CLAT Rehearsal

LPTSM-013-10023
Explanation

Section I: English
1. Answer: C 2. Answer: D 3. Answer: A 4. Answer: D

5. Answer: B
Explanation: See the second para.
6. Answer: C
Explanation: See the beginning of the first para.
7. Answer: C
Explanation: This can be understood from the general structure of the passage.
8. Answer: B
Explanation: See the last para.
9. Answer: A
Explanation:
10. Answer: B
Explanation: See the second para.
11. Answer: A
Explanation: ‘Some athletes when….’
12. Answer: C
Explanation: The author writes, “it did amuse me enormously to watch the W’s.” It is no single character
that evokes the drama of life, but their collectively taken appearances and actions. Choice D is irrelevant,
choice B is not conveyed, for example, through allusion to drama or the stage, and choices A belong to the
host of activities the narrator observes.

13. Answer: D
Explanation: Choices A and B are inaccurate: the narrator writes with amusement and an eye for detail, but
inflects little passion in his observation. He does not write with deep sympathy or affection. The narrator
does seem to apologize for his lengthy description, but most of his writing is descriptive and observational,
not repentant.

14. Answer: B
Explanation: Choice A is incorrect because the passage is clearly excerpted from the beginning of the
narrative. The author does foreshadow the end of Wendy’s childhood and her inevitable growing up, yet the
bulk of the passage does not explore this further, therefore choice C is not the best choice. There is little
appeal to sympathy, and Mrs. Darling’s outcry, “Oh, why can’t you remain like this forever!” is not the focus
of the passage, so choice D misses the mark.

15. Answer: D
Explanation: There is no concrete evidence of choices A, B, or C. Choice D is therefore the best answer,
and the passage supports the notion that her mouth possess a special kiss that neither her daughter nor
husband can attain, and in this way her mouth seems to mock them.
16. Answer: A
Explanation: Choice A is the best-supported choice: The narrator notes, “Until Wendy came, her mother
was the chief one,” and further describes Mrs. Darling as a woman who will not compromise. Both Mr.
Darling and Wendy are seemingly unable to access the full extent of Mrs. Darling’s affection. The description
of Mrs. Darling’s mind as “like the tiny boxes, one within the other, that come from the puzzling East”
suggests she is a woman with many layers, is impossible to fully understand, and to this end has even a
foreign quality to her. B is incorrect as nothing about her denial of her husband or daughter appears to be
accidental. Choice C’s “absent-minded” descriptor could be reasonable, yet “romantic” is not in this case the
same as “artistic”, and there is no evidence of Mrs. Darling’s artistic ability. Again, in light of Mr. Darling
giving up on the elusive kiss, choice D could be reasonable, however there is nothing to suggest a serious
problem is present in the matrimony.

17. Answer: B
Explanation: When someone is avid about something that means they are highly interested in the subject.
The context clues are dull and boring, because they define the opposite of avid.

18. Answer: A
Explanation: The author is using a simile to compare the books to medicine. Medicine is what you take
when you want to feel better. They are suggesting that if you want to feel good, they should read Dr. Seuss’
books.
Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention of a doctor’s office. Choice C is incorrect because it is
using the literal meaning of medicine and the author is using medicine in a figurative way. Choice D is
incorrect because it makes no sense.

19. Answer: D
Explanation: The publisher is described as intelligent because he knew to get in touch with a famous
author to develop a book that children would be interested in reading.
Choice A is incorrect because we can assume that all book publishers must know how to read. Choice B is
incorrect because it says in the article that more than one publisher was concerned whether children liked to
read. Choice D is incorrect because there is no mention in the article about how well The Cat in the Hat sold
when it was first published.

20. Answer: B
Explanation: The passage describes in detail how Dr. Seuss had a great effect on the lives of children
through his writing. It names several of his books, tells how he helped children become avid readers and
explains his style of writing. Choice A is incorrect because that is just one single fact about the passage.
Choice C is incorrect because that is just one single fact about the passage. Choice D is incorrect because
that is just one single fact about the passage. Again, choice B is correct because it encompasses ALL the
facts in the passage, not just one single fact.

