How Would You Lay Out A Course Line That Indicates The Directional Flow of Ship in A Traffic Separation Scheme?
How Would You Lay Out A Course Line That Indicates The Directional Flow of Ship in A Traffic Separation Scheme?
62. What should you do if in about 24 hours the facsimile prognostic chart states that you will cross a low
pressure system's cold front?
•expect clear weather, with steady winds and pressure, until the front passes
•expect to see cirrus clouds followed by altostratus and nimbostratus clouds
•alter course to remain in the navigable semicircle
•prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden wind shift
63. How would you lay out a course line that indicates the directional flow of ship in a traffic separation
scheme?
•Along the recommended direction of traffic flow
•Along the recommended route
•Along the recommended vessels track
•Along the established direction of traffic flow
64. Which of the following describes why topside icing, which is usually off-center, decreases vessel
stability?
•increases displacement
•it increases draft
•It increases the height of the center of gravity
•reduces the pocketing of free surface
65. Under SOLAS Chapter V - Safety of Navigation, what regulation apply to Ships Reporting System?
•Regulation 10
•Regulation 12
•Regulation 11
•Regulation 13
66. How would you lay a course on a chart when entering from seaward in Region A?
•On the channels starboard side which is marked by green conical buoy
•On the channels starboard side wich is marked by red can buoy
•On the channels starboard side which is marked by red conical buoy
•On the channels starboard side which is marked by green can buoy
67. You are required to participate in updating the weather in the area you are navigating. What is the
weather reporting interval you are required to be sent to the closest meteoreological service station if
your vessel is encountering hurricane?
•4 hours
•3 hours
•6 hours
•5 hours
68. If it is impossible to avoid a hurricane in the Northern Hemisphere,where is the most favorable
position to be when the storm passes?
•In the navigable semi-circle
•In the half of the semicircle lying to the right of the storm
•In the half of the semicircle lying to the left of the storm
•In the southern half of the navigable semi-circle
69. Under SOLAS, Chapter V - Safety of Navigation, what regulation apply to the Ships routeing?
•Regulation 11
•Regulation 12
•Regulation 13
•Regulation 10
70. If a northeast wind as per Buys Ballot's law is experienced by an observer, where then is the low
pressure's center?
•northwest
•west-southwest
•northeast
•south-southeast
71. Which of the following vessel is categorized as NOT using a traffic separation scheme in the context of
Rule 10 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collision at Sea?
•A vessel that is NOT crossing the lanes
•A vessel using an inshore traffic zone
•A vessel is navigating within the outer limits of an inshore traffic zone
•A vessel that is engaged in fishing within the separation zone
72. How would you describe the use of ship reporting system?
•Ship reporting system shall also be used for search and rescue puposes
•Ship reporting system shall be recognized by the Organization
•Ship reporting system shall use by all ship's carrying certain cargoes as provided
•Ship reporting system shall use by certain categories of ships carrying certain cargoes as provided
73. A ship shall use a mandatory ships routeing system adopted by the organization. Under what
circumstance shall a vessel be allowed otherwise?
•Unless there are express pohibition provided for in the regulation
•Unless there is express order by the Organization not to use that particular ships
routeing system
•Unless there are exemption on the use of that particular ships routeing system
•Unless there are compelling reasons not to use a particular ships routeing system
74. What is one of the services rendered by a Vessel Traffic System provider?
•Efficiency of marine environmental protection
•Traffic organization service
•Information service
•Communication service
75. On a ship's passage plan, how would you relate if you find a mark on a chart as a No Go Area?
•It indicates areas where the vessel could proceed in relation to its present draft subject
to
•Ittide.
indicates areas where vessel could go subject to her deepest allowable draft.
•It indicates areas where vessel is allowed to traverse subject to port regulations.
•It indicates areas where the vessel is restricted to proceed in relation to its present condition
76. What are the other publication that will complement weather information provided by the National
Weather Service?
•The local Notice to Mariners
•Weather routing and maps
•The Tide and Current Tables
•United States Coast Pilot
77. Where does the low pressure's center lies in this location as per the Buys Ballot Law in an event
where you are steaming eastward in an extratropical cyclonic storm in the North Atlantic and the wind is
dead ahead?
78. What factor modifies temperature and moisture characteristics in a warm or cold air mass?
•Pressure changes in the air mass
•Upper level atmospheric changes
•Movement of the air mass
•The heterogeneous nature of the air mass
79. Under COLREG Rule 19, What is the most important point to follow in case your ship navigates in
restricted visibilty?
•Ensure that navigation equipment are working properly
•Ensure that all important parameters of the ship are noted in the logbook
•Ensure that VHF Radio Channel 16 is being monitored
•Ensure that procedures are being followed
80. How would you ensure the accuracy of the ship position at anytime while transiting a restricted
water?
•Fix vessels position by parallel indexing and adjust course and speed accordingly
•Fix vessels position by all available means and verify against each other
•Fix vessels position by GPS fixes and verify against the terrestial observation
•Fix vessels position by visual bearing and radar range and verify against the GPS fixes
81. How would you best describe the purpose of ship's routeing?
•It improve the safety of navigation where the density of traffic is great
•It secure ships safe navigation within the jurisdiction of VTS areas where the vessel is navigating.
•It contain oil pollutiion of the oceans to smaller areas.
•It prevent traversing commercial fishing areas of coastal states.
83. You are steaming eastward in the North Atlantic in an extratropical cyclonic storm and the wind is
dead ahead. According to the law of Buys Ballot, where does the center of the low pressure lies?
•To the north
•Ahead of you
•To the south
•Astern of you
86. How would a barometer respond if a hurricane is moving in your general direction?
•The pointer starts to fall gradually
•The pointer starts to rise rapidly
•The pointer remains steady
•The pointer starts to rise slowly
87. Who would organize the dissemination to the concerned parties all relevant infornation with regard
to any adopted ship reporting system?
•The Maritime Safety Committee
•The International Maritime Organization
•The Contracting Governments
•The Captain of the Port
88. How would you know a condition where two currents meet at a down stream end in a middle of the
bar?
•A v-shaped small ripple observed pointing downstream
•A v-shaped ripple observed pointing downstream
•A v-shaped small patch of water observed pointing downstream
•A v-shaped ripple observed pointing upstream
89. How would you classify traffic separation scheme used in traffic routeing system?
•It is an area within defines limits in which either navigation is exceptionally important to
avoid casualties and which should navigate by all ships.
•It is a route within define limits which has been established where ships must navigate
with caution and within which direction of traffic is recommended.
•It is an area within defined limits in which one-way traffic is established, natural
obstacles , including those forming separation zones, may constitute a boundary.
•It is a routeing measure aimed at the separation of opposing streams of traffic by
appropriate means and by the establishing of traffic lanes .
90. In what regulation can you find the particular guidelines when navigating in or near an area of
restricted visibility?
•Regulation 17
•Regulation 19
•Regulation 18
•Regulation 16
92. In planning a passage across the North Pacific from Japan to Seattle, what is the weather
that your vessel will likely to experience?
•Favorable currents practically for the first half of the passage
•Following seas and currents practically on the later part of the passage
•Favorable variable currents as vessel pass the Aleutian islands
•Favorable currents practically for the entire crossing.
93. You are in the Northern Hemisphere and report shows a tropical wave is located 200 miles due west
of your position. Where is the wave located after 24 hours?
•Closer towards the east
•Closer towards the west
•Farther away to the west.
•Farther towards the west
94. What are the two most effective generating forces of surface ocean currents?
•Wind direction and density differences in the water.
•Wind direction and continental interference.above the surface
•Wind direction and depth of water
•Wind direction and salinity differences in the water.
95. How would you show that parallel indexing is reliable while transiting a narrow channel?
•A prudent selection of fixed object along the channel
•A prudent selection of position fixing method and verify agianst each other before taking
into use
•A prudent selection of floating objects along the channel
•A prudent selection of conspicuous landmark in order to attain good fix
96. What is a faintly luminous disc seen in the sky opposite the sun due to refraction of sun by
particles
•Twilight in the atmosphere?
•Zenith distance
•Mean range
•Anthelion
97. What is the principal danger caused by the ice accumulating on a vessel?
•Increase in draft and trim
•Decrease in radar detection capabilities
•Adverse effect on stability
•Loss of stability
98. What is the safest and most prudent action to be taken while navigating in the vicinity of a tropical
cyclone?
•Navigate towards the coast for shelter.
•Batten down and ride out the storm.
•Continue to navigate nearer to the coast.
•Take positive steps to avoid the storm.
99. What is the wind speed and direction observed from a moving vessel?
•Trade wind
•True wind
•Anemometer wind
•Apparent wind
•Visual and terrestial bearings are more reliable
•Regulation 11
•On the channels starboard side which is marked by green conical buoy
•3 hours
•In the navigable semi-circle
•Regulation 10
•south-southeast
•Ship reporting system shall use by all ship's carrying certain cargoes as provided
•Unless there are compelling reasons not to use a particular ships routeing system
•Information service
•It indicates areas where the vessel is restricted to proceed in relation to its present .condition
•Fix vessels position by visual bearing and radar range and verify against the GPS fixes
•It improve the safety of navigation where the density of traffic is great
•Ships routeing are recommended for use.
•Advection fog
•Regulation 19
•4 - 6 tenths
•Loss of stability
•Apparent wind
61. If you are In a low latitudes, when will the full Moon rise?
•It will always rise at about 2400 LMT
•It will always rise at about 1200 LMT
•It will always rise at about sunrise
•It will always rise at about sunset
62. You depart from laitude 10 degrees north and steams on course 000° T for 1200 nautical miles. What is the new
latitude?
•Lat 34° 00'N
•Lat 30° 00'N
•Lat 28° 00'N
•Lat 32 00'N
63. Where does a navigator based his calculation to illustrate the angles involve at meridian transit?
•Celestial equator as observed from above the north celestial pole
•Celestial equator as observed from above the south celestial pole
•Plane of the observer's meridian
•Plane of the Greenwich meridian
65. Which of the following is the condition when the zenith distance of the body is 0 degree?
•The body is on the horizon
•The body is on the prime vertical
•The body is on transit
•The body is on the meridian
68. In which of the following is the primary caused of marine sextant Index error? IIH not parallel
69. How would you classify the solving of twilight time as a matter of preparation in star sight may it be evening or
morning where the sun is 10 degrees below the horizon?
•Observational twilight
•Civil twilight
•Astronomical twilight
•Nautical twilight
70. What correction would you will apply when the index error of the sextant is ON the arc?
•Semidiameter error
•Positive correction
•Dip error
•Negative correction
71. Can you identify from the following where a time diagram of the celestial sphere is observed?
•From above of the north celestial pole
•From above of the oserver meridian
•From above of the south celestial pole.
•From above of the Greenwich meridian
72. What phenomenon is most likely to generate a continuous trace that isn't from the actual ocean bottom when
using a depth finder in the open ocean?
•It will generate echoes from the efeect of vessel motion.
•It generates echoes from school of fishes.
•It will generate echoes from depth scattering layer.
•It will generate echoes from the effect of current.
73. The IALA maritime bouyage system what does a red and white vertically-stripped bouy signifies?
•Cardinal mark
•Special mark not primarily used for navigation.
•Safety water mark
•Isolated danger mark
74. What conclusions can you draw in the principle of a sextant when a plane surface reflects a light ray?
•The angle of reflection equals the angle of zenith.
•The angle of reflection equals the angle of altitude.
•The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.
•The angle of reflection equals the angle of co-altitude.
75. You are running parallel to the coast and take a running fix using bearings of the same object. If you are making
less speed than used for the running fix, what will you be in relation to the position indicated by the fix?
76. How would you determine the actual water depth on the fathometer reading?
•You should subtract the draft of the vessel.
•You should subtract the sea water correction.
•You should add the sea water correction.
•You should add the draft of the vessel.
77. When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that your
receiver is locked onto?
•Selective Availability
•Horizontal Dilution of Precision
•Precision
•Doppler Shifting
79. You are navigating on a course of 343 degrees True. A light buoy bears 8 degrees on the starboard bow at a
distance of 12.3 miles. What course would you steer to pass 3 miles abeam of the light buoy leaving it to the
starboard?
80. What is the latitude of a place where the length of the day is 2/5 the length of the night if the sun's declination is
20 deg. 20 mins South?
•Lat. 69 deg. 40 mins 00 secs N
•Lat. 69 deg. 40 mins 00 secs S
•Lat. 39 deg. 49 mins 28 secs S
•Lat. 39 dea. 49 mins 28 secs N
81. What is a small circle of the celestial sphere parallel to the celestial equator and transcribed by the daily motion
of the body?
•Parallel of declination.
•Hour circle of the body
•Vertical circle of the body
•Parallel of altitude
82. At what distance does the great circle track provide maximum saving?
•westerly courses in low latitudes
•southerly courses in high latitudes
•easterly courses in low latitudes that cross the equator
•easterly courses in high latitudes
84. How could you determine a closest point of approach (CPA) of a contact on a relative motion radar?
•After the contact has been marked at least twice.
•It can be determine if the radar scope is watched constantly
•Immediately when the contact is marked in the radar.
•It can be determine by an occasional glance on the radar.
85. At the time of meridian passage the navigator observe the sun bearing north. What is the navigator latitude, if
the sun's declination is 23° N and the observe corrected altuitude is 72° 39'?
•4° 30.0' S
•5° 30.0' S
•4° 30.0' N
•5° 30.0' N
86. When the moon is at first quarter or third quarter phase, what type of tides will occur?
•Neap Tide
•Apogean Tide
•Perigean Tide
•Spring Tide
87. What is the true altitude of star Pollux if the observed sextant altitude was 31° 17.2' ; index error is 1.8' off the
arc; height of eye is 15.0 meters with the following apparent correction; dip 6.8' and refraction 1.6'?
•31° 22.2'
•31° 13.8'
•31° 20.6’
•31° 10.6'
88. It is a branch of navigation where ships are piloted safely and positions can be fixed by other means especially
during heavy weather and visibility is zero.
•Electronic navigation
•Stellar Navigation
•Radar Fix navigation
•Polar navigation
89. In which of the folllowing heavenly bodies has the slowest rate of increase in hour angle?
•Mercury
•Mars
•The Moon
•The Sun
90. In the Celestial equator system of coordinates what is equivalent to the co-latitude of the Earth system of
coordinates?
•Polar distance
•Co-altitude
•Zenith distance
•Declination
91. You are navigating at a speed of 10 knots. At 1800H you observe a radar contact dead ahead at range of 10 miles
then at 1812H
•Estimated theof
speed contact is is
contact dead ahead at range of 8 miles. What is the estimated speed of the contact?
10 knots
•Estimated speed of contact is 5 knots
•Estimated speed of contact is 15 knots
•Dead in the water
92. How would you distinguish a multiple echoes in the radar screen?
•This happen and recognizable when a part of the energy is reflected to the antenna from
a part of the ship's structure.
•This happen and recoanizible when a radar beam bounces back and forth between ship
and a relatively close in target.
•This occur when an energy from side lobes is refleted back by a target.
•This occur when a part of the energy is reflected to the antenna from a part of the ship
structure.
93. At evening twilight, the first star that should be observed are those with an azimuth in what quadrant?
•Western
•Northern
•Southern
•Eastern
94. Which of the following best describe as an associated navigational mark in the chart where the color of which
are being written in capital letters?
•These characteristic are normally written on harbour charts.
•These are conspicuous and larger coastal marks.
•These are normally written on harbour charts
•These are normally inconspicuous navigation marks for earlier detection.
•It will always rise at about sunset
ansit?
•Pisces
lel
•Observational twilight
•Negative correction
d?
ifies?
light ray?
rboard bow at a
aving it to the
he sun's declination is
•Parallel of declination.
•easterly courses in high latitudes
n radar?
•After the contact has been marked at least twice.
avigator latitude, if
•5° 30.0' N
•Neap Tide
•31° 10.6'
er means especially
•Electronic navigation
•The Moon
arth system of
•Polar distance
d at range of 10 miles
e contact?
•This happen and recoanizible when a radar beam bounces back and forth between ship
and a relatively close in target.
t quadrant?
•Eastern
•It is acted on by the horizontal components of Earth total magnetic force which is
greatest at magnetic equator.
•The axis is pointed toward north using the magnetic compass as preference and
automatically correcting variation.
62. You are on course 125° PSC. The wind is southwest causing 3° leeway, variation is 6°E, deviation is 2°
W and the gyro error is 1°W. What is your course made good
•123°T
•121° T
•127°T
•129°T
64. Your ship is steaming at night with the gyro pilot engaged when you notice that the vessels course is
slowly changing to the right. What action should you take FIRST?
•Call the Master
•Switch to hand steering
•notify the engineroom
•Shift steering to the emergency steering station
65. You just completed the magnetic compass adjustment on magnetic east and magnetic south. The
vessel is now steady on magnetic west but the compass read 266°. What action should be taken?
•Adisut the compass with the quadrantal sphere until the compass read 272°
•Adjust the compass with the athwarships magnets until the compass read 268°
•Adjust the compass the fore-and-aft magnets until the compass read 270°
•Adjust the compass with the fore and aft magnets until the compass reads reads 268°
66. What happens to the compass card in a magnetic compass when a vessel changes course to
starboard?
•First turns to starboard then counterclockwise to port
•Remained aligned with compass north
•Also turns to starboard
•Turns counterclockwise to port
67. Which is NOT true about gyro compass compare to magnetic compass?
•It is used to find correct North position.
•It is used for finding the right direction.
•Its system is base upon gyroscopic inertia and precession
•It is hampered by external magnetic fields
68. What magnetic compass correctors you will use for correcting both permanent and induced effects of
magnetism?
•Heeling Magnets
•Fore-and-aft magnets
•Athwartship magnets
•Quadrantal spheres
69. Where is the greatest directive force exerted on the magnetic compass?
•When the needles are nearly in line with the meridian
•When the vessel is near the magnetic poles
•When the variation is near zero
•When the vessel is near the magnetic equator
70. What is the term used to the horizontal intensity component which is perpendicular to the north
component?
•East component
•Gamma component
•Magnetic meridian
•West component
71. If your ship is proceeding toward the magnetic equator, what will happen to the uncorrected
deviation due to permanent magnetism?
•The uncorrected deviation will increase.
•The uncorrected deviation will remain the same.
•The uncorrected deviation will decrease.
•The uncorrected deviation will fluctuate.
72. In gyro compass principles, what is the small torque about the vertical axis which produces effect of
precession about the horizontal referred to?.
•phantom element
•ballistic tilt
•mercury ballistic
•gyro drift
73. You desire to make good course 152°. The magnetic compass deviation is 4° E, variation 5° E and the
gyro error is 3°E. A southwesterly wind produdes 4°leeway. What course would you steer per standard
compass to make good the true course?
•147° PSC
•141° PSC
•144° PSC
•137° PSC
74. What should be done when a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time?
•it must be shielded from direct sunlight
•It must be locked into a constant heading
•have the compensating magnets removed
•any air bubbles in compass bowl must replaced with nitrogen
75. What is the gyro compass error resulting from your vessel movement other than east-west
direction?
