NP 1 Situation - Andrea underwent mastectomy of her right breast.

After surgery, she was instructed to have range of motion exercises

1. What is the main purpose of this type of exercise for Andrea? It is to ________________.
A. prevent pain on the site of operation
B. prevent contracture deformity of the muscle of the right arm and chest
C. improve general circulation
D. improve breathing
2. The isotonic exercise such as Range of Motion exercises are those that are initiated by the ________.
A. patient
B. physician
C. nurse
D. relatives of the patient
3. Andrea needs some physical activity after operation MAINLY to improve healing of which parts of the body? Select all that apply.
1-Skeletal
2-Integumentary
3-Respiratory
4-Muscular

A. 1 only
B. 4 only
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
4. A good example of isotonic exercise for Andrea’s arm are the following, EXCEPT ___________

*
1 point
A. combing the hair
B. brushing teeth
C. dressing up
D. closing and opening hand
5. When doing a range of motion exercise, it is important for the nurse to observe Andrea’s ________.
*
1 point
A. Temperature
B. Color of the skin
C. Blood pressure
D. Respiratory rate
Situation - Client Alan, 33 years old, is known for his asthma attacks. His asthma attacks commonly occur at the change of climate in his hometown. He was just
wearing a “sando” {sleeveless shirt} and short pants when he was admitted to the hospital.
6. What will be Nurse Chard’s PRIORITY INTERVENTION?
*
1 point
A. Put him near the electric fan to assist him in breathing
B. Ask him what triggered his attack this time
C. Place him in a comfortable environment
D. Put him near the nurse’s station so that he could be assessed often
7. What particular important vital sign should Nurse Chard monitor and report to the physician?
*
1 point
A. Respiratory rate
B. blood pressure
C. Cardiac rate
D. Pulse rate
8. Client Alan knows that he will be given decongestant through inhalation. What will be the instruction of Nurse Chard? That he should breathe and that the
nozzle of the NEBULIZER should be MAINLY near his _____________.
*
1 point
A. Nose only
B. Face
C. Mouth only
D. Nose and mouth
9. Respiratory function is altered in clients with asthmatic attack. Which of the following is the cause of this alteration that Nurse Chard should understand in
order for him to make a good nursing care plan?
*
1 point
A. Narrowing of the upper air passages
B. Increased airway resistance
C. Inadequate surfactant reaction
D. Paradoxical movements of the chest wall
10. An important health teaching that Nurse Chard must give before client Alan’s discharge is ________.
*
1 point
A. To avoid “sando” and shorts, if the weather is cold
B. to use attire he is presently wearing only during summer time
C. to watch out for climate change and unnecessary exposure to elements of the environment that trigger his asthma attacks
D. to be careful always because constant asthma attacks can trigger complication and death
Situation - Nurse Beejay is assigned in the out-patient department. He admits Sunshine, 25 years old, who is complaining of moderate to severe abdominal pain
over the right iliac region for the last 2 days. This is accompanied by frequent urination.
11. The FIRST STEP that Nurse Beejay should do is to .
*
1 point
A. Percuss the abdomen
B. Get the vital signs
C. Palpate the right iliac region
D. Interview Sunshine
12. An important added data that Nurse Beejay should have if he is thinking of a urinary problem is
*
1 point
A. Presence of blood in the urine
B. Presence of pain on urination
C. When the pain appears whether at the start or end of urination
D. Frequency, amount and burning sensation on urination
13. An important added data that Nurse Beejay should ask Sunshine, should we consider the presence of a gynecological problem is .

*
1 point
A. Date of menarche
B. Date of last menstrual period
C. Her age and civil status
D. Occupation
14. An important added data that Nurse Beejay should ask Sunshine, should we consider the existence of a surgical problem is .

*
1 point
A. Fever
B. Vomiting
C. constipation
D. character of pain
15. There are two important laboratory examinations that could validate Nurse Beejay’s presumptions on the case which are .
*
1 point
A. CBC and stool examination
B. Urinalysis and CBC
C. Stool and urine examinations
D. Urinalysis and vaginal examinations
Situation - Nurse Leah has just passed the Nursing Licensure Examination. She needs to refresh herself regarding the law that governs the practice of nursing in
the Philippines.
16. By virtue of section 16 of the Philippine Nursing Law, the first step she needs to do after passing the Nursing Licensure Examination is to .

*
1 point
A. Take the oath of the profession before the Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing
B. Apply for the Certificate of Registration/Professional License\
C. Get an official copy of her board rating from the PRC office
D. Apply for a Professional Identification Card
17. Which government body has the power to revoke or suspend Leah’s certificate of registration/professional license, should she commit unprofessional and
unethical conduct in the future?

*
1 point
A. Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing
B. Philippine Nurses Association
C. Professional Regulation Commission
D. Commission on Higher Education
18. What Nursing Republic Act should Nurse Leah refer too?

*
1 point
A. RA 9371
B. RA7164
C. RA 7664
D. RA 9173
19. Since she needs to work in a hospital to get hospital experience, which part of the Nursing Law should Leah focus for her safe practice as a novice nurse?

*
1 point
A. Scope of Nursing Practice
B. Nursing Research
C. Nursing Education
D. Nursing Personal System
20. When Leah eventually gets employed in the hospital, she will initially be required to utilize which of the following in rendering care to her clients?

*
1 point
A. Traditional and innovative approaches
B. Therapeutic use of self
C. Health teachings
D. Nursing process
Situation - Quality documentation and reporting are necessary to enhance efficient, individualization patient care. Nurse Gigi is assigned to Maria who is
diagnosed with diabetes.
21. Nurse Gigi is aware that a record should contain descriptive, objective observations about what the nurse sees, hears, feels and smells. The following
describes what a record ought to be:

*
1 point
A. Maria is uncooperative as manifested by her refusal to take a bath
B. Maria appears depressed.
C. Maria is anxious as manifested by her tossing in bed and disarrayed beddings
D. Patient states, “I wish to end my life”
22. When documenting the intake-output of Maria, Nurse Gigi should remember that she must use precise measurements to ensure accuracy. Which of the
following reflects accuracy?

1. Maria drank an adequate amount of fluid during the shift.

2. Maria’s intake during the shift is 360 ml.

3. Maria’s wound is 3 cm in length.

4. Maria’s wound is large and gaping.

*
1 point
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
23. Another guideline for good documentation and reporting that Nurse Gigi recalls is about completion. When nurse Gigi administers medications, the
following should be included, EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Any preliminary observations
B. Preliminary observations
C. Patient’s response
D. Nursing measure taken for negative response
24. Nurse Gigi is making a discharge plan. The items she needs to document and report should include, EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Needs for referrals
B. Nurses’ observations
C. Client’s involvement in the care plan
D. Patient’s goals or expected outcomes
25. Nurses are ethically obligated to information about client’s illness and treatment confidential. The person who has the legitimate access to the patient’s
record is the .

*
1 point
A. Husband
B. Primary nurse
C. attending doctor
D. patient
Situation - Alex, 15 years old, has been complaining of sleep disturbance for the past 3 weeks. He related that he feels weak and has no vigor in doing his school
work. He is brought to hospital B for specialization.
26. As his attending nurse, what will be the best question to ask in order to find out Alex’s cause of sleep disturbance?

*
1 point
A. “Could you tell me what you feel about school work?”
B. “Is there something or anyone who is bothering you in school?”
C. “Could you share with me any major problems that you have encountered in school?”
D. “What is bothering you in school?”
27. The nursing diagnosis appropriate for Alex is .

*
1 point
A. Insomnia
B. Sleep deprivation related to problems in school
C. Disturbed sleep pattern related to school problem
D. Readiness for enhanced sleep
28. In order to help Alex go to sleep, what simple and inexpensive nursing intervention can the nurse provide considering the type of room Alex is confined in?

*
1 point
A. Room should be well ventilated
B. Light should be dimmed at specific time
C. Putting on the air conditioning unit
D. Putting on dark-colored curtains
29. If Alex cannot sleep immediately, which of the following can be provided by the nurse?

*
1 point
A. A glass of warm milk
B. A bedside story
C. a sleeping pill
D. a warm bed bath
30. In terms of nursing care, the BEST help that the nurse can do is to .

