
(2) x2 > x1 > x3
(3) x3 > x1 > x2
(4) x1 > x2 > x3

3) A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P
is applied at the free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the block is:

(1)

(2)

(3) P
(4)

4) Calculate TA, TB, TC for the following diagram : (B is the mid point of rope)

(1) 5 N, 6 N, 7 N
(2) 4 N, 5 N, 6 N
(3) 8 N, 7 N, 6 N
(4) 6 N, 7 N, 8 N

5) Match the column for the given diagram :

Column-I Column-II

aman=6(m/s2), String will

(A) (i)
downward break

aman=6(m/s2), String will not

(B) (ii)
upward break

Tention in the
(C) aman=0 (iii) string is 600
(N)

Tention in the
aman=2(m/s2),
(D) (iv) string is 720
upward
(N)
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - i, iii, D - ii, iii
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - i,iii, D - ii, iii
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - ii, iii, D - ii, iv
(4) A - ii, B - ii, C - ii,iii, D - ii, iv

6) A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled

by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 ms–2. The tension T1 will be :-

(1) 200 N
(2) 220 N
(3) 240 N
(4) 260 N

7) 10 blocks of equal masses are placed on the frictionless inclined plane in contact. They are
released at the same time. The force exerted by the 6th block on the 5th block at any instant is.

(1) 5 mg sin θ
(2) zero
(3) 4 mg sin θ
(4) 3 mg sin θ

8) For the system shown in the figure, the pulleys are light and frictionless. The tension in the string

will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 mg sin θ

9)

Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible
string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of
acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively
(1)

(2) g, g

(3)

(4)

10) In figure, if a block of mass m is displaced by x and released. There is no friction, the maximum

acceleration produced in the block would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless spring as shown in
figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass has

acceleration 12 m/sec2. What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass

(1) 12 m/sec2
(2) 4 m/sec2
(3) 10 m/sec2
(4) zero

12) Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are attached to the ends of a massless string passing over a pulley
of negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to a light spring balance as shown in figure. The
masses start moving; during this interval the reading of spring balance will be :-
(1) More than 3 kg.
(2) Less than 3 kg.
(3) Equal to 3 kg.
(4) None of the above

13)

A man of mass m stands on a crate of mass M. He pulls on a light rope passing over a smooth light
pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the crate. For the system to be in equilibrium, the
force exerted by the men on the rope will be

(1) (M + m)g

(2)

(3) Mg
(4) mg

14) Two weights W1 and W2 are suspended from the ends of a light string passing over a smooth
fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled up with an acceleration g, the tension in the string connecting two
blocks is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) In the figure shown, a person wants to raise a block lying on the ground to a height h. In both
the cases if time required is same then in which case he has to exert more force. Assume pulleys and

strings light.

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) same in both
(4) Cannot be determined

16) In the shown mass pulley system, pulleys and string are massless. The one end of the string is

pulled by the force F = 2mg. The acceleration of the block will be

(1) g/2
(2) 0
(3) g
(4) 3g

17) In the Fig. the pulley P1 is fixed and the pulley P2 is movable. If W1 = W2 = 100N, what is the

angle A P2 P1? The pulleys are frictionless .

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

18) A block of mass 1 kg is at rest relative to a smooth wedge moving leftwards with constant
acceleration a = 5 ms–2 : Let N be the normal reaction between the
block and the wedge. Then (take, g = 10 ms–2)

(1)
(2) N = 15 N

(3)

(4) tan θ = 2

19) Two masses A and B are connected with two an inextensible string to write constraint relation
between vA & vB
Student A : vA cos θ = vB

Student B : vB cos θ = vA

(1) A is correct, B is wrong

(2) B is correct, A is wrong
(3) both are correct
(4) both are wrong

20) In the arrangement shown in the figure if v1 and v2 are instantaneous velocities of masses m1 and

m2 respectively, and angle ACB = 2θ the instant, then:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) In the figure at the free end a force F is applied to keep the suspended mass of 18 kg at rest. The

value of F is-

(1) 180 N
(2) 90 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 30 N

22) An arrangement of two blocks of same mass m kept inside a lift which is moving with
acceleration a in vertical downward direction. Find acceleration of block A with respect to ground :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

23) What is the minimum value of F needed so that block begins to move upward on frictionless
incline plane as shown :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Calculate the acceleration of the mass 12 kg shown in the set up of fig. Also calculate the tension
in the string connecting the 12 kg mass. The string are weightless and inextensible, the pulleys are

weightless and frictionless:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) In the arrangement shown in figure a1,a2, a3 and a4 are the accelerations of masses m1,m2,m3 and
m4 respectively. Which of the following relation is true for this arrangement?
(1) 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0
(2) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0
(3) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + 2a4 = 0
(4) 2a1 + 2a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0

26) In figure shown, both blocks are released from rest. The time to cross each other is

(1) 2 second
(2) 3 second
(3) 1 second
(4) 4 second

27) A block of mass m rests on a smooth inclined plate ABC having an inclination θ as shown in the
figure. The inclined plank is given an acceleration 'a' to the right. This is the relationship between a

and θ for the block to remain stationary on the inclined plane.