21. Answer: A
Explanation: We know that an annex is like an attic because the text states the annex was above Otto
Frank’s building.
Choice B is incorrect because an office building doesn’t have bedrooms. Choice C is incorrect because a
basement would be below the office building. Choice D is incorrect because there would not be a kitchen in
an office building.

22. Answer: B
Explanation: The diary has been published in 55 languages so people all over the world can learn about
Anne. That is why the passage says it has been continuously in print.
Choice A is incorrect because it is too vague. Choice C is incorrect because it was published after Anne died
and she did not write in all three languages. Choice D is incorrect because the passage does not give us
any information about what languages Otto Frank spoke.
23. Answer: C
Explanation: Use the process of elimination to figure this out. Choice A cannot be the correct answer
because otherwise the passage would have simply said that Anne and Margot both died of starvation.
Choices B and D cannot be correct because if the Germans had done something specifically to
murder Anne, the passage would have stated that directly. By the process of elimination, choice C has to be
the correct answer.

24. Answer: D
Explanation: We can figure this out using context clues. The paragraph is talking about Anne’s diary and
so, outlet in this instance is a place where Anne can pour her feelings.
Choice A is incorrect answer. That is the literal meaning of the word outlet and the passage is using the
figurative meaning. Choice B is incorrect because that is the secondary literal meaning of the word outlet, as
in an outlet mall. Again, we are looking for figurative meaning. Choice C is incorrect because there are no
clues in the text to support that answer.

25. Answer: A
Explanation: Helen’s parents hired Anne to teach Helen to communicate.
Choice B is incorrect because the passage states Anne had trouble finding her way around, which means
she could walk. Choice C is incorrect because you don’t hire a teacher to teach someone to play. Choice D
is incorrect because by age 6, if Helen had never eaten, she would have starved to death.

26. Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer because that fact is stated directly in the passage. The passage explains
that Anne taught Helen to hear by allowing her to feel the vibrations in her throat.

27. Answer: A
Explanation: We can infer that Anne is a patient teacher because she did not leave or lose her temper
when Helen bit or hit her; she just kept trying to teach Helen. Choice B is incorrect because Anne taught
Helen to read and talk. Choice C is incorrect because Anne could hear. She was partially blind, not deaf.
Choice D is incorrect because it does not have to do with patience.

28. Answer: B
Explanation: The passage states that it was hard for anyone but Anne to understand Helen when she
spoke. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not mention Helen spoke a foreign language.
Choice C is incorrect because there is no mention of how quiet or loud Helen’s voice was. Choice D is
incorrect because we know from reading the passage that Helen did learn to speak.

29. Answer: C
Explanation: This statement is a very low level inference that logically closes the paragraph. The paragraph
is not sufficient to establish the link as in Option (a). Option (b) goes farther away from the paragraph.
Option (d) is unrelated to the purpose of the paragraph.

30. Answer: D
Explanation: The purpose of the paragraph is defined by the first sentence itself, that the achievement is
mixed. However, no example or idea exists in the paragraph to make it mixed. What is stated is positive.
The last sentence, hence, needs to state something to the contrary to complete the paragraph. Options (a),
(c), and (d) qualify for the answer options from this point of view. Option (b) does not help to complete the
paragraph. Option (c) is correct-can even be the answer in the absence of Option (d). Option (d) puts the
whole scheme in perspective. Option (c) draws attention to a specific deficiency of the scheme. Hence
Option (d) scores.
 Section II: Logical Reasoning
31. Answer: B 32. Answer: C 33. Answer: C 34. Answer: C 35. Answer: C

36. Answer: D
Explanation: (a) Incorrect. This statement explains how a bank failure may occur, but it is not a necessary
assumption for the economists’ argument about how depositors choose a bank.
(b) Incorrect. The argument never discusses multiple accounts, so this statement cannot be assumed.
(c) Incorrect, The economist argues that depositors are not careful in selecting banks; this statement
contradicts that position, at least for some depositors, so it cannot possible by assumed.
(d) Correct. The economist argues that banks would have to be more secure in a competitive environment
with more discriminating depositors. The economist encourages potential depositors to be more selective in
choosing a bank and therefore must believe that they know what makes a bank secure against failure. Only
with this knowledge could depositors choose the best bank.