*
1 point
A. Avoid giving round the clock medications
B. Refrain from clutter at the nurse’s station
C. Omit vital sign tasking during the sleeping time of Alex
D. Tone down nurse’s voice
Situation - Client Jimmy, 66 years old, a foreigner, was admitted to the hospital due to high fever for five days. His temperature on admission was 37.5 ‘C with
flushed and warm to touch skin. Nurse Jana, who is his attending nurse, gave him a cool sponge bath.
31. Cool sponge bath is an independent intervention of nurse Jana aimed at .

*
1 point
A. Alleviating discomforts of client Jimmy
B. Generalizing full sponge bath care to client Jimmy get hospital admission policy
C. Diverting the temperature of client Jimmy
D. Normalizing the vital signs of client Jimmy
32. The independent nursing intervention to reduce temperature of client Jimmy include which of the following? Select all that apply.

1. Monitor temperature regularly

2. Offer only cold drinking water frequently

3. Provide tepid sponge bath

4. Administer Paracetamol every 4 hours

5. Encourage wearing loose cotton clothing

6. Cover with thick blankets to stimulate sweating

*
1 point
A. 1, 3, 5
B. 1, 5, 6
C. 2, 4, 6
D. 2, 3, 4
33. Client Jimmy wishes to know his present temperature in Farenheit. Nurse Yana’s answer is which of the following?
*
1 point
A. 102.2F
B. 101.3F
C. 100.4F
D. 99.5F
34 . Client Jimmy complains of severe chilly sensation. What regulatory function of the hypothalamus describes his reaction?

*
1 point
A. heat production
B. heat promotion
C. heat adaptation
D. heat conversation
35. After client Jimmy’s body temperature stabilized to normal, he began to complain of feeling hot and finds difficulty of adjusting to the climate two days after.
What is the APPROPRIATE answer to nurse Yana?

*
1 point
A. “Foreigners cannot adjust to hot temperatures”
B. “People from cold regions have less brown adipocytes”
C. “Those who lived in cold places have lower metabolic rate than those who live in tropical region”
D. “People from cold regions have more brown adipocytes”
36. Nurse Susan develops patient safety goals. What nursing goal is APPROPRIATE for safety environment? Select all that apply.

1. Reduce the risk for patient harm resulting from falls

2. Create a clean, orderly environment of patient

3. Prevent high concentration drug errors

4. Develop clean and simple signage for directions

*
1 point
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 1, 2 & 4
C. 2, 3 & 4
D. 3 & 4
37. Nurse Susan should prevent or reduce infectious agents PRIMARILY through the following practices. Select all that apply.

1. Clean the room with antiseptic solutions

2. Proper garbage disposal

3. Mandatory hand washing upon entry to hospital

4. Improve safety administration of medicines

*
1 point
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2, 3 & 4
C. 1 & 3
D. 1 & 4
38. Nurse Susan must comply with the policies of health care facilities regarding isolation precautions. The BASIC precaution in the hospital is
_______________________.

*
1 point
A. posting of signs of silence
B. limited visitors who are within the patient’s age
C. private room placement
D. strict utilization of personal things
39. Nurse Susan includes air-borne precautions in addition to Standard Precautions to be observed at all times. These include, EXCEPT _______.

*
1 point
A. positioning and draping of patients
B. hand washing techniques
C. wearing of masks and gloves
D. limited patient transport
40. To protect spreading infection from one patient to another, Nurse Susan must not forget to wash her hands _________.
*
1 point
A. before and after making rounds and endorsement of all clients
B. before and after performing procedures and in between patient care
C. twice before and after all the procedures are done to all the clients
D. apply alcohol before and after performing procedures to all patients
Situation - One of the thrusts of management is to encourage more nurses to do research in order to contribute to the improvement of the nursing practice in
their work setting. A group of nurses decided to conduct a study entitled, “Effects of Zumba as a form of exercise in promoting wellness among the health
providers in the hospital setting.”
41. Which of the following is the independent variable in this study?

*
1 point
A. Exercise
B. health care providers
C. zumba
D. wellness
42. Which is the dependent variable?

*
1 point
A. health provider
B. wellness
C. exercise
D. effects
43. The research design of the study is ____________

*
1 point
A. quasi-experimental
B. experimental
C. qualitative
D. descriptive
44. In the cause and effect relationship, which is the independent variable?

*
1 point
A. Population
B. Effect
C. Relationship
D. Cause
45. Which of the following is the appropriate operational definition of wellness? Wellness is the state of well-being of the participants in Zumba on their
____________

*
1 point
A. social stability
B. spiritual growth
C. physical health
D. mental balance
SITUATION- Some teachers in an elementary school reported that a high proportion of children’s packed lunches contain hotdog or ‘tocino’, sweetened drinks
and potato chips. School Nurse Vivian plans to conduct health education classes among parents on “How to make healthy lunches and why it is important”
46. For this activity, Nurse Vivian considers using the behavior change approach to encourage parents to adopt healthy behaviors that will lead to improve
health. This approach is popular because of the following reasons. Select all that apply.

1. Views health as property of individuals

2. Sees people as having the capacity to change their lifestyle

3. Assumes that if people do not act on their health, they suffer the consequences

4. Does not consider the social and environmental factors in which people live

*
1 point
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2
47. Nurse Vivian finally plans to conduct parent’s classes using the educational approach. This approach is intended to _____. Select all that apply.

1. Provide information

2. Develop the necessary skills

3. Provide change to a particular direction

4. Help people make an impulsive choice

*
1 point
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3
48. To start the health education class and to get the parent’s active participation, which of the following is the BEST question to ask?

*
1 point
A. “Did you cook your child’s lunch today?”
B. “Who among you have kids who are underweight?”
C. “Can you explain the “Plate Method”?”
D. “What food do you usually prepare to your kids lunch?”
49. The educational approach to health education states that learning involves three aspects. Which of the following is NOT included?

*
1 point
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Behavioral
50. Since your participants are adult parents, which of the following are appropriate strategies? Select all that apply.

1. Role playing

2. Group sharing

3. Demonstration

4. Return demonstration
*
1 point
A. 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 3
SITUATION - Safety in any health agency is a must. Nurse Amy wants this to maintain in her unit.
51. The nursing process facilitates an understanding of the scope of challenges inherent in nursing care of clients at risk for ___________ EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Infection
B. Suicide
C. Restraint
D. Injury
52. The clients at risk require re-assessment of their status on ____________

*
1 point
A. shift basis
B. daily basis
C. as necessary basis
D. injury
53. When a patient is placed in a bed rest, the nurse must watch which part of the body most?

*
1 point
A. Liver
B. Head
C. Legs
D. skin
54. The Nursing Practice Standards which Nurse Amy must let her staff follow includes, EXCEPT ___________.

*
1 point
A. use a multidisciplinary approval to enhance client safety as indicated
B. implement emergency measures during fires and disasters
C. risk elements should not be modified
D. use infection control practices that prevent or control transmission of the pathogens
SITUATION -Mr. BC is confines in the ICU in a provincial hospital for some complications of his type II diabetes. He is edematous and complained of severe
chest pain. His vital signs are: BP160/98, temperature 37.2C; PR- 90 bpm; RR- 30 bpm
55. The order of the physician is for immediate intubation. For the priority equipment, supplies and material to be used for the procedure, the nurse should
collaborate with the _________.

*
1 point
A. operating room
B. central supply unit
C. anesthesia department
D. emergency department
56. Morning care had to be done by the ________

*
1 point
A. nursing student
B. all the options
C. staff nurse
D. nursing aide
57. In as much as you have not been trained in initiating Intravenous infusion, who among the following cannot also do it?

*
1 point
A. charge nurse
B. staff nurse
C. nursing aide
D. physician
58. Turning Mr. BC every two hours would be difficult if you do it alone. In order to keep the patient safe, the most number of nurse who can team up with you will
be ____________

*
1 point
A. Four
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
59. If Mr. BC would be for dialysis and you need to bring him to the dialysis unit, who among the following, could be the best to help you wheel him to the area? A
______________.
*
1 point
A. institutional worker
B. member of the family
C. physician
D. nurse aide
SITUATION - Applying therapeutic communication skills is vital in the nurse-client relationship.
60. Which of the following is the BEST SEQUENCE of communication techniques to use during an assessment interview? Begin with ____________.

*
1 point
A. giving a broad opening and move to asking focused questions
B. Giving information and move to asking focused questions
C. Asking focused questions and close-ended questions
D. providing information and proceed to stating observations
61. You are caring for Malou, sixteen years old, suffering from acute leukemia. You want to actively listen to her concerns and understand her meanings. You
know that active listening is used to _______.