•Speed error
•Ballistic deflection
•Damping error
•Quadrantal error
76. What are the purpose of magnets placed in the horizontal trays of the compass binnacle?
•To compensate for the permanent magnetism of the vessel
•To compensate for the induced magnetism in the vesseI's horizontal soft iron
•To compensate for thechange in the magnetic field when the vessel inclines from vertical
•To compensate for themagnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
78. What course you should steer PSC to make good the true course 152°, if the magnetic compass
deviation is 4°E and variation is 5°E?
•147° PSC
•145° PSC
•142° PSC
•155° PSC
79. What is the resultant motion perpendicular to the direction of the force when applied to change the
alignment of the spin axis of a gyroscope?
•Gyroscopic Inertia
•Plane of rotation
•Plane of force
•Precession
80. What is the purpose of the soft quadrantal spheres mounted on arms of the binnacle?
•the residual deviation
•magnetic fields caused by electrical currents in the vicinity
•the vertical component of the permanent magnetism of the vessel
•It is to compensate induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron
81. What are the broken series components of the total magnetic effects which cause deviation of the
vessel magnetic compass?
•Equational part
•Fraction parts
•Coefficients
•Divisional parts
82. On the chart it indicate the variation was 3°45' W in 2017 and the annual change is decreasing 6'.
What variation you should apply if you are to use the chart in 2020?
•4°03' W
•3°27' W
•3°35' W
•3°45' W
83. The ballistic tilt causes the axle to wander slightly after an alteration if course and/or speed because
of the inclination of the axle. What is this wandering is refered to?
•ballistic drift effect
•ballistic depression
•ballistic damping error
•ballistic tilt effect
84. It is a compass which depends its action on mechanical and dynamic laws and also depends on a
pendulous that indicates its true north?
•Magnetic compass
•Standard compass
•Dry magnetic compass
•Gyro compass
85. If you are steering on course 130 degrees PSC, what will be your course made good if the compass
deviation is 4 degrees west and variation is 3 degrees east and with a SWxS wind causing 2 degrees
leeway?
•134°T
•137°T
•129°T
•127° T
86. What is the vertical component of the oscillation made by the elliptical path traced out by each end of
a liquid gravity controlled gyro?
•drift oscillation
•axle oscillation
•tilt oscillation
•azimuth oscillation
87. If your ship is proceeding towards the magnetic equator, what will happen to the uncorrected
deviation due to permanent magnetism?
•The deviation will increase
•The deviation remains the same
•The deviation will change dramatically
•The deviation will decrease
88. When adjusting a magnetic compass for error, at what instance a deviation table should be made?
•Before the quadrantal correctors are placed on the compass.
•After adjusting the fore-and-aft and athwartships permanent magnets.
•Before correcting for any deviation.
•After correcting compass for variation.
89. What is the magnetic compass correctors that you may use to correct both permanent and induced
effects of magnetism?
•Fore and aft magnets
•Athwartship magnets
•Heeling magnets
•Quadrantal Spheres
90. When using a gyro compass, which statement is TRUE when applying the gyro compass error?
•Any error shown by gyro repeater will be the same error of the Mastwer gyro compass.
•The sign EAST or WQest will change with different heading.
•The amount of the error and sign will be generally the same in all headings or bearings.
•Any error will remain constant unless the compass is stopped and restarted.
91. According to the present theory, how would the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire and
the magnetism of a permanent magnet are created?
•By flow of electrical current
•By the lines of force
•By electro electro-magnetism
•By moving electric charges
92. A vessel is heading magnetic northwest and its magnetic compass reads a heading of 318
deg. What action should be taken to remove this error dutring compass adjustment?
•Raise or lower the athwartships magnets
•By moving he quadrantal spheres in.
•Remove some of the Flinders bar
•Use the athwartships magnets and adjust the compass
94. What will be the deviation if the magnetic heading is greater than the compass heading?
•Westerly
•Northerly
•Southerly
•Easterly
95. The basic principle of a magnet is, like poles repel and unlike poles attract. How would you describe
the force between the magnetic poles?
•Being inversely proportion to the strength of the pole
•Being directly proportion to the strength of the magnet
•Being indirectly proportion to the strength of the pole
•Being directly proportion to the strength of the pole.
96. The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space in the direction in which it is started. How
does this gyroscope become north seeking so that it can be used as a compass?
•Bv mechanically or electrically applying forces to precess the gyroscope
•By taking advantage of the property of gyroscopic inertia
•By starting the compass with the spin axis in a north/south position
•The rotation of the Earth (Earth rate) automatically aligns the gyroscope with north,
except for speed errors
97. How could you removed deviation which is maximum on intercardinal compass headings?
•It is removed by soft iron spheres on the sides of the compass.
•It is removed by fore-and-aft magnets
•It is removed by Flinders bar
•It is removed by transverse magnets
98. Which is TRUE about the deviation of a magnetic compass onboard ship?
•It is the magnetic lines of force not coinciding with the lines of longitude
•It is a changes in the earths magnetic field
•It is a nearby magnetic land masses or mineral deposits
•It is a magnetic influence inherent to that particular vessel
99. You are on course 027°T and observed a relative bearing of the lighthouse to be 220°. What is the true
bearing of the lighthouse?
•113°
•279°
•194°
•247°
100. From your true course how can you find the magnetic course?
•By applying both deviation and variation
•By applying variation
•By applying magnetic anomalies
•By applying deviation
102. How does the annual rate of change for magnetic variation shown on a pilot chart?
•Gray lines on the uppermost inset chart
•Annual rate of change is not shown.
•Red lines on the main body of the chart
•In parenthesis on the lines of equal magnetic variation
104. If the gyro compass error is east, how would you describe the error and what should
you do to the gyrocompass heading to obtain true heading?
•The error is BEST and the amount of eror must be added to the compass to obtain true
heading.
•The error is BEST and the amount of error must be subtarcted to the compass to obtain
true
•Theheading.
error is LEAST and the amount of error must be subtracted to the compass to
obtain trueisheading.
•The error LEAST and the amount of error must be added to the compass to obtain
true heading.
105. The compass card has 32 points. How many degreess is the light house oberved to be 3
points
•33.75 from therelative
degress bow ontostarboard side?
bow on starboard side.
•30 degress relative to bow on starboard side
•56.25 degress relative to bow on starboard side
•45 degress relative to bow on starboard side
106. You observed that the standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading,
what do you
•compass off think is the
set from cause
true of this difference?
north
•compass error
•deviation of the compass
•variation on the locality
07. What is an error in a gyrocompass caused by rapid changes in course, speed and latitude
causing deviation before the gyro can adjust itself?
•Rapid error
•Parallax error
•Error of collimation
•Steaming error
109. What is the yearly permanent change in the earth magnetic field?
•Annual change of deviation
•Annual changes of induce magnetism
•Annual change of variation
•Annual changes of magnetic delfection.
112. The spin axis of a gyroscope tends to remain fixed in space in the direction in which it is
started. How
•It become doesseeking
north it become north advantage
by taking seeking so of
that
theitproperty
can be used as a compass?
of gyroscopic inertia.
•It become north seeking by applying forces mechanically or electrically to process the
gyroscope.
•It become north seeking due to the rotation of the earth automatically aligning the
gyroscope
•It becometonorth
north.
seeking byn starting the compass with the spin axis in a north/south
position.
113. You are proceeding up a channel at night. It is marked by a range which bears 185°T. You
steady up on
•That your area being
compass course
affected byofa 180° with current
southerly the range in line dead ahead. What does this
•That vour compass has some easterly error
•That you must come right to get on the range
•That your course is in error
117. How should you adjust a magnetic compass using the fore-and-aft permanent magnets?
•use the magnets in pairs from the bottom up with the trays at the lowest point of travel
•fill all the trays with magnets then remove them one-by-one until the deviation is
removed
•use the magnets in pairs starting at the top with trays at the highest point of travel
•use the magnets one at a time putting one in one side and then one on the opposite side
one step higher
118. Before a magnetic compass is adjusted certain correctors must be checked to ensure
that
•dip they areand
needle free of permanent
heeling magnet magnetism. What are these correctors?
•fore-and-aft and athwartships magnets
•heeling magnet and Flinders bar
•Flinders bar and quadrantal spheres
119. What is the gyrocompass error introduce by ship's forward motion along its tracks?
•deflection error
•track error
•speed error
•latitude error
124. You are outbound in a channel marked by a range astern. The range line is 309° T. You are
steering 127°T
•Come right to and
closehave
the the range
range theninsight.
when onWhat
the action should
range steer you take?
129°T.
•Come left until the range in line then alter course to 129°
•Come left until the range is in line and steady course.
•Maintain the course to 127°T
125. How does the gyroscope best attained the process of producing a free gyroscope into a
meridian-seeking
•It is best attain bygyroscope.?
manually precessing the gyroscope
•It is best attain by harnesssina the earth's force of gravity
•It is best attain by changing the course and speed of the ship
•It is best attain by switching of the electromagnetic axle of the gyroscope
126. What is the magnetism which is present only when the material is under the influence of
an external
•Acquire field?
magnetism
•Induced magnetism
•Local magnetic disturbances
•Residual Magnetism
127. Which statement is TRUE on how the gyro compass repeaters reproduce the indication of
the
•Themaster gyroiscompass?
indication reproduce when the vessel is underway.
•The indication is rerpdroduce by adjsuting the sychronization manually.
•The indication is reproduce by the accurate electronics servomechanism.
•The indication is accurate only in polar region
130. How would you center the compass bowl on its binnacle?
•Head north and check if there is no lost of motion in the gimbal ring and adjust the
screw,
•Head the
easthead south
or west andand do the
makes same
sure when heading
the gimbal ring do north.
not strike the compass frame
when they are tilted and then adjust the screw
•The ship should be on an even keel and head north if no change
or southinand
the adjust
compasstheheading.
screw untill
the compass heading is in line with the lubber's line.
•You should have the ship on an even keel, heading north or south and adjust the
screws until no change of heading bv compass is observe if you raise and lower the
132. Reducing the strength of a magnetic field decreases the number of gauss in that field.
What is this process called?
•deducing
•demagnetizing
•degaussing
•deperming
134. What is the magnetism of the various structure of the ship that tends to change as a
result of cruising,
•Permanet vibration or aging, but does not alter immediately?
magnetism
•Induced magnetism
•Acquired magnitism
•Subpermanent magnetism
135. What course you should set the gyro compass when you want to steer NNW?
•274.5°
•337.5°
•315.5°
•292°
138. Magnetic compass is affected by variation and deviation. Which is NOT true about the
magnetic
•It is usedcompass?
to find correct North position, which is also the earth rotational axis.
•It allow ships to steer a selected course.
•It gets its source of power from the earth magnetic field.
•It is one of the oldest instrument for navigation.
140. The compass has 32 points which is equivalent to 360 degrees. How many points of the
compass
•8 points is the cardinal point South?
•16 points
•32 points
•24 points
144. What is the gyro compass error that is brought about by precessing force when the
North-South component
•Tangent latitude error of the speed changes, causing a surge of mercury from one part to
•Damping error
•Ballistic deflection error
•Speed error
145. What is the angle that a magnetic needle makes with the horizontal plane at any specific
location?
•Magnetic Dip
•Isodynamic angle
•Isogonic angle
•Agonic angle line
146. How would you determine the isogonic lines on an isomagnetic chart?
•It is an indication of the magnetic latitude
•It is an indication point of equal variation
•It is an indication point of zero variation
•It is an indication of the magnetic dip
147. What is the term when there is a possibility of confusion with compass adjustment to
neutralize the effects of natural magnetism of the vessel?.
•compass compensation
•compass adjustment
•degaussing adjustment
•degaussing compensation
148. What is the system of reservoirs and connecting tubes in a gyro compass?
•spider element
•mercury ballistic
•gyrotron
•rotor
150. Which of the following is the gyro compass error in which dumping is accompanied by
offsetting
•Dampingthe point of application of the force from a mercury ballistics?
error
•Tangent latitude error
•Quadrantal error
•Ballistic error
151. What is the vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic line of force?
•Vertical angle
•Magnetic angle
•Elevation
•Dip
152. What is the horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the north-south line of
the magnetic compass?
•Variation
•Compass error
•Magnetic dip
•Deviation
154. What is the line indicated on a chart which connect points of equal magnetic declination?
•Isobathic lines
•Isogonic lines
•Isotherm line
•Isobar lines
155. Your vessel is heading magnetic north and the magnetic compass indicates heading 003°. What
action
•If the should be are
blue ends taken
aftto remove
the this
fore and afterror during
magnets adjustment?
should be raised.
•If the red ends are to starboard the athwarship magnet should be lowered.
•If the blue ends are forward the fore-and-aft magnest should be raised
•If the red ends are to starboard and the tray is at the top add some athwarship magnets.
156. What is the angle between magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card?
•Compass error
•Deviation
•Dip
•Varaition
158. How does the indication of the gyrocompass are sent to a remote repeater?
•It is send by the follow-up system
•It is send by azimuth motor.
•It is send by the phantom elements.
•It is send by transmitter.
159. What is the strength of a reverse field (one of opposite polarity) required to reduce the
magnetism
•retentivity of a magnet to zero?.
•remanence
•permeability
•coercivity
161. What is the deflection right or left of the magnetic meridian caused by magnetic
properties of the vessel?
•Acquired magnetism
•Compass error
•Variation
•Deviation
164. What is the process of determining and recording deviation of your ship heading through
every 15° of
•Compass the compass?Deviation curve method
compensation
•Deviation determination
•Swinging ship
•Compass compensation.
•It is produce by mutual action among the characteristic of the gyroscope, rotation of the
earth and gravity
«121° T
•Adjust the compass with the fore and aft magnets until the compass reads reads 268°
•Heeling Magnets
•East component
•ballistic tilt
•147° PSC
•it must be shielded from direct sunlight
•Speed error
•142° PSC
•Precession
•3°27' W
•Gyro compass
•127° T
•azimuth oscillation
•The deviation will decrease
•Heeling magnets
•The amount of the error and sign will be generally the same in all headings or bearings.
•It caused by the earth's magnetic field affectng the ships hard iron during construction
•Easterly
•Being directly proportion to the strength of the pole.
•247°
•compass error
•Steaming error
•It become north seeking by applying forces mechanically or electrically to process the
gyroscope.
•use the magnets in pairs from the bottom up with the trays at the lowest point of travel
•Flinders bar and quadrantal spheres
•speed error
•It is the angle between the magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card
•Come right to close the range then when on the range steer 129°T.
•Induced magnetism
•You should have the ship on an even keel, heading north or south and adjust the
screws until no change of heading bv compass is observe if you raise and lower the
•degaussing
•Subpermanent magnetism
•337.5°
•It is used to find correct North position, which is also the earth rotational axis.
•16 points
•Magnetic Dip
•mercury ballistic
•Dip
•Deviation
•Isogonic lines
•If the red ends are to starboard the athwarship magnet should be lowered.
•Deviation
•It is send by transmitter.
•coercivity
•Deviation
•Swinging ship
lowest
highest
61. What is the line, such as the distressed craft's intended track line or a line of bearing,
which defines the center of the area where it is estimated that the search object is most likely to be
located?
•Geographic line
•Datum line
•Position line
•Track line
62. Which of the following signal under the Navigational Rules is NOT a recognized distress signals?
•a green star signal
•orange-colored smoke
•red flares
•the repeated raising and lowering of outstretched arms
63. To carry out a parallel track search in a coordinated manner, all vessel on the search should proceed
at what speed?
•Maximum speed of each vessel.
•Minimum speed of the fastest ship present.
•Maximum speed of the slowest ship present.
•The speed each vessel may accomplished the search.
64. What assumptions do you call the area where it is estimated that the search object is most likely to
be located?
•Area of search action
•Datum area
•SAR sub-region
•Search area
65. What is the term used in search and rescue operation at sea to the procedure assigned to a Search
and Rescue Unit (SRU) for searching a specified area?
•Search endurance
•Search pattern
•Search radius
•Search object
66. Who usually prepares the rescue action plan that includes brief description of the incidents?
•Rescue Coordination Center
•Search and Rescue Unit
•On-scene Coordinator
•Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator
67. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, what does the lookouts posted aboard the liferafts should
look for?
•Food and water
•Survivors in the water
•Land
•Bad weather
68. Which of the following statement is TRUE when evacuating an injured crew by a helicopter lift?
•Flags should be flown to provide a visual reference as to the direction of the apparent wind.
•The drop line should be grounded first then secured as close to the hoist point as
possible.
•The hoist area should be located as far aft as possible so the pilot will have a visual
reference while
•The vessel approaching.
should be stopped with the wind dead ahead during the hoisting operation.
69. The purpose of the International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue Manual for Mobile
Facilities , which is intended for carriage on board search and rescue units, and so on board civil aircraft
and vessels, is to provide guidelines to the following EXCEPT:
•Who operate aircraft, vessels, or other craft, and who maybe called upon to use the
facility to support SAR operations
•Who may need to perform on-scene coordinatorr functions for multiple facilities in the
vicinity of a distress situation
•Who undertake to assist a vessel or anv property in danger in anv navigable water
•Who experience actual or potwential emegencies, and may require search and rescue
(SAR) assitance
70. Which of the following would be best used for visual detection of a distressed vessel?
•A 406 MHz EPIRB's beacon
•A 9-GHz SARTVs two- tone alarm
•A 121.5 MHz EPIRBVs beacon
•An EPIRB's strobe light
71. During helicopter evacuation of an injured crew on board, what course should the ship steer?
•As instructed by the man who secure the casualty
•As instructed bv the helicopter pilot
•With the wind astern so that the effect of the wind is reduced as much as possible
•As instructed by the captain
72. Which book that aims to provide guidance to those who, during emergencies at sea, may require
assistance or may be able to render assisatnce?
•SOLAS Manual
•AMVER Manual
•IAMSAR Manual
•MERSAR Manual
73. What is the process of sorting survivors according to medical condition and assigning them priorities
for emergency care, treatment and evacuation?
•Major emergency
•Triage
•Tasking
•Crisis
74. What is the term used in search and rescue operation at sea to a ship, aircraft, or other craft missing
or in distress or survivors or evidence for which a search is being conducted?
•Datum line
•Search object
•Search pattern
•Position line
75. Who do you think is the primarily responsible for providing Air Traffic Control (ATC) services to an
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) aircraft in controlled areas under its jurisdiction?
•Maritime Operations Center (MOC)
•Mission Control Center (MCC)
•SAR Operational Flight (SOF)
•Area Control Center (ACC)
76. What is the Inmarsat Special Access Code which provides a connection to an appropriate national or
international center which is collecting ship movement information for search and rescue (or other)
purposes e.g. AMVER or AUSREP, etc?
•SAC 51
•SAC 38
•SAC 43
•SAC 52
77. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to
your rescuers?
•The nature of the distress
•Your position by latitude and longitude
•The nationality of the Master and crew
•Your radio call sign
78. Accordingly, use of the band has diminished, however, in practice is still monitored, what has ceased
to be used as of 2010 as the primary distress calling frequency at sea?
•2182 kHz
•2187.5 kHz
•518 kHz
•500 kHz
79. What ideas apply the bringing together of organizations and elements to ensure effective search and
rescue response?
•Coordination
•Planning stage
•Conclusion
•Cooperation
80. What term is relevant to the reporting of distress incident to a unit which can provide or coordinate
assistance?