37. Answer: B
Explanation: Incorrect. If there was a lower rate of bank failure before the government insured the deposits,
then the economists’ argument is supported not weakened.
(b) Correct. The economist identifies insurance of deposits as a partial cause of the high rate of bank
failures, citing depositors’ complacency regarding the safety of their savings and their resultant lack of
concern about the banks being secure. If banks often failed because the depositors acted on their fears that
their savings were in jeopardy, then the economists’ conclusion blaming the programme is weakened.
(c) Incorrect. The knowledge that their deposits are insured no matter which bank they choose may lead
depositors to be less selective in their choice of a bank; this statement supports rather than weakens the
argument.
(d) Incorrect, Since most depositors are covered by insurance, they can continue to be less selective in their
choice of the bank, and thus once again the argument is not weakened.

38. Answer: D
Explanation: (a) Incorrect. Not all countries import oil; for those that do, maintaining the level of oil imports
when prices fluctuate would affect the company.
(b) Incorrect. The number of oil tankers is irrelevant to the effect on the company.
(c) Incorrect. The diplomatic relationship among countries is irrelevant to the effect on the company.
(d) Correct. All open market countries experience a rise in oil prices even when they do not import oil. Thus,
importing oil is not the issue. A nation can soften the impact of price hikes by using less oil because
decreasing oil consumption would decrease the need to purchase oil at increased prices; conservation is
away to lower consumption.

39. Answer: C
Explanation: (a) Incorrect. The passage gives no information about domestic producers of oil, so no
conclusion about them can be drawn.
(b) Incorrect. This is a direct contradiction of the information in the passage.
(c) Correct. The passage says that domestic oil prices rise when international oil prices rise. Thus any open
market country, even one that produces most of the oil it uses, is a participant in the international market
rather than functioning independently of that market.
(d) Incorrect. This contradicts the passage by saying that domestic prices remain stable when international
prices rise.

40. Answer: A 41. Answer: D 42. Answer: B 43. Answer: C 44. Answer: D

45. Answer: A
Explanation: The passage tells us that the ‘host state’ on account of a new regulation was the front runner
‘for the national title. Hence, the given statement, which rephrases this idea, is definitely true.

46. Answer: B
 Explanation: The passage tells us that Services lost to Kerala in the semi-finals of the Santhosh tropy,
which means that Kerala was a finalist and hence chances of it being the winner are bright. However, we
cannot conclusively say that it was the winner, though we could say that it ‘could be’ true, Hence, the given
statement, though not conclusively true, is tending towards it, hence it is probably true.

47. Answer: B
Explanation: The passage speaks of only one incident. However, towards the end, the author passes a
judgement saying that the days of true sportsmanship are over. This is possible only when the author would
have witnessed a trend of similar incidents. Thus we could say it is probably true, since the passage does
not given conclusive evidence in support of this but only provides a pointer.

48. Answer: C
Explanation: As per the passage, we have no idea as to why sportsmanship has decreased and as such
we cannot infer anything about the reasons. The statement in the question ascribes this to cut-throat
competition and lucrative paybacks, both of which are not substantiated in the given passage, hence data is
inadequate.

49. Answer: D
Explanation: The passage points to the fact that Services were peeved at the quality of refrying on display
and the partisan crowds and, hence, they showed their disgust by not accepting their medals. However, the
passage does not link the refereeing aspect directly to the Service team’s not accepting medals, hence the
given statement is probably false.

50. Answer: A
Explanation: Course of action I and III are negative courses of actions. Here the problem is regarding
pests. As the course of action II says about the research which will help to produce hybrid varieties which
are strong enough to fight against pests, hence it follows.

51. Answer: C
Explanation: The last statement in the passage speaks about the growing challenge of reducing economic
and social inequality. This is likely to lead towards the continuing problem of poverty. Therefore, option C
seems to be the most logical conclusion. The other options are also relevant in the context of the passage
but they do not follow the flow of writing of the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option C.