*
1 point
A. Treat patient’s medical problems
B. Recognize the issue that is most important to the client
C. Help the patient become dependent to the nurse in addressing his concerns
D. Make conclusions regarding client’s perception
62. You ask your newly admitted patient, “What can we do to help you?” You know that this open-ended question will _____________.

*
1 point
A. result in specific information from the patient
B. allow patient to elaborate on his response
C. allow patient to briefly answer question
D. put the patient at ease
63. As you listen to a patient, you need to provide feedback that is __________.

*
1 point
A. behavior-focused and evaluative
B. well-timed and general
C. general and content-focused
D. well-timed and content-focused
64. Which of the following statements is TRUE in relation to the use of humor?

*
1 point
A. Humor should focus on the client’s humanity
B. Humor is used to build rapport
C. Constant use of humor can be healing
D. Laughter increases neurotransmitters
SITUATION - Patient Alex, three years old, was brought to the clinic by her mother due to ear ache and low-grade fever. While performing her physical
assessment, Nurse Hazel found Patient Alex’s right ear to be inflamed and warm to touch. The Pediatrician ordered ear drops to be instilled to the affected ear.
65. Nurse Hazel performs further physical assessment on Patient Alex BEFORE drug administration, which includes the following, EXCEPT _______________.

*
1 point
A. Appearance of the pinna and meatus of the ear
B. Presence of the interference during the drug administration
C. Type of any ear discharge
D. Location and extent of inflammation of the ear
66. The MOST APPROPRIATE nursing action before instilling ear drops to Alex is to ______.

*
1 point
A. Check the medication to be within room temperature
B. Refrigerate the medication for thirty minutes
C. Fill up the dropper with no more than one millimeter
D. Clean the outer surface of the dropper
67. In installing any drug into the ears, Nurse Hazel performs in SEQUENCE. Which of the following steps?

1. Allow the drug to flow into the ears slowly

2. Tilt the head away from the nurse

3. Put a small cotton loosely into the ear

4. Wait for 15 minutes before instilling drops on the other ear

5. Instill the ear drops into the affected ear

*
1 point
A. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 1, 3, 4
C. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
68. After instilling medications to the right ear, what is the MOST appropriate instruction to the mother?

*
1 point
A. Remain in the position for 5 minutes
B. Pack a cotton pledge tightly to the ear
C. Have the patient remain in the position for one hour
D. Advice the mother not to let Alex drink hot water
69. In administering otic medication, Nurse Hazel

*
1 point
A. Don the gloves
B. Perform hand hygiene
C. Explain procedure and postpone
D. Check identification band and proceed
70. On the other hand, Nomar notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this
style?

*
1 point
A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results
C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership
D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.
71. One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which of the following theories?

*
1 point
A. Trait
B. Charismatic
C. Great Man
D. Situational
SITUATION - Terry, 15 years old, and a high-school student, visited the clinic because she suspects that she is pregnant. Her pregnancy is confirmed by the
school physician. Terry requested nurse Zenaida not to tell her parents about her being pregnant. She also expressed desire to terminate her pregnancy.
72. Which of the following ethical concepts apply to patient Terry’s case?

*
1 point
A. Bioethics
B. Deontology
C. Teleology
D. Intuitionism
73. Nurse Zenaida should be guided by the steps in helping Terry make an ethical decision. Sequence the steps below.

1. Gather data

2. Make decision

3. Identify and clarify the ethical problem

4. Act and assess the outcomes of decisions

5. Identify options or alternatives

*
1 point
A. 3, 1, 5, 2 & 4
B. 1, 5, 2, 4 & 3
C. 1, 3, 5, 2 & 4
D. 2, 4, 1, 3 & 5
74. The INITIAL advice of nurse Zenaida to patient Terry is which of the following?

*
1 point
A. Terry will inform her teacher about her condition and to request the teacher to tell her parents.
B. Terry will request the doctor to inform the parents
C. Terry will choose a significant other close to the parents to be the one to relay about her pregnancy
D. Advise her that as a minor, her parents should be duly informed about her pregnancy
75. Terry analyzed the advice of Nurse Zenaida and realized the value of life and family. This attitude of realization is termed as _____________
*
1 point
A. Justice
B. Ethics
C. Autonomy
D. Values clarification
76. Patient Terry’s decision regarding her pregnancy is termed as _____________

*
1 point
A. Autonomy
B. Justice
C. Veracity
D. Fidelity
SITUATION - Emma, 65 years of age, has just been widowed a year ago. Her two children are now all living in the U.S. She used to love cooking but since she
is now living alone, she eats meal irregularly. Most of the time, she just watches television. Her chief complaint is constipation.
77. When assessing Emma, Nurse Alma should ask the following, EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Dietary and fluid intake
B. Cultural beliefs
C. Lifestyle
D. Bowel pattern
78. When auscultating the bowel sound of Emma, the nurse should be able to hear ___________.

*
1 point
A. loud and gurgling sound
B. increased bowel sound
C. decreased bowel sound
D. absent sound
79. The MOST APPROPRIATE nursing diagnosis for Emma’s case is _________________.

*
1 point
A. risk of constipation related to lifestyle
B. perceived constipation related to eating habits
C. dysfunctional gastrointestinal motility related to lifestyle
D. constipation related to inactivity
80. Which of the following are the most simple and cost effective interventions that the Nurse can advise Emma to resolve constipation?

1. Encourage increased fiber in diet

2. Encourage physical activity and regular exercise

3. Regular time for elimination

4. Laxative

*
1 point
A. 1, 2, & 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 2, 3 & 4
81. Health education should include which of the following?

1. Responding to the urge to defecate and establishing a daily pattern

2. Role of dietary fiber and fluid in maintaining bowel function

3. Role of exercise and activity in maintaining bowel function

4. Safe and correct use of pharmaceutical agents

*
1 point
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
SITUATION - Obesity is an emerging concern for patients and nurses. The nurses has an important role in assessing and evaluating patient’s physiological
status in relation to wight control
82. Nurse Cherry is assessing patients at the outpatient clinic. Which of the following patients is at risk for health complications related to weight?

*
1 point
A. a thirty three year old who has a body mass index (BMI) of 24 kg/m
B. A fifty six year old who is 6 ft (180 cm) tall and weighs 150 lb (68 kg)
C. A seventy one year old who is 5 ft 4 inches (160 cm), weighs 120 lb (55 kg), and carries most of the weight in the thighs
D. a twenty four year old female with a waist measurement of 30 inches (75 cm) and a hip measurement of 34 inches (85 cm)
83. A patient who has been consistently following a diet and exercise program and successfully losing one pound weekly for several months is weighed at the
clinic. However, he has not lost any weight for the last month. Nurse Cherry should first _______________.

*
1 point
A. ask the patient whether there have been any recent changes in exercise or diet patterns
B. discuss the possibility that the patient has reached a temporary weight loss plateau
C. Instruct the patient to weigh weekly and record the weights.
D. review the diet and exercise guideline with the patient
84. When working with an obese patient who is enrolled in a behavior modification program, which nursing action is APPROPRIATE?

*
1 point
A. Having the patient write down the caloric intake of each meal
B. suggesting that the patient has a reward after achieving a weight loss goal
C. encourage the patient to eat small amounts throughout the day
D. asking the patient about situations that tend to increase appetite
85. When developing a weight-reduction plan for an obese patient who is starting a weight loss program, which question is MOST important for Nurse Cherry to
ask?

*
1 point
A. “What factors do you think led to your obesity?”
B. “Have you been on any previous diets?”
C. “What kind of physical activities do you enjoy?”
D. “How long have you been overweight?”
86. An obese patient asks Nurse Cherry about using Orlistat (Xenical) for weight reduction. Nurse Cherry advises the patient that _________.

*
1 point
A. drugs may be helpful in weight loss, but weight gain is likely to recur unless changes in diet and exercise are maintained
B. the long-term effect of orlistat is not known, and the drug may cause serious side effects such as heart valve problems
C. this drug can cause serious depletion of fat-soluble vitamins and should be used only several weeks
D. weight-reduction drugs of any type are used for only those who do not have the will power to reduce their intake of food
Situation: Nurse Kat is the head nurse of the male medical ward in a tertiary specialized hospital handling multiple cases in her unit. It is imperative that she is
equipped with the basic managerial skills.
87. In this conflict resolution method, a person ignores his or her own feelings about an issue in order to agree with the other side.