•Distress alerting
•Ship security alert system
•Emergency alert
•Alerting post
81. Who respond to the distress situation and carry the personnel who perform the actual operations?
•Joint Rescue Coordination Center (JRCC)
•Rescue subcenter (RSC)
•SAR operating base
•SAR unit (SRU)
•Datum area
•Search pattern
•Who undertake to assist a vessel or anv property in danger in anv navigable water
•MERSAR Manual
•Triage
•Search object
•SAC 43
•500 kHz
•Coordination
•Distress alerting
•SAR unit (SRU)
•On-Scene Commander
61. What does the Arabic number stands for when reference is made to Reg1/6?
•Resolution
•Chapter
•Regulation
•Article
62. What lenght of a vessel that is NOT allowed to impede the passage of vessels using the TSS?
•Not greater than 50 meters
•Not less than 12 meters
•Less than 100 meters
•Less than 20 meters
63. You are on watch and sight a vessel showing a high intensity all round flashing red light. What does
this light indicates?
•An aircushion vessel in the nondisplacement mode.
•A submarine on the surface.
•A WIG craft in flight near the surface.
•A seaplane when landing and taking off.
64. While underway in fog, you heard a vessel ahead sound two prolonged blasts on the whistle. What
should be your response?
•Sound whistle signals only if you change course.
•Sound two blasts and change course to the left.
•Not sound any whistle signals until the other vessel is sighted.
•Sound only fog signals until the other vessel is sighted.
65. What describes most to situational awareness by certainly knowing what is going on around the
vicinity of the ship during watchkeeping duties?
•"Full appraisal of the situation"
•"Prevailing circumstances and conditions"
•"All available means"
•"Equivalent systematic observations"
66. What is routeing measure comprising a designated area between the landward boundary of a traffic
separation scheme and the adjacent coast, to be used in accordance with provisions of Rule 10(d)?
•Separation Zone
•Traffic Lane
•Inshore Traffic Lane
•Separation Line
67. How do you interpret the word "Departure"in the context of Rule 2 of the COLREG's?
•A vessel determining dangers of collision
•Leaving watchkeeping duties due to doubts on imminent dangers
•The life and safety of the personnel onboard are at stake due tio allision
•A required action due to threats to navigation
68. Two barges are being pushed ahead by a tugboat. Which statement is TRUE concerning lights on the
barges?
•The barges should be lighted as one vessel
•Each vessel should show at least one white light
•Each vessel should show side lights
•The barges should be lighted as separate separate units
69. Your vessel is at anchor in fog. At 1800H, you relieved the Chief Officer to take his dinner when you
see another vessel approaching your position at a speed of 5 knots, 2.5 miles range and closing. What
conclusion you will make to anticipate the situation?
•I would monitor the ship closely and sound five or more short and rapid blasts on the ship's whistle.
•Sound one short, one prolonged and one short blast on the ship's whistle.
•I would call the other vessel immediately and give a warning signal of three red stars or
rockets.
•Would call the crew to standby station forward.
70. You are conning the vessel and steering a course of 000°. You have detected by radar a target abaft
your port beam on bearing 012° and distance of 11.6 miles. What will be your actions?
•Make a round turn to starboard.
•Sound five short blasts.
•increase the speed of myr vessel.
•Keep a close look-out for target movement.
71. In a narrow channel or fairway, which vessels shall not impede the passage of others?
•Sailing vessels
•Vessels constrained by their draft
•Power driven vessels underway
•Vessels restricted in their ability to maneuver
72. You are making headway in fog and hear a fog signal of two prolonged blasts on your starboard
quarter. What should you do?
•Change course to the left.
•Stop your vessel
•Hold your course and speed.
•Change course to the right.
74. Which of the following type of vessels is NOT required to keep clear of another vessel and pass in a
safe distance that deter vessel from passing dangerously close ahead?
•Vessel drifting
•Fishing vessel
•Pilot vessel not engaged in pilotage duty
•Not under command
75. What day signal shapes a pilot vessel engaged in pilotage duty shall exhibit based on Rule 29 of the
COLREGS?
•International Code of Signal "Hotel" flag
•One black ball with code flag "Hotel"
•A black diamond that can best be seen
•No required ahape signals to exhibit
76. If you were a watchkeeper, what action/s would you be permitted to to take whenever you
encounter a squadron of warships?
•Avoiding the squadron on the port bow would be a departure from the Rules, if executed
at a long range before risk of collision
•Taking appropriate action to avoid the convoy only after there is a public address on the
working radio channels
•Keeping a way from the squadron is mandatory during restricted visibilty
•Take early measure for single vessels to keep out of the way , and warning the vessels in the aquadron
to keep careful watch
77. Your vessel is underway in heavy fog. You hear the fog signal of a vessel which is somewhere ahead of
your vessel. What course of action you must do?
•Slow to moderate speed and navigate with caution.
•Slow
•Slow to
to bare
bare steeraaeway
steeraaeway and
and navigate
navigate with
with caution.
caution.
•Maintain speed and sound the danger signal.
•Stop engines and navigate with caution.
78. Which among the statements is TRUE when a vessel is navigating in thick fog?
•Fog signals should be sounded when a vessel is detected on the radar.
•The engines must be slowed down to have a safe speed.
•The radar should be kept on a short range scale for maximum detection.
•A lookout is necessary when a vessel is detected on the radar.
79. In making special rule Rule 1b, an appropriate authority for roadsteads, harbors, rivers, lakes or
inland waterways connected with the high seas and navigable by seagoing vessels. Can you identify from
the following will support on this statement?
•Shall have their areas of jurisdiction delineated on the appropriate nautical chart.
•Shall be initially approved by local authorities
•Shall conform as closely as possible to the Rules of the Road
•Shall have these approved by the IMO
80. What do you call this navigable water, approximately 2-mile whole width that are connected with the
high seas which is maneuverable by seagoing vessels unless there is an inconsistent rule?
•Traffic separation scheme
•Inshore traffic zone
•Fairway
•Narrow channel
81. Under what condition are you allowed to depart from the rules of the road?
•When avoiding immediate danger.
•When complying with an operator's requirement.
•When authorized by the rig superintendent.
•When under no conditions.
82. What statement in Rule 17 (c) that is not related to the type of ship during keeping out and standing
on of the way when approaching with one another that may develop risk of collision?
•Sailing vessel
•Fishing vessel
•Power driven vessel
•Pilot vessel
83. What rules and regulations are regulating the watchkkeeping routines in the Engine room?
•STCW
•Both ILO and MLC
•Both STCW and Class rules
•SOLAS
84. Who are immediately responsible for the safe management of your vessel?
•The supervisor.
•The Rescue Coordinating Centers.
•The ship owners, charterers and DPA.
•The master and his watchkeepers who are rested and not impaired by fatigue.
85. What is the prohibition period required for seafarers to consume alcohol prior to serving as a member
of a watch?
•Within 6 hours
•Within 4 hours
•Within 10 hours
•Within 8 hours
86. What additional item is NOT included in the operation of any special rules made by the Government
of any state for ships of war, vessels proceeding under convoy and fishing vessels engaged in fishing as a
fleet?
•Signal shaes
•Signal lights
•Station
•Whistle signal
87. When a vessel is on autopilot steering, the "weather" control is adjusted to compensate for which
severe weather effect on a vessel?
•To minimize yawning.
•To minimize yawing.
•To minimize pitching.
•To minimize rolling.
88. Rule 31 of the Collision Regulations requires a seaplane or a wing-in-ground (WIG) craft to exhibit the
lights and shapes as closely as similar to the lights and shapes prescribed in this rule and if impracticalbe
because of the nature of her construction. How could you determine the position of the anchor light for a
large seaplane when at anchor?
•It is under the tail end of the aircraft and below the fuselage.
•It is on the cockpit and at the tail end.
•It is on the wing tips and in addition white lights forward and aft.
•It is the middle of the aircraft.
89. How do you evaluate the difference between the navigation light requirements of vessels not under
command and vessels restricted in their ability to maneuver?
•Sternlight
•Masthead light/s
•Respective signal lights
•Sidelights
90. When reference is made to Regulation lI/2 of the STCW, what was sthe Roman numeral stands for?
•Article
•Chapter
•Resolution
•Regulation
91. You are underway and pass by a lighthouse. Its light, which was white since you first sighted it
changes to red. What does this mean?
•The lighthouse has lost power and has switched to emergency lighting.
•The light is characterized as alternately flashing.
•You have entered an area of shoal water or other hazard.
•It is the identifying light characteristic of the lighthouse.
92. You are underway on a power driven vessel in open waters, when you see another power driven
vessel approximately five miles dead ahead on an opposite course. What action would you recommend
to the Ofiicer on Watch to take?
93. You are proceeding in a narrow channel. You see a vessel coming up from astern announcing an
intention to overtake you. What blast do you sound to indicate that you do not agree with her intention?
•Four long blasts
•Five short blasts
•One long blast
•Two long frequent signals
•Regulation
•Sound one short, one prolonged and one short blast on the ship's whistle.
•Sailing vessels
•By the use of binoculars, the port side aspects of vessel deemed to be stand on vessel
•Not under command
•Take early measure for single vessels to keep out of the way , and warning the vessels in the aquadron
to keep careful watch
•The radar should be kept on a short range scale for maximum detection.
•Narrow channel
•When avoiding immediate danger.
•Sailing vessel
•The master and his watchkeepers who are rested and not impaired by fatigue.
•Within 4 hours
•Whistle signal
•Masthead light/s
•Chapter
•To make a bold alteration to starboard and pass on his port side
63. Your vessel is backing out of a slip in a harbor and you can see that other vessels are approaching. You
should sound which of the following signals?
•Three short blasts when leaving the slip.
•One prolonged blast only.
•One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when leaving the slip.
•One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts when the last line is taken onboard.
64. While in area of restricted visibility, your vessel is stopped. As required by the Rules, what fog signal
would you sound?
•Two short blasts.
•One prolonged blast at intervals of not more than two minutes.
•Two prolonged blast at intervals of not more than two minutes.
•One short blast.
65. In what time frame an ARPA must produce a relative motion with 95% accuracy and CPA /TCPA?
•Within 10 minutes.
•Within 5 minutes.
•Within 3 minutes.
•Within 1 minute.
66. Which bridge equipment does an Automatic Identification System (AIS) transponder transmits and
receives information broadcasts?
•10 cm, S band Radar.
•VHF maritime band.
•UHF L-band.
•NAVTEX.
67. You are underway in thick fog. You have not determined if risk of collision exists. Which statement is
TRUE?
•A look-out is not required if the radar is on
•Fog signals are only required when a vessel is detected by radar
•The radar should always be kept on a short range scale
•Your speed must be reduced to bare steerageway
68. What may be indicated by an echo sounder when operated over a muddy bottom?
•No depth reading.
•Two depth readings.
•A shallow depth reading.
•A zero depth reading.
69. What is the fog signal for a pilot vessel more than 100 meters in length at anchor, on station?
•Rapid ringing of a bell in the forepart of the vessel for about 5 seconds, and a gong signal sounded in
the after part of the vessel. She may also sound an identity signal of four short blasts.
•any of the choices is correct
•Rapid ringing of a bell in the forepart of the vessel for about 5 seconds. She may also sound an
identity signal of four short blasts.
•Rapid ringing of a gong in the forepart of the vessel for about 5 seconds, and a bell signal sounded in
the after part of the vessel. She may also sound an identity signal of four short blasts.
70. Onboard a power driven vessel how could you justify the presence of your vessel while under way in
restricted visibility?
•You should sound fog signal at interval not exceeding 3 minutes.
•You should sound fog signal at interval not exceeding 4 minutes.
•You should sound fog signal at interval of one minute
•You should sound fog signal at interval not exceeding 2 minutes
71. An indirect radar echo is a cause by a reflection of the main lobe of the radar beams off the observers
vessel. Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of indirect echoes?
•Their bearing is almost constant even when the true bearing of the contact changes appreciably.
•They always appear on a bearing of 90 degrees from the true bearing of the target.
•The indirect echoes usually appear in shadow sectors.
•Their movements are usually abnormal when plotted.
72. When two vessels are in immediate danger of collision, which action must be taken by the stand-on
vessel?
•Hold course and speed until the danger of collision is past and clear.
•Sound a distress signal.
•Abandonship.
•Assist in taking whatever action is necessary to avoid collision.
73. Which vessel sounds the same fog signal when underway or at anchor?
•A vessel constrained by her draft.
•A sailing vessel.
•A vessel not under command.
•A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver.
74. What is TRUE of the history display of a target's past positions on an ARPA?
•It provides a graphic display of a target vessel's relative course, speed and CPA.
•It provides a graphic display to emphasize which vessel is on a collision course.
•The display is one of the primary inputs and must be in use when using the trial maneuver capability.
•In the true presentation, it provides a quick visual check to determine if a vessel has changed course.
75. From which of the following does an ARPA builds up the track history of a target?
•Series of its range and bearings.
•Series of its CPA and TCPA data.
•Series of each course and speed data.
•Series of its past positions and speeds.
76. When is a stand-on vessel in a crossing situation allowed to take action to avoid collision?
•Risk of collision exists.
•Collision cannot be avoided by the give-wav vessel's maneuver alone.
•The other vessel will cross ahead of her.
•The other vessel is not taking appropriate action.
78. Your ARPA has an automatic speed inputs from the log. Due to currents, the log is indicating a faster
speed than the speed over the ground. What should you expect under these circumstances?
•The range of initial target acquisition will be less than normal.
•The generated CPA will be less than the actual CPA.
•The generated TCPA will be later than the actual TCPA.
•The targets true course vector will be unreliable.
79. What is the maximum number of minutes you should wait until utilizing ARPA data for collision
avoidance
•3 minutes.decision making?
•4 minutes.
•6 minutes.
•1 minute.
80. You are underway in thick fog. You have not determined if risk of colision exists. Which statement is
TRUE?
•Your speed must be reduced to bare steeragewav.
•The radar should always be kept on a short-range scale.
•Begin sounding two prolonged blast at two-minute intervals.
•A look-out is not required if the radar is on.
81. When using the ARPA in heavy rain, which action should be taken?
•Increase the FTC setting to reduce close-in spurious signal.
•Adjust the tuning to provide resonance at a desired frequency.
•Gain control should be turned to maximum.
•Rain clutter control should be off but, if necessary, may be on low.
82. If the Radar antenna operates at 60 RPM, how many seconds shall elapse for a typical ARPA to
generate a target vector?
•10 seconds.
•5 seconds.
•25 seconds.
•15 seconds
84. In what time frame must an ARPA produce a true motion with 95% accuracy and true course and
speed?
•3 minutes.
•4 minutes.
•1 minute.
•6 minutes.
85. In Doppler sonar navigation, which among the following is best exempilfied use by commercial
vessels?
•Echo sounder.
•Radar.
•Sextant.
•GPS navigator.
87. Which of the following situation will cause an ARPA to emit a visual alarm, audible alarm or both?
•A tracked target relative speed exceeds 100 knots..
•A tracked target lost for one radar scan..
•An acquired target leaving a guard zone..
•A tracked target leaving your preset CPA-TCPA limits..
88. What is the NOT unusual function of Echo Sounder when using in deep water?
•Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer surface at
night.
•Have to re-calibrate every couple of days due to inaccurate readings.
•Receive a first return near the surface during the day, and a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366
meters)
•Receiveatfalse
night.
echoes at a constant depth day and night.
89. If underway in low visibility and sounding fog signals, what changes would you make in the fog signal
IMMEDIATELY upon losing the power plant and propulsion?
•Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts at two-minute intervals.
•Begin sounding five rapid short blasts.
•Begin sounding two prolonged blast at two-minute intervals.
•Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at two-minute intervals.
90. When using an ARPA, what should you consider in order to evaluate the information displayed?
•The trial maneuver feature will automatically determine a course that will clear alll targets.
•It provides a graphic display of a target vessel's relative course, speed and CPA.
•The target vesseIVs generated copurse and speed are based solely on radar inputs.
•Navigational constraints may require a target vessel to change course.
91. On approaching the English Channel on course 080°T, you note the symbol YBY near a charted buoy.
Which sideof
•Eastward ofthe
thebuoy
buoy you will pass?
•Westward of the buoy
•Northward of the buoy
•Southward of the buoy
92. You are underway on the high seas in restricted visibility. You hear a fog signal of one prolonged and
two short blasts. It could be any of the following vessel EXCEPT:
•Constrained by her draught.
•Engaged in fishing.
•Mine sweeping.
•Being towed.
93. Your vessel is underway in low visibility and sounding fog signals. What changes would you make in
the the fog signal immediately upon losing your vessel's propulsion?
•Begin sounding two prolonged blasts at two-minute intervals.
•Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at two-minute intervals.
•No change should be made in the fog signal.
•Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by three short blasts at two-minute intervals.
94. In what form will the radar range provides for the line of position of a small charted object such as a
lighthouse?
•Straight line
•Arc
•Hyperbola
•Parabola
96. Your vessel is leaving New York harbor in dense fog. As the vessel slowly proceeds toward sea, you
sight a green can buoy on the starboard bow. Which action should you take?
•Turn hard starboard to get back into the channel.
•Stop and fix your position.
•Pass the buoy close to, leaving it to your port.
•Stand on. leaving the buoy to vour starboard.
97. When is a stand-on vessel FIRST allowed by the Rules to take action in order to avoid collision?
•When collision is imminent.
•When the give-wav vessel is not taking appropriate action to avoid collision..
•The stand-on vessel is never allowed to take action.
•When the two vessels are less than half a mile from each other.
98. In what setting is it preferable to use the ARPA in order to calculate course and speed of a target and
determine whether the risk of collision shall exist?
•North up
•Relative motion display
•Head up
•True Motion Display
99. You are approaching another vessel and are not sure whether danger of collision exists. What must
you assume?
•The other vessel will give way.
•There is risk of collision.
•You are the give way vessel.
•The other vessel is also in doubt.
100. The AIS should improve the safety of navigation by assisting in the efficient navigaton of ships,
protection of the environment, and operation of Vessel Traffic Services (VTS), by satisfying the following
functional requirements EXCEPT:
•As a means for Littoral States to obtain information about a ships and its cargo.
•Put ships under any additional obligation to assist in search and rescue efforts.
•In a ship-to-sip mode for collison avoidance.
•As a VTS tool, i.e. ship-to-shore (traffic management).
101. Echoes in radar observation from two or more targets close to each other at the same range may
emerge to form a single echo. What do you call the ability of a radar to separate this merging?
•Resolution in bearing.
•Diffraction in bearing.
•Refraction in bearing.
•Atenuation in bearing.
102. Which of the observation technique(s) should NOT be used by a vessel fitted with radar to determine
if risk of collision exists?
•Radar scanning.
•Radar transponder.
•Compass bearings.
•Radar plotting.
103. You are in charge of a stand-on vessel in a crossing situation. The other vessel is 1.5 miles to port and
you believe that risk of collision exists. What action should you take?
•Take avoiding action immediately upon determining that risk of collision exists and call her of your
intention.
•Hold course and speed until the point of extremis, and then sound the danger signal, taking whatever
action will best avoid collision.
•Take avoiding action bv maneuver alone only after giving the give-wav vessel time to take action, and
determining that her action is not appropriate.
•Immediately sound the danger signal, change course and attempt to contact her on the
radiotelephone to arrange for the passage.
