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FULL MOCK TEST- 4
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FULL MOCK IN ENGLISH 4TH

MATHS
1. A trader bought 10 kg of apples for Rs. 405 out of which 1 kg of apples were found to be
rotten. If he wishes to make a profit of 10% at what rate should he sell the remaining apples
per kg?
(a) 49.5 (b)48
(c)46 (d) 47

2. A sells a bicycle to B at a profit of 20% B sells it to Cat a profit of 25%. If pays Rs. 225/- for it,
the cost price of the bicyle for A is:
(a) Rs. 110/- (b) Rs. 125/-
(c) Rs. 120/- (d) Rs. 150/-

3. The students in three classes are in the ratio 2:3:5 If 20 students are increased in each class,
the ratio changes to 4:5:7 originally the total number of students was:
(a) 50 (b) 90
(c) 100 (d) 150

4. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 2:5 and the sum of their squares is 1862. The smallest of
these numbers is ?.
(a) 24 (b) 21
(c) 14 (d) 35

5. If A:B = 3:4, B: C = 5:7 and C D = 8: 9 then A: D is equal to of .

(a) 3:7 (b) 7:3
(c) 21:10 (d) 10:21

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REASONING

6. In a row of children, A is 9th from left and B is 5th from right. If A and B interchange their
places, then A will be at 18th from left. What will be the position of B from right?
(1) 14 (2) 9 (3) 5 (4) 18

7. Of the five members of a panel sitting in a row, A is to the left of B, but on the right of C, D is
on the right of B but is on the left of E. Find the member who is sitting in the middle.
(1) B (2)D (3) A (4)C

8. A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not

sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A
is on the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position is A sitting ?
(1) Between B and D
(2) Between B and C
(3) Between E and D
(4) Between c and E

9. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre, and A and P are at the ends.
R is sitting on the left of A. Then who is on the right of P?
(1) A (2) X (3) S (4) Z

10. Five boys are sitting in a row. a is on the right of B, E is on the left of B, but to the right of C.
If A is on the left of D, who is sitting in the middle?
(1) E (2)B (3) A (4) C

11.A is the son of B, while B and C are sisters to one another. E is the mother of C. If D is the
son of E,
which of the following statements is correct?
(1) D is the maternal uncle of A
(2) E is the brother of B
(3) D is the cousin of A
(4) B and D are brothers

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12. P is the father of T. T is the daughter of M. M is the daughter of K. What is P to K?

(1) Father (2) Father-in-law
(3) Brother (4) Son-in-law

13. If (i) M IS N's brother (ii) B is N's brother and (iii) M Is D's brother, then which option is
right?
(1) N is B's brother
(2) N is D's brother
(3)M is B's brother
(4) None of these

14. P,Q, R,S,T,U are 6 members of a family in which there are two married couples.T, a teacher
is married to a doctor who is mother of R and U.Q. the lawyer is married to P-Phas one son
and one grandson. Of the two married ladies one is a house wife. There is also one student
and one male engineer in the family. Which of the following is true about the grand-daughter
of the family?
(1) She is a lawyer
(2) She is an engineer
(3) She is a student
(4) She is a doctor

15. Sita is the niece of Ashok. Ashok's mother is LakshmiKalyani is Lakshmi's mother. Kalyani's
husband is Gopal. Parvathi is the mother-in-law of Gopal. How is Sita related to Gopal?
(1) Great grandson's daughter
(2) Gopal is Sita's father
(3) Sita is Gopal's great grand-daughter
(4) Grand niece

G.S HISTORY
16. Chief centre of Wahabi Movement during 19th century was:
(a) Lahore (b) Patna
(c) Amritsar (d) Pune

17. Kuka Movement was organized by -

(a) Guru Ram Das (b) Guru Nanak
(c) Guru Ram Singh (d) Guru Gobind Singh

18. The Pagalpanthi rebellion was indeed a rebellion of:

(a) Bhils (b) Garos
(c) Gonds (d) Koliyas

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19. The policy of 'Security cell' is related with-

(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Henry Lawrence (d) Lord Hastings

20. Who among the following abolished 'Dual Government system in Bengal ?
(a) Robert Clive (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Warren Hastings (d) None of the above

21. Which Governor- General was