*
1 point
A. Collaborating
B. Confronting
C. Accommodating
D. Withdrawing
88. With this method of conflict resolution, each side gives up something as well as gets something:

*
1 point
A. Negotiating
B. Competing
C. Avoiding
D. Compromising
89. Nurse Kat feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action
that she must take?

*
1 point
A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
B. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.
90. Which of the following is a characteristic of decision-making?

*
1 point
A. it only involves logical, rational thought
B. it is often the result of many incremental steps rather than one large step.
C. It must always be done quickly in the health care setting.
D. they generally do not assume another person’s point of view.
91. Which of the following is true about effective creative thinkers?

*
1 point
A. They seldom generate new ideas and alternatives.
B. They often say, “We’ve always done it this way, so let us do it this way again.”
C. They tend to analyze the components of a problem.
D. They generally do not assume another person’s point of view.
SITUATION - Nurse Beth is working on the hospital’s pediatric unit. She is assigned as a medication and treatment nurse
92. In preparing to give medications to a preschool-age child, which of the following statements is an APPROPRIATE interaction by Nurse Beth?

*
1 point
A. “Let me explain about the injection that you will be getting”
B. “Do you want to take your medication now?”
C. “Would you like the medication with water or juice?”
D. “If you don’t take the medication now, you will not get better.”
93. To determine proper drug dosages for children, calculations are MOST precisely made on the basis of the child’s __________.

*
1 point
A. Weight
B. Height
C. body surface area
D. age
94. Nurse Beth administered the intramuscular medication of Iron by the z-tract method. This method is used to ________________.

*
1 point
A. provide more even absorption of the drug
B. provide faster absorption of the drug
C. prevent the drug from irritating sensitive tissue
D. reduce discomfort from the needle
95. The doctor ordered to give a one year old patient an intramuscular injection. The appropriate and preferred muscle to select for this child is the
_______________.

*
1 point
A. Dorsogluteal
B. Deltoid
C. Ventrogluteal
D. Vastus lateralis
Situation: Nurses are expected to be leaders making difference in the health care settings- hospitals, clinics, communities and other organizations.
96. Why leadership plays a vital role in the nursing profession?

*
1 point
A. It is not really important for nurses.
B. Nurses have expert knowledge and are interacting with and influencing the clients.
C. Nurses should know how to direct people towards accomplishment of goals.
D. Nurses should always strive for higher positions in the organization.
97. Nomar understands that a Theory which states that the Leadership style is dependent on the situation. Which of the following styles best fits a situation when
the followers are self-directed, highly motivated, experts and matured individuals?

*
1 point
A. Participative
B. Directive
C. Permissive
D. Bureaucratic
98. Nomar would like to be a Transformational leader. Which of the following statements best describes this type of leadership?

*
1 point
A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
B. Serves the followers rather than being served.
C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates
D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his presence.
99. Grace RN is a head nurse assigned at the Intensive Care Unit of a Secondary Level Hospital. As a manager, Grace is expected to display effective conflict
resolution skills. Which of the following is true about conflict?

*
1 point
A. It seldom occurs as part of the change process in health care settings.
B. It highlights differences in values, belief, or actions.
C. t is automatically negative
D. It discourages creativity and innovation.
100. Conflict that occurs between groups or teams is called:

*
1 point
A. Interpersonal
B. Intrapersonal
C. Organizational
D. Dysfunctional
NP 2 Situation: Nurse Maja continues to expand her roles by actively participating in the activities of the Health Center in collaboration with the Department of
Health.
1. Which of the following is not included in the Child Health Programs of the DOH?

*
1 point
A. Adolescent Screening
B. Expanded Program on Immunization
C. Dental Health
D. Micronutrient Supplementation
2. Breastfeeding is the most essential feeding for infants that has nutritional , immunologic values and maternal advantages for the mother. Exclusive
breastfeeding during the first half-year of life is an important factor that can prevent:

*
1 point
A. Infant and childhood morbidity and mortality
B. Infant and childhood Mental Disorders
C. Occurrence of Cancer
D. Occurrence of Heart Disease
3. Rona, G1P1, is on her 2nd post partum day. She asks Nurse Maja about the definition of exclusive breastfeeding. Nurse Maja responds based on his
knowledge that exclusive breastfeeding means:

*
1 point
A. giving the baby breast milk and water only.
B. giving the baby breast milk and solid food only.
C. giving the baby breast milk and drops or syrups consisting of vitamins, mineral supplements, or medicines only.
D. giving the baby breast milk only. Drops or syrups consisting of vitamins, mineral supplements, or medicines should not yet be given until the 6th month of life.
4. The following are the benefits of breastfeeding to the infants EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Provides a nutritional complete food for the young infant.
B. Strengthens the infant’s immune system, preventing many infections.
C. Safely dehydrates and provides essential nutrients to a sick child.
D. Increases IQ points.
5. During a Ward class in the Obstetric Ward of a community hospital, a mother asked the Nurse regarding the benefits of breastfeeding to the mothers. The
Nurse best response would be:

*
1 point
A. “It increases the woman’s risk of excessive blood loss after birth.”
B. “It reduces the woman’s risk of excessive blood loss after birth.”
C. “It provides artificial methods of delaying pregnancies.”
D. “It increases the risk of ovarian and breast cancers and osteoporosis.”
Situation – The Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is recording and reporting system in public health care in the Philippines
6. The following are the objectives of the FHSIS, EXCEPT:

*
1 point
a. Complete the picture of acute and chronic disease
b. Ensure data recorded are useful and accurate and disseminated in a timely, easy to use fashion
c. Minimize recording and reporting burden allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
d. Provides standardized facility-level data base which can be used for more in-depth studies
7. As a nurse, you should know the process of how these information are processed and consolidated. The fundamental block of the FHSIS system is the
______________

*
1 point
A. Family treatment record
B. Output record
C. reporting forms
D. target/client list
8. The monthly field health service activity report is a form used in which of the components of the FHSIS?

*
1 point
a. Target/client list
b. Output report
c. individual health record
d. tally report
9.In using the tally sheet, the recommended frequency in tallying activities and services is_______.

*
1 point
a. Weekly
b. Quarterly
c. Monthly
d. Daily
10. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimen such as the Multi drug Therapy, which component of the reporting system will be most useful?

*
1 point
a. Output report
b. Tally report
c. target/client list
d. individual health record
Situation – Nurse Oscar takes care of the Ramos extended family who resides in the house owned by Nilda’s mother, Marta. Nilda tends a variety store is
married to Ramon, a government employee. They have four children: Lester, 20 years old; Gina, 18 years old; Alex, 15 years old; and Celine, 12 years old.
Lester is a working student of his second year in computer technology course. Gina is a high school graduate; Alex is in third year high school and Celine is in
Grade six. There is one year old baby girl who is a daughter of Gina. Gina, however, could not pinpoint the one who sired her child in as much as she had
multiple sex partners. This angered Ramon.
11. Though he recognizes the remorse of his daughter, Ramon still feels confused regarding the situation. He said he tried his best to support his family and had
always been considerate and kind. He and his wife would always give them reminders and advice calmly and never in a nagging manner. But still they failed as
parents. The possible nursing diagnosis of Nurse Oscar of his family is_____________.

*
1 point
A. Interrupted family process
B. Impaired parenting
C. Parental role conflict
D. Ineffective role performance
12. Nurse Oscar’s conversation with Gina revealed that the young woman still suffers from a syndrome of failure: failure to complete one’s normal growth and
development, failure to complete education, failure to establish a vocation and become independent and failure to have a life. The nurse Oscar’s intervention to
this problem is_____________.

*
1 point
A. Linear approach with regards to the individual in the context of the family, community and culture that will combat shame and guilt
B. Lay down the foundation of a future by trusting human association and developing mutual trust initially with the nurse, then the family, and eventually the
whole community
C. Focus on the factors that will help protect Gina towards proximal stimuli for healthy growth and development to develop her resiliency in confronting current
and future problem
D. Transform interactions among family members, strengthen specific roles and functions to strengthen family system in order to eventually cope
13. In one home visit, Nurse Oscar was approached by the 15 year old Alex. He was asking about condom use. He said he has a girlfriend with whom he is
madly in love with but does not want her to get pregnant. Nurse Oscar’s most practical and best advice would be__________.