105. In Radar principle, what does a large vessel target close by may cause?
•Diffraction
•Multiple echoes
•Refraction
•Increased range resolution
106. What is the ability of a radar to separate echoes from two or more targets close to each other at the
same range may emerge to form a single echo?
•Refraction in bearing
•Resolution in bearing
•Diffraction in bearing
•Attenuation in bearing
107. In general, on how many radio channels will an Automatic Identification System (AIS) operate? How
many radio channels does an Automatic Identification System (AIS) operates?
•3
•7
•5
•9
•Rule 19
•Within 1 minute.
•Rapid ringing of a bell in the forepart of the vessel for about 5 seconds, and a gong signal sounded in
the after part of the vessel. She may also sound an identity signal of four short blasts.
•They always appear on a bearing of 90 degrees from the true bearing of the target.
•In the true presentation, it provides a quick visual check to determine if a vessel has changed course.
•Series of its range and bearings.
•3 minutes.
•3 minutes.
•Echo sounder.
•Receive a strong return at about 200 fathoms (366 meters) during the day, and one nearer surface at
night.
•Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at two-minute intervals.
•Being towed.
•Begin sounding one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts at two-minute intervals.
•Arc
•The closest point of a ship or target will approach vour own ship
•Stand on. leaving the buoy to vour starboard.
•When the give-wav vessel is not taking appropriate action to avoid collision..
•Put ships under any additional obligation to assist in search and rescue efforts.
•Resolution in bearing.
•Radar transponder.
•Take avoiding action bv maneuver alone only after giving the give-wav vessel time to take action, and
determining that her action is not appropriate.
•Multiple echoes
•Resolution in bearing
•3
61. For which significant storm event are high values of precitable water compared to climatological
normal often needed?
•Strong convective wind gusts.
•Large hail.
•Flash flooding.
•Tornadoes.
63. Where would you obtain data on currents for areas of the world not covered by the U.S. National
Ocean Service?
•In the Sailing Directions.
•In the Nautical Almanac.
•In the List of Lights.
•In the Coast Pilot
64. How do you calculate the actual depth of water using tide tables?
•Multiplied by the charted depth
•The actual depth
•Added to or subtracted from the charted depth
•Divided by the charted depth
65. In the Norhern Hemisphere, how do the major ocean currents tends to flow?
•Clockwise around the North Atlantic and North Pacific Oceans
•Counterclockwise around the North Atlantic and North Pacific Oceans
•Counterclockwise except in the Gulf Stream
•Clockwise or counterclockwise depending on whether it is warm or cold current
67. What causes the the flow from High to Low Pressure?
•Coriolis force.
•Frictional force.
•Centripetal force.
•Pressure gradient force.
68. On a working copy of a weather map, what is the color of the line that represents a stationary front?
•Green.
•Alternating green and red.
•Alternating red and blue.
•Blue.
69. What time of the day are thunderstorms generally most common?
•Around noon
•Late afternoon
•Around midnight
•Early morning
70. In some parts of the world there is often a slight fall in tide during the middle of the high water period
of stand at higher water. What do you call this special feature?
•Double high water
•Bore
•Double flood
•Overfalls
71. How do the waves behave in the relatively calm area near the hurricane center?
•Mountainous but fairly regular as far as direction is concerned
•Calm
•Moderate but easily navigated
•Mountainous and confused
72. What is the tidal current which flows alternately approximately opposite directions with a slack water
at each reversal of direction?
•Harmonic current
•Hydraulic current
•Rectilinear current
•Rotary current
73. What is the tsunami-like phenomenon of rising water commonly associated with low-pressure
weather systems such as tropical cyclones that can increase the height of a tide?
•Jet Stream
•Fujiwara effect
•A storm surge
•Coriolis effect
74. You are steering a southerly course, and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current. With
considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
•Increase your speed
•Decrease in velocity
•Head your vessel slightly to the left
•Head vour vessel slightly to the right
75. What tide occurs when there is only one high water and one low water occur during a tidal day?
•Semi-diurnal tide
•Diurnal tide
•Apogean tide
•Mixed tide
76. The edge of a hurricane has overtaken your vessel in the Gulf of Mexico, and the Northwest wind of a
few hours ago has shifted to the West. With this indication, where is the location of your vessel?
•In the dangerous semi-circle
•In the navigable semi-circle
•In the low pressure area
•In the eye of the storm
77. You are steering a southerly course and you note that the chart predicts an easterly current. Without
considering wind, how may you allow for the set?
•Head your vessel slightly to the left
•Increase your speed
•Decrease your speed
•Head vour vessel slightly to the right
78. What do you call the periodic rise and fall of the water resulting from the gravitational interactions
between the Sun, Moon and Earth?
•Stream
•Conjunction
•Tide
•Opposition
79. When there small differences between the heights of two successive high tides or two low tides in a
tidal day, what do you call these type of tides?
•Mixed
•Semi-diurnal
•Solar
•Diurnal
81. Where should be the area of the dangerous semi-circle in the Northern Hemisphere?
•Between the ship's heading and bearing to the eye
•Measured from True North clockwise to 180A° T
•Measured from True North counter-clockwise to 180A° T
•To the right of the storm track
82. What current can be experienced when steaming accross the North Pacific from Japan to Seattle?
•Adverse currents for prectically the entire crossing
•Favourable currents for practically the entire crossing
•Favourable currents in the summer months and adverse currents in the winter months.
•Variable currents having no significant effect on the total steaming time.
83. Which among the following is NOT a contributing cause of ocean currents?
•Surface winds.
•Density differences in the water.
•Gravitational effects of celestial bodies.
•Underwater topography.
84. In what publication can you find the velocity of the current in large coastal harbor?
•In sailing direction
•In Notice to Mariners
•In Pilot books
•In Tidal Current Tables
85. You are steaming West in the North Atlantic in an extratropical cyclonic storm, if the center of low
pressure lies to the North, what should be the local prevailing wind direction?
•North
•South
•West
•East
88. Which of the following Meteorological sources of information provides a projection of synoptic
condition ahead in time and covers periods of 12, 36 and 72 hours?
•Surface synoptic analysis chart.
•Upper air chart.
•Change of pressure chart.
•Surface prognostic chart.
89. What is the largest surface current that transports more water than all rivers on Earth combined in a
years time?
•Agulhas current
•Tidal stream
•Labrador current
•Gulf stream
90. What is the usual sequence of directions in which a tropical cyclone moves in the Southern
Hemisphere?
•North, Northwest and East.
•Northwest, West and South.
•Southwest. South and Southeast.
•West, Northwest and North.
91. Which wind will result from a land mass cooling more quickly at night than an adjacent water area?
•Sea breeze
•Fresh breeze
•Light breeze
•Land breeze
92. What will indicate when a weather forecast states that the wind will commence backing in the
Northern Hemisphere?
•Shift in a counterclockwise manner
•Shift in a clockwise manner
•Continue blowing from the same direction
•Decrease in velocity
93. What should be the expected surface wind direction if a surface low pressure system is located south
of you while a surface high pressure is located directly north of you?
•Southwest
•Southeast
•Northwest
•Northeast
94. Which ocean current would you encounter on a direct passage from London, England to Capetown
South Africa?
•Falkland current
•Brazil current
•Benguela current
•Norway current
95. What happens to the waves when a current flows opposite to its direction?
•Velocity increases
•Lenght is increased
•Height is increased
•Lenght is unchanged
98. A weather forecast states that the wind will commence veering. What will be the indications of this
wind in the Northern Hemisphere?
•Increase in velocity.
•Shift in clockwise manner.
•Decrease in velocity.
•Shift in counterclockwise manner.
99. In the Southern Hemisphere, what is that area to the left of the storm track?
•Eyewall.
•Rainbands.
•Dangerous semicircle.
•Navigable semicircle.
100. When is the peak of the hurricane season in the Western North Pacific?
•January through March.
•April through June.
•November through December.
•July through October.
103. On a larger vessel, what is the usual most gentle way of riding out a severe storm?
•Hove to
•Head on at slow speeds
•Running before the seas
•To rig a sea anchor
106. Which of the following radio facsimile transmission show weather pattern based on synoptic surface
observation?
•Surface prognostic chart.
•Extended weather prognosis.
•Surface weather analysis.
•Surface synoptic analysis chart.
107. What is the datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables?
•The same as that used for the charts of the locality
•Mean low water
•The highest possible level
•The same as that given in Table 3 of the Tide Tables
108. Which ocean current is responsible for the movement of icebergs into the North Atlantic shipping
lanes?
•Baffin Current
•Iceland current
•Baltic Current
•Labrador current
110. Which of the following belts of latitude where tropical cyclones normally form?
•30 to 45 degrees.
•45 to 60 degrees.
•15 to 30 degrees.
•5 to 15 degrees.
111. Which of the following is NOT among the principal warm currents?
•Falkland current
•East Australian coast current
•Japan current
•Mozambique current
112. What do you call the difference between the heights of low and high tide?
•Depth of tide
•Distance of tide
•Period of tide
•Range of tide
113. On completion of a voyage, the routeing organization may, on request, prepare and provide a chart
and compares the progress of the vessel during the voyage and the actual weather experienced on the
selected route. What do you call this chart?
•Hindcast chart.
•Extended weather prognosis.
•Nephanalysis chart.
•Synoptic chart.
114. Which of the following information contains in the Sailing Directions?
•Lifesaving equipment standards.
•Casualty reporting procedures.
•Currents in various locations.
•Required navigation lights.
116. What is the process that brings the deep cold ocean currents up to the surface?
•Conduction
•Conduction
•Convection
•Global wind patterns
•Temperature and salinity
117. How long would a steady wind need to blow in order to create a wind driven current?
•18 hours
•6 hours
•12 hours
•2 hours
119. What is the bulletin issued by a weather bureau for the period stated that includes the anticipated
wind, visibility, weather and wave motion?
•Analysis.
•Forecast.
•Synopsis.
•Prognosis.
121. Which of the following is NOT among the principal cold currents?
•East Australian current
•Falkland current
•Peru current
•Labrador current
122. What do you the area of strong westerly winds occuring between 40 degrees S and 60 degrees S
latitude?
•Polar easterlies
•Horse latitudes
•Prevailing westerlies
•Roaring forties
123. Which wind pattern has the most influence over the movement of frontal weather systems over the
North American continent?
•Prevailing westerlies
•Dominant southwesterly flow
•Subpolar easterlies
•Northeast trades
124. When the moon is new or full, which type of tides occur?
•Spring
•Mixed
•Neap
•Diurnal
125. What do you call the current that moves across a lock entrance toward the river or toward the dam?
•Outdrafl
•Cutoff
•Lockwash
•Springpool
128. Which of the following is NOT among the principal WARM currents?
•Brazil current
•California current
•Agulhas current
•Gulf stream
130. Which statement(s) concerning the effect of Coriolis force on ocean currents is(are) CORRECT?
•The deflection of the current is to the left in the Northern Hemisphere.
•The deflection of the current is to the left in the Equator.
•The Coriolis force is greater in lower latitudes.
•The Coriolis force is more effective in deep water.
131. According to Buy's Ballot Law, if you are caught in the left semicircle of a tropical storm, you should
bring the wind on the port bow, and make as much way as possible. Where would be the location of your
vessel?
•Storm track
•Eye of the storm
•Southern Hemisphere
•Northern Hemisphere
132. What causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to curve to the right?
•Earth's spinning on its axis
•Earth's orbit around the sun
•Earth's force of gravity
•Earth's magnetic field
133. Which of the following factors affects the circulation of ocean currents?
•Varying densities of water
•Volume of vessel traffic
•Absolute humidity
•The speed of the jet stream
134. In order for a hurricane to develop, which ingredient of the choices below is needed?
•Broad region of surface high pressure.
•Very strong wind inversion.
•Strong vertical wind shear.
•Warm sea surface tempeatures.
137. A line of clouds, sharp changes in wind direction, and squalls are characteristic of what weather
system?
•Occluded front
•Warm front
•Stationary front
•Cold front
138. What indicates that a tropical cyclone can be expected at your vessel's position within 24 to 48
hours?
•The normal swell pattern becoming confused, with the lenght of the swell increasing.
•A sudden wind shift from Southwest to Northwest followed by steadily increasing winds.
•An overcast sky with steadily increasing rain from the Northeast.
•A daily fluctuation of over 6 millibars in the barometric reading.
140. The approximate distance to a storm center can be determined by noting the hourly rate of fall of
the barometer. If the rate of fall is 0.08 - 0.12 inches, what is the approximate distance to the storm
center?
141. A tropical cyclone has recurved and entered temperate latitudes. In the Northern Hemisphere when
a large high pressure system lies north of the storm, what situation may occur?
•The high may force the cyclone to reverse its track
•The low may suddenly deepen, and the cyclone intensify and pick up speed
•The left semicircle may become the dangerous semicircle
•The low and the high may merge and cancel out the weather characteristics of each
142. A rotary current sets through all directions of the compass. What is the approximate time it takes to
complete one cycle?
•2 1/2 hours
•12 1/2 hours
•6 1/2 hours
•3 1/2 hours
145. All of the following enhance the lightning potetial in a storm EXCEPT:
•Strong wind shear
•Entire troposphere below freezing
•High precipitable water
•Large instability
146. Which of the following radio facsimile transmission indicate future weather patterns for either a 24-
hour or 36-hour outlook for specific regions?
•Surface weather prognosis.
•Weather prognosis chart.
•Extended weather prognosis.
•Surface weather analysis.
147. How many slack tidal currents usually occur each day?
•Two
•Four
•one
•Three
148. What is the name of the warm ocean current that forms as the South Equatorial Current approaches
the East coast of Africa, it divides with the main part flowing South?
•North Atlantic Current
•Agulhas Curent
•Greenland Current
•Canary Current
149. Which of the following Meteorological sources of information provides picture of the existing
condition and shows the position of isobars and other details such as fronts and trough and etc?
•Late afternoon
•Rectilinear current
•A storm surge
•Diurnal tide
•In the navigable semi-circle
•Tide
•Semi-diurnal
•Beaufort force 12
•West
•7-14 days
•Gulf stream
•Southwest. South and Southeast.
•Land breeze
•Northeast
•Benguela current
•Height is increased
•Dangerous semicircle.
•Labrador current
•The difference between the depth of the water and the area's tidal datum
•5 to 15 degrees.
•Falkland current
•Range of tide
•Hindcast chart.
•Currents in various locations.
•Convection
•12 hours
•Prognosis.
•Prevailing westerlies
•Spring
•Outdrafl
•California current
•Southern Hemisphere
•Earth's spinning on its axis
•Cold front
•Southwesterly
•Four
•Agulhas Curent
62. When towing astern, you notice that another vessel is about to pass between the towing vessel and
the tow. What should be your immediate action?
•Shine a spotlight in the direction of the approaching vessel.
•Sever the tow line.
•Slow down and pay out the main tow hawser.
•Turn away from the approaching vessel.
63. Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is suficient freeboard so
that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to
the vessel's stability?
•Jettison topside weights to reduce KG and KB
•Press up any slack double bottom tanks to eliminate free surface
•Flood any empty double bottom tanks to add weight low and down
•Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard
64. What is the biggest problem to be encountered when towing bridle legs are too short?
•Adjusting tension
•Excessive strain
•Hook up to the main towline
•Retrieval
66. If the vessel has suffered damage but it is not in immediate danger of foundering but such that a
voyage to the nearest repair facility is an unacceptable risk, beaching may be the best option. What is
TRUE about beaching procedure?
•When firmly aground, anchors should be laid out from the after part of the vessel
•Study a large scale chart of the available sites that should be ideally sandy or shingle with steep shelving.
•Check the details of tide and beach approximately 10 hours after high water to ensure sufficient water to
refloat.
•Use anchor when making the approach
67. How deep must you sink the vessel if you prepare to load ballast prior beaching?
•Minimum draft
•Above minimum draft
•Maximum draft
•Above maximum draft
69. What is the emergency protocol you must follow during an emergency steering procedure?
«" Gyro” to " Hand "
•" Control " to " Hand "
•" Gyro " to " Control "
•" Hand " to " Gyro "
71. The following are the advantages in using a towing hook EXCEPT:
•To quickly connect or release a tow, especially a sinking tow.
•To prevent the tug from becoming tripped.
•To protect the towline from chafing.
•To faciltate beting.
72. Your vessel is a tanker in ballast involved in a collision and the two vessels are interlocked after
collision. You have already made clear that all people are well taken care off and you will try to separate
the two vessels. What should be your greatest concern?
•That the separation may cause the other vessel to flee from the incident and you will be the only left
to be exact
•The blamed.
time of the collision, postion of the vessel, the cause of collision and the port of registry of
the other vessel.
•That the separation may cause sparks that can possibly ignite the oil or any other flammable
substances.
•That you have all the the permission from the company to do so.
73. Why is it a good practice to use long towlines for ocean tows?
•Weight on the towline increase the towing force.
•Wear on the towline is equalized.
•Dip in the towline absorbs shock loads.
•Danger of overriding is reduced.
74. What is NOT correct while the vessel is dealing with emergencies in stranding?
•Watertight doors closed
•Light / shapes exhibited
•Engine stopped
•Report the accident to the Charterers
75. How would you position your vessel in order for her to be level when it touch the bottom?
•Approach at about 180 degrees.
•Approach at about 360 degrees.
•Approach at about 270 degrees.
•Approach at about 90 degrees.
76. Which of the following is NOT a proper way in addressing steering failure in congested traffic?
•Invistigate for navigational hazards and for the cause of failure.
•Disengage autopilot, start the emergency steering system and maneuver as appropriate, prepare for
anchoring if the depth is suitable.
•.Make sound signal, send URGENCY or Distress messages and exhibit shapes and light, if necessary.
•Report to owner and to authority should be avoided as this will create a bigger issues.
77. What is the term used to describe the dip in a towline that acts as a shock absorber?
•Shock dip.
•Step.
•Catenary.
•Bight.
79. Your ship is navigating independently in heavy ice when it becomes stuck. Which statement is FALSE?
•The vessel may be able to free herself by pumping ballast from side to side.
•The propeller is more susceptible to ice damage when turning slowly than when stopped.
•The vessel will most likely require an icebreaker to free her.
•It is advisable to clear the rudder area of ice by using ahead turns before backing down.
80. The ship greatly depends on the efficiency of steering gear operation. How would you rectify an
unsatisfactory steering?
•To solve this issue, the safety valve and the control lever valve operation are to be checked at regular
intervals and if any problem is noted, same to be rectified at the earliest.
•To solve this issue, the push back lever and the by-pass valve operation are to be checked at regular
intervals and if any problem is noted, same to be rectified at the earliest.
•To solve this issue, the safety and bv-pass valve operation are to be checked at regular intervals and
if any problem is noted, same to be rectified at the earliest.
•To solve this issue, the control and the by-pass valve operation are to be checked at regular intervals
and if any problem is noted, same to be rectified at the earliest
81. You are a Senior Officer on deck on a laden tanker. You have just been in a collision, and have a big
leakage under waterline. What should you do to reduce the pollution as much as possible?
•Level in the tank to be reduced as much as possible to reduce/stop any futher oil spill.
•When wind and current are taken into consideration, estimate the expected oil slick movement.
•Shut down non-essential air intakes.
•Call the company for immediate advise
82. A towing vessel's capability is best measured by means of the following EXCEPT:
•Bollard pull.