(1) a = g tanθ

(2)

(3) a = g cosθ

(4)

28) A triangular block of mass M rests on a smooth surface as shown in figure. A cubical block of
mass m rests on the inclined surface. If all surfaces are frictionless, the force that must be applied to

M so as to keep m stationary relative to M is :

(1) Mg tan 30°

(2) mg tan 30°
(3) (M+m)g tan 30°
(4) (M+m)g cos 30°

29) Two persons A and B are sitting in two cars 1 and 2 such that the velocity of the cars is given by

and respectively. The fictitious (pseudo) force on B as observed by

A at t = 1 sec will be :- (mA = 70 kg, mB = 50kg)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A body kept on a smooth inclined plane (inclination 1 in x) will remain stationary relative to the
inclined plane if the plane is given a horizontal acceleration equal to:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Three blocks A, B and C of mass m, 2m and 3m respectively are connected through strings as
shown in figure. If the system is accelerating upwards with constant acceleration g/2 than find the
ratio of net force on block B and C:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Two blocks each having a mass M are placed as shown in the figure. The acceleration of the

system is

(1) 0

(2)

(3) g sin θ
(4) 2g sin θ

33) Two blocks A and B of masses 4 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A & B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :-
(1) g, g

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. The forces acting on the sphere are shown are

fig. Which of the following statement is correct :- (a) (b) T2 = R2 +

W2
(c) T = R + W (d) R = W tan θ

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

35) Calculate TP and TQ (P is mid point)

(1) 30 N, 50 N
(2) 30 N, 30 N
(3) 50 N, 50 N
(4) 20 N, 30 N
 SECTION-B

1) A uniform sphere of weight w and radius 3 m is being held by a string of length 2 m, attached to a

frictionless wall as shown in the figure. The tension in the string will be:-

(1) 5 w/4
(2) 15 w/4
(3) 15 w/16
(4) None of these

2) In the diagram below the strings are massless and inextensible and pulley is ideal. The ratio of

tensions is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Two equal heavy spheres, each of radius r, are in equilibrium within a smooth cup of radius 3r.
The ratio of reaction between the cup and one sphere and that between the two sphere is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None
4) A uniform rope of length L and mass M is placed on a smooth fixed wedge as shown. Both ends of
rope are at same horizontal level. The rope is initially released from rest, then the magnitude of

initial acceleration of rope is

(1) Zero
(2) M(cos α – cos β)g
(3) M(tan α – tan β)
(4) None of these

5)

Two masses m1 and m2 are joined by a spring as shown. The system is dropped to the ground from a
certain height. The spring will be

(1) Stretched when m2 > m1

(2) Compressed when m2 < m1
(3) Neither compressed nor stretched only when m1 = m2
(4) Neither compressed nor stretched regardless of

6) A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with use of strings A, B and C as shown in fig. where W is

vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal rod. The tension in string B is.

(1) 100 g N
(2) 0
(3) 100 gN

(4)
gN

7) n-blocks of different masses are placed on the frictionless inclined plane in contact. They are
released at the same time. The force of interaction between (n-1)th and nth blocks is -
(1) (mn–1– mn) g sin θ
(2) zero
(3) mng cosθ
(4) none of these

8) A body of mass 1 kg lies on smooth inclined plane. The block of mass m is given force F = 10N
horizontal as shown. The magnitude of normal reaction on the block is :

(1) 10 N
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

9) What force must the man exert on the rope to keep the platform in equilibrium?

(1) 100 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 300 N
(4) 500 N

10) A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through two light spring balances A and B. Then A and B will
read respectively:

(1) 4 kg and zero kg

(2) zero kg and 4 kg
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg
(4) 2 kg and 2 kg

11) The pulleys and strings shown in the fig. are smooth and are of negligible mass. For the system

to remain in equilibrium, the angle should be

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

12) Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. The
reaction of the 6th coin (counted from the bottom) on the 7th coin is :-

(1) 4 mg
(2) 6 mg
(3) 7 mg
(4) 3 mg

13) A 600 kg rocket is set for a vertical firing. If the exhaust speed is 1000 m s-1, the mass of the gas
ejected per second to supply the thrust needed to overcome the weight of rocket is

(1) 117.6 kg s-1

(2) 58.6 kg s-1
(3) 6 kg s-1
(4) 76.4 kg s-1
14) In the figure given below, the position–time graph of a particle of mass 0·1 kg is shown. The
impulse

at t = 2 sec is

(1) 0·2 kg-m/s

(2) –0·2 kg-m/s
(3) 0·1 kg-m/s
(4) –0·4 kg-m/s

15) A tennis ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 20 m. It rebounds to a height of 5 m. The
ball was in
contact with the floor for 0.01 s. What was its average acceleration during the contact ? (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 3000 m/s2

(2) 2000 m/s2
(3) 1000 m/s2
(4) 500 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is zero overlapping which lead to non-bonding?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

2) Which theory gives correct explanation about paramagnetic behaviour of oxygen :

(1) Resonance
(2) VSEPR
(3) Molecular orbital theory
(4) Valency bond energy

3) According to MOT, which is correct order of bond length :-

+2 +
(1) N2 < N2 < N2
+ +2
(2) N2 > N2 > N2
+ +2
(3) N2 < N2 < N2
+2 +
(4) N2 > N2 > N2

4) In a homonuclear molecule which of the following set of orbitals are degenerate ?