*
1 point
A. Postpone sex and suggest other ways to expressing love
B. Explain to him the difference between sex and love
C. Teach him by step-to-step correct, continuous and consistent condom use
D. Discourage him on having a girlfriend and focus more on his studies
14. Ramon complains to Nurse Oscar some weird behaviour of Nilda. These past few months, she has decreased sex drive, night’s sweats and mood swings.
He also received weird text message from her such as: “Do you really love me?”, “What role do I play in your life?” “Do you still find me attractive?” The best
advice of Nurse Oscar to Ramon should be________.

*
1 point
A. Give her some money for make-over to increase her self-esteem and make her look attractive to him
B. Accompany her to a psychiatric
C. Ignore his wife or tell her she is too old to act like a teen-ager
D. Give reassurance that she is the best person who came to his life
15. Apparently, the nurse interventions have improved family relationships. The members are now communicating with one another and are excited in preparing
for a family affair, which is the baptism of Beatrice. Nurse Oscar was asked to be the godfather of the child. His best response is_________.

*
1 point
A. Accept and proudly say that Beatrice will be his 49th godchild
B. Refuse and make an alibi that he belongs to another religion
C. Accept and express gratitude for the trust accorded him by the family
D. Politely decline and explain that his relationship with the family must not go beyond professional
Situation – The family of Roxas is fond of dogs. A vendor who entered the gate without notice is bitten by one of the pet dogs named Bert. PHN Cords Attends to
the vendor.
16. Which of the part of body of the vendor will be the MOST affected in terms of rabies? It is the _________.

*
1 point
a. Buttocks
b. Head
c. feet
d. hand
17. To protect the vendor from the dangers of rabies, PHN Cords advises him to clean the wound thoroughly with soap and water, consult a physician and
receive anti-rabies vaccination. Which among the following vaccines can provide active immunity?
1. Purified vero cell vaccine

2. Human rabies immunoglobulin

3. Equine rabies immunoglobulin

4. Purified duck embryo vaccine

*
1 point
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 only
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 only
18. The vendor acquired rabies, what will PHN Cords do to protect those who took care of him? He should administer____________.

*
1 point
A. Pre-exposure prophylactic treatment only for the family of Bert
B. Post-exposure prophylactic treatment only for the family of the vendor
C. Pre-exposure prophylactic treatment to Bert and the vendor’s families
D. Post-exposure prophylactic treatment to Bert and the vendor’s families
19. PHN Cord’s intervention to protect all residents who own pets, especially dogs, should be done by_______.

*
1 point
A. Coordinating with city/ municipal agriculturist for immunization of all pets
B. Coordinating with city/municipal officials to make an ordinance on stray dogs
C. Massive campaign to families not to own pets at home
D. Massive campaign for responsible pet ownership
Situation – Belinda, the PHN in the Municipality of Pico, learned from the residents that children and some elderly had been suffering from respiratory and skin
ailments allegedly due to the bad smell of curly dark smoke emitting from the factory nearby. She was invited to the community assembly that was initiated by
the barangay council.
20. The barangay captain asked, “What can you do to help solve the problem of Nurse Belinda?” What would be the right response of Nurse Belinda?

*
1 point
A. “Well, your problem is easy to solve. I have some cough syrup, ointments for the skin and some antibiotics. I will distribute this after the meeting.”
B. “Who among you here have children who are suffering from respiratory and skin diseases? How about the adults who are here? Are you also having the same
problems?”
C. “I suppose you gave a lot of thought about the problem and its possible solution. However, treating your children and the elderly is not the first solution. We
have to go to the root cause of the problem.”
D. “May I ask you what solution have you identified for the community problem?”
Situation: The birth process affects the physiologic systems of the mother and the fetus. Staff nurse Jamie is assigned in the Labor and Delivery Room Area.
21. A G7P 6 woman is in the hospital only 15 minutes when she begins to deliver precipitously. The fetal head begins to deliver as you walk into the labor room.
The best action of Nurse Jamie would be to:

*
1 point
A. place a hand gently on the fetal head to guide delivery.
B. ask her to push with the next contraction so delivery is rapid.
C. assess blood pressure and pulse to detect placental bleeding.
D. attach a fetal monitor to determine fetal status.
22. Nurse Jamie in a labor room is preparing to care for a hypertonic uterine dysfunction. The nurse observed that the client is experiencing uncoordinated
contractions and erratic in their frequency, duration and intensity. The priority nursing intervention in caring for the client is to:

*
1 point
A. Monitor the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion closely
B. Provide pain relief measures
C. Prepare client for amniotomy
D. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes
23. Mrs. Barbara 34 years old is being admitted in the hospital unit for severe Preeclampsia. When deciding on where to place her, which of the following areas
would be most appropriate?

*
1 point
A. By the nursery so she can maintain hope she will have a child.
B. Near the elevator so she can be transported quickly.
C. Near the nurse’s station so she can be observed closely.
D. In the back hallway where there is a quiet, private room.
24. The Physician orders intravenous Magnesium Sulfate for Mrs. Barbara. Which of the following medications would the Nurse has readily available at the
client’s bedside?

*
1 point
a. Diazepam (Valium )
b. Calcium Gluconate
c. Hydralzine (Apresoline )
d. Phynetoin ( Dilantin )
25. Which of the following signs would alert the Nurse that Mrs. Barbara’s whose latest blood pressure 160/110, may be about to experience a seizure?

*
1 point
a. Decreased contraction intensity
b. Epigastric pain
c. Decreases temperature
d. Hyporeflexia
Situation – Nurse Dora, a nursing staff applicant, passed both written and oral examinations. Because she knows the head of office, she promised to submit all
her credentials after she has “fix things up.” She was appointed as Nurse I with a temporary status until she submits all her credentials, including her PRC
license. Her evaluation performance was satisfactory. After a year though, she had to renew her PRC registration and identification (ID) card.
26. What action must the nursing administration do FIRST?

*
1 point
A. Report the matter to the head of office who had the discretion to appoint the nurse
B. Verify with the Professional Regulation Commission regarding the status of Nurse Dora
C. Confront Nurse Dora and terminate her
D. Write a letter to the Civil Service Commission for proper action to Nurse Dora
27. It was found out that Nurse Dora did not pass the Nurse Licensure Examinations (NLE). What legal action should be filled against her?

*
1 point
A. Dishonesty
B. Conduct unbecoming of professional
C. Malpractice
D. Misrepresentation
28. In case Dora have medication error during her tour of duty, the head of office can be liable because of the law called ____________.

*
1 point
A. Unethical conduct
B. Respondeat superior
C. Politicking
D. Res Ipsa Loquitur
29. All Nurses must understand that after graduation they should pass the NLE. To be registered in the roster, they should take the Professional Oath with a
________, EXCEPT.

*
1 point
A. Member of Sangguniang Panlalawigan
B. Governor of Philippine Nurse Association
C. Member of the Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing
D. Provincial Governor
Situation - You are an OB nurse in an out-patient department of a hospital. You encounter pregnant women with complication
30. A 35-year old woman, on her 2nd trimester of pregnancy with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, comes to you for some advice. What is the PRIORITY
message for her at this time?

*
1 point
A. Infants of diabetic mothers are big which can result in more difficult delivery
B. Breastfeeding is highly recommended and insulin use is not contraindicated
C. Achievement of optimal glycemic control is of utmost importance in preventing congenital anomalies
D. Her insulin requirements will likely increase beginning 3rd trimester of pregnancy
31. A 30-year old G6P5 woman at 12 weeks has just begun prenatal care. Her initial laboratory reveals that she has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
infection. What would be a priority evidence-based nurse information for this patient?

*
1 point
A. Breastfeeding is still recommended due to the great benefits to the infant
B. Pregnancy is known to accelerate the course of HIV disease in the mother
C. Medication for HIV infection is safe and can greatly reduce transmission of HIV to the infant
D. Breastfeeding will potentiate the transmission of HIV from the mother to the child
Situation – PHN Elfa works in barangay 14 and 15 in the Municipality of Agoho. One day, a neighbor summons her to attend to a 7-year old boy with high grade
fever.
32. Upon reaching the house, a local herbolaria, Nanay Isa was already attending to the boy. She said that the boy played near the river and the bad spirits
entered his body. The MOST appropriate remark the nurse make is _________________.