•Propeller design.
•Horse power.
•Displacement.
84. What should be taken in during the beaching operation in order to have a good chance of re-floating
the vessel without assistance?
•Mooring lines.
•Ballast
•Anchors.
•Cargo.
85. You are on a ship that has broken down and are preparing to be taken in tow. You will use your
anchor cable as part of the towline. Which statement is TRUE?
•The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be just forward of your
bow.
•The anchor cable should be led out through a chock, if possible, to avoid a sharp nip at the hawsepipe lip.
•The anchor cable should be veered enough to allow the towline connection to be immediately astern of
the towing vessel.
•The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and anchor windlass brake.
86. If one hydraulic pump of an eletro-hydraulic steering fails, how would the vessel's steering can
initially be maintained?
•By activating the accumulator
•By activating the standby pump
•By activating the trick wheel
•By activating the telemotor
87. In which of the following situations will you use the emergency operating procedure to switch fro "
Gyro " to " Hand " operation in open water?
•If in the autopilot's mode the rudder angle indicator moves slowly to bring back the vessel's to the set
heading.
•If in the " Gyro " mode the rudder angle respond is so big causing the vesssel heading going from left
and right.
•If the vessel is deviating from the given course and there is no follow up with corrective rudder action
to return to the proper heading.
•If the Non-Follow up mode is not responding with corrective rudder action to return to the required
rudder angle responds
•Tug should approach from downwind.
•Excessive strain
•Stranding
•When firmly aground, anchors should be laid out from the after part of the vessel
•Maximum draft
•Shortening the tow hawser generally decreases the maneuverability of the tug.
•That the separation may cause sparks that can possibly ignite the oil or any other flammable
substances.
•Report to owner and to authority should be avoided as this will create a bigger issues.
•Catenary.
•Take all practical preliminary measures before damage occurs, to prevent it. and limit damage when it
does occur
•The propeller is more susceptible to ice damage when turning slowly than when stopped.
•To solve this issue, the safety and bv-pass valve operation are to be checked at regular intervals and
if any problem is noted, same to be rectified at the earliest.
•Level in the tank to be reduced as much as possible to reduce/stop any futher oil spill.
•Propeller design.
•Drag.
•Ballast
•The strain of the tow is taken by the riding pawl, chain stopper, and anchor windlass brake.
63. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If your vessel drifts
faster than the disabled vessel, what approach would you use?
•To leeward of the disabled vessel.
•At three times the drifting speed of the disabled vessel.
•Directly astern of the disabled vessel.
•To windward of the disabled vessel.
64. What area of navigable waters may a vessel experience squat effect?
•Only in a shallow water.
•Only in narrow channels.
•Only in deep water.
•In all depths of water.
65. What are the required informations that you will include in your report to VTS?
•Ships Particulars, destination and other relevant informations.
•Course and Speed only.
•Destination only.
•Ship owners, Charterers and cargo consignee.
66. If you are going ahead on twin engines when you want to makie a quick turn to port, Identify from
the following action you ship will turn fastest?
•to reverse port engine, apply port rudder
•to reverse port engine, rudder amidships
•to reverse starboard engine, apply port rudder
•to reverse the starboard engine, rudder amidships
67. A vessel navigating in areas near the terminations of traffic separation schemes shall do so with
paticular caution on COLREG Rule 10(f). Choose from the following steps is non conformance on the
paritcular cautions?
•Step 4: the ship should rely mostly on their naviqational equipments.
•Step 2: RadarVs should be working - at least 2
•Step 1: the ships should be alert, lookouts should be posted
•Step 3: the engines to be on standby and the person steering should be alert
68. Identify from the following drydock gate that consists of a pair of gate leaves hinged at the dock
walls. This gates swing open horixontally, sides and bottom fit against seats in the dry dock walls and
floor when closed?
•Floating Caisson Gates
•Mitre Gates
•Flap gates
•Sliding or Rolling Caissons Gates
70. With respect to shiphandling procedure in ice. Choose from the following statement is TRUE?
•The presense of a snow cover on the ice assists a vesseIVs progress through an ice field.
•Never go \" full asternV at any time while in ice.
•Going astern in ice with extreme care always rudder amidship.
•Enter in ice at medium speeds to reduce impact.
71. You are landing a single screw vessel with a lefthanded propeller, starboard side to the dock. As
you approach the dock you back your engine with your rudder amidships. What should you expect the
vessel?
72. A large container vessel which is equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. Identify from the
following statement is TRUE?
•When dead in the water, it is often difficult to find the neutral position and slight headway or sternwav
may result.
•When maneuvering in port, full ahead or astern power can usually be obtained without changing shaft
RPM.
•When going directly from full ahead to full astern, there is complete steering control.
•When the vessel has headway and the propeller is in neutral, there is no effect on rudder control.
73. When making way in heavy seas, how would you demonstrate the best way to correct the vessel's
propeller from being lifted clear of the water?
•increase your speed
•reduced your speed
•move your rudder back and forth several times
•shift more weight forward
74. Your vessel is executing an overtaking maneuver in narrow channel. Choose from the following the
effect of hydrodynamic interaction in vessel maneuverability?
•The bow of each vessel may turn away from the bow of the other causing the sterns to swing toward
each other.
•Both ships could lose steerage efficiency and alter course without change in rudder helm.
•Both ships could gain steerage efficiency and alter course without change in rudder helm
•The bow of each vessel may turn toward from the bow of the other causing the sterns to swing away
each other.
75. Choose from the following the length of chain in a single anchor in moderate wind and current?
•5 times the depth of the water in good holding around
•8 times the depth of water in deep water
•2 times the depth of the water in poor holding ground
•10 times the depth of the water in shallow water
76. Mooring with two bow anchors has which major advantage over anchoring with one bow anchor?
•The radius of the vessel's swing will be reduced.
•The vessel will not reverse direction in a tidal current.
•The vessel will not swing in with a change in wind.
•A mooring approach maybe made in any direction.
77. During docking with tug assistance and pulling the ship's line at right angle to the ship. What
action to consider if the pilot want to use the engine ahead or astern?
•The pilot should not break the shipVs line.
•The pilot should not get too much way on the vessel.
•The pilot should not keep a steady course so the towing line will remain tight.
•The pilot should not turn the ship toward the direction of pull.
78. Choose from the following tugs that are the compromise linking some of the benefits of
conventional and tractor tugs types?
•Conventional tugs
•Azimuth Stern Drive
•Schematic presentation
•Tractor tugs
79. Most of the companies have their own guidelines for anchoring large ships such as VLCC's OR
ULCC's which should be followed without fail. What method is normally used for anchoring on deep
water?
•Let go method
•Drop 3 meters above sea water method
•Walk-back method
•Drop half shackle above sea bed method
80. Proceeding in a river ports, how would you describe the tugs arrangement, while turning at tight
bends?
•Tugs are made fast at center leads fore and aft to enable controlling of ship's bow and stern.
•Tug are made fast fwd shoulder and aft center lead for better control.
•Tugs are made fast fwd shoulder and aft quarter using tugVs line for better control.
•Tugs are made fast fwd center lead and aft quarter for better control.
81. It is a large basin cut into the shore, closed off by a caisson, and used for dry docking of ships.
•Caisson dock
•Graving dock
•Ground warp
•Slip way
82. Your vessel is transitting a narrow channel with the bank on your starboard side. What approach
would you execute if you are experiencing your vessel start to swing due to bank suction/cushion
effect?
•I will decrease speed and put the rudder hard starboard
•I will increase speed and put hard starboard
•I will stop the engine and put the rudder hard port
•I will increase speed and put the rudder hard port
83. For large container vessel especially on tight situation. Describe from the following statement the
unberthing maneuver?
•Tug aft to pull first thence the forward tug to clear from berth.
•Tug to pull the vessel nearly parallel to the berth to avoid either end from making contact with the
jetty,
•Tug forward to pull first thence the aft tug to pull to clear from berth.
•Tugs to pull at the same time to avoid contact with other vessel.
84. Identify from the following type of bottom provides most anchors with the best holding ability?
•Soft mud
•Soft sand
•Clay and rocks
•Sandy mud
85. When taking a Pilot from a pilot vessel in a seaway, what action would you apply to which way
should you lay your vessel if the ladder is on the leeward side?
•The bow should be to the sea and no way on your vessel.
•The sea should be on the lee quarter withship moving ahead slowly.
•The sea should be on the quarter with sternway on the ship.
•The sea should be on the weather bow and ship moving ahead slowly.
86. What action should the Master demonstrate before he relieves the Pilot?
•He has to ensure the vessel must be in extremis
•He should foresee a danger if the vessel remains on the present course
•He should agree to sign a release of liability form
•He must first request the Pilot to take corrective action
87. Your vessel in the situation that the wave has overtaken you in following seas and thrown the
stern to starboard. How would you correct in order to be along your original course?
•You should use more starboard rudder.
•You should decrease your speed
•You should use more port rudder.
•You should increase your speed.
88. When picking up the pilot in a seaway with the ladder on the leeward side, what approach of
maneuver would you use?
•Put the sea on the weather bow and ship slowly moving ahead
•Put bow to the sea and stop engines
•Put the sea on the quarter with stern way on the ship
•Put the sea on the lee quarter with engines on slow speed
89. Good practice when anchoring requires 9 to 13 meters of chain for each meter of depth. Choose
from the following what to be use in deep water?
•You should use two anchors with the same ratio of chain
•You should use the same ratio
•You should use more chain for each meter of depth
•You should use less chain for each meter of depth
91. Choose from the following the advantage of chain over wire rope for a tow bridle?
•That the chain equalizes towing forces better
•That the chain handles more easily
•That the chain resist damage from chafing
•That the chain is better suited for inland towing
92. Your vessel is proceeding down a channel and loses her engine. The anchor must be used to stop
the vessel. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
•Pay out all of the cable before setting up on the brake to insure the anchors dig in and hold
•Use one or both anchors with a scope of twice the depth before setting the brake.
•For a mud and clay or sandy bottom pay out a scope of 5 to 7 times the depth before setting up on
the brake
•Drop the anchor to short stay and hold that scope.
94. How would you describe which action reduces the yawing of a vessel in following seas?
•To pump out tanks aft
•A shifting of weights to the stern
•A shifting of weights to the bow
•An increase on the GM
95. You are underway in heavy weather and your bow is into the seas.To prevent pounding, what
approach would you use?
•change course in order to take the seas at an 85-degree angle from the bow
•increase speed
•secure all loose gear
•decrease speed
96. Your vessel is docking starboard side to with two tugs in assistance. How would you ensure that
the tugs will hold your vessel off at right angles?
•Ensure steerageway is not taken off.
•Ensure the bow does not close the dock first.
•Ensure the vessel has no head wav at that time.
•Ensure the bow closes the dock first.
97. What would be a way to correct the vessel's screw from being lifted clear of the water when
making way in heavy seas?
•increase speed
•shift the rudder back and forth several times
•decrease speed
•move more weight forward
98. If a vessel reduces her speed without backing, where does the rate of her speed through the water
decreases is primarily depends on?
•Displacement of the vessel.
•Horsepower of the vessel.
•The number of propeller.
•The sea state.
99. Sidewise force of the propeller tends to throw a vessel's stern to the starboard or port, depending
on rotation. Choose from the following statements the cause of the force?
•By torque from the velocity and angle at which the surrounding water impinges upon the proller
blades.
•By back current from the rudder
•By greater pressure on the starboard or port side of the propeller, depending on rotation.
•By lower pressure on the starboard or port side of the propeller,depending on rotation
100. Choose from the following which is known as the force exerted by a propeller which tends to
throw the stern starboard or port?
•Thrust
•Slip
•Sidewise force
•Rotational force
234. What approach would you use, when anchoring using both ancho
and
•Youyou want
must toport
hold arrest the swing of the stern to port?
anchor
•You must hold both anhors
•You must slack both anchor
•You must hold starboard anchor
61. Can you select from the following the effect of the over speeding of the diesel engine driving an
electric generator?
•The excessive exhaust temperatures
•The low voltage trip to trip
•The reverse power trip to trip.
•It will damge the windings.
62. What evidence can you find on a normal manometer reading of turbocharger air suction filter and
normal speed of the turbocharger but reduced scavenge air pressure?
•May be due to cold climate
•May be due to fouling of the turbine
•May be due to fouling of the nozzle ring
•May be due to fouling of diffuser or compressor wheel
63. Calculate your vessel's speed of advance if you have an estiated slip of +10%, RPM of 70 and with a
propeller pitch of 19 feet. LOWEST
•14.44 knots
•13.13 knots
•12.37 knots
•11.81 knots
64. Proceeding at an average speed of 17.5 knots, a passenger ship consumes 378 tons of F.O. per day.
Calculate for the maximum speed the passenger ship can turn for in order to reduce consumption to 194
tons of fuel oil per day.
•12.5 knots
•15.5 knots
•14.0 knots
•16.8 knots
65. Which one would you choose about lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number is most
effective?
•As an additive to slow oxidation.
•Over a wide range of temperature variations.
•Only in very high temperature installations.
•As an additive to depress pour point
66. What is the best tool to measure the number of threads per inch on a bolt?
•pair of outside calipers
•micrometer
•tap
•screw pitch gauge
67. Can you identify from statement below the purpose of an air cooler in a supercharging system?
•to cool supercharge air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry of
moisture into the engine.
•To reduce temperature of supercharge air in order to condense
and remove maximum possible moisture from the air prior entry
•To reduce the temperature of the superchaged air in order to
increase
•To cool the density &air
supercharge also
to to cool down
increase below and
its density dewalso
point
toto
keep the
peak temperature and exhaust gas temperature within limits.
68. What RPM you are require if the pitch of propeller is 19.5 feet and speed required to reach the port at
designated time is 13.77 knots and slip expected is 7%? HIGHEST
•76.55 RPM
•77 RPM
•76.8 RPM
•76.94 RPM
70. Which of the following is a correct point for sampling of system lube oil for on board or shore
analysis?
•Standpipes
•Inlet or outlet of L.O. coolers
•Tank drains
•Purifier outlets
71. Can you identify from the statement below the purpose of an air cooler in a supercharging system?
•It cool supercharge air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry of
moisture into the engine.
•It reduce temperature of supercharged air in order to condense and remove maximum possible moisture
from the air prior entry
to the engine.
•It cool supercharged air to increase its density and also to keep the peak temperature and exhaust gas
temperature within limits.
•It reduce the temperature of the supercharged air in order to
•It reduce
increase the
the temperature
density of cool
& also to the supercharged air inpoint
down below dew ordertoto increase the density & also to cool down
below dew point to
remove moisture from air prior entry to the engine.
remove moisture from air prior entry to the engine.
72.The pitch of your propeller is 22.25 feet and you have been turning 74 RPM for the last 24 hours. The
distance covered by observation from noon to noon was 420 miles. What is the engine distance and the
propeller slip?
•ED 390 miles / slip 8.0%
•ED 395 miles / slip 7.7%
•ED 390 miles / slip 7.7%
•ED 395 miles / slip 8.0%
73.What can you point out about the effect of excessive tappet clearance in 4 stroke auxiliary engine?
•The loss in compression, poor combustion, improper mixing of
fuel
•The&increased
air and gas leakage
engine due to as
efficiency improper closing
espansion of valve.
can take place for a
longer duration and less energy wasted with the exhaust
•The turbocharger surging, loss of rotation of valve spindle gases.
and
high exhaust temperatures.
•The valve hammering, change in timing of exhaust with more side thurst causing greater wear between
stem and bush.
74. Can you identify from the following the type of flow on a modern marine turbochargers compressor?
•A mixed flow
•A turbulent flow
•An axial flow
•A radial flow
75. Select from the following the procedure the lubricating oil is heated before entering the purifier?
•In order to lower the viscosity and improve purification.
•In order to prevent corrosion
•In order to boil of water
•In order to increase the viscosity and improve purification
76. Can you identify from the following bearings below is most widely used for main and connecting rod
bearings of modern diesel engines?
•Split roller
•Precision insert
•Steel-lined
•Poured babbitt, self aligning
77.What conclusion can you captivate if proper lubriction of the main bearings is more easily obtained, in
a single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, than a single acting two-stroke /cycle diesel engine?
•Because the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting two-stroke/ cycle diesel engine.
•Because the bearing pressure in a four-stroke /cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed.
•Because the two stroke/cycle diesel engines require more complicated lubrication piping
•Because the bearing pressure in a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed.
78. How long should a diesel driven pump in full tank capacity could run
in full capacity
•Three hours ?
•Ten hours
•15 hours
•Five Hours
79. Which of the following is the most common method to achieve the best possible combustion on main
engine?
•a beam of solid fuel, hitting a warm piston top.
•an atomization of the fuel injected into the combustion chamber.
•a beam of solid fuel hitting the top of the cylinder liner.
•allow some of the fuel go to the overflow pipe
80. How would you explain a duplex filter unit would be the best arrangement for a continous operation
on a diesel engine?
•The clogging will not occur
•The changing filter elements would be not interrupt engine operation.
•The dropping pressure is half of that through a single filter unit.
•The filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil through the system.
81.It has been reported that Engine room bilge pump was unable to take suction from Fwd.(P) bilge well
while it is taking suction efficiently from Fwd.(S) 8c aft bilge wells. Can you identify from the statement
below is the most probable cause?
•There is leakage in the bilge suction pipeline somewhere between
the
•Thebilge
Fwdwells and well
(P) bilge bilgesuction
pump valve might be leaking
•The Fwd (P) bilge well suction filter cover gasket might be leaking
•The pump needs to be overhauled
83. What would be the result on a 2 stroke marine diesel engine if the oring for Jacket cooling water
sealing is leaking?
•The water will leak into the under piston space.
•The water will come out from the top of cylinder jacket.
•The water will leak directly into the crankcase.
•The water will come out through tell-tale hole provided between the two o-ring
84. Compute for the engine speed if the vessel is turning 120 RPM and the pitch of the propeller is 10 feet
and 9 inches. LOWEST
•13.74 knots
•12.47 knots
•13.47 knots
•12.73 knots
85. What can you say about the most likely cause of too low suction pressure in a freon compressor?
•Blocked condenser
•Broken suction valve plate
•Too little gas in the system
•Brocked condenser tubes
86. What evidence do you think a crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication?
•A slack thrust bearings
•A worn main bearing journals
•A bearing shells shim dimensions
•A torsional stress deformation
87. You have steamed 265 miles and consumed 25.0 tons of fuel.If you maintain the same speed, how
many tons of fuel will you consume while steaming 346 miles?
•33.01 tons
•32.6 tons
•35.1 tons
•37.4 tons
88. Which one from the following valve is not rotating type?
•gate v/v
•ball v/v
•butterfly v/v
•plug v/v
89. What can you point out about the engine witn tie road over an engine without tie rods?
•That the engine components are much lighter leading in overall reduction is engine weight with a high
power generation with the elimination of fatigue stresses.
•That the engine does not require thrust pads for transmission of thrust to the ship's hull as the same is
being taken care of by the tie rods.
•That the engine is very easily aligned after any misalignment has take place between differenct
components of the engine.
•That the tie rods require regular maintenance and replacement like connecting rods and overall engine
becomes more expensiveto cooperate.
•It will damge the windings.
•11.81 knots
•14.0 knots
•to cool supercharge air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry of
moisture into the engine.
