Studying menus from nineteenth-century restaurants, old coupons clipped

out of newspapers, and posters promoting concerts by long-forgotten

musicians may seem like a frivolous pursuit, but ephemeral objects like these
are useful as evidence of cultural change: they can ______ shifts in norms,
values, and concerns that traditional objects of historical inquiry may not.
1. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise
word or phrase?
A. dissociate from
B. collude with
C. compensate for
D. attest to

In the architectural process called modular construction, a building is

manufactured in modules under controlled conditions and then assembled at
its intended location. ________ of this approach cite the production of less
material waste and a faster return on investment.
2. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise
word or phrase?
A. Components
B. Safeguards
C. Proponents
D. Epitomes

Run by researchers in Europe, the Survey of Health, Ageing, and Retirement

in Europe (SHARE) is an examination of aging that has attempted to track
approximately 120,000 people for several years. Long-running studies like
this need a lot of participants not merely for statistical robustness but also
because of __________: over such a length of time, a substantial number of
participants will withdraw or fall out of contact with the researchers.
3. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise
word or phrase?
A. attrition
B. circumspection
C. impartiality
D. replicability

Some ethicists challenge the concept of personal character, claiming that if it

were meaningful, situational factors could not, as they clearly can, induce
behavior contrary to that character. As Rachana Kamtekar observes, this
argument is difficult to reconcile with our lay conception of character: we
expect a person of helpful character to be frequently helpful, not _______.
4. Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise
word or phrase?
A. unfailingly
B. self-servingly
C. grudgingly
D. sporadically

The Reckoning and Resilience (2022) exhibition at Duke University’s Nasher

Museum of Art in Durham, North Carolina, was curated to feature the work of
thirty North Carolina artists. The included artists represent a wide variety of
artistic disciplines, from painters such as Juan Logan to the sculptor Stephen
Hayes. In its inclusion of many borrowed works, the exhibition is atypical for
the Nasher Museum, which tends to curate its exhibitions around the
permanent collection of contemporary art that it owns.
5. Which choice best describes the overall structure of the text?
A. It explains how an art exhibition differs from many other exhibitions, then
analyzes the significance of that difference.
B. It presents the unusual goals curators had for an art exhibition, then
evaluates whether the curators achieved those goals.
C. It provides an overview of an art exhibition, then explains what makes the
exhibition unusual for the institution that organized it.
D. It discusses the wide range of disciplines represented in an art exhibition,
then explains why curators included works in those disciplines.

The Heege Manuscript (HM) is a collection of booklets of once-unbound paper

sheets on which Richard Heege copied various texts at his fifteenth-century
home between Derbyshire and Nottinghamshire in England. Most other
contemporaneous personal manuscripts like the Findern Anthology (FA)
consist primarily of pieces by celebrated medieval authors like Hoccleve and
other readings favored by elites, whereas the HM has a distinctive emphasis
on the popular, including entertainments like crude comedies, and the
practical, with advice about manners.
6. Which choice best describes the function of the underlined
portion in the text as a whole?
A. To suggest that the FA is a poor point of comparison for a collection like
the HM.
B. To emphasize the ubiquity of hand-copied collections like the FA and the
HM in medieval England.
C. To provide context for the text’s suggestion that the HM is an outlier
among collections of its time.
D. To illustrate how the discussion of the HM earlier in the text can improve
historians’ understanding of the FA.

Text 1 is T. L. Hulme’s 1912 poem “Above the Dock.” Text 2 is from Amy
Lowell’s 1912 poem “The Crescent Moon.”

Text 1
Above the quiet dock in mid night,
Tangled in the tall mast’s corded height,
Hangs the moon. What seemed so far away
Is but a child’s balloon, forgotten after play.

Text 2
Slipping softly through the sky
Little horned, happy moon,
Can you hear me up so high?
Will you come down soon?
7. Which choice best describes a notable difference in how the
speaker of Text 1 and the speaker of Text 2 portray the moon?
A. While both speakers characterize the moon as an entrapped figure, only
the speaker of Text 2 describes the moon as being content with this fate.
B. While both speakers present the moon as a tangible object, only the
speaker of Text 1 addresses the moon’s beauty.
C. While the speaker of Text 1 presents the moon as an object of play, the
speaker of Text 2 presents the moon as an object of serious study.
D. While the speaker of Text 1 presents the moon as seeming to be very
close, the speaker of Text 2 emphasizes the moon’s distance from the
speaker.