(1) σ2s and σ1s

(2) and
(3) and
(4) and

5) For species H2+, H2, He2+, He2, which of the following statements is correct :-

+ +
(1) He2 is more stable than H2
+ +
(2) Bond dissociation energy of H2 is more than bond dissociation energy of He2
Since bond orders of He2+ and H2+ are equal hence both will have equal bond dissociation
(3)
energy
+
(4) Bond length of H2 is less than bond length H2

6) In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, both the species are not likely to exist?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding bonding molecular orbital ?

Bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than the atomic orbitals from which they are
(1)
formed.
(2) Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density between the two nucleus
(3) Every electron in bonding molecular orbitals contributes to the attraction between atoms
(4) They are formed when the lobes of the combining atomic orbitals have same sign

8) During change of ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?
(1) orbital
(2) orbital
(3) orbital
(4) orbital

9) In which of the following species the hybrid state of the central atom is same :-

(1) SO2, SO3

(2) SO3,

(3) SO2,

(4) CH4, HCOOH

10) Which pair of element can form multiple bond with itself and oxygen ?

(1) F, N
(2) N, Cl
(3) N, P
(4) N, C

11) If inter nuclear axis is "y"-axis in a molecule and it is forming two π-bonds, then they are formed
by overlapping of :-

(1) px + px
(2) py + py
(3) pz + pz
(4) Both (1) and (3)

12) The ratio of π and σ bonds in benzene is:

(1) 1:2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 6
(4) 1:5

13) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Lewis theory explains the shape of a molecules.
Statement-II : It explain the relative stability and energy of the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect.
14) In which of the following d-orbitals is not used by central atom in hybridisation :-

(1) XeF2
(2)
(3) PCl5
(4) IF7

15) In which of the following species the ratio of pπ-pπ to pπ-dπ bonds is 1 : 2.

2–
(1) CO3
2–
(2) SO4
(3) SO3
–
(4) ClO3

16)

Which of the following hybrid orbital has maximum directional nature?

(1) sp3
(2) sp3d
(3) sp
(4) sp3d3

17) Which of the following will have highest bond order?

(1) NO+
(2) CO+
(3)
(4) O2

18) The number of bonds present in cyanogen

(1) 3, 3
(2) 3, 4
(3) 4, 3
(4) 4, 4

19) Which of the following is an example of zero overlapping :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All

20) Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?

(1) NH4Cl
(2) HCN
(3) H2O2
(4) CH4

21) If in NH3 formation N uses its pure atomic orbital then wrong statement is :-

(1) At least three bond angle are of 90º

(2) Three σ bond with identical strength
(3) Lone pair will be in 2s orbital
(4) Molecule will be T-shaped

22) Which is not characteristic of π-bond:

π-bond is formed when a sigma bond

(1)
already formed
(2) π-bond are formed from hybrid orbitals
(3) π- bond may be formed by the overlapping of p-orbitals
(4) π- bond results from lateral overlap of atomic orbital

23) The dipole moment of NH3 is:-

(1) Less than dipole moment of NCl3

(2) Higher than dipole moment of NCl3
(3) Equal to the dipole moment of NCl3
(4) None of these

24) In which of the following process, the bond order has increased and paramagnetic character has
changed to diamagnetic ?

+
(1) N2 → N2
+
(2) N2 → N2
+
(3) O2 → O2
2–
(4) O2 → O2
25)
What will be the hybridisation of B and N respectively?

(1) sp3 ,sp3

(2) sp2 ,sp3
(3) sp2 ,sp2
(4) sp3 ,d

26) Bond order in C2+ is :-

(1) 1/2
(2) 2/3
(3) 3/2
(4) 1

27) Correct order regarding bond angle is -

+ –
(1) NO2 > NCl3 > NO2
(2) PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3
+
(3) BeF2 > CH4 > H3O > NH3
(4) All

28) Which reaction is incorrect.

– –
(1) BF3 + F → BF4
– –2
(2) SiF4 + 2F → SiF6
– –2
(3) CF4 + 2F → CF6
(4) All of these

29) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

A Electron deficient molecule P NO2

B Electron rich molecule Q BF3

C Pseudo inert gas configuration R Cu+

D Odd electron molecule S SO2

(1) A–Q; B–S, C–R, D–P
(2) A–S; B–Q, C–P, D–R
(3) A–R; B–Q, C–P, D–S
(4) A–S; B–P, C–Q, D–R

30) Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment ?
(1) CH3Cl>CH3F>CH3Br>CH3I
(2) CH3F>CH3Cl>CH3Br>CH3I
(3) CH3Cl>CH3Br>CH3I>CH3F
(4) CH3F>CH3Cl>CH3I>CH3Br

31) According to Molecular orbital theory which of the following is correct ?

(1) LUMO level for C2 molecule is orbital

(2) In C2 molecules both the bonds are bonds

(3) In ion there is one and two bonds

(4) All the above are correct

32) Hybridisation state of carbon in C3O2 is.

(1) sp3
(2) sp3d
(3) sp
(4) sp2

33)

Correct representation of PF2Cl3 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34) As the s-character of hybrid orbitals increases –

(1) Bond angle decreases

(2) Bond angle increases
(3) Bond strength decreases
(4) Bond length increases

35) Odd electron species is :

(1) NO
(2) NO2
(3) ClO2
(4) All of these

SECTION-B

1) Covalency of nitrogen in HNO3 is.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

2) Which statements is/are incorrect among the following in MOT?