•76.94 RPM
•Screw pump
•It cool supercharge air to increase its density such that the dew point is not reached to avoid entry of
moisture into the engine.
•Precision insert
•Because the bearing pressure in a four-stroke /cycle single acting diesel engine is continually reversed.
•Three hours
•The Fwd (P) bilge well suction filter cover gasket might be leaking
•governor
•The water will come out through tell-tale hole provided between the two o-ring
•12.73 knots
•gate v/v
•That the engine is very easily aligned after any misalignment has
take place between differenct components of the engine.
61. Identity from the following statement is CORRECT that the terminal representative should ensure the
loading or unloading cargo in accordance with the hatch sequence and tonnages stated on the ship's
loading or unloadingplan?
63. What are the Proper Shipping Name and UN Number for the substance Bromomenthane?
•BROMOMETHANE, UN1062
•BROMODIPHENYLMETHANE, UN1770
•BROMOCHLOROMETHANE UN 1887
•METHYL BROMIDE with not more than 2.0 % chloropicrin UN 1062
64. How would you calculate the Longitudinal Center of Gravity (LCG)?
•By dividing displacement into the sum of the longitudinal moments of the vessel.
•By dividing displacement into the longitudinal center of gravity of the vessel
•By dividing displacement into the sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
•By dividing displacement into the longitudinal baseline of the vessel
65. Concerning the short exposure tolerance for Benzene, which of the following statement is TRUE?
•The 500-1000 ppm for 30-60 minutes will produce definite irritation to the traches
•The 5.5 ppm for 1 minute is practically intolerable
•The 3000 ppm is endurale for 30-60 minutes of single exposure)
•There is no chronic effects noticed after 20,000 ppm exposure for
5-10 minutes
66. Determine from the following statements is/are FALSE concerning crane cargo operations?
•Never exceed crane namufactureVs limits concerning the safe
working loads of
•Lifting points oncargo jibs.
all equipments must be safely checked prior to commencing a lift.
•Cargo loaded into a containers prior to lifting should be batten down.
•Cargo loaded into a containers prior to lifting need not be secured.
67. A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and another
can emptyand
•4 hours this15tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are set working together on this tank, how long would it
minutes
•2 hours and 15 minutes
•3 hours and 15 minutes
•2 hours and 45 minutes
68. The VCG of a cargo is 12 feet weighing 12,000 tons are loaded in your ship, KG at this time is 29 feet,
displacement of your vessel is 18,000 tons. Solve for the new KG after loading this cargo.
•22.2 feet
•24.2 feet
•21.2 feet
•23.2 feet
69. According to the guidelines in the IMDG Code maximum temperature should the quantity to be
loaded to a tank container be calculated,in order to avoid leakage or distrotion resulting from expansion
due to temperature change during transport?
•60°C
•55°C
•50°C
•38°C
70. Demonstrate which action will best increase the transverse stability of a merchant vessel?
•By positioning a heavy lift cargo on the main deck.
•By raising the cargo bottom to the upright position.
•By ballasting the double bottom tanks.
•By deballasting the deep tanks.
71. How would you identify to which IMDG Code class will refer a marking label coloured green?
•Non-flammable. non toxic gases.
•Toxic substances
•Flammable gases
•Flammable solids
72. Can you distinguish from the following to which curve is created when GZ is plotted in a base of
displacement for constant angles of heel?
•The curves of statistical stability
•The cross curves of stability
•The sets of curves
•The heel correction curves
73. Which of the following is a definition of the control temperature of a dangerous substance as
applicable to the IMDG Code?
•The lowest temperature at which decomposition may occur for a substance in a packaging as used in
transport.
•The temperature at which emergency procedures shall be
implemented.
•The overall average temperature drawn from daily observations
on passage.
•The maximum temperature at which a substance can be safely transported during prolonged period of
time.
74. How would you categorize a cargo loaded onboard in a block stowage?
•Providing port marks on the cargo
•Stowing all the cargo for a port on the same area.
•Providing separation to separate different kind of cargoes
•Loading the cargo with in a pallets.
75. A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each vayage. How would you describe the
cargo boil off normally handled?
•Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks.
•Burned in the boilers
•Vented to the atmosphere
•Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier.
76. When lashing containers,how would you explain the purpose of a bridge fitting?
•It ties a container stack to the deck
•It restrains racking loads
•It ties a container to the container below it.
•It restrains the container against horizontal motion
79.If a pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and another
can empty this tank in 9 hours.If all three pumnps are set working together on this tank, determine the
time would it take to empty it?
80. Who provides the information about moisture content and. The 400 trasportable moinsture limit of
bulk cargo?
•The IMSBC Code
•The stevedores
•In the information books such as Y'Thomas StowageY’ etc.
•The shipper in form of a declaration(certificate)
81. If a weight is shifted from the deck to the hold, which of the following will take place?
•KM will increase.
•KB will increase.
•GM will increase.
•KG will increase.
82. How many cubic meter of space is required to stow 775 tons of cargo with a stowage factor of 1.0
cu.meter if the estimated broken stowage is 15%?
•911.765 cu. Meters
•911.855 cu. Meters
•911.865 cu. Meters
•912.500 cu. meters
83. Which of the following statement is TRUE if the metacentric height is small?
•The vessel's condition will have a quick and rapid motion.
•The vessel's
•The vessel's condition
condition will
will have
have large
large angles
angles of
of roll
roll
•The vessel's condition will be tender.
•The vessel's condition will be stiff
84. Where do you find a list of substances by segregation group and UN number?
•Volume 2. Chapter 3.1
•The Suplement, Appendix 1
•Volume 2, Appendix A
•Volume 1, Chapter 3.1
85. Where will a dangerous substance, material or article not mentioned specifically by name in the
Dangerous Goods List appear?
•In Packing Provision P200
•In the List of generic and N.O.S. Proper Shipping Names.
•In the Glossary of Terms.
•In the List of Class 9 substances, Materials and Articles
86. Where in IMDG Code would you find the IMO/ILO/UN ECE guidelines for the packing of Cargo
Transport Units?
•Volume 1: Part 4
•Volume 1: Part 6
•The Supplement
•volume 2: Chapter 3.2
87. Whcih of the fhe following guidelines describe what a cargo securing manual should contain and how
that information should be laid out? The guidelines give definitions of terms and some useful informati
about certain cargo type.
•Code of safe practice for ship carrying timber deck cargoes.
•Guidelines for the preparation of the cargo securing manual.
•Guidelines for securing arrangements for the transport of road
vechicle on Ro-ro
•Safe stowage andship.
securing of cargo units and other entities in
ships other than cellular container ship.
88. It is the term used to denote a quality deterioration in some cargo which damages the commodity
itself.
•A latent defect
•Deterioration
•Tainting
•Inherent vice
89. In what references would you use to calculate the transverse stability?
•The use of hog or sag calculations or tables
•The use of hydrostatic curves"
•The use of general arrangement plans
•The use of cross-sectional views of the vessel
90. What is your analysis to which action will affect the trim of a vessel?
•The removing of weight at the tipping center
•The adding of weight at the tipping center
•The moving of high weights lower
•The moving of weight forward
91.Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?
•Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence.
•Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge
distributed equallywith
•Start discharging among theoftanks.
most he discharge coming from forward but include some from midships and
after tanks.
•Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaeously as the midships tank is
emptied
92. What is the other term for a deepwell pump?
•Centrifugal pump
•Gear pump
•Eductor
•Screw pump
93. Describe which of the following under IMO Class 5.1 these
substances that yield
•The poisionous toxic oxygen which is liable to increase the intensity of
substances
•The oxidizing subatances
•The substances which when in contact with water, emit
flammable gases liable to spontaneous combustion
•The substances
94. Which of the following are considered a "Cargo Transport Unit" under the IMDG Code?
•Large plastic barrels of 150 litres or more.
•Road transport tank or freight vehicles.
•Military personnel carrying vehicles.
•Railway wagons
95. Choose from the following what do you need to divide from the free surface moments to calculate
the free surface correction?
•The total displacement
•The total weight of liquid loads
•The lightweight
•The deadweight
96. Select from the following what do you need to divide from the vessel's displacement to find the KG
correction for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel?
•The transverse free surface correction for the vessel
•The sum of the longitudinal free surface moments of the vessel.
•The sum of the vertical moments of the vessel.
•The longitudinal centerline of the vessel.
97. Solve for the number of cubic feet of space is required to stow 775
tons of cargo
•46,750 cu.ft.with a stowage factor of 25 ft if the estimated broken
•22.794 cu.ft
•27,224 cu.ft.
•19,375 cu.ft'
98. To make sure that the hatch cover will make a watertight seal, choose from the following should be
checked before closing the hatch cover?
•The hatch cover pulling chain is not slack.
•The wheels are on the trackway.
•The top of the hatch cover is clear.
•The rubber around the underneath of the cover is not missing..
99. Select from the following approximate minimum temperature that will generate rapidly when coal is
being heated spontaneously?
•38°C
•44°C
•48°C
•31°C
100. How would you describe the effect when cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck?
•The GM will increase
•The center of gravity will move upward
•The center of buoyancy will move upward.
•The center of buoyancy will move downward.
101. Choose from the following statement the Code say about the transportation of CHLOROPRENE,
STABILIZED as a "limited quantity" under the provisions of chapter 3.4?
•The entry in colmn 8 of the Dangerous goods List refers the user
to a Packing Instruction, which explains how the substance may be
transported under V'Limited QuantityV requirements.
103. Select from the following which increases when a partially full liquid tank's free surface decreases?
•The displacement volume of the vessel
•The placement of the tank above the keel.
•The size of the surface area in the tank.
•The density of the liquid
104. How would you demonstrate if there is lack of effective ship/shore communication?
•It may result increase risk of polluting the area during deballasting
•It mav result an increase risk of inadvertent overloading ofthe ship's structure,
•It may result an increase risk of miscommunication during cargo
operation.
•It may result increase risk of unwanted structural condition.
105. Select from the following when will a vessel be liable for damage to cargo under the Carriage of Goods
by Sea Act?
•When the damage arises out of overloading.
•When the damage arises out of fire caused by lightning
•When the damage arises out of poor stowage of cargo in a
container.
•When the damage arises out of inherent vice.
107. Which of the following is an advantage of using chain lashing on heavy vehicles aboard Ro-Ro vessels?
•It is more sturdy
•It is affected by temperature
•It is easily damaged
•It has high initial cost
108. What approach would you use to identify the grab damges is a proof for complain, during
discharging of bulk cargoes using grab? 1. Damage to ladders or coamings during free digging. 2.Damage
to bilges covers during the third phase of digging. 3. Damage to frames and i hopper side during the
second phase of digging. 4. Damage to the tank top during the third phase of digging.
109. How would you describe what type of ventilation will you apply, when sailing rom hot to cold climate?
•to ventilate diminishly
•to ventillate excessively
•to ventilate only during day time
•to ventilate only during night time
113. Describe which of the following is TRUE for atmospheres laden with coal dust or grain dust caused by
loading these cargoes?
•The atmosphere is subject to spontaneous combustion.
•The atmosphere may be explosive in some concentrations
•This condition requires loading operations to be shut down until
the
•All atmosphere clears.
dust in the atmoshpere is toxic to human life
115. Choose from the following statement is CORRECT concerning the carriage of coal in bulk?
•Coal should be vented with surface ventilation
•Because of its inherent vice, coal should not be loaded wet.
•A dunnage should be placed against the shipVs side and around
stanchions.
•Through ventilation as well as surface should be provided
whenever possible.
116. Identify from the following listed processes would most satisfactorily lower the humidity of the air
being circulated by a refrigeration system inside reefer cargo holds?
•By cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point.
•by heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then recooling it.
•By haeating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point.
•By cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it
117. How would you determine the list caused by negative GM?
•If vessel has an average rolling period about this permanent list.
•If know weight is in excess on one side.
•If vessel assume a permanent list to one side only.
•If vessel will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard.
119. When preparing the cargo holds for taking cargo of grain in bulk , why does the bilge well should be
covered by burlaps
•to prevent grain from shifting inside bilges.
•to avoid damage to cargo by ballast water
•in order to increase the maximum permissible load on bilge well covers.
•to prevent bilges from taking condensed water.
121.If the TPI curve, as one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessel's plans which gives the number of tons. Can
you identify from the following statement is correct?
•The necessary to further immerse the vessel one (1) inch at a given draft
•The necessary to change trim one (1) inch at a given draft
•The pressure per square inch on the vessel's hull at a given draft
•The necessary to change the angle of list one (1) degree at a given draft
122. Show your understanding what would be the result if displacement is divided into the vessel's LCG?
•The size of the surface area in the tank.
•The placement of the tank above the keel.
•The sum of the longitudinal moments of the vessel.
•The density of the liquid
123. Select from the following precautionary measure to apply by terminal before commencement of bulk
cargo loading operations?
•That the ship and terminal safety issues and regulations
•That the arrangements for safe access to/from the ship.
•That the arrangements for access for crew members through the terminal
•That loading plan and all relevant procedures have been agreed.
124. On a vessel of half full tank onboard which is a principal danger. Can you identify the possible effect of
the liquid cargo?
•The loss of stability from free surface effect
•The rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
•The corrosion from the shifting liquid
•The holing of the tank bottom from the weight of he shifting liquid
125. Cargo Securing Manuals on certain vessels is required by IMO. Which of the following are required to
maintain this manual on board?
•Solid Bulk Carriers
•LNG Carriers
•Ro-Ro carriers
•Liquid Bulk Carriers
127. Choose from the following procedure is UNRELATED on the communication link between ship and
terminal throughout the cargo operation should be established?
•The agreed procedure for the terminal to provide the officer in charge with the loaded cargo weight
•The agreed procedure for draught checking
•The agreed procedure to STOP cargo operations.
•The agreed procedure for access for crew through the terminal premises.
128. Choose from the following that defines the term "flow state"when referring to dry bulk cargoes?
•It is the suitability of loading a cargo by flowing down inclined chutes
•It is the minimum granule size of a particular product where it will blow like a liquid at an angle of 30°
•It is the saturation of the dry bulk product to the point where behaves as liquid.
•It is the state of a commodity when the ship is heeled past the angle of repose.
129. Identify from the following statement are INCORRECT in relation to the content of BC Code?
•Special Bulk Cargoes being shipped
•Dangers associated with the shipment of bulk cargoes
•To give guidance on procedures to be adopted
•To describe test procedures to determine various characteristics
of bulk cargoes
130. Which IMO Class were coal that has shown itself liable or may be liable to spontaneous heating?
•IMO Class 1.2
•IMO Class 5.2
•IMO Class 3.2
•IMO Class 4.2
132. How would you identify the packages of UN 2861 and UN 1120 are intended for transport by sea?
•No specific segregation is required
•Must be separated from each other
•Must be separated by a complete compartment or hold from each other
•Must be stowed away from each other
133. Can you identify the right terminology for the distance of the ship's water line and the free-board deck
after loading operation?
•Center of flotation
•buoyant effect
•Reserve buoyancy
•Center of gravity
135. What is the scale that classify the values for the values of Ton Per Centimeter, Moment to change trim
in centimeters, Displacement and Deadweight for ail draft reading?
•Mean Draft Values
•Draft Values
•Displacement scale
•Deadweight scale
136. How would you classify the Cargo Securing Manual is required for?
•By all container carriers
•By all ships
•By all general cargo ships
•Bv all ship except tanker and bulk carriers.
137. How would you show your understanding of the space between packages which remains unfilled?
•Unfilled trim
•Block stowage
•Broken stowage
•Moment unfilled
138. Choose from the following is a safety consideration when dealing with Liquefied Gas?
•It is cold
•It is caustic
•It is corrosive
•It is cargogenic
141. MV KDFOX a mini-bulk carrier loads at a terminal within a tropical zone. She will enter the summer
zone five days after departing the loading port. She will burn off about 45 tons/day and she will consume 8
tons daily. Can you select the quantity she will load over that allowable by her summer load line?
•225 tons
•245 tons
•265 tons
•235 tons
144. According to the IMDG Code, a freight container which is loaded with a material identified as MARINE
POLLUTANT and which is intended for transport by sea, must display the marine pollutant symbol:
•On each side and on the back end of the container.
•On each side and on each end of the container.
•On the back end only.
•On each side, each end and transversely in the middle of the top
of the container.
146.MVJERINEB takes sudden severe list from unknown cause,what conclusion should the master will take
first?
•The master should assume the shift is due to off-center loading
•The master should determine the cause before taking counter measure.
•The master should execute conterflooding
•The master should assume the cause is environmental forces
149. What system of valves and cargo lines in the bottom piping network of a tank vessel that connects one
section of cargo tank to another section?
•Manifold
•Cross over
•Come along
•Run about
152. Which of the following should a tanker shall perform during loading/unloading of oil products?
•oil pollutioncombat ship
•lowered anchor
•A lowered steel wires at bow and stern
•dropped anchor
154. Identify from the following the unique distinguishing letters denote a Severe Marine Pollutant in the
Dangerous Goods List?
•MP
•P(M)
•SMP
•PP
155. How would you show your understanding on the cargo by which freight is usually charged on the
volume occupied by the cargo?
•Deadweight cargo
•Cargo holds
•Stowage factor
•Measurment cargo
157. What is the purpose of the lashing on the stack of containers with interlocking fittings?
•To restrain the force of buckling.
•To restrain the force of topping.
•To restrain the force of racking.
•To restrain the force of crushing.
159.If drums are made of steel, choose from the following statement is the proper procedure in handling
drum cargoes?
•Lay dunnage athwartship approximately 50 inches apart on the
deck and
•Place place drums
dunnage on the
between the dunnage
first row of drums and the bulkhead.
•Place dunnage between the first row of drums and the double Bottom tanks to stow the first tier.
•Work from the center to the wings of the hold.
160. Choose from the following which is affected the raising when free surface increase?
•The virtual height of the center of gravity
•The uncorrected KG
•The metacentric height
•The metacenter
162. To what source of safety information would you refer in the case of a spillage of a substance identified
with the UN number1230?
•MFAG Table 16
•EmS S-D
•EmS F-E
•Dangerous Goods List, Column 16
163. Can you identify from the following the vessel condition it will fall, if the height of the metacenter is
greater than the height of the center of gravity?
•A neutral equilibrium
•A negative equilibrium
•A stable equilibrium
•Unstable equilibrium
•A complete terminal specific checklist after consultation with ship before loading and unloading
commence.
•By dividing displacement into the sum of the longitudinal moments of the vessel.
•50°C
•The maximum temperature at which a substance can be safely transported during prolonged period of
time.
•Packaging used to contain damage , defective leaking or non conforming packages or dangerous goods
that have spilled or leaked.
•The Supplement
•Start discharging with most of he discharge coming from forward but include some from midships and
after tanks.
•Centrifugal pump
•22.794 cu.ft
•38°C
•It mav result an increase risk of inadvertent overloading ofthe ship's structure,
•1 3. and 4 is correct
•By cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it
•If vessel will not remain upright and will assume a list either to port or starboard.
•The necessary to further immerse the vessel one (1) inch at a given draft
•Ro-Ro carriers
•The agreed procedure for access for crew through the terminal premises.
•It is the saturation of the dry bulk product to the point where behaves as liquid.
