1.

The helminth that induces a microcytic hypochromic anemia in its host is:
a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Enterobius vermicularis
2. Which of the following nematodes are associated with heart to lung migration?
a. Necator americanus
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Strongyloides stercoralis
d. All of these

3. All of these parasites are sheathed, EXCEPT:

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Loa loa
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Brugia malayi

4. Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by:

a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Brugia malayi
c. Ancylostoma caninum
d. Toxocara canis

5. Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of
the heart in humans?
a. Canine heartworm
b. Pudoc worm
c. Dog hookworm
d. Herring’s worm

6. What is a schistosomule?
a. Cercariae
b. Cercariae minus tail
c. Free-swimming cercariae
d. Metacercariae

7. Examination of sputum may be necessary to diagnose infection with:

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Fasciola hepatica
d. Wuchereria bancrofti

8. The miracidial hatching test helps to demonstrate the viability of eggs of:
a. Tapeworms
b. Blood flukes
c. Hookworms
 d. Liver flukes

9. It the smallest but deadliest fluke of man:

a. Garrison’s fluke
b. Von Siebold’s fluke
c. Sheep liver fluke
d. Chinese liver fluke

10. Snails with a scientific name of Oncomelania quadrasi is an intermediate host of:
a. Fasciolopsis buski
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Echinostoma ilocanum

11. Which of the following tapeworms has an unarmed scolex?

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Dipylidium caninum

12. Cestode associated with neurocysticercosis:

a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Hymenolepis diminuta

13. A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus:
a. Diphyllobothrium
b. Taenia
c. Trichuris
d. Ascaris

14. Infective stage ofDiphyllobothrium latum to humans:

a. Plerocercoid
b. Cysticercus
c. Embryonated egg
d. Coracidium

15. This is considered as the shortest tapeworm which possesses only 3 segments:
a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
16. This amebic cyst has an average size of 6 to 8 μm and is usually spherical. When mature, it has 4
nuclei but immature cysts with one or two nuclei are often seen. The nuclei have fine, uniform granules
of peripheral chromatin and small discrete, usually central karyosomes. Chromatoidal bars with bluntly
rounded ends are sometimes present. This amebic cyst is most likely:
a. Endolimax nana
b. Entamoeba hartmanni
c. Entamoeba coli
d. Entamoeba histolytica

17. Granulomatous amebic encephalitis and keratitis are usually caused by:
a. Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

18. In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stippling be found?

a. Vivax
b. Malariae
c. Ovale
d. Falciparum

19. In the laboratory diagnosis ofLeishmania donovani, which is the preferred specimen in which to find
Leishman-Donovan bodies?
a. Blood
b. Vaginal secretions
c. CSF
d. Bone marrow

20. Steatorrhea and Gay bowel syndrome are associated with what parasite?
a. Trichomonas hominis
b. Chilomastix mesnili
c. Giardia lamblia
d. Trypanosoma cruzi

21. Causative agent of “crabs”

a. Sarcoptes scabei
b. Pthirus pubis
c. Musca domestica
d. Periplaneta Americana

22. The incorrect match between method and method objective is:
a. Direct wet examination and detection of organism motility
b. Knott concentration and the recovery of operculated helminth eggs
c. Baermann concentration and the recovery of Strongyloides
d. Permanent stained fecal smear and confirmation of protozoa
23. The formalin-ether (ethyl acetate) concentration procedure for feces is used to demonstrate:
a. Motility of helminth larvae
b. Protozoan cysts and helminth eggs
c. Formation of amoebic pseudopods
d. Trophozoites

24. Oocysts of Cryptosporidium parvum can be detected in stool specimens using:

a. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain
b. Gram stain
c. Trichrome stain
d. Methenamine silver stain

25. Harada-Mori technique is used for:

a. Concentration of worm eggs in feces
b. Staining protozoal cysts
c. Culture of feces to obtain hookworm larvae
d. Staining blood smears

26. Quantitative estimates of worm parasite load can be obtained using:

1. Scotch tape technique 3. Kato technique
2. Stoll dilution technique 4. Fecal smear
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2 only

27. Which of the following is a mercury-containing fixative used to preserve parasites in stool
specimens?
a. Formalin
b. Sodium acetate
c. Buffered glycerol
d. Polyvinyl alcohol