(I) The combining atomic orbitals must have same (or) nearly same energy.
(II) The combining molecular orbitals must have the same symmetry about the molecular axis.
(III) Both sigma and pi molecular orbitals are symmetrical around the bond axis.
(IV) Sigma molecular orbitals symmetrical around the bond axis and pi molecular orbitals are not
symmetrical.

(1) II, III only

(2) II, IV only
(3) I, II and IV only
(4) Only III

3) Maximum ∠XSX bond angle present in

(1) SOF2
(2) SOBr2
(3) SOCl2
(4) All are equal

4) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer

List -I List -I I
 I NO2+ 1 180º

II NO2 2 134º

III NO2– 3 120º

IV NO3– 4 115º

5 109º
(1) I-5; II-4; III-3; IV-2
(2) I-5; II-2; III-4; IV-3
(3) I-1; II-2; III-4; IV-3
(4) I-1; II-4; III-3; IV-2

5) In which of the following non-planar molecule 'dz2' orbital is involved in hybridisation :-

(1) XeF4
(2) SF4
(3) XeO3
–
(4) XeF5

6) In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not use sp3-hybrid orbitals in its
bonding

–
(1) NH2
–
(2) BeF3
(3) SO2Cl2
2–
(4) SO4

7) Total number of lone pair of electrons in ion is :

(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 3
(4) 6

8) Which of the following about SF4, SOF4, CH2SF4 and OCF2 molecules is correct -

(1) Equitorial FSF bond angle in SOF4 will be less than in SF4 molecule
The two hydrogens, carbon, sulphur and two flourines (of equitorial positions) in molecule
(2)
CH2SF4 will be lying in the same plane
(3) The bond angle FCO will be < 120° in molecule OCF2
(4) The axial FSF bond angle in SF4 = 180°

9) BF3 and NF3 both are covalent compounds but NF3 is polar whereas BF3 is non-polar. This is
because:
(1) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(2) N—F bond is more polar than B—F bond
(3) NF3 is pyramidal whereas BF3 is planar triangular
(4) BF3 is electron deficient whereas NF3 is not

10) Which of the following compound is planar and non-polar?

(1) XeO4
(2) SF4
(3) XeF4
(4) CF4

11) Correct order of dipole moment is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment ?

(1) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

(2) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(4) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

13) Correct order of energy

(1) A.B.M.O. > B.M.O. > A.O.

(2) A.B.M.O. > A.O. > B.M.O.
(3) A.O. > A.B.M.O. > B.M.O.
(4) B.M.O. > A.O. > A.B.M.O.

14) The correct order of bond angle is :–

 + –
(1) NH4 > NH3 > NH2
(2) H2O > OF2 > Cl2O
(3) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(4) BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

15) Identify the correct structure

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) "Agar-agar" is obtained from :-

(1) Green Algae

(2) Red Algae
(3) Brown Algae
(4) Yellow green Algae

2)

Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below.

Column I Column II
(Kingdom) (Class)
a. Plantae 1 Archaebacteria
b. Fungi 2 Euglenoids
c. Protista 3 Phycomycetes
d. Monera 4 Algae
(1) a – 4, b – 3, c – 2, d – 1
(2) a – 1, b – 2, c – 3, d – 4
(3) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
(4) a – 2, b – 3, c – 4, d – 1

3) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles.
(2) Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms
(3) Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification
Taxonomic groups/categories are distinct biological entities and not merely morphological
(4)
aggregates

4) Consider the following statements regarding brown algae:

I. The pigments are chl a, c and xanthophylls, fucoxanthin
II. Storage food is laminarin and mannitol
III. The cellulosic cell wall is covered with algin
IV. They have a centrally located vacuole
V. Their photosynthetic organs are called as fronds - leaf like structures
VI. They have pear shaped biflagellate zoospores
VII. They have two unequal laterally attached flagella.
The number of correct statements is

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 4

5) In the member of phaeophyceae which part of body functions as photosynthetic part :-

(1) Vellum
(2) Stipe
(3) Hold fast
(4) Frond

6) In Ascomycetes :-

(1) Sexual spores are called conidia

(2) Ascospores are produced endogenously in a sac called ascus
(3) Edible forms are completely unavailable
(4) All are correct

7) Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by :–

(1) Cycas
(2) Nostoc
(3) Chara
(4) Green sulphur bacteria

8) Examine the figures (A–D) given below and select the right option out of 1–4, in which all the four
structures A, B, C and D are identified correctly :-

A B C D

(1) Heterocyst Sterigmeta Sporangiophore Oogonium

(2) Heterocyst vesicle Hypha Antheridium

(3) Heterocyst Conidia Sporangium Oogonium

(4) Akinete Sterigmeta Sporangiophore Oogonium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 3

9) Which one is a prokaryote ?

(1) Oscillatoria
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Volvox
(4) Chlorella

10) Which is not mentioned in whittaker's five kingdom classification ?