Mauricio Drelichman and Hans-Joachim Voth’s research into the debt defaults
of Philip II (who ruled an empire including Spain and Sicily from 1556 to
1598) relates to other work on European early modern state finance,
including Eugene White’s research on surpluses and state borrowing. But
Drelichman and Voth’s unique contribution to the field is their reconstruction
of the earliest extant set of annual fiscal records for any sovereign state,
demonstrating in turn that Philip’s defaults were caused by short-term cash
shortages, not long-term unsustainable debts.
8. Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
A. The research by Drelichman and Voth suggests that the logistics of ruling
both Spain and Sicily led to short-term problems with cash that forced Philip
II to default on his debts.
B. Drelichman and Voth’s research on Philip II’s debt defaults builds on earlier
work by White, adding nuance to the earlier work’s findings.
C. Analysis of the earliest available records of a sovereign state’s finances
can be found not in the work of White but in that of Drelichman and Voth.
D. Drelichman and Voth advanced the field of research on European early
modern state finance by assembling a novel collection of evidence that gave
them insight into Philip II’s debt defaults.

The following text is adapted from William Shakespeare’s 1597 play The
Tragedy of King Richard III. Richard is reflecting on the recent arrest of his
brother, the Duke of Clarence, on suspicion of treason against King Edward
IV. Derby, Hastings, Buckingham, Rivers, Dorset, and Grey are also members
of the English nobility.
RICHARD:
I do the wrong, and first begin to brawl.
The secret mischiefs that I set [flowing]
I lay unto the grievous charge of others.
Clarence, whom I indeed have cast in darkness,
I do beweep to many simple [gullible people],
Namely, to Derby, Hastings, Buckingham;
And tell them ’tis the Queen and her allies
That stir the King against the Duke my brother.
Now they believe it, and withal whet me
To be revenged on Rivers, Dorset, Grey.

9. Which choice best describes what happens in the text?

A. Richard attributes Clarence’s troubles to both his own secret plotting and
the distrust of Clarence that the queen and her allies Derby, Hastings, and
Buckingham have planted in the king’s mind.
B. Richard describes having wept as he informed Derby, Hastings, and
Buckingham that the queen and her allies convinced the king to act against
Clarence, and says that the earnestness of his grief caused them to accept
his version of events.
C. Richard acknowledges that his mischievous nature has spurred him to
commit misdeeds in the past, including instigating enmity between the king
and Clarence, but he reports that he has hitherto not lost the trust of the
queen and her allies.
D. Richard indicates that he has pretended to be aggrieved about Clarence’s
situation and has proclaimed it to be the fault of the queen and her allies,
but in reality, he has caused the hostility the king feels toward Clarence.

Home Video Game Systems of the 1970s and 1980s

Manufactu System Approximate number of units sold

System
rer type worldwide

ColecoVision Coleco console 2,000,000

Intellivision Mattel console 3,000,000

MSX ASCII Corp. computer 4,000,000

Game &
Nintendo handheld 18,600,000
Watch

A student is writing a research paper on the global rise of the home video
game industry during the 1970s and 1980s. The student is surprised by
differences in the number of units sold by some systems compared to those
sold by others. Most remarkably, the __________________.
10. Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to
complete the statement?
A. Game & Watch sold approximately 18,600,000 units, whereas the
ColecoVision sold only approximately 2,000,000 units.
B. Game & Watch sold approximately 4,000,000 units, whereas the
ColecoVision sold only approximately 3,000,000 units.
C. MSX sold approximately 4,000,000 units, whereas the Intellivision sold
only approximately 3,000,000 units.
D. MSX sold approximately 18,600,000 units, whereas the Intellivision sold
only approximately 2,000,000 units.