*
1 point
A. “Go on. Do what you have to do, then I will take over.”
B. “Nanay Isa, your intervention is entirely wrong.”
C. “It’s good you’re here. You can drive away the spirits that entered the boy’s body.”
D. “You have to be sure that all the evil spirits have been driven out of the boy’s body.”
33. After a few minutes, Nanay Isa took a big bowl of soup and gave to the boy. The BEST remark of the Nurse is _____________.
*
1 point
A. “I also drink a soup when I get sick. How about you, Nanay Isa, do you do the same?”
B. “The soup could have been better if you put lemon grass on it.”
C. “Come on, tell me why soup must be given to a child with fever
D. “That’s correct. Increasing fluid intake will help lower down temperature.”
34. Finally, Nanay Isa took out from her pocket a dried rose flower and place it on the boy’s forehead. How will Nurse Elsa handle this action?

*
1 point
A. Tell her not to use the dried flower again because it does not have any good effect on the sick
B. Ask for an extra piece of fried rose flower and promise to use it
C. Ask the herboloria the rationale for the intervention
D. Leave the intervention as is. Anyway the intervention is neutral: not harmful nor beneficial
Situation – The local health board established a reproductive health clinic in the main health center. Two nurses, Hubert and Irene, were assigned to handle
services to address problems related to sexuality, reproductive health and fertility problems.
35. Nurse Hubert classifies cases according to the major categories of reproductive tract infections. Which of the following is NOT part of such classification?

*
1 point
A. Iatrogenic infections as aftermath of invasive procedures like catheterization and intra-uterine device (IUD) insertion
B. Urinary tract infections among male and female patients
C. Sexually-transmitted infections
D. Endogenous infections resulting from poor personal hygiene
36. Irene handles the screening for gonorrhea every two weeks among female sex workers in the implementation of PD 856. In differential diagnosis of
discharge among infected clients, which of the following colors discharge will Irene take note to identify gonorrhea from other causes?

*
1 point
A. Greenish yellow as differentiated from mucoid white of trichomoniasis
B. Mucoid white as compared to grayish-white discharge of vaginosis
C. Grayish white as differentiated from mucoid white of chlamydia
D. Yellowish white as compared to trichomoniasis’ greenish-yellow
37. Nurse Hubert was invited by a women’s group to give a lecture on healthy sexuality. In the expectation check, he noted that there are previous
misconceptions expressed by the participants. Which of the following statements are correct?

*
1 point
a. It is the obligation of the wife to give in to sex every time he asks for it
b. Sexuality is fluid and may change
c. Effeminate men are gays
d. Homosexuality, being gay or lesbian, is an abnormality
38. One of the clients was positive to Gonorrhea. Nurse Irene explained that gonorrhea and chlamydia, if left untreated can lead to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
(PID). Such conditions may cause infertility due to ______.

*
1 point
A. Foul smelling odor discharge which can kill the ovum
B. An unknown cause
C. Scarring which can lead to tubal occlusion
D. Purulent discharge which can kill the sperm
39. Nurse Irene further explained that a test used to determine tubal patency using a radiopaque material is the __________.

*
1 point
a. Post-coital infertility test
b. Sims Huhner test
c. Friedman’s test
d. hysterosalpingography
Situation: A pregnant woman is monitored continuously for a range of signs and symptoms that indicate potential complication. Nurse Carol attends to different
discomforts and problems of pregnant women.
40. John an O.P.D nurse admitted Mrs. Felia to the antepartum unit with a diagnosis of severe Hyperemesis Gravidarum. When the nurse reviews the
laboratory tests, she would expect which of these findings?

*
1 point
A. Increased hematocrit
B. Decreased blood urea nitrogen
C. Increased potassium
D. Low urine specific gravity
41. Nurse John suspects presence of sexually transmitted infection to Mrs. Felia specifically Syphilis to a pregnant client. Which of the following tests will be
recommended to the client to confirm diagnosis?

*
1 point
A. Complete blood count
B. Urinalysis
C. Benedict’s test
D. VDRL
42. Mrs. Ibrado a 26 year old Primigravida is being prepared for a nonstress test. This is an assessment test based on what phenomenon?

*
1 point
A. Braxton-Hicks contractions cause fetal heart rate alterations.
B. Fetal heart rate slows in response to a uterine contraction.
C. Fetal movement causes an increase in maternal heart rate.
D. Fetal heart sounds increase in connection with fetal movement.
43. After a non-stress test is completed, Nurse Ibrado observes on a monitor of the fetal strip results that the fetal heart rate accelerated 15 BPM with each fetal
movement. The acceleration lasted for 20 seconds and occurred 3 times during the 20 minute test. The Nurse is correct in interpreting the test as a:

*
1 point
A. Reactive test
B. Non- reactive test
C. Positive test
D. Negative test
44. Another client is also scheduled for Amniocentesis. Nurse Carol explains to the client that one of the risks of amniocentesis is:

*
1 point
A. Rupture of membranes
B. Premature labor
C. Fetal death
D. Malformation
45. The nurse is assessing the fetal heart monitor strip of a client having a contraction stress test. Which of the following, if noted by the nurse, would indicate a
negative test?

*
1 point
A. No late decelerations after any contractions on a strip with three contractions within a 10-minute time frame.
B. Late decelerations after at least 2 contractions on a strip with three contractions within a 10-minute time frame.
C. Late decelerations after one contraction on a strip with three contractions within a 10-minute time frame.
D. An increase in fetal heart rate after three contractions within a 10-minute time frame.
46. The client complains of feeling tired and thirsty. The nurse evaluates that the mother understand the reason for taking only small sips of water and ice chips
during labor. Which of the following statement expressed by the mother would reflect she understands the situation? When:

*
1 point
A. the body normally has a sufficient store of energy
B. the digestive process is normally slower during labor
C. the intestinal tract should be completely empty before delivery in order to avoid infecting the baby
D. Cesarean section is always a possibility even in normal labor
47. Kim, a 27 year old, multigravida client, has been transferred to the delivery room after spontaneous rupture of membrane and crowning was noted by the
nurse in charge. You know that your teaching has been effective when the laboring client's partner shouts, "She's crowning!" as:

*
1 point
A. You first start to see a little of the baby's head.
B. The baby's head recedes upward between pushing contractions.
C. The perineum is thin and stretching around the occiput.
D. The mouth and nose are being suctioned.
48. To deliver her infant, a woman is ask to push with contractions to deliver. Ensuring the standards of nursing practice, which of the following is the most
effective and safest pushing technique to teach her?

*
1 point
A. Lying supine with legs in lithotomy stirrups.
B. Squatting while holding her breath.
C. Head elevated, grasping knees, breathing out.
D. Lying on side, arms grasped on abdomen.
49. The delivery room nurse based on the standards of nursing practice, episiotomy is usually indicated for which of the following purposes?

*
1 point
A. To prevents distention of the bladder.
B. To relieve pressure on the fetal head.
C. To aid in contraction of the uterus following delivery.
D. Done primarily for the physician’s benefit.
Situation: It is important for an Obstetric Nurse to perform a comprehensive physical assessment after labor and delivery that could predispose the mothers to
potential complications such as hemorrhage.
50. The Nurse in the delivery room is attending to Mrs. Cruz on labor to make sure that maternal injury will be prevented during the postpartum period. Which of
the following instruction should the nurse consider to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?

*
1 point
A. Massage the fundus regularly
B. Postpone breastfeeding of the baby- encourage breastfeeding to stimulate release of oxytocin thereby promoting uterine contraction
C. Apply warm compress to her abdomen
D. Have bed rest and avoid early ambulation- encourage ambulation
51. When the placenta has been delivered, the first thing the nurse should do in adherence with the standards of nursing practice is to:

*
1 point
A. Inspect the placenta for completeness of the cotyledons
B. Palpate the uterus to see if it is contracted
C. Administer oxytocic agents as ordered
D. Estimate the blood loss to detect any bleeding
52. The delivery room nurse palpates the client’s fundus immediately after delivery of the placenta and assess that it is boggy. The nurse massages the patient’s
uterus until it is firm. Considering evidence-based nursing practice, which medication would the nurse anticipate might need to be administered if the uterus
becomes boggy again?