52. Answer: B
Explanation: The author makes the argument “Liberal economic policies are responsible for the strong
economic growth in the last decade.” This is best supported by option b which provides data directly related
to the effects of liberalization. Options A and E are irrelevant with respect to the argument. Option C does
not support the argument. Option D is in favour of the argument but does not support it strongly. Hence, the
correct answer is option B.

53. Answer: D
Explanation: The author has described several developments in the Indian economy in the passage. At the
end of the passage the author says that there is still a growing challenge of reducing social and economic
inequality. We can say that the author has assumed that the economic growth has not benefited al sections
of society if he says that the problem of inequality is growing. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

54. Answer: B
Explanation: The author makes the argument “India can increase its per-capita income by at least 100% in
the next decade by concentrating on product manufacturing instead of services”. Here, you can see that
option B will most weaken this argument because if India’s strength is more suitable to the service industry
which is also very lucrative globally then the author’s argument for concentrating on product manufacturing
is not valid. Option D says that profit margins in manufacturing are higher. This is actually supporting the
argument rather than weakening it. None of the other options compare the relative benefits of the service
industry as compared to manufacturing. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

55. Answer: B
 Explanation: The main theme of the passage is India economy, the latest trends and the effects of liberal
policies on society at large in India. It relies on economic data and tries to understand the implications of
certain economic policies implemented by the government over the past few years. These point towards
option B as the right answer.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

56. Answer: A 57. Answer: C 58. Answer: D 59. Answer: C

60. Answer: A
Explanation for Questions 56-60
Player P Q R S T
Game Hockey Polo Football Hockey Cricket
(National) (Regional)
Floor 4 3 2 3 5
Occupation Industrialist Engineer C.A Industrialist Lawyer
The age-wise sequence is Q > S > R > T > T.

Section III: Current Affairs & General Knowledge

61. Answer: B 62. Answer: A 63. Answer: B 64. Answer: B 65. Answer: B 66. Answer: B 67. Answer: C
68. Answer: B 69. Answer: D 70. Answer: A 71. Answer: C 72. Answer: B 73. Answer: A 74. Answer: A
75. Answer: A 76. Answer: C 77. Answer: B 78. Answer: A 79. Answer: C 80. Answer: D 81. Answer: A
82. Answer: A 83. Answer: C 84. Answer: B 85. Answer: A 86. Answer: C 87. Answer: D 88. Answer: C
89. Answer: B 90. Answer: B 91. Answer: B 92. Answer: C 93. Answer: C 94. Answer: B 95. Answer: B
96. Answer: D 97. Answer: C 98. Answer: B 99. Answer: B 100. Answer: C

Section IV: Legal Reasoning

101. Answer: B
Explanation: (a), (c) and (d) are against the purpose of the new law. Thus, option (b) is correct answer

102. Answer: A
Explanation: As clearly mentioned in the passage, the regulation is regarding new gold jewelleries only. (b),
(c) and (d) option are dealing with views against the given passage.

103. Answer: D
Explanation: is the answer as B and C mention reasons which are not relevant to the passage. Option a is
irrelevant.

104. Answer: C
Explanation: Answer is C as the government is providing with nearly 12 months time to jewellers for
registration, Option (a) is wrong as consumers have to watch out for 4 marks not 3.
Option (b) deals with other kind of metals not related to new law. Option (d) also deals with different material
not dealt with the new law.

105. Answer: A
Explanation: Both Radhe and Krishna Jewellers are in business of selling gold jewellery even after the
required date that is 15 January 2021 thus they have to register their business. Aakash and Vision do not
sale the required item of gold for registration.

106. Answer: C
Explanations: The para clearly states that the court believes in right to property as a legal right which is
subject to due process of law. A, B and D options are against the reasoning given by the court.
107. Answer: D
Explanation: Option (d) is the answer as Right to own property is a human/legal right and can only be
subjected to due process of law. Option (a), (b) and (c) are against the reasoning given in the para.

108. Answer: D
Explanation: In all the situations mentioned in the options, government authorities have acquired properties
without proper procedure established by law making all of them invalid acquisition that is, all these
acquisitions are not as per the procedure established by law.