In what is now southern Florida, the Calusa people (circa 1000–1600 CE)
supported their relatively large population’s dietary needs with hydrological
engineering rather than terrestrial farming methods. They constructed
watercourts (gated coastal enclosures) out of shells and sediments to trap a
variety of fish as waters rose and fell with tides and seasonal sea-level shifts;
watercourt pools then held the fish for later consumption. Archaeologist
Theresa Schober has posited an additional purpose of these enclosures,
suggesting that they were intended to foster conch. She ties this hypothesis
to the high value the sea snails would have had for the Calusa, both
nutritionally and as a building material (conch shells are highly durable).
11. Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken Schober’s
hypothesis?
A. Samples of animal remains collected at Calusa sites reflect a greater
diversity of marine species, particularly among sea snails, within the
perimeter of watercourts than in locations known to have been devoted to
the preparation and consumption of food.
B. Historical population-size estimates suggest that the sea snails and fish
most common in the Calusa diet were plentiful in open coastal waters when
the watercourts were constructed but decreased in abundance in the years
immediately after construction.
C. Radar surveys of Calusa sites reveal watercourt dimensions suitable for
sustaining fish of many local species but not conducive for maintaining the
shallow environments with ample seagrasses that allow sea snails to thrive.
D. Sediment layers excavated from Calusa watercourt sites contain
heterogeneous mixtures of scales from multiple species of fish and
fragments of shells from various types of sea snails, but conch shells do not
constitute the majority of the mixture in most of those layers.

Day Day Day Day

Trait
5 10 15 20

Total number of open male and female flowers per

25 65 110 45
growth unit

Estimated reproductive success rate of male flowers 0.29 0.29 0.29 0.29

Proportion of male flowers 0.45 0.50 0.48 0.13

The mating environment hypothesis predicts that populations of flowering

plants compensate for reduced mating opportunities due to dichogamy (a
plant’s expression of male and female functions at separate times to prevent
self-pollination) by adjusting the bias of floral sex allocation during the
flowering period, increasing the probability of successful cross-plant
pollination. Researchers tested the hypothesis by examining a population of
broadleaf arrowhead, a plant for which bloom onset generally takes longer
for male flowers than for female flowers, during the flowering season. They
concluded that the mating environment hypothesis is not well supported by
their observational data.
12. Which choice best describes data from the table that support
the researchers’ conclusion?
A. Whereas the total number of open flowers per growth unit peaked on day
15, the proportion of male flowers experienced a peak earlier in the flowering
season, on day 10.
B. Despite the sharp reduction in the total number of open flowers per
growth unit from day 15 to 20, there was no decline in the estimated
reproductive success rate of male flowers in that interval.
C. Sex allocations were largely evenly distributed on days 10 and 15 but
were female biased on days 5 and 20.
D. Although sex allocations became overwhelmingly female biased by day
20, male flowers’ estimated reproductive success rate did not vary from day
5 to 20.

Although Grant Tavinor concludes that computer games are art by virtue of
their forming a subcategory of fiction, and Berys Gaut similarly places them
within the realm of cinema, neither approach adequately captures a central
aspect of playing these games: when the player no longer attends to the
narrative and is instead simply absorbed in the instrumentalities of
gameplay. This is among the reasons philosopher C. Thi Nguyen contends
that the work of computer-game designers is in what he calls the medium of
player agency, which the designer prescribes through rules and goals, and
which elicits positive aesthetic experiences in the player who agrees to adopt
it. Therefore, Nguyen’s position is that Tavinor’s and Gaut’s frameworks
________.
13. Which choice most logically completes the text?
A. are helpful starting points for studying computer games as art, even
though these frameworks are overly simplistic.
B. are useful for analyzing the narrative aspects of computer games, even if
neither attempts to address player agency.
C. overstate the influence of fiction and cinema on the narrative elements of
computer games.
D. subsume computer games under other categories of media that do not
address a feature of games that is integral to player enjoyment.
As observed in a 2011 study by Emilio García-Robledo and Alfonso Corzo,
macroalgal proliferation may have a suppressive effect on the abundance of
cyanobacteria and other microphytobenthos (MPB)—chlorophyll-producing
microbes inhabiting marine sediment—in part by reducing the amount of
sunlight available to MPB. Examining benthic chlorophyll concentrations (a
widely used proxy for MPB biomass) in mudflats in Curlew Bay and other
coastal sites in Virginia, Alice F. Besterman and Michael L. Pace found that
those concentrations did not negatively correlate with macroalgal
proliferation. However, they noted that MPB may respond to low-light
conditions by producing higher-than-normal concentrations of chlorophyll,
and they thus concluded that __________.
14. Which choice most logically completes the text?
A. researchers ought to account for the possibility that because MPB have
the capacity to compensate for reduced sunlight availability, benthic
chlorophyll concentrations may not always be a reliable indicator of MPB
biomass.
B. although their finding was inconsistent with that of García-Robledo and
Corzo, this discrepancy was not attributable to the ability of MPB to
accelerate chlorophyll production to mitigate the negative impact of
macroalgal accumulations.
C. although elevated levels of macroalgae do not always correspond to
increased levels of benthic chlorophyll, there is likely a larger trend in MPB
biomass that is related to macroalgal presence but unrelated to light
conditions.
D. the effect of macroalgal concentrations on MPB abundance that García-
Robledo and Corzo reported was not observed in Curlew Bay and other
Virginia sites because low-light conditions likely are not generalizable across
the sites in the studies.