*
1 point
A. Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B. Ibuprofen
C. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
D. Magnesium sulfate
53. Mrs. Evita 28 years old gave birth through Cesarean section. The Nurse examines her and identify the presence of lochia serosa and feels the fundus 4
fingerbreadths below the umbilicus. This indicated that the time elapsed is:

*
1 point
A. 1 to 3 days postpartum
B. 4 to 5 days postpartum
C. 6 to 7 days postpartum
D. 8 to 9 days postpartum
54. In assessing a new mother’s response to her son’s birth on the first post partum day, which behavior does the Nurse expect to find present?

*
1 point
a. Talkativeness and dependency
b. Autonomy and Independence
c. Disinterest in her own body function
d. Interest in learning to care for the baby
Situation – Nurse Lovely, a newly promoted senior nurse in Obstetrics ward (OB) is attending a seminar on management and leadership in preparation for her
work.
55. Nurse Lovely learns the five principles of goal setting in which the senior nurse must provide enough time for OB nurse to improve performance. This is
called__________

*
1 point
a. Challenge
b. Commitment
c. feedback
d. task complexity
56. The nurse also learns that continuous training is a personal as well as an organizational goal. Choose the statements that are true regarding continuous
training

1. Training employees is an excellent investment and a cost to an institution

2. Continuous training is more of a personal responsibility than institutional

3. Cross training and job rotation provide on-going part-time learning experience

4. Select the best people when hiring employees and invest their retention through continuous training

*
1 point
a. 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3
Situation: A Maternal-Child staff nurse is attending to the pregnant mothers with varied obstetric disorders. A comprehensive assessment was conducted. One of
the clients seeks further question regarding Placenta Previa.
57. Which of the following would be the physiologic basis for a Placenta Previa?

*
1 point
A. A loose placental implantation.
B. Low placental implantation.
C. A placenta with multiple lobes.
D. A uterus with a midseptum.
58. A patient diagnosed with Placenta Previa should be given specific instruction before discharge from the hospital. To ensure standards of nursing practice,
which among the following should be considered by the nurse as part of instruction to the client?

*
1 point
A. Eat a low calorie diet
B. May resume with regular exercise if minimal bleeding has been noted.
C. Avoid sexual intercourse.
D. Avoid intake of spicy foods.- hemorrhoids
59. Another pregnant mother wants to be clarified on her laboratory studies which reveals blood Type -A and she is Rh negative. Problems related to
incompatibility may develop in her infant if the infant is:

*
1 point
A. Type O
B. Rh positive
C. Delivered preterm
D. Type B, Rh negative
60. An Obstetric nurse is assessing a 39 year old pregnant woman who is married to an American citizen and Rh negative, is seen by the Physician during the
first trimester of pregnancy. A test to detect presence of antibodies was conducted to her. The nurse’s teaching is effective if the client understands that she will
first receive Rho (D) immunoglobulin (RhIg):

*
1 point
A. If the result of Indirect Coomb’s test is positive
B. If the result of Indirect Coomb’s test is negative
C. If the result of Direct Coomb’s test is positive
D. If the result of Direct Coomb’s test is negative
61. During the prenatal visit the Nurse explains further to a client who is Rh negative that RhogGAM will be administered:

*
1 point
a. Weekly during the ninth month, because this is her third pregnancy
b. Within 72 hours after delivery if infant is found to be Rh positive
c. During the second trimester , if an Amniocentesis indicates a problem
d. To her infant , immediately after delivery if the Coomb’s test is positive
Situation: As a Pediatric Nurse you are confronted with varied concerns regarding growth and development from parents, teachers, and children. The nurse
recognizes the need for health supervision and anticipatory guidance for these groups.
62. The best way for an infant’s father to help his child complete the developmental task of the first year is to:

*
1 point
A. expose her to many caregivers to help her learn variability.
B. talk to her at a special time each day.
C. respond to her consistently.
D. keep her stimulated with many toys.
63. Whenever the parents of a 10-month-old leave their hospitalized child for short periods, he begins to cry and scream. The nurse explains that this behavior
demonstrates that the child:

*
1 point
A. Needs to remain with his parents at all times.
B. Is experiencing separation anxiety.
C. Is experiencing discomfort.
D. Is extremely spoiled.
64. Dennis, a preschooler sees you pour his liquid medicine from a tall, thin glass into a short, wide one, he will probably reason that:

*
1 point
A. the amount of medicine is less (the glass is not as full).
B. the amount of medicine did not change, only the appearance.
C. pouring medicine hurts it in some way because it changes.
D. the glass changed shape to accommodate the medicine.
65. A school nurse prepares a lecture on Puberty changes for first year high school girls. She asks the group, "What is the first sign of Puberty?" A student
correctly replies :

*
1 point
A. "The appearance of breast buds."
B. "An increase in energy and appetite."
C. "The occurrence of the first menarche."
D. "Appearance of body odor."
66. When encouraging the hospitalized physically challenged or chronically ill adolescent to develop and maintain a sense of identity, you would:

*
1 point
A. provide the opportunity for individual decision making.
B. provide physical comfort to the individual.
C. ask the parents what the adolescent is capable of doing.
D. provide care until the adolescent insists on being independent.
Situation: Nurse Paterno a Pediatric Nurse enjoys taking care of children in the ward even though it is so difficult and takes so much time to attend to their
needs.
67. Elvis 8 months old was diagnosed with Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) and is managed inside a mist tent. As Nurse Paterno conducts assessment,
which of the following observations would lead her to suspect that airway occlusion is occurring?

*
1 point
A. He states he is tired and wants to sleep.
B. His respiratory rate is gradually increasing.
C. His cough is becoming harsher.
D. His nasal discharge is increasing.
68. A child is scheduled for a Myringotomy with placement of Tympanostomy tube. What is the goal of this procedure that Nurse Paterno will discuss with the
parents?

*
1 point
A. To decrease infection in the ear
B. To irrigate the eustachian tube
C. To correct a malformation in the inner ear
D. To equalize pressure in the tympanic membrane
69. An 8 year old female child was admitted in the hospital with medical diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic fever. When obtaining a health history from the child’s
mother, the nurse should ask the questions to determine if the child was recently ill with:

*
1 point
A. Mumps
B. Measles
C. a viral flu
D. a sore throat
70. You would teach the mother of a boy with Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) that if he suddenly becomes cyanotic and dyspneic to:

*
1 point
A. place him in a semi-Fowler’s position in an infant seat.
B. lie him supine with the head turned to one side.
C. lie him prone, being sure he can breathe easily.
D. place him in a knee-chest position.
71. Dyspnea, cough, weight gain, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which condition?

*
1 point
A. Pericarditis
B. Hypertension
C. Myocardial infarction (MI)
D. Heart failure
Situation: There are varied Pediatric disorders that require comprehensive assessment and nursing interventions. The following scenarios refer to health
problems of children.
72. A 5-week-old infant is brought to the pediatrician’s office with symptoms of irritability, weight loss, and projectile vomiting. On physical examination, the infant
appears dehydrated. From these symptoms, you know that the infant probably has:

*
1 point
A. Hirschsprung’s disease
B. Tracheoesophageal Fistula
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Intussusception
73. Pediatric Nurse admitted a post cleft palate repair child and immediately the nurse should position the child:

*
1 point
A. Left side lying.
B. Prone.
C. Dorsal recumbent.
D. Semi Fowler's.
74. Upon interviewing the parents of the child with Acute Glomerulonephritis, the nurse understands that which information collected is most often associated
with this condition?

*
1 point
A. Nausea and vomiting for the last 24 hours
B. Streptococcal throat infection 2 weeks prior to diagnosis
C. History of urinary tract infection for 5 days
D. Pruritus for 1 week prior to diagnosis
75. A newly admitted 5-year old child in the Pediatric ward is diagnosed with Wilm’s Tumor. Upon initial interview, the nurse would be most concerned about
which statement by the child’s mother?
*
1 point
My child has lost 3 pounds in the last month.
B. Urinary output seemed to be less over the past 2 days.
C. All the pants have become tight around the waist.
D. The child prefers some salty foods more than others.
Situation – Ela, 21 years old, is a law graduate. She wants to review for the Bar but thinks she is pregnant. She said she has regular menses but does not know
when ovulation usually occurs. This have something to do her fertility period during her last sexual intercourse with her husband.
76. As a nurse, what would you tell Ela regarding ovulation? The ovulation usually corresponds to the life of the corpus luteum which occurs approximately
_______________.