(1) Prokaryotes
(2) Virus
(3) Unicellular orgainisms
(4) Chemosyntheitic organisms

11) Match the following columns :

Column I Column II

(A) Algin (a) Red algae

 (B) Carrageen (b) Brown algae

(C) Smut fungi (c) Ustilago

(D) Rust fungi (d) Puccinia

Codes
A B C D
(1) d c b a
(2) b a d c
(3) b a c d
(4) c a b d
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Find out the incorrect matches from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Ulothrix Filamentous Chlorophyceae
ii Ectocarpus Brown Algae Phaeophyceae
iii Nostoc N2 fixing green algae Cyanobacteria
iv Fucus Haplontic life cycle Chlorophyceae
(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4) i and iii

13) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Algin and carrageenan are products of algae

(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
(4) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

14) Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) Natural classification systems were not based on natural affinities among the organisms and
evolutionary relationship between various organisms.
(b) In Volvox, Fucus sexual reproduction is oogamous.
(c) In numerical taxonomy, each character is given equal importance and at the same time hundreds
of characters can be considered.
(d) In algae, asexual reproduction is by production of different types of spores, the most common
being the conidia.
(e) Atleast half of the total carbon di-oxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through
photosynthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only
(4) (b), (c) and (e) only

15) Which of the following best explains the evolution of sexual reproduction :-

(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Puccinia
(4) Albugo

16) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Heterocyst = N2-fixation structure of B.G.A.

(2) Hormogonia = Reproductive structure of B.G.A
(3) Floridean starch = Stored food of brown algae
(4) Cyanophycean starch = Stored food of B.G.A.

17) How many of the following plant groups show(S) formation of embryo?
Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Angiosperms

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

18) Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
mosses?

(1) Diplontic life cycle

(2) Members of kingdom plantae
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Multiplication by fragmentation

19) Read the following names carefully

Clostridium, Chlamydomonas, Anabaena, Nostoc, Puccinia, Albugo, Vibrio.
How many organisms have well defined nucleus ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 5
(4) 3

20) Flagellated cells are absent in :-

(1) Red algae

(2) Blue green algae
(3) Higher seed plants
(4) All the above

21) Match the Description in Column A with Diagrams in Column B ?

Description Diagrams

(a) Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) (i)

(b) Bacteriophage (ii)

(c) Dinoflagellates (iii)

 (d) Nostoc (iv)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)

22) Which of the following is odd one with respect to members of archaebacteria ?

(1) Halophyte
(2) Halophiles
(3) Thermoacidophile
(4) Methanogens

23) Euglena, Nostoc, Chlorella and Spirogyra.

Choose correct option regarding above organism:-

(1) All are unicellular eukaryotes

(2) All are autotrophic multicellular
(3) All have chlorophyll 'a' and photosynthetic ability
(4) All are belong to green algae

24) Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) Chlamydomonas is unicellular algae.

(2) Algae vegetatively reproduced by fragmentation.
(3) Thallus of fungus is known as mycelium.
(4) Starch is reserved food material in penicillium.

25) Match the column-I (name of algal cell ) with column-II (shape of chloroplast) and choose
the correct answer:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ulothrix (i) Plate like

 (B) Zygnema (ii) Reticulate

(C) Oedogonium (iii) Discoid

(D) Chara (iv) Stellate

(E) Fritschiella (v) Girdle shape

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-i
(2) A-iv, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(4) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

26) Cellulose is the major component of cell wall of -

(1) Puccinia
(2) Ustilago
(3) Nostoc
(4) Spirogyra

27) Find out the correct match :-

(1) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular & flagellated

(2) Puccinia – Heteroecious sac fungi
(3) Virus – Cellular organisms.
(4) Nostoc – Pseudo parenchymatous

28) The sex organs of algae are generally :

(1) Unicellular and jacketed

(2) Unicellular and non-jacketed
(3) Multicellular and jacketed
(4) Multicellular and non-jacketed

29) Pigments present in red algae are :

(1) chl-a, chl-d and fucoxanthin

(2) chl-a and chl-c only
(3) chl-a, chl-d and r-Phycoerythrin
(4) chl-a, chl-c and fucoxanthin

30) Presence of pyrenoids is character of algae, a pyrenoid consists of ?

(1) Core of starch surrounded by protein

(2) Core of protein surrounded by starch
(3) Core of fatty acid surrounded by protein
(4) Nucleic acids and protein
31) Bacteriophages usually contain :-

(1) ss DNA
(2) ds DNA
(3) ss RNA
(4) ds RNA

32) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Capsulated bacteria are generally pathogenic.
(B) Members of sac fungi can reproduce by exogenous and endogenous spores.
(C) Vegetative stage of slime moulds have true cell wall.
(D) Brown algae store food in form of floridean starch.
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) A and B
(4) A, B and C

33) Commonly known forms of Basidiomycetes are:

(1) Mushrooms
(2) Bracket fungi
(3) Puffballs
(4) All of these

34) Thallophyta & Bryophyta are correctly termed as-

(1) Phanerogames
(2) Cryptogames
(3) Non-vascular cryptogames
(4) Vascular cryptogames

35) Select the wrong statement from following :

(1) Taxonomic keys are helpful in correct identification

(2) Two kingdom system did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(3) According to R.H. Whittaker, Nostoc and Anabaena are placed in Kingdom-Plantae
(4) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cell known and can survive without oxygen.