Neuroscientist Artin Arshamian and his team sought to determine what

affects a person’s perception of an odor as pleasant: is it culture, personal
taste, or aspects of human anatomy? The team assessed odor preferences in
ten groups of people with different modes of living (urban, agricultural, and
hunter-gatherer) including the Maniq people from a small community in
Thailand and the Seri people from a small community in Mexico. The team
observed that across cultures, people generally rated odors about the same:
ethyl butyrate, which smells like peaches, was typically rated more pleasant
than diethyl disulfide, which smells like garlic. The team’s study thus
undermined the idea that _____.
15. Which choice most logically completes the text?
A. a person who perceives certain odors as pleasant will likely perceive the
odors as roughly equal in pleasantness.
B. culture significantly influences whether a person perceives an odor as
pleasant or unpleasant.
C. personal taste has little influence on whether odors are perceived as
pleasant or unpleasant.
D. people agree in their perception of odors as pleasant or unpleasant
regardless of where they live.

Many studies have found a positive association between levels of dissolved

organic carbon and mercury in bodies of fresh water undisturbed by human
activity. But Stéphane Guédron, Delphine Tisserand, and colleagues did not
find this correlation in an examination of freshwater bodies impacted by
wastewater, leading some scientists to hypothesize that the association
could be particular to undisturbed waters. However, Ida Tjengrén and
colleagues carried out a study on freshwater bodies disturbed by urban
development that showed similar results to the studies on undisturbed
waters, suggesting that __________.
16. Which choice most logically completes the text?
A. levels of dissolved organic carbon and mercury are both much higher in
bodies of fresh water impacted by wastewater than they are in bodies of
fresh water disturbed by urban development.
B. Guédron, Tisserand, and colleagues’ study used different methods to
measure the concentration of mercury in fresh water than Tjengrén and
colleagues’ study did.
C. the effects of wastewater on the association between levels of dissolved
organic carbon and mercury should not be taken as indicative of the effects
of every type of human disturbance.
D. disturbances linked to wastewater affect significantly more bodies of fresh
water than disturbances linked to urban development do.

Branching in Jurisprudential Schools is one of the hundreds of thousands of

manuscripts that have survived from roughly the sixteenth century to the
present ____ being passed down through private libraries in the city of
Timbuktu, Mali. Many of these manuscripts can be found at the Al-Wangari
Manuscript Library.
17. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the
conventions of Standard English?
A. day by
B. day; by
C. day. By
D. day by,

The terms included in Barry Lopez and Debra Gwartney’s Home Ground: A
Guide to the American ____ such as “karst,” which refers to limestone terrain
riddled with caves or sinkholes—illustrate the rich vocabulary used to
describe the landforms of North America.
18. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the
conventions of Standard English?
A. Landscape,
B. Landscape.
C. Landscape—
D. Landscape

Following the formation of the European Union (EU) that same year, the
organizers of the 1992 Tour de France wanted the bike race to reflect the
cross-national flow of people and trade that the EU had made possible. The
resulting course was 2,500 miles long ____ seven separate borders of
neighboring countries, modeled a vision of the EU’s unifying aims.
19. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the
conventions of Standard English?
A. and, crossed
B. and had crossed
C. and crossed
D. and, crossing

As part of his I GOT UP series, Japanese conceptual artist On Kawara spent

over a decade—with near daily consistency—mailing postcards to friends
declaring what time he got up each day, resulting in pieces such as I Got Up
at 7:19 A.M., Jun 6 1977. Such meticulous documentation of mundane
__________ artworks that “resonate with existential, psychological and
scientific implications about the time-space continuum,” according to the
New York Times, became Kawara’s life’s work.
20. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the
conventions of Standard English?
A. information, has generated
B. information generates
C. information, generating
D. information generated
For her film I Am Somebody (1970), a documentary about a successful
months-long strike held by Black female hospital workers in Charleston,
South Carolina, director Madeline Anderson chose a narrator who had
participated in the ________ by allowing the narrative to be shaped by one of
their own, amplified the agency and power the workers possessed.
21. Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the
conventions of Standard English?
A. protest a decision that,
B. protest. A decision that
C. protest; a decision that,
D. protest, a decision that,