*
1 point
A. 14 days after the first day of the succeeding menstrual
B. 7 days after the first day of the succeeding menstrual
C. 7 days before the first day of the succeeding menstrual
D. 14 days before the first day of the succeeding menstrual
77. Ela insisted she might have been fertile during the time of sexual intercourse. The nurse explains that absolute period of fertility is the span of time that a
woman is likely to be pregnant when she engages in unprotected sex______.

*
1 point
A. Several days after ovulation
B. During ovulation
C. Immediately after ovulation
D. Immediately before ovulation
78. The nurse proceeded to take the menstrual history of Ela to find out if she is likely to be pregnant. Which of the following determines the date of onset of last
menstrual period (LPM)? It is the ___________.

*
1 point
A. Duration and character of the LMP
B. Implantation bleeding
C. Spotting after the LMP
D. Bleeding before the last menstrual period (LMP)
79. The nurse also asked about Ela’s secondary amenorrhea that would most likely indicate her pregnancy. Secondary amenorrhea is cessation of menses for
more than_______ months, after regular menstrual cycle has been established.

*
1 point
a. Five
b. Three
c. six
d. four
80. The nurse also asked for presence of secondary dysmenorrhea. Which of the following conditions is not INCLUDED under secondary dysmenorrhea?

*
1 point
A. Intra-uterine device (IUD)
B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
C. Malposition of the cervix
D. Absence of any underlying anatomic abnormality
81. Carla another patient in the clinic just found out that she is pregnant. She asks when would be her delivery date. What is the expected date of confinement
(EDC) of a pregnant woman whose menstruation was from April 10 to April 13?

*
1 point
A. January 17
B. January 20
C. July 17
D. July 20
82. The nurse noted the Fundic height of Anna is at the level of the umbilicus. In documenting the data using Bartholomew’s rule, the most probable age of
gestation (AOG) in week is :

*
1 point
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 32 weeks
Situation: A newly married couple Berta and Bart wants to practice Family Planning to prepare a good future for their family. Nurse Bing a Family Planning
Counselor is planning a lecture regarding the different methods of family planning.
83. Which of the following family planning method which identifies the fertile and infertile days of the menstrual cycle as determined through a combination of
observations made on the cervical mucus, basal body temp recording and other signs of ovulation?

*
1 point
A. Basal Body Temperature
B. Standard Days Method
C. Sympto-thermal Method
D. Lactational Amenorrhea Method
84. During a family planning seminar conducted in the Barangay Health Center, Nurse Bing was asked by Berta, a married woman who wants to try using
contraceptives, if it is true that contraceptives will render couples sterile. Nurse Bing’s response should be:

*
1 point
A. “Yes, It’s true.”
B. “Yes, If you are already using it for more than 3 months.”
C. “No, It will not cause sterility if you are also using condoms.”
D. “No, Once you stop using the contraceptive method, you can have children again.”
85. Bart the husband further asked Nurse Bing if contraceptive methods will result in loss of sexual desire. Nurse Bing’s most appropriate response would be:

*
1 point
A. “No, but it will make you uncomfortable with your sexual relationship.”
B. “Yes, it causes lack of sexual desire of the male partner.”
C. “Yes, it causes lack of sexual desire of the female partner.’
D. “No, it can actually enhance you sexual relationship.”
86. In a CHN class, a student asked Mr. Pablo, the Clinical Instructor, if family planning methods can cause abortion. As an instructor, Mr. Pablo’s response
should be:

*
1 point
A. “No, family planning prevents pregnancy, but it does not terminate pregnancy."
B. “No, family planning puts a pregnant woman at risk for miscarriage, but not abortion.”
C. “Yes, family planning can cause abortion.”
D. “Yes, if the couple is using the artificial methods of family planning.”
87. Mackle-More, a Public Health Nurse (PHN), is assigned in conducting seminars on Family Planning Program in the different Barangays. She is aware that
the roles of PHNs on Family Planning Program are the following EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Provide counseling among the clients to help increase family planning acceptors and avoid defaulters.
B. Ensure availability of family planning supplies and logistics for the PHNs and other barangay health workers only.
C. Provide packages of health services among reproductive age group in all health facilities.
D. Inform the clients about the importance and benefits/advantages/disadvantages of family planning.
88. Nurse Dorothy is preparing to administer vaccinations to children. She knows that the following are correct EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. The vaccination schedule should not be restarted from the beginning even if the interval between doses exceeded the recommended interval by months or
years.
B. Giving doses of a vaccine at less than the recommended 4 weeks interval may lessen the antibody response.
C. Lengthening the interval between doses of vaccines leads to higher antibody levels.
D. Use one syringe one needle for all the children receiving the same vaccination.
89. Rose, a mother of a 7-month-old baby, is asking the nurse in the Health Center regarding the 7 vaccine preventable diseases. All of the following diseases
are included EXCEPT:

*
1 point
A. Diphtheria
B. Measles
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Dengue
90. Kurt, 4 years old, has Measles. His mother asks the nurse if there is a chance that Kurt will contract the virus again. The nurse’s response should be based
on her knowledge that:

*
1 point
A. reactivation of old infection is common with Measles.
B. immunity from Measles is lifelong after the first attack.
C. no immunity is induced by the infection.
D. immunity from Measles is just for 6 months after the first attack.
91. When can you say that a child is already a “Fully Immunized Child”?

*
1 point
A. If he received one dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 2 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB and one dose of measles before his/her first birthday.
B. If he received two doses of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB and one dose of measles before his/her first birthday.
C. If he received one dose of BCG, 2 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB and one dose of measles before his/her first birthday.
D. If he received one dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of HB and one dose of measles before his/her first birthday.
92. Annabelle, a new mother, asks the nurse about the purpose of the first BCG vaccination given to her son. The nurse’s best response should be:

*
1 point
A. “An early start with BCG reduces the chance of severe pertussis.”
B. “The extent of protection against polio is increased the earlier the BCG is given.”
C. “BCG given at earliest possible age protects the possibility of TB meningitis and other TB infections in which infants are prone.”
D. “An early start of BCG reduces the chance of being infected and becoming a carrier. It prevents liver cirrhosis and liver cancer.”
93. Tsaang Gubat is used to treat which of the following?

*
1 point
A. Diarrhea and Stomachache
B. Cough and Fever
C. Colds and Pain
D. Hypertension
94. Niyug-niyogan is an:

*
1 point
A. Analgesic
B. Anti-helminthic
C. Anti-hypertensive
D. Anti-gout
95. Ulasimang Bato or Pansit-pansitan is used to:

*
1 point
A. lower cholesterol levels
B. lower blood sugar levels
C. lower ammonia levels
D. lower uric acid levels
96. This refers to a drug outlet managed by a legitimate community organization, non-government organization, and the local government unit with a trained
operator and a supervising pharmacist, and specifically licensed by the Bureau of Food and Drugs to sell, distribute, offer for sale, and or make available low-
priced generic home remedies, Over the Counter (OTC) drugs, antibiotics, and medication for chronic diseases.

*
1 point
A. Mercury drugs
B. Right Med
C. Generic Pharmacy
D. Botika ng Barangay
97. One strategy to address the problem in a poor Barangay aside from Herbal Plants is food production. Which of the following is a priority?

*
1 point
A. A community managed poultry and piggery
B. Planting plenty of Malunggay
C. Planting tomatoes and eggplants in containers
D. Engaging in a home –based food processing business
Situation: Student Nurse Natividad’s favorite subject is Nursing Research. Because she is about to take her board examination in a few days, she brushes up
her knowledge on nursing research.
98. In conducting researches, obtaining an informed consent is an important procedure. SN Natividad knows that consents in researches include which among
the following? Select all that apply

i. Participant status

ii. Number of people participating

iii. Type of data that will be collected

iv. Nature of commitment (i.e. expected time commitment, # of contacts, etc)

v. Compensations/reimbursements

vi. Contact information of the researcher

*
1 point
a. i, ii, iv, vi
b. i, iv, v, vi
c. i, iii, v, vi
d. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
99. What is the primary purpose of conducting pilot/feasibility studies?

*
1 point
a. To prevent expensive fiascos in a future, large-scale study
b. To answer the research question
c. To gather more research stipends from sponsoring organizations
d. To test the null and alternative hypotheses
100. What makes quasi-experimental design different from experimental design?
*
1 point
a. It lacks randomized sampling method.
b. It lacks an intervention group.
c. It utilizes randomization of subjects.
d. It lacks randomization of assignment to treatment or control.