•Reserve buoyancy
•Deadweight scale
•Broken stowage
•It is cold
•225 tons
•On each side and on each end of the container.
•The master should determine the cause before taking counter measure.
•Cross over
•PP
•Measurment cargo
•Place dunnage between the first row of drums and the bulkhead.
•EmS S-D
•A stable equilibrium
22. What is your opinion about the bilge keels fitted on ships?
•To reduce the rolling of the vessel.
•To improve the vessel's stability.
•To protect from slamming against pier.
•To assist in drydock alignment.
2. What is your analysis about how many percent a compartment filled with grain cargo has a
permeability?
•It has about 100%
•It has about 80-85%
•It has about 60-65%
•It has about 0%
45. When trading with bulk cargoes that may be corrosive, which of the following precaution/s should be
taken in order to avoid serious corrosion damage in cargo holds? I. The cleaning after discharging should
be carried out properly, in particular when previous cargo was sulphur. II. Prior to taking corrosive
cargoes, the coating in cargo holds should be dealt with as necessary. III. The cargo should be kept as dry
as possible during loading and transit. IV. The hatches should be confirmed weathertight and holds
adequately ventilated.
•I,III and IV
•I,II, and III
•II, III and IV
•I, II, III and IV
25. How would you identify from the following is excluded in the principal factor from the loss of many
ships carrying cargo in bulk? I. deterioration of shjips hull II. structure through corrosion III. fatigue and
damage IV. unreported damage
27. Your vessel has been holed in number 1 hold and partially flooded. The hole is plugged against further
flooding. In calculating the effect of the flooding on your transverse stability, you should use what
method?
•Added weight method
•Compartment-standard method
•Factor of subdivision method
•Lost buoyancy method
52. What do you think is the minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with
machinery aft?
•Five (5)
•Four (4)
•Six (6)
•Three (3)
29. How would you estimate the angle of heel due to shifting of grain?
•Shall not be greater than 5 degrees
•Shall not be greater than 10 degrees
•Shall not be greater than 12 degrees
•Shall not be greater than 15 degrees
31. All statement about hatches, hatchway and hatch covers are correct except:
•Structural members added to the hatches are called stiffeners these area must be reduced.
•Hull stress are concentrated arounf the edge of the hatches and these area must be reduced.
•For efficient loading and unloading, hatches must be large, but it present structural problems.
51. What type of steel is used in crucial areas such as the keel, bilge, deck stringer, sheer strakes and
top/bottom
•High notch parts
toughof bulkheads to provide continual strength throughout the vessel's life?
steel
•Mild steel
•High tensile steel (HTS)
•High carbon steel
19. Which type of weld testing can be used to detect the internal flaws?
•Radiographic
•Dye penetrant
•Chemical reaction
•Magnetic particles
42. How would you describe the result of two forces acting in tensile stress?
•At the same direction along parallel lines.
•At the opposite directions on the same line, tending to compress the object.
•At the opposite directions along parallel lines.
•At the opposite directions on the same line, tending to pull the material apart.
5. If heavy bulk cargo is allowed to freefall from height onto the tank tops. What can you say
about the heavy impact of this cargo on the tank top will cause?
•Accumulate file of debris inside the holds
•Generate unusual effect of the double bottom content
•Loose scale will break underneath the double bottom
•Damage and breakdown of the coatings on the celling of the double bottom tank underneath
3. How could you determine from the following the permeability range of a cargo compatment
filled
•About with grain?
60-85%
•About 85-100%
•About 80-85%
•About 0-35%
39.Which of the following bulk carrier cargoes has the presence of sulphates and chlorides, and
has anore
•Iron ability to produce acidic leachate?
•Coal
•Sulphur in bulk
•Copper concentrate
32. Which of the following is EXCLUDED in identifying the main characteristics of corrosion in the primary
members of the cargo hold region? I. Tank Top Plating II. Hooper tank III. Transverse Frames IV. Upper
Stools and Bulkhead Plating V. Double Bottom Ballast Tank (DBBT)
•V
•IV
•III
•II
8. Your vessel's draft forward is 10.8 meters aft 11.50 meters and mid 11.20 meters, what kind
of stress affects your vessel?
•Bending
•Sagging
•Hogging
•Shearing
12. What explanation do you have on how much space must you leave in a topped off tank for
liquid expansion?
•In practice it is generally 10% to 30% of the tank volume
•In practice no space is permitted the tank must be pressed up to reduce free surface effect.
•IN practice it is generally 3% to 6% of the tank volume
•In practice it is generally 1% to 3% of the tank volume
44.Where would you find the weight concentration which will cause a vessel’s bottom to be
subjected to tension stresses?
•Aft
•At both ends
•Amidship
•Forward
35. Ship are built of steel, which in a marine environment exposed to water (both fresh and sea) and air is
prone to the formation of rust. Which of the following contributing factors that accelarate the rate of
corrosion? I. equipment grab damage II. seawater corrosion III. corrosive cargoes IV. improper method of
cleaning
46. Which from the following four stages generally dealt the corrosion problem throughout the life of a
vessel is INCORRECT?I. appropriate corrosion prevention methods are incorporated into the initial design
of a vessel. II. the use of cathodic protection systems and various types of
protective paint coatings. III. the condition of the hull structure is then monitored at special and
intemediate hull surveys. IV. areas with excessive coating breakdown and/or wastage are then replaced
or repaired during drydock.
•IV only
•II only
•III and IV only
•III only
43. What is your opinion about the bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls?
•As the draft increases
•as the rolling increases
•As the list increases
•As the pitching increases
14. What can you say about a break bulk vessels built with the transverse framing system
instead
•The theoftransverse
the longitudinal
systemone?
provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break
bulk
•That the deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.
•That the transverse system is more resistant to hog and sag stresses.
•That the numerous longitudinal frames cause excessive broken stowage.
49. Where does the shearing stress on a ship's structure are usually greatest?
•At the forward section
•At midships section
•At the aft section
•At the ship's quarter length joints
50.What should you do to prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding?
•Ballast double bottom wing tanks
•Closed any opening to the sea in an off-center tank
•Completely flood high center tanks .
•Close the cross-over connection valve between the off-center
tanks.
53.If your vessel with large metacentric height, what is your conclusion on the vessel condition?
•Expect be less likely to have cargo shift.
•Expect be tend to ship water on deck in heavy weather
•Expect be subject to severe racking stresses.
•Expect to have small amplitude of roll in heavy weather.
4. What is the probable cause if your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tanks
soundings, you found that a fuel tank level has increased?
•Contamination from the saltwater flushing system.
•Condensation of a bad fuel loaded in the fuel oil tank.
•Condensation in the fuel oil tank.
•Crack in the hull portion of the fuel oil tank.
55. How would you describe the routine guidance for Officers when preparing the vessel for
survey?
•All areas of structure whose renewal has already been decided by
the
•All owner
spacesmust
are tobebecut by electricclean
sufficiently arc welding.
and free from water, scale dirt and oil reveal corrosion,
deformation, fractures and other structural deterioration
•All spaces to be cleaned including removal of all loose
accumulated
•All tanks andcorrosion scale
spaces are safeinfor
preparation
access, gasfor painting.
freed, well ventilated
and illuminated with punbctured holes from the main deck.
27. What does it means to "shore up" the main deck for the stowage of deck cargo means?
•Distribute the weight of the cargo by placing fore-and-aft planks on the main deck.
•Weld pad eyes on deck in proper position to secure the cargo.
•Package the cargo in wooden crates so it will not damage the deck.
•Strengthen the main deck by placing pillars underneath it in the tween-decks.
28. Coal and iron ore cargoes, types of coal cargo transported, frequency of cargo operations and
ballasting, ballast ratios, and expected trade routes are a number of main parameters affecting corrosion
rates. Which of the following options contribute in increasing the rate of the level of corrosion?
59. If a vessel is loaded in such a manner that she is said to be sagging, what conclusion can
you draw that is taking placed in the sheer strakes?
•Racking Stress
•Compression Stress
•Thrust Stress
•Tension Stress
60. What is your conclusion on the following statement about the design of bilge keel is
CORRECT?
•That the bilge keel usually protect beyond the extended lines of
the side
•That shell
they areand bottom
joined plating
to the shell to increases
plate with a resistance
weak joint,to rolling.
•That the bilge keel is a critical strengthmember and requires
careful design
•That the areaconsideration.
where the bilge keel is attached is a low stress area.
15. What would you expect on a damaged vessel basis the following observation. A vessel was
damaged and initially assumed a significant list and trim, however, further increase has been
slow
•The vessel will continue to slowly list and/or trim due to the free surface effect and free
communication effect.
•The slowing is only temporary and the vessel can be probably saved if further flooding can be
stopped.
•The slowing is only temporary and the vessel will probably suddenly capsize or plunge due to
loss of stability.
•The vessel will suddenly flop to the same or greater angle of list on the other side and may
capsize.
62. If your vessel is loaded in such a manner that the she is said to be sagging, what kind of
stress is placed on the sheer strake?
•Thrust
•Racking
•Compression
•Tension
7. How would you classify a vessel when the longitudinal strength members are continous and
closely spaced?
•The vessel is longitudinally framed
•The vessel is web framed.
•The vessel is transversely framed.
•The vessel is intermittently framed.
56. When implementing regular inspection for corrosion, can you identify who the responsible person ?
•The company representative
•The Chief Officer and Chief Engineer
•The Bosun and 2nd Engineer
•The Class Organization representative
50. What is the type of stress were two forces acting in oposite direction and along parallel lines?
•compression
•shear
•tensile
•strain
66. Your vessel has run aground and is touching bottom of the first onequarter of its length.
What is the LEAST desirable method from the standpoint of stability to decrease the bottom
pressure?
67. What conclusion can you employ when a section such as a beam is carrying a load there is a
tendency for some parts to be pushed upwards and for other parts to move downwards?
«A shear force is acting
•A transverse force is acting
•A longitudinal force is acting
•A dynamic force is acting
68. What is your analysis if the bulkhead approximates a rectangle in an event where you must shore up
a bulkhead due to solid flooding forward. Where should the shore pressure's center on the bulkhead be
located?
•It should be approximately halfway up the bulkhead.
•It should be approximately one-third of the way up the bulkhead.
•It should be at the bottom of the bulkhead.
•It should be evenly over the surface of the bulkhead.
20. Where can you obtained the best information on the nature and extent of damage on
deck?
•The engine room watch keepers
•Persons in charge of the affected spaces
•Personnel at the scene of the damage
•Alarms & monitoring devices
70. What is the simplest form of hatch cover that is merely lifted off the coamings?
•Roll stowing
•Piggy bank
•Pontoon
•Rolltite
25. What conclusion can you employ to reduce the racking stresses in a ship?
•By fitting a good system of bulkheads
•By fitting a good system of deck girders
•By fitting a good system of side girders
•By fitting a good system of stringers
11. What is the danger of accumulating ice on deck when navigating in the upper latitudes
during winter months?
•Adverse effect on trim.
•Decrease in the reception of the radar
•Loss of stability
•Decrease in the displacement.
74. What is the stress brought about by the uneven distribution of weights along the entire
length of the vessel?
•Torsion
•Hogging
•Sagging
•Shearing
75. It is the moment of any point in a ship's structure that tends to produce sagging or hogging.
•Sheer
•Bending
•Torsion
•Racking
76.What inference can you make on the deflect condition of a vessel with midships engine room and a
cargo concentrated in the end holds?
•There will be a hogging with compressive stress on main deck.
•There will be a sagging with tensile stress on main deck.
•There will be a hogging with tensile stress on main deck.
•There will be a sagging with compressive stress on main deck.
77. Equipment damage like grab is one contributing factors that accelerate the rate of
corrosion. How would you describe the deliberate hammering of the floor and sides of the
hold that will cause a detrimental effect?
•possible loose scale will fall from the ceiling.
•busting of hold lighting fixture.
•damage on the hooper tank.
•structural damage and the breakdown of the paint coating
22. Your vessel has amidships engine room and the cargo is concentrated in the end holds.What is the
condition of your vessel?
•Hogging with compressive stress on main deck
•Sagging with tensile stress on main deck
•Hogging with tensile stress on main deck
•Sagging with compressive stress on main deck
48. What evidence can you find on most break bulk vessels that are built with the transverse framing
system rather than the longitudinal framing system?
•there are transverse system that provides better support to the varying cargo densities on a break
bulk vessel.
•There are transverse system which more resistant to hog and sag stresses.
•There are deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.
•There are numerous longitudinal frames which cause excessive broken stowage.
37. How would you evaluate the kind of stress when two forces acting in opposite directions and along
parallel lines?
•It is a strain stress
•It is a tensile stress
•It is a compression stress
•It is a shear stress
49. You are about to load a heavy cargo with abnormal physical dimensions. How would you organize the
planning to take the cargo?
•Safeguarding the maintenance of adequate stability throughout the voyage.
•Make sure the proper customs forms and labels are on the units.
•Analyze how much cargo can be loaded on top of the abnormal units.
•The broken stowage factor of the unit to other cargo in the hold should be compared.
6. What is a localized corrosion that is commonly found in the bottom plating of tanks are
horizontal surfaces where water tends to accumulate?
•Local corrosion
•Weld Metal Corrosion
•Pitting Corrosion
•General corrosion
84. Which of the following should NOT be used as an oil cargo tank's cathidic protection?
•Magnessium anodes
•Zinc anode
•Aluminum Anode
•Lead anode
85. If a bulker is so designed that with proper maintenance cracking should not occur, what guarantee of
fatigue life span you would expect?
•until 15 years
•until 25 years
•until 10 years
•until 20 years
86. You are on the MV Tasman Mermaid and involved in collision, your vessel is on an even keel and has
a long rolling period with the roll being sluggish and the vessel hanging at the roll's ends. What
conclusion you would employ if draft has increased uniformly and there is about 4 feet of freeboard
remaining?
16. How could you determine from the following would have the greatest effect on a vessel's longitudinal
strength?
•An extensive corrosion to the centerline deck plating.
•A collision damage to the bow, forward of the collision bulkhead.
•A damage to the side shell, midway between the bilge and the stringer plate.
•A grounding damage to the bilge strake. just aft of amidships
31. All statement about hatches, hatchway and hatch covers are correct except:
•Structural members added to the hatches are called stiffeners these area must be reduced.
•Hull stress are concentrated around the edge of the hatches and these area must be reduced.
•For efficient loading and unloading, hatches must be large, but it present structural problems.
•Hatch areas are reinforced by increasing scantlings.
39.Which of the following bulk carrier cargoes has the presence of sulphates and chlorides, and
has anore
•Iron ability to produce acidic leachate?
•Coal
•Sulphur in bulk
•Copper concentrate
59. If a vessel is loaded in such a manner that she is said to be sagging, what conclusion can
you draw that is taking placed in the sheer strakes?
•Racking Stress
•Compression Stress
•Thrust Stress
•Tension Stress
•To reduce the rolling of the vessel.
•IV only
•Compartment-standard method
•Three (3)
•Shall not be greater than 12 degrees
•It is used to stiffen areas under points of great stress between beams.
•Hull stress are concentrated arounf the edge of the hatches and these area must be reduced.
•60-85%
•Chemical reaction
•At the opposite directions on the same line, tending to pull the material apart.
•About 60-85%
•Coal
•II
•Sagging
•IV only
•That the deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.
•All spaces are to be sufficiently clean and free from water, scale dirt and oil reveal corrosion,
deformation, fractures and other structural deterioration
•Tension Stress
•That they are joined to the shell plate with a weak joint,
•The slowing is only temporary and the vessel will probably suddenly capsize or plunge due to
loss of
stability.
•Compression
•Pontoon
•Shearing
•Bending
•There are deep web frames interfere with the stowage of break bulk cargo.
•Pitting Corrosion
•Magnessium anodes
•until 20 years
•To jettison topside weights to increase freeboard.
•Hull stress are concentrated arounf the edge of the hatches and these area must be reduced.
•Coal
•Tension Stress
1. You are steaming in the open ocean of the North Pacific between the Aleutian Chain
and Hawaii. A warning broadcast indicates that an earthquake has occurred in the
Aleutians and has generated a tsunami that is predicted to hit Hawaii. What action is
necessary for the ship's safety
•Calculate the tsunami\'s ETA at your position and turn to a course that will head into the
Tsunami.
•Prepare for sudden, high-velocity wind gusts from rapidly changing directions.
•Securely stow all loose gear, check deck lashings, and prepare for extreme rolls.
•No special action as tsunamis are inconspicuous in the open ocean. •No special action as tsunam
2. Where can you find info about the US coast line, buoyage systems, port facilities,
navigation instructions, weather conditions, and possessions?
•Port Index
•Coast Pilots •Coast Pilots
•Light List
•Sailing Directions
3. What do you call the area that requires vessels to follow the traffic lanes proceeding in
opposite directions?
•Sectoral Allocation zone
•Two-way route zone
•Traffic Separation Scheme
•Separation zone •Separation zone
4. What is the most important point to be taken into consideration if you receive an
information that your ship sails through restricted visibility without confronting any kind of
accident?
•Keep the foghorn ready
•Post additional lookout
•Know your ship inside-out •Know your ship inside-out
•Inform the master
5. Under COLREGS Rule 10, who shall not impede the safe passage of a power driven
vessel following a traffic lane?
•A vessel under 20 meter in length •A vessel under 20 meter in
•A vessel more than 20 meter in length
•A vessel not engaged in fishing
•A vessel of 27 meter or more in length
6. Why do you need to comply with the requirements when navigating in an area which is
controlled by VTS?
•VTS control the traffic flow in the area
•VTS is of utmost importance for vour vessels safety. •VTS is of utmost importanc
•VTS is mandatory in nature
•VTS is to provide you port information
7. What should you do if your weather facsimile prognostic chart indicates that you will cross
the cold front of a low pressure system in about 24 hours?
•Batten down and post additional lookout and engage to manual steering and prepare for
sudden shift of wind direction.
•Batten down and manuever the vessel heaving to.
•Batten down and prepare for gusty winds, thunderstorms, and a sudden shift of wind direction. •Batten down and prepare f
wind direction.
•Batten down and alter course to remain in the navigable semicircle.
8. How would you report a pollution incident to a coastline station when your vessel is at sea?
•By the quickest available means to a designated ship movement reporting station
•By the quickest method provided for in the SOPEP Manual
•By the quickest available means to the local Harbour Authorities
•By the quickest method to a coast radio station •By the quickest method to
9. What is the technique used as a measure to monitor the progress of a vessel on the
planned track?
•It is provided in the option menu of a marine radar where the distance of the lines can be
adjusted by the Variable Range Marker
•It is provided in the option menu of a marine radar where parallel indexing from floating
objects is and accepted technique
•It is provided in the options menu of a marine radar where a set of floating lines parallel to •It is provided in the options
each other appears on the screen parallel to each other appea
•It is provided in the option menu of a marine radar where the orientation of the lines can be
set by using the Electronic Bearing Line
10. How would you estimate the bearing of the center of a storm?
•By referring to the Pascals Law
•By referring to the Theory of Relativity
•By referring the Archimedes Principle
•By referring to Buys Ballots Law •By referring to Buys Ballots
11. You have determined that you are in the right semicircle of a tropical cyclone in the
Northern Hemisphere. What action should you take to avoid the storm?
•Place the wind on the port quarter and hold that course.
•Place the wind on the starboard quarter and hold that course.