SECTION-B

1) Cilia & flagella are absent in life cycle of :–

(1) Red algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Green algae
(4) Red algae & B.G.A.

2) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction found in which algae?

(1) Volvox and Fucus

(2) Spirogyra and Ulothrix
(3) Ectocarpus and Eudorina
(4) Spirogyra and Fucus

3) Which option is not related with phaeophyceae?

(1) Gelatinous coating of algin.

(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two laterally attached flagella.
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.
(4) They possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.

4)
A, B and C could be :-

(1) Volvox, Chlorela, Polysiphonia

(2) Volvox, Chlamydomonas, Dictyota
(3) Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Fucus
(4) Volvox, Chlamydomonas, Chara

5) How many of the organisms present below are the members of the kingdom plantae according to
two kingdom system of classification?
Chara, Ficus, Triticum, Mangifera, Homo sapiens, E. Coli, Salmonella

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 6

6) Assertion-A : Chlorella and Spirulina are used as food supplements by space travellers.
Reason-R : These are unicellular green algae

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false,
(4) Both assertion and reason are false statements.

7) Which of the following groups of marine algae is used as food?

(1) Chlorella, Volvox and Gracilaria

(2) Porphyrya, Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) Laminaria, Sargassum and Gracilaria
(4) Porphyra Sargassum and Chalmydomons

8) Study the given algae and answer the following questions :- (a) Name of algae ?

(b) Type of sexual reproduction ?

(c) Name of division ?
(d) Stored food ?

(1) Laminaria : Isogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch

(2) Volvox : Oogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch
(3) Fucus : Oogamous : Phaeophyta : Laminarian & manitol
(4) Chara : Oogamous : Chlorophyta : Starch

9) Biochemical analysis of pyrenoids in algae would reveal the presence of :-

(1) sugars and phospholipids

(2) protein & starch
(3) RNA & starch
(4) protein & phosphates

10) Match column-I and column-II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Cephaleurous (i) Early blight of potato
Phytophthora
(B) (ii) Red Rust in Tea
infestans
Puccinia
(C) (iii) Late blight of potato
graminis
(D) Alternaria solani (iv) Black Rust of whea
(1) A–(ii) ; B–(iii) ; C–(iv) ; D–(i)
(2) A–(i) ; B–(ii) ; C–(iii) ; D–(iv)
(3) A–(iv) ; B–(i) ; C–(ii) ; D–(iii)
(4) A–(ii) ; B–(iv) ; C–(iii) ; D–(i)

11) Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Families are characterised on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant
species.
(B) Methanogens are present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as cows and buffaloes.
(C) Plant families like convolvulaceae, solanaceae are included in the order sapindales.
(D) Classification is a single step process but involves hierarchy of steps.
Choose correct answer :-

(1) A & C correct and B & D incorrect.

(2) A & B correct and C & D incorrect.
(3) C & D correct and A & B incorrect.
(4) A & D correct and B & C incorrect.

12) Identify the red algae marked as A and B :-

(1) A = Gracilaria, B = Gelidium

(2) A = Fucus, B = Laminaria
(3) A = Porphyra, B =Polysiphonia
(4) A =Batrachospermum, B =Laminaria

13)

What is common in following?

Dog, Wheat, Mammal, Animal

(1) These are all taxa at different levels.

(2) These all taxa belong to same category.
(3) These are all taxa at same level in hierarchy.
(4) These are all categories at different levels.
14) How many organism in the list given below are consider as biological species :-
Mango, Elephant, BGA, Chinarose, Mycoplasma, Sunflower, Nostoc, Salmonella typhi, Porphyra,
Riccia, Funaria, Rhizobium, Selaginella, E.Coli.

(1) Nine
(2) Six
(3) Eight
(4) Ten

15) System of classification used by Linnaeus was :-

(1) Natural system

(2) Artificial system
(3) Phylogenetic system
(4) Asexual system

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms to facilitate the cells to exchange
various substances is ?

(1) Water
(2) Lymph
(3) Blood
(4) CSF

2) Most abundant protein of blood plasma is :-

(1) Prothrombin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Globulin

3) Proteins which are involved maintaining BCOP:-

(1) Albumins
(2) Globulins
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin

4) Which of the following plasma proteins are involved in defense mechanisms of our body ?

(1) Albumin
(2) Globulins
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin

5) Plasma proteins contribute what percent in plasma:-

(1) 4%
(2) 2-2.5%
(3) 6-16%
(4) 6-8%

6) Plasma is a straw coloured viscous fluid constituting nearly.......A......% of the blood,.....B.....% of

the plasma is water; and the protein constitutes .....C....% of it. Choose the correct option for the
blanks A, B and C.

(1) A-55, B-90-92, C-6-8

(2) A-45, B-70-80, C-6-8
(3) A-35, B-90-92, C-6-8
(4) A-45, B-90, 92, C-6-8

7) Assertion : Open circulatory system is present in arthropods and molluscs.

Reason : In arthropods and molluscs blood pumped by the heart passes through large vessels into
open spaces or body cavities called sinuses.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

8) Which of the following is not a native component of blood ?