109. Answer: B
Explanations: Self Explanatory. Option (a), (c) and (d) are against the reasoning of the court’s judgement.
110. Answer: A
Explanation: Option (a) is right, as when a government acquire property it has to be done through proper
procedure established by the law. The requirement o proper procedure was there before 1967 as well, thus
option (d) is not correct. Option (b) and (c) are irrelevant to the reasoning of the court.

111. Answer: D
Explanation: None of these given options are relevant to court’s reasoning in the above passage. Govt can
only acquire a property after following due process of law.

112. Answer: C
Explanation: (a) (b) (d) options are relevant to court’s reasoning in the above passage. Govt can only
acquire a property after following due process of law. Thus, (c)

113. Answer: A
Explanation: (a) Self Explanatory. (b) (c) and (d) are against the point of view explained in the passage.

114. Answer: D
Explanation: (d) As the government is gradually shifting to eco friendly vehicles none of the given reason in
(a) (b) or (c) are valid to strengthen Altaf’s execuse.

115. Answer: C
Explanation: (c) This is one of the major objects behind support the EV schemes in India. (a) (b) and (d) are
weakening governments stand not strengthening

116. Answer: C
Explanation: All are not the matter of concern for the new law. Even option (c) deals with a car
manufacturer which is not exactly a electric vehicle as it is still dealing with pollution being caused by fuel.

117. Answer: B
Explanation: (b) if true, would strengthen the argument of company that they should also get the incentives
being provided for e vehicle as it is their method through which users have converted to eco friendly engines
switching from fuel based engines. (a) is not strengthening, it is just same statement repeated as mentioned
in the question. (c) says some standards of e-vehichle are satisfied not all. (d) is unrelated to the
passage/question.

118. Answer: A
Explanation: Infra building is done by both govt and manufacturers. Thus, it cannot be attributed to
manufacturers of engines. Therefore it is not rightly weakening company’s case. Rather (a) option suggests
that it is not an e vehicle manufacturer and thus cannot claim the benefits meant for such manufactures only.
(b) and (c) are strengthening not weakening. So, correct answer is (a).

119. Answer: C
Explanation: The government tries to achieve the goal of environment and introduction of e-vehicles.

120. Answer: D
Explanation: Self Explanatory

121. Answer: D
 Explanation: (d) Self Explanatory. (a) (b) and (c) are irrelevant to the point of view explained in the
passage.

122. Answer: A
Explanation: (a) as it is clearly stated that the company is throwing out lot of waste. They have to assure
that the waste is dumped at a suitable place not on the road. Thus (b), (c) are not correct. (d) is irrelevant.

123. Answer: C
Explanation: Although all three are related to Right to life but in context to the passage it is only option (c).

124. Answer: A
Explanation: (a) Self Explanatory. (b) (c) and (d) are against/irrelevant to the point of view explained in the
passage.

125. Answer: D
Explanation: (d) Self Explanatory. (b) (c) and (d) are against the point of view explained in the passage.

126. Answer: A
Explanation: If the law is for hanging of polluter than the same has to be followed.

127. Answer: B
Explanation: 26. In the passage it is given in there is no prohibition for discrimination on the ground of
descent. Hence, it is valid. Hence (b).

128. Answer: B
Explanation: Passage clearly states that only citizens are entitled to equality of opportunity in matters of
employment under the state. Hence (b).

129. Answer: C
Explanation: As given in Principle 4, Parliament can prescribe requirement as to residence within that State
or Union territory prior to and not post such employment or appointment. Hence (c).

130. Answer: D
Explanation: We do not know whether the XYZ community is a backward class of people or not. Therefore,
no conclusion can be drawn. Hence (d).

131. Answer: C
Explanation: If the state is satisfied that XYZ being a backward class is under-represented, it can make the
respective reservation. Hence (c).

132. Answer: D
Explanation: We do not know whether BCCI will come under the purview of state or not. Hence (d).

133. Answer: D
Explanation: Whether Rahul is a citizen of India is not known and therefore, no conclusion can be drawn.
Hence (d).

134. Answer: B
Explanation: The honor is an award and not a title. And therefore, the acceptance of the honor shall be
valid. Hence (b).