•Place the wind on the port bow and hold that course.
•Place the wind on the starboard bow and hold that course. •Place the wind on the starb
15. How would you report a pollution incident to a coast station when your vessel is in port?
•By the quickest available means to a designated ship movement reporting station
•By the quickest method to a coast station
•By referring to the SOPEP Manual
•By the quickest available means to the local Harbour Authorities •By the quickest available m
16. You are planning a passage during winter season using a weather chart. Where is the limit
of the iceberg that may be encountered in the Northern Hemisphere?
•In the vicinity of the Aleutian Islands.
•In the vicinity of the Grand Banks of Newfoundland. •In the vicinity of the Grand
•In the vicinity along the shore of Greenland
•In the vicinity along the shore of Iceland.
17. What's the best action while navigating in a tropical cyclone's vicinity?
•always navigate towards the coast by the most direct route
•batten down and prepare to ride out the storm
•continue to navigate farther from the coast
•take positive steps to avoid it if possible •take positive steps to avoid
18. How would you distinguished a Deep water route from a Recommended route?
•A Deep water route is a well defined route that is accurately surveyed while Recommended •A Deep water route is a we
route is a well defined route Recommended route is a we
•A Deep water route is adequately surveyed for claerance of the bottom while a recommended
route is a well defined route for vessel to follow
•A Deep water route is a well defined route which is accurately surveyed for clearance of sea
bottom while a Recommended route is accurately surveyed
•A Deep water route is adequately surveyed for other submerge objects while Recommended
route is accurately surveyed for clearance of sea bottom
19. What is the traffic lane designated to be followed by ship proceeding in the same
directionso as not to impede safe passage?
•Separation Scheme
•Traffic lane
•Routeing system
•Separation zone •Separation zone
20. Where do the major ocean currents tend to flow in the Northern Hemisphere?
•Clockwise in most oceans in the North Hemisphere
•Clockwise but dependent on a frontal system
•Clockwise around the North Atlantic and North Pacific Oceans. •Clockwise around the North
•Clockwise as it flows towards inland seas
21. How would you classified inflammable solid as indicated in the IMDG code?
•Class 4.3
•Class 5.1
•Class 4.1
•Class 4.2
22. What is the classification of a substance epichlorohydrin under the IMDG Code?
•Class 4
•Class 2
•Class 6
•Class 8
23. Sawdust is liable to spontaneous combustion when impregnated with what kind of material?
•Tung Oil
•Vegetable Oil
•Clove Oil
•Gambier Oil
24. Any flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 pounds or less and a flashpoint of 80°F or
below belongs to what category of cargo?
•Grade B
•Grade C
•Grade D
•Grade A
26. Appendix 1 of the IMSBC Code contains individual cargoes schedules. What kind of information would
you find to ensure the ships crews personal safety?
•A description of individual protective equipment appropriate to ensure safe handling of the cargo
•The hazards that the individual cargo presents
•A detailed requirements for stowing and carrying cargo safely
•A description of each cargo properties and details of handling requirements
27. Substances that may cause the combustion of other materials by yielding oxygen belongs to what
Class under the IMDG Code?
•Class 5
•Class 3
•Class 9
•Class 7
28. What is the general segregation requirements between a spontaneously combustible substances (4.2)
and an infectious substances (6.2)?
•separated longitudinally by an intervening complete compartment or hold from
•Away from
•Separated by a complete compartment or hold from
•Separated from
29. What is the classification of substances that emits flammable gases when it become in-contact with
water?
•Class 7.3
•Class 5.3
•Class 4.3
•Class 6.3
30. The observance of this code harmonizes the practices and procedures followed in the carriage of
dangerous goods by sea and ensures compliance with the mandatory provisions of the SOLAS Convention
and of Annex III of MAR POL 73/78 . What is this code?
•IMO code
•IMDG Code.
•IMSBC code
•None of the choices
31. Choose from the following the relationship between a Transportable Moisture Limit and a Flow
Moisture Point?
•Loading a cargo below the TML represent an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Loading a cargo near its FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Loading a cargo above the FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Loading a cargo at its FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
32. What is this convention that was amended in specifiying the special requirements for a ship intended
to carry dangerous goods, (the keel of which was laid or which was at a similar stage of construction on
or after 1 July 2002)?
•(MAR POL 73/78)
•International maritime soliud bulk cargoes code
•Solas Convention
•International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG)\nCode.
33. Under the IMDG Code, what is the classification of substances that emits flammable gases when it
become in contact with water?
•Class 7.3
•Class 4.3
•Class 6.3
•Class 5.3
36. What is the general segregation requirements between organic peroxides and infectious substances?
•Separated by a complete compartment or hold from
•separated longitudinally by an intervening complete compartment or hold from
•Away from
•Separated from
37. How many Classes of Dangerous Substances are there in the IMDG Code?
•EIGHT
•TWELVE
•NINE
•TEN
39. Molten solid substances with a flash point above 60 celcius degrees and liquid desensitized explosives
are categorized under what Class in the IMDG Code?
•Class 7
•Class 3
•Class 1
•Class 5
40. The IMDG Code gives a coded instructions on packing, marking and labelling of substances. What is
the code if the packing instructions are for liquids?
•P003
•P001
•P005
•P007
41. Which statement is CORRECT about the Master of every ship carrying hazardous cargo other than bulk,
whether
•He mustitconsider
is explosive, flammable,
the special toxic,of
condition health
cargothreatening or environmental
and watch keeping polluting must take into
arrangement.
•He must consider the condition of cargo if any special attention to be given.
•He must consider the case of the cargo if explosive, flammable toxic, health threathening on how it will be
stow on board.
•He shall organize safe watch keeping arrangement and take full account of the nature, quality.
packing and stowage of hazardous cargo onboard.
42. How would you classify the process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical reaction within a
substance
•chemical and continues to a point of ignition?
ignition
•chemical combustion
•a spontaneous combustion
•radiation ignition
43. The IMDG Code gives a coded instructions on packing, marking and labeling of substances. What is the
code if it only requires packagings whcih are approved by the competent authority?
•P095
•P099
•P093
•P097
44. Properties of most gases include an indication of its density in relation to air. What statement would
you select
•When thetovapour
mean density
"lighter isthan air"?
up to twice that of air
•When the vapour density is more than twice that of air
•When the vapour density is less than half that of air
•When the vapour density is down to half that of air
45. A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be found in which of the locations listed?
•Sewage compartment bilges where leaked sewage has accumulated
•Fireroom bilges where hydrazine has accumulated.
•Engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have accumulated.
•Emergency battery storage compartment where discharge gases have accumulated.
46. What is the health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates
allergic-like
•Sensitizer
•Oxidizer
•Sensing hazard
•Skin irritant
47. A drum containing 100 liters of chloride, dangerous goods package, is being shipped from
Milan to
•The following should be available on the package: Mark = UN 2390; Labels = Class 4 and Class 7
•The following should be available on the package: Mark = UN 2395: Labels = Class 3 and Class 8
•The following should be available on the package: Mark = UN 2393; Labels = Class 5 and Class 6
•The following should be available on the package: Mark = UN 2396; Labels = Class 4 and Class 7
48. You are transporting dangerous cargo on your vessel. Who must signed the Dangerous Cargo
Manifest?
•Master or his authorized representative.
•Master only
•U.S. Coast Guard Marine Inspector.
•Shippers
49. What is the correct entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a
cargo?
•Division 2.2 - nonflammable gas
•Class 3 - flammable liquid
•Class 8 •Class 8
•Class 9.1 Radioactive in nature
50. What is the type of a liquid cargo having a flash point at/or above 100°F?
•Flammable liquid
•Combustible liquid •Combustible liquid
•Viscous liquid
•Explosive liquid
51. Under the provision of the BLU Code, the ship and the terminal duties are specifically
defined. What
example of task that should be provided to the master by the terminal representative during
unloading
operations?
•The terminal representative should warn the master immediately if hazardours situation has
developed
•The during
terminal the unlaoding
representative process
sahould monitor the weather conditions and provide the master •The terminal representativ
with the forecast of any local advese weather conditions with the forecast of any loca
•The terminal representative should follow the agreed unloading plan and should consult with
the
•The terminal should make every effort to avoid damage to the ship when using unloading or
hold
52. Which of the following would you classified as a combustible liquid?
•Ethyl alcohol
•Carbon tetrachloride
•Tetraethvlene glvcol •Tetraethvlene glvcol
•Acetaldehyde
53. What kind of product will lead to spontaneous combustion if being impregnated with
sawdust?
•Vegetable Oil •Vegetable Oil
•Tung Oil
•Clove Oil
•Gambier Oil
54. What is the classification of an oxidizing substance under the IMDG Code?
•Class 5.3
•Class 5.4
•Class 5.2
•Class 5.1 •Class 5.1
55. What is the term established as a ceiling to minimize the risk to the health of maritime
worker as a Ceiling Value (TCA)
•Threshold
•Time weighted Average (TWA)
•Threshold Limit Value (TLV) •Threshold Limit Value (TLV)
•Exposure Limit Value (STEL)
56. What fire and explosion hazard is exhibited by ethylene oxide as per the chemical data
guide?
•It does not need oxygen for combustion. •It does not need oxygen fo
•It reacts with water to provide flammable vapors.
•Its flash point is 80.4AIA°F.
•It breaks down into highly toxic fumes of bromides
58. Under IMDG Code, what is the classification of the substances that are liable to spontaneous
combustion?
•class 4.0
•class 4.2 •class 4.2
•class 4.1
•class 4.3
59. The Medical First Aid Guide for Use in Accidents Involving Dangerous Goods provides advice
intended
•The initial management of chemical poisoning and diagnosis within the limits of the facilities
available at sea.
•The accurate transfer of information relating to a spilled cargo to the appropriate shoreside
medical
•The proper documentation to the flag state authority in the event of a fatality involving
dangerous
•The comprehensive and total management of chemical poisoning and diagnosis to full
recovery, with
60. Under the IMDG Code, what is the correct label for corrosive liquids and acids?
•Red and White
•White and Black •White and Black
•Skull and Crossbones
•Yellow and White
72. Your cargo requires fumigation using the chemical Phosphine. What
health hazard does it possess?
•Direct contact with phosphine liquid may cause frostbite.
•The main target organ of phosphine gas is the respiratory tract. •The main target organ of p
•Phosphine gas is denser than air and hence may collect in lowlying areas
•Phosphine can be absorbed into the body by inhalation.
94.Which statement about entering into a tank which has been sealed
for
•Thea longtime is TRUE?
tank should be tested only once to ensure the oxygen content
is at least 14% before
•The tank must be testedentry.
at frequent intervals to ensure that •The tank must be tested at
hazardous gasses have not generated
•If the oxygen content tests at less than 12% you should wear an hazardous gasses have not g
approved gas mask.
•The tank need not be tested for oxygen content if it is ventilated
for more than 24 hours
29. Any flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 14 pounds or more belongs to what
category of cargo?
•Grade D
•Grade B
•Grade A •Grade A
•Grade C
54. Who is responsible under OPA 90 for mobilzing Oil Spill Removal
Organization(OSRO)in the event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid
•Technical Superintendent
•Master
•Quilified Individual •Quilified Individual
•USCG
84. Who is the authorized person which allowed to approved the proper
i operations
•Ship ownerof dangerous goods?
•Flag state
•Shippers
•Competent authority •Competent authority
88. Under what provision does the IMDG code is legally treated as a
mandatory
•Chapter V instrument?
of SOLAS 74 as amended
•Chapter XII of SOLAS as amended
•Chapter VII of SOLAS 74 as amended •Chapter VII of SOLAS 74 as
•Chapter 1.3 of SOLAS 74 as amended
70. Solid substances that are easily ignited and readily combustible or
strike-anywhere
•Class 4.1 matches belongs to what division under Class four of •Class 4.1
•Class 4.0
•Class 4.2
•Class 4.3
120. What important figures for the laboratory to determine on a representative sample of the
cargo
•Flow to be loaded
Moisture on board to ensure that a vessel is not a risk?
Point
•Low Flash Point
•High Flash Point
•Transportable Moisture Limit •Transportable Moisture Lim
112. As per MARPOL, what is the rating for chronic aquatic toxicity to
living thingsToxic
•Moderate of 0.1-0.1 mg/L? •Moderate Toxic
•Slight Toxic
•Highly Toxic
•Non Toxic
27. What is the physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet
describing
•DSpecific whether
Gravity a liquid is lighter or heavier than water?
43. You are loading epichlorohydrin onto your barge. According to the
chemical data guide, at least what ppm could you expect to detect a
•30-40 ppm
•50-60 ppm
•100-105 pp
•10-15 ppm •10-15 ppm
15. What is the only cargo whose vapor maybe utilized as fuel?
•Propane
•Ammonia
•Methane •Methane
•Butane
40. How would you determine the fire and explosion hazard data of the
cargo naphtha?
•Obtain the information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for
Treacle
•Obtain the information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for •Obtain the information con
Tar Camphor
•Obtain the information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for Tar Camphor
Naphthalene
•Obtain the information contained in the Chemical Data Guide for
Solvents
78. Under IMDG Code, what is10the CL7V classification of the substances that
are liable
•class 4.3 to spontaneous combustion?
•class 4.2 •class 4.2
•class 4.0
•class 4.1
82.The person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge at the
facilitypersons
•Both must hold a meeting before starting the transfer of oil. Who
in charge •Both persons in charge
•The person in charge of either place that is doing the pumping
•The person in charge on the vessel
•The person in charge at the facility
81. As per regulations, what below temperature shall ethylene oxide be loaded?
•90° F
•51° F
»70° F »70° F
•80° F
87. For the purpose of regulating tank vessels, what is one of the c
haracteristics of flammable
•It gives off flammable liquids?
vapors at or below 80°F (27°C). •It gives off flammable vapo
•It sustains combustion at a temperature at/or below 100°F (38°C).
•It has a Reid vapor pressure of 18 pounds or more.
•It gives off flammable vapors only above 80°F(27°C).
12. Any flammable liquid having a Reid vapor pressure of 8 1/2 pounds or
less andBa flashpoint of 80°F or below belongs to what category of cargo?
•Grade
•Grade C •Grade C
•Grade D
•Grade A
14. As per IMDG Code, what do you call on gases which can become
liquid under
Liquefied pressure at ambient temperature?
gases Liquefied gases
•Flammable gases
•Inert gases
•Dissolve gases
37. Can you select from the following on how you would ensure the
crew
•The safety
masterand the safe
should transport
ensure that theofopening
cargoesand
prior to loading
closing of anythe
high
•Theballast tank dump
side sparring valves
and pipe are properly
guards designedlogged.
to protect internal hull
members should be in place.
•The possibility of damage to the ship and the safety of those who
work in the cargo
•The master shouldspaces should
ensure be considered.
that the capacity of the bilge pumping •The master should ensure t
system should be ascertained. system should be ascertaine
39.What is the requirement for a cargo pump to be separated from all
sources forcofferdam
•Gas tight a vessel handling grade B liquids?
•Watertight crew spaces
•Watertight cargo spaces
•Gas tight bulkheads •Gas tight bulkheads
•Coast Pilots
•Separation zone
•It is provided in the options menu of a marine radar where a set of floating lines
parallel to each other appears on the screen
•Place the wind on the starboard bow and hold that course.
•A Deep water route is a well defined route that is accurately surveyed while
Recommended route is a well defined route
•Separation zone
•Class 4.1
•Class 6
•Vegetable Oil
•Grade C
•Steel
•Class 4.3
•IMDG Code.
•Loading a cargo above the FMP represents an unacceptably high risk for vessels
•Solas Convention
•Class 4.3
•Combustible liquid
•Non-flammable gas
•NINE
•Yes. But they must be declared as dangerous goods and the container would need to be provided with a
packing certificate to effect that the goods have been packaged, labeled and stowed in accord with the
IMDG Code.
•Class 3
•P001
•He shall organize safe watch keeping arrangement and take full account of the nature, quality.
packing and stowage of hazardous cargo onboard.
•a spontaneous combustion
•P099
•Class 8
•Combustible liquid
•The terminal representative sahould monitor the weather conditions and provide the master
with the forecast of any local advese weather conditions
•Tetraethvlene glvcol
•Vegetable Oil
•Class 5.1
•class 4.2
•Grade A
•Quilified Individual
•Grade E
•Competent authority
•lt is the maximum water content expressed as a percentage at which a sample of cargo to
begin to lose shear strength.
•Class 4.1
•Class 4.3
•Moderate Toxic
•Poisonous substance
•Grade A
•10-15 ppm
•Methane
•Phosphine
•class 4.2
»70° F
•the chemical management of chemical poisining and diagnosis within the limits of the
facilities available at sea.
•0.05
•Oxidizing substance
•Class 8
•Calculated values of air draught and mid draught, observed values
of the vessels draft
•Cotton
•Methane
•Grade C
•One half the ullage of the tank and one meter above the tank
bottom
•Grade B
•Grade C
Liquefied gases
•The master should ensure that the capacity of the bilge pumping
system should be ascertained.
62. When a patient has a high fever, what is the safest and simplest ways to reduce his body
temperature?
•Placing an ice bag on the chest.
•Placing an ice bag on the feet.
•An ice water shower.
•A tepid sponge bath.
63. What is the quickest method to relieve pain for small first degree burn?
•Immerse the burn in cold water.
•Apply petroleum jelly
•Apply bandage to exclude air.
•Administer aspirin
64. Which of the following procedure should NOT be done to a person who has fainted?
•Loosen the clothing of the victim
•Lay the victim horizontally.
•Give the victim a pain reliever.
•Revive the person with smelling salt.
65. What is the noise level limit for navigating bridge and chart room?
•70 decibels (A)
•60 decibels (A)
•65 dedbels (A)
•55 decibels (A)
66. How much air is consumed by the user of respiratory equipment if he is engage in heavy work?
•About 40 to 45 liters per minute
•About 20 to 25 liters per minute
•About 25 to 30 liters per minute
•About 30 to 35 liters per minute
67. Sudden cardiac arrest is a leading cause of death among adults. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
dramatically increase the chance of survival for victim. How will you perform the rate of compression in
conducting CPR?
•Give at least 60 compressions and 30 breaths per minute in cycles (or sets) of 60 compression and 30
breaths (60:30).
•Give at least 30 compressions and 30 breaths per minute in cycles (or sets) of 30 compression and 30
breaths (30:30).
•Give at least 50 to 60 compressions per minute in cycles (or sets) of 15 compression and 1 breaths
(15:1).
•Give at least 100 to 120 compressions per minute in cycles (or sets) of 30 compression and 2 breaths
(30:2).
68. If one of your crew suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. What should you do?
•Administer oxygen immediately.
•Let him lie on his side.
•Check his pulse and start CPR.
•Make the victim as comfortable as he could be.
69. For small first-degree burns what is the quickest method to relieve pain?
•Apply a bandage to exclude air
•Administer aspirin
•Immerse the burn in cold water
•Apply petroleum jelly
70. What is the most effective treatment for warming a crew suffering from hypothermia?
•Raising body tempeerature rapidly by placing hands and feet in hot water.
•Laying prone under heat lamps to rewarm rapidly.
•Running or jumping to increase circulation.
•Bundling the body in blanket to rewarm gradually.
•Immediately check his pulse and start CPR.