28. The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method is:
a. 1.01
b. 1.04
c. 1.18
d. 1.48

29. The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for more than 1 hour is:
a. Freezer temperature
b. Refrigerator temperature
c. Room temperature
d. Incubator temperature
30. What constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test?
a. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile
b. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism
c. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye
d. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected does not die from toxoplasmosis
31. Best Quality control in parasitology Laboratory

b. Hanging drop from preserved stools

c. Parasitology atlas
d. all
32. In order to demonstrate of the encapsulated yeast Cryptococcus neoformans in wet preparations of
patient specimens, what should be used?
a. Methylene blue
b. India Ink
c. Malachite green
d. Safranin
33. Which of the following parasite larva can be isolated in sputum?
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Taenia saginata
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
34. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic infection and their corresponding
causative agent. Which of the following is correctly matched?
a. Harada Mori Technique and Capillaria philippinensis
b. Xenodiagnosis and Leishmania
c. Knott’s technique and microfilariae
d. Sellotape Method and Trichuris trichiura
35. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting:
a. A 24-hour urine collection
b. A first morning stool with proper preservative
c. Capillary blood
d. A scotchtape collected from the perianal region
36. Heart-lung migration except:
I. Roundworm
II. Whipworm
III. Hookworm
IV. Seatworm
a. only one of the choices
b. two of the choices
c. three of the choices
d. all of the choices
37. Diphyllobothrium latum adult resembles the adult form of:
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Taenia saginata
d. Spirometra
38. Second intermediate host of Paragonimus westermani:
a. Snail
b. Fish
c. Fresh water crab
d. Vegetation
39. What is a schistosomule?
a. A cercaria minus the tail
b. Cercaria minus a head
c. Metacercaria
d. Cercaria with a tail
40. The third teania spp.:
A. T. asiatica
b. T. crassiceps
c. T. taeniaeformis
d. T. saginata
41. The definitive host to Plasmodium is the:
a. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus)
c. Mosquito (female anopheles)
d. Reduviid bug (Male Triatoma)
42. What is the infective stage of Leishmania spp. to humans?
a. Amastigote
b. Trypomastigote
c. Promastigote
d. Sporozoites
43. Gravid segments contain?
a. Male reproductive organ
b. Female reproductive organ
c. Eggs
d. Scolex
44. Recovered from cestodes in stool are?
proglottids
b. Ova and scolex only
c. Ova and proglottids only
d. Ova, proglottids and scolex
45. The incorrect match between organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedure is:
A. Onchocerca volvulus—examination of skin snips
B. Cryptosporidium—modified acid-fast stain
C. Echinococcus granulosus—routine ova and parasite examination
D. Schistosoma haematobium—examination of urine sediment

46. Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool?
A. Formalin concentrate
B. Trichrome-stained smear
C. Modified acid-fast–stained smear
D. Giemsa’s stain
47. Examination of 24-hour unpreserved urine specimen is sometimes helpful in the recovery of:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
B. Schistosoma haematobium eggs
C. Enterobius vermicularis eggs
D. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae
48. An operculated cestode egg that can be recovered from human feces is:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Dipylidium caninum
49. Massive hemolysis, blackwater fever, and central nervous system involvement are most common
with:
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae
50. Fecal immunoassays have become more commonly used to diagnose infections with:
A. Endolimax nana and Blastocystis hominis
B. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.
C. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichuris trichiura
D. Strongyloides stercoralis and Trichomonas vaginalis
51. The incorrect match between symptoms and disease is:
A. Dysentery—amebiasis
B. Malabsorption syndrome—giardiasis
C. Cardiac involvement—chronic Chagas disease
D. Myalgias—trichuriasis
52. There are few procedures considered STAT in parasitology. The most obvious situation would be:
A. Ova and parasite examination for giardiasis
B. Baermann’s concentration for strongyloidiasis
C. Blood films for malaria
D. Culture of amoebic keratitis
53. A 45-year-old hunter developed fever, myalgia, and periorbital edema. He has a history of bear meat
consumption. The most likely causative agent is:
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Taenia solium
C. Hymenolepis nana
D. Trichinella spiralis
54. In an outbreak of diarrheal disease traced to a municipal water supply, the most likely causative
agent is:
A. Cryptosporidium spp.
B. Cystoisospora belli
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Dientamoeba fragilis
55. After returning from a 2-year stay in India, a patient has eosinophilia, an enlarged left spermatic
cord, and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most likely clinical specimen and organism match is:
A. Thin blood films—Leishmania
B. Urine—concentration for Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Thin blood films—Babesia
D. Thick blood films—microfilariae
56. Microsporidial infections can be confirmed using:
A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains
B. Phase contrast microscopy and routine trichrome stains
C. Electron microscopy and modified acid-fast stains
D. Fluorescence microscopy and hematoxylin stains
57. Older developing stages (trophs, schizonts) of the fifth human malaria, Plasmodium knowlesi,
resemble those of:
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium vivax
58. The term internal autoinfection can be associated with the following parasites:
A. Cryptosporidium spp. and Giardia lamblia
B. Cystoisospora belli and Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Cryptosporidium spp. and Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Giardia lamblia and Cystoisospora belli
59. Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis?
A. The adult worm is present in the blood
B. The microfilariae are in the blood during the late evening hours
C. The diagnostic test of choice is the skin snip
D. The parasite resides in the deep lymphatics
60. Which parasite causes eosinophilic meningoencephalitis, a form of larva migrans causing fever,
headache, stiff neck, and increased cells in the spinal fluid?
A. Necator americanus
B. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
C. Ancylostoma braziliense
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
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