(1) Globulins and Albumins

+ –
(2) Na and HCO3
(3) Collagen and Fibrin
(4) Fibrinogen and RBC

9) Average life span of an RBC is :-

(1) 50 days
(2) 70 days
(3) 120 days
(4) 220 days

10) Mammalian RBC are :-

(1) Biconcave, circular , non nucleated

(2) Biconvex, Nucleated
(3) Oval, Nucleated
(4) Biconcave and nucleated

11) The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is :-

(1) 25–30 g
(2) 17–20 g
(3) 12–16 g
(4) 5–11 g

12)

Which organ is considered as "Graveyard of RBC" where most of them are destroyed by
macrophages :-

(1) Red bone marrow

(2) Spleen
(3) Kidney
(4) Intestine

13) Process of formation of RBCs is called :-

(1) Erythroblastosis
(2) Diapedesis
(3) Erythropoiesis
(4) All of the above

14) Haemoglobin is red colour respiratory pigment containing :

(1) Fe++
(2) Na+
(3) Cu++
(4) Fe+++

15) Increase in count of RBC is:

(1) Leucocytosis
(2) Erythrocytopenia
(3) Erythrocytosis
(4) Anaemia

16) Number of erythrocytes per mm3 of human blood is

(1) 4 million
(2) 5 million
(3) 6 million
(4) 0.5 million

17) What is the function of basophils ?

(1) Secretion of histamine

(2) Phagocytosis
(3) Synthesis of antibodies
(4) All of these

18) Kidney shaped (or bean shaped) nucleus is a feature of :-

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Monocytes

19) The cells involved in inflammatory reactions:-

(1) Basophils
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Lymphocytes

20) Find out the correct pair ?

(1) WBC – Non-nucleated

(2) Neutrophil – 0.5-1% of DLC
(3) Eosinophil – allergic reactions
(4) Thrombokinase – anticoagulant

21) Select the correct option :-

Structure % Function

(1) 60-65 Phagocytic

Secrete
(2) 0.5-1 histamine
and serotonin
 Defence
(3) 30-40 against
microbes

Allergic
(4) 30-40
reactions

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to
excessive loss of blood from the body ?

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Leucocytes
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Thrombocytes

23) Find the correct descending order of percentage proportion of leucocytes in human blood :-

(1) Neutrophils → Basophils → Lymphocytes → Acidophils (Eosinophils) → Monocytes

(2) Monocytes → Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
(3) Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
Lymphocytes → Acidophils → Basophils
(4)
→ Neutrophils → Monocytes

24) Cell fragments of megakaryocytes yield :-

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Granulocytes
(3) Agranularcytes
(4) Blood platelets

25) Which cell involved in Antibody production ?

(1) RBC
(2) B–lymphocyte
(3) Monocyte
(4) Neutrophils

26) All are granulocytes except:-

(1) Neutrophils
(2) Eosinophils
(3) Monocytes
(4) Basophils

27) The most active phagocytic white blood cells are

(1) Neutrophils and monocytes

(2) Neutrophils and Eosinophils
(3) Lymphocytes and macrophages
(4) Eosinophils and Lymphocytes.

28)

How many statement are incorrect for WBC ?

(A) They are colourless due to lack of Haemoglobin
(B) They are are non-nucleated in most of the mammals
(C) Avg count is 6000-8000/mm3 of blood

(D) Generally they have long life span in blood

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

29) In the allergy which W.B.C count will increase :-

(1) Acidophil
(2) Basophil
(3) Neutrophil
(4) Lymphocyte

30) Macrophage of blood is :-

(1) Kupffer cells

(2) Alveolar cell
(3) Monocyte
(4) Lymphocytes

31) Diapedesis is :-

(1) Bursting of WBC

(2) Production of pus
(3) Production of WBC
(4) Passage of WBC out of blood capillaries to the site of injury

32) Eosinophillia occurs during the :-

(1) Taeniasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Leukemia
(4) Both 1 and 2

33)

Abnormal fall in total count of WBCs in the human blood is called. :-

(1) Anaemia
(2) Polycythemia
(3) Leucocytopenia
(4) Leukaemia

34) Thromboplastin required for blood clotting at the place of injury is released by :-

(1) Blood platelets

(2) Eosinophils
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Lymphocytes

35) Clotting factors are present :-

(1) In plasma in inactive form

(2) In serum in inactive form
(3) In blood in active form
(4) In plasma in active form

SECTION-B

1) Ions that play a very important role in blood clotting :-

(1) ca+
(2) Mg++
(3) Na+
(4) Ca++

2) Identify A, B and C in the given below blood clotting process.

A B C

(1) Thromboplastin Prothrombin Fibrinogen

 (2) Thrombin Fibrinogen Thrombo-Kinase

(3) Thromboplastin Thrombin Fibrinogen

(4) Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Serum is

(1) Plasma (-) Blood coagulation factors

(2) Blood (-) Fibrinogen
(3) Lymph (-) Corpuscles
(4) Blood (+) Corpuscles and Fibrinogen

4) Which chemical factor prevents clotting of blood inside the body

(1) Histamine
(2) Heparin
(3) Ca2+ ions
(4) Serotonin

5) Clot mainly formed of :-

(1) Network of fibrins

(2) Platelets only
(3) Dead blood elements only
(4) Platelets and Calcium only

6) During the process of blood coagulation vitamin K helps in the :

(1) Formation of thromboplastin

(2) Formation of prothrombin
(3) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
(4) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

7) Assertion (A): Blood coagulates in the injured blood vessels.