135. Answer: C
Explanation: The acceptance of the honor is valid while the acceptance of the payment is invalid. Firstly,
the honor was an award and not a title. Secondly, he couldn’t accept it without President’s consent. Hence
(c).

Section V: Quantitative Techniques

136. Answer: C
 Explanation: Number of Internet user in Mumbai present is 250000. So in 8 years it will become 40 lakhs
Population of Mumbai (250000/2.1) × 100 = 12000000. So in 8 years it will = 12000000 × 1.3 = 15600000.
So (4000000/15600000) × 100 = 26%

137. Answer: D
Explanation: We do not know what % of population uses cybercafé in Chennai. Thus data is insufficient to
answer the question.

138. Answer: B
Explanation: Population of Mumbai (250000/2.1) × 100 = 12000000
Pop. Of Kolkata (85000/.9) × 100 = 9500000
Pop. Of Delhi (295000/3.7) × 100 = 8000000
Pop. Of Chennai (155000/2.2) × 100 = 7000000
So total population = 36500000 Total internet user 785000; (785000/36500000) × 100=2.16%

139. Answer: A
Explanation: The sales of T in Gujarat is given to be zero. We want to find the minimum value of the sales
of S and U in Gujarat for that maximize the sales of other products in Gujarat Now Except T, S and U, the
total sales of P, Q and R are 30%. If all these sales are in Gujarat then the remaining sale of 5% in Gujarat
will be of S and U. Hence the required percentage × 100 = 14.28%

140. Answer: D
Explanation: Total sales of product S 20% and at least 15% of the total sales in each of the regions
composed the sales of product S which in turn is equal to 15% of the total sales of S Now the remaining 5%
can be distributed in any of the five regions. The region will have a total of 5%, 15% of the region. The
required percentage will be maximum when the denominator selected the region selected has the least total
sales that must be Kerala which has only 8% of total sales ∴Required %
% % .
= × 100 = × 100 = 77.5%

141. Answer: B
Explanation: To maximize the number of products that have sales only in Gujarat, consider the products
with the least possible sales and the sum of which must not exceed 35%.
It is given that there were no sales of R in Gujarat the products with next least values of sales were P, Q and
U. At the most there can be only three products, sales which can be only Gujarat.

142. Answer: B
Explanation: For each product, at most 50% of the sales can be in Gujarat. The total sales in Gujarat are
35% ∴ All the products which have sales in Gujarat should at least make up to 35%/50% = 70% of the total ∴
Remaining 30% can be distributed among P.

143. Answer: C 144. Answer: D

145. Answer: D
Explanation for the Questions 143 to 145: Let white cat have W ladoos and black cat have B ladoos. Let
they give X ladoos each time to each other.
Thus, (W + X) = 5 (B - X)
(W - X) = 3(B + X)
On solving this, we get W = 19X and B = 5X
Thus, W: B = 19: 5.
Thus, the minimum number laddoos that were given to the cat is 24.
Since, we don’t know the relationship between the number of laddoos eaten by monkey and that given to the
cat; we cannot find the number of laddoos eaten by monkey.

146. Answer: B
Explanation: No. of seminars organised in T.N. and Kerala = 6 + 8 + 16 + 4 + 8 + 18 = 60
No. of seminars organised in A.P.
 = 4 + 8 + 12 = 24
No. of seminars organised in A.P. and Kerala
= 4 + 8 + 12 + 4 + 8 + 18 = 54
No. of seminars organised in Punjab
= 12 + 16 + 24 = 52
No. of seminars organised in U.P.
= 12 + 24 + 28 = 64
No. of seminars organised in Kerala
= 4 + 8 + 18 = 30
No. of seminars organised in Maharashtra
= 12 + 16 + 20 = 48
and no. of seminars organised in Rajasthan
= 8 + 12 + 24 = 44
∴ It is the lowest in A.P.

147. Answer: D
Explanation: There is no increase.

148. Answer: B
Explanation: In the year 2000, eight seminars were organised by state Rajasthan.

149. Answer: B
Explanation: Correct order is 2000, 1990, 1980

150. Answer: D
Explanation: Required number = 8 + 12 + 24 = 44