At a time when many women writers used male pseudonyms to gain greater
freedom of self-expression by evading gender conventions, Katherine Bradley
and Edith Cooper adapted the practice by publishing poetry, prose, and
drama for four decades under the shared name Michael Field. __________ the
duo was able to express the joint creative vision that sustained their long
personal and professional partnership.
22. Which choice completes the text with the most logical
transition?
A. In this way,
B. For instance,
C. Later,
D. On the other hand,

In a 2005 study by Mellado et al., the researchers’ aim was to analyze the
diet composition of cattle in Coahuila, Mexico. ________ they aimed to analyze
the ratio of three different plant subtypes within these animals’ diet:
graminoids, forbs, and browse.
23. Which choice completes the text with the most logical
transition?
A. Instead,
B. All the same,
C. Therefore,
D. Specifically,

John Quincy Adams employed the pseudonym “Marcellus”—a reference to a

leader of an ancient Roman army—in political essays he wrote in 1793, a
choice that accomplished far more than simply concealing his authorship.
__________ it wasn’t an arbitrary pen name but rather a complex rhetorical
strategy through which Adams aligned his political views with the venerated
republican ideals of the ancient world, thereby bolstering the authority of his
writing.
24. Which choice completes the text with the most logical
transition?
A. Conversely,
B. In addition,
C. However,
D. Indeed,

Notes:

 Kale is a vegetable that contains ascorbic acid, an essential nutrient for

humans.

 Apricots are fruits that contain ascorbic acid.

 There is 120 milligrams (mg) of ascorbic acid per every 100 grams (g)
of kale.

 There is 10 mg of ascorbic acid per every 100 g of apricot.

 Humans cannot make ascorbic acid in their bodies, so they must get it
from foods, including fruits and vegetables.

 Ascorbic acid is also known as vitamin C.

25. The student wants to refute a claim that apricots are a better
source of vitamin C than kale is. Which choice most effectively
uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A. Kale contains vitamin C (also known as ascorbic acid); in fact, there is
120 mg of vitamin C in every 100 g of kale.
B. Kale contains ascorbic acid (also known as vitamin C), and apricots do
too.
C. Humans cannot make ascorbic acid in their bodies, but they can get it
from kale and apricots.
D. With 120 mg of vitamin C per every 100 g, kale is actually a better
source of vitamin C than apricots, which contain only 10 mg per every 100
g.

Notes:

 Snow hydrologist Julie Koeberle helps maintain automated snow

measurement stations.
  They are called SNOTEL sites.

 There are around 90 stations throughout Wyoming.

 One is at Bear Trap Meadow.

 The data collected can help researchers make downstream water

supply predictions.

26. Which choice most effectively uses information from the given
sentences to provide an example of a SNOTEL site?
A. The data collected by SNOTEL sites can help researchers predict
downstream water supplies.
B. The SNOTEL site at Bear Trap Meadow is one of around 90 automated
snow measurement stations in Wyoming.
C. Snow hydrologist Julie Koeberle helps maintain automated snow
monitoring stations known as SNOTEL sites.
D. Located throughout Wyoming, SNOTEL sites monitor snow conditions.

Notes:

 The nautical mile (6,076 feet) is the measure of distance used in

seafaring navigation.

 A nautical mile directly correlates to one minute (1/60th of a degree) of

latitude.

 The curvature of Earth affects the accurate measurement of long

distances when using flat maps.

 Measuring distances with latitude and longitude coordinates takes into

account Earth’s curvature.

 Mariners use nautical charts marked with latitude and longitude to

quickly calculate distances and positions.

27. The student wants to explain why nautical miles are used to
measure distances in seafaring navigation. Which choice most
effectively uses relevant information from the notes to
accomplish this goal?
A. Nautical miles are a measure of distance equal to one minute of
latitude, which is a feature nautical charts use to calculate distances and
positions.
B. Nautical charts use latitude and longitude to measure long distances;
these charts are more accurate than flat maps for measuring distances in
seafaring navigation because they account for Earth’s curvature.
C. Since they directly correlate to the coordinates on nautical charts,
which take into account Earth’s curvature, nautical miles are an efficient
way to calculate distances at sea.
D. Using nautical miles for navigation at sea takes Earth’s curvature into
account, whereas measuring distances with latitude and longitude
coordinates does not.