Reason (R): Uninjured blood vessels release an anticoagulant heparin.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

8) Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease in which :-

(1) Adult have severe anaemia and jaundice
(2) Female have severe anaemia and jaundice
(3) Male have severe anaemia and jaundice
(4) Foetus have severe anaemia and jaundice

9) Rh– person donated blood to Rh+ person for the second time, Then :-

(1) Rh+ person will die

(2) Nothing happens to Rh+ person
(3) Rh– blood starts reacting with Rh+ blood
(4) Rh– person will die

10) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by :-

(1) Administering Rh-antigens to mother

(2) Administering Anti-Rh antibodies to mother after delivery of second Rh - ve child
(3) Administering Anti-Rh antibodies to baby
(4) Administering Anti-Rh antibodies to mother after delivery of first Rh +ve child

11) There is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood [of Rh -ve mother] to small amounts of
Rh +ve blood from the fetus during the:

(1) First trimester of any pregnancy

(2) Third trimester of the second pregnancy only
(3) Delivery of the child
(4) There is no such possibility

12) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) A person of 'O' blood group has anti 'A' and anti 'B' antibodies in his blood plasma.
(2) A person of 'B' blood group cannot donate blood to a person of 'A' blood group.
(3) Blood group is designated on the basis of presence of antibodies in the blood plasma.
(4) A person of AB blood group is universal recipient.

13) Fill the missing spaces in table given below :-

Blood Group Antigen Antibody

A A 'X'

B 'Y' Anti -A

O 'Z' Anti - A,B

(1) X - anti-B, Y - B, Z - nil
(2) X - B, Y - anti -B Z - nil
(3) X - nil Y - nil Z- A
(4) X- anti- A, Y-B Z - nil
14) Statement-I : 'O' group individuals are called universal donors.
Statement-II : Rh group does not play any significant role in blood compatibility.
Choose the appropriate answer from below options.

(1) Both the Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(4) Both the Statement-I and Statement-II are true.

15) Assertion: For a recipient to receive blood from a donor, the recipients plasma must not have
any antibody, causing the donor’s cells to agglutinate.
Reason: The possibility of blood clumping does not depends on anti A and anti B antibody and
blood type.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are wrong
(3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(4) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 1 2 1 3 1 3 2 4 1 2 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 1 2 1 4 1 2 3 3 3 3 1 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 1 1 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 4 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 1 3 4 2 4 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 1 4 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 4 4 3 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 1 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

13)

14)

When the system is at rest tension in string

If the system moves upward with acceleration

g then

or

23) F + Fcosθ = Mgsinθ

25)
Using costraint

– 4Ta1 – 2Ta2 – Ta3 – Ta4 = 0

4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0

26)

arel = 2a =

=
t = 1sec

29)

at t = 1 sec

Pseudo force on B observed by A

= –mBaA
 31)

FNet B = mB aB & FNet C = mC aC

as aB = aC =

⇒ FNet B = (2m) & FNet C = (3m)

33)

T = mg

kx = T + 4 mg = 5 mg
After cut the string T = 0

38)

Thus, N1sinθ = N2

43)
N = F sin 45° + mg cos 45°

45)

Tension is uniformly transmitted if the springs are massless.

CHEMISTRY

51)

Only 1 is zero overlapping, other two are destructive overlapping.

61) Both (1) and (3)

63) Theoretical.

64) XeF2 – sp3d

PCl5 – sp3d
IF7 – sp3d3

66) directional nature

68)

93)

Generally lone pair causes more distortion than a double bond so equitorial in SOF 4 >
equitorial in SF4 in CH2SF4 two axial flore atoms SC & two hydrogen will be lying in one
plane. The π-bond and two equitorial flourines along with C & S will lie in perpendicular plane.

OCF2 : due to low bond pair repulsion because of flourine & large repulsion due to
double bond.
SF4 axial FSF < 180° due to lone pair.

94)

97) BF3, BeF2, CO2 ⇒ If central atom has no lone pair and all side atoms are same them dipole
moment will be zero.

BOTANY

101) "Agar-agar" is obtained from Red Algae

103)

NCERT XI, Pg # 5,8,17

111) NCERT Pg. # 24, 32

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 16, 17, 18

127) NCERT pg no.30,32,24,25

129) Pg. No. 27 - XI NCERT

 133) XIth NCERT OLD, Pg. 23 - 24

137)

NCERT# XI, Pg. No. 30, Para-3.1

140) Only Homo sapiens do not have cell wall, rest others have the cell wall.

141)

Allen Module

143)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 30, 31, 32

144)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 32

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 6 & 7

147) NCERT Pg.no. 31

148) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 7

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 278

152)

NCERT-XI , Pg# 279

153)

NCERT XI Pg. # 279; para-1

154)

NCERT Pg. # 279

169)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 279

 170)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 279, 80, 81

171)

NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 279

172) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 280

176)

NCERT-XI, PG No. 279

178)

NCERT XI Pg. # 279

185)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 281; para-2

186) NCERT XI, Pg. # 281, last line

190)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 281

192) Ncert Page 281.

195)

NCERT Pg. No: 196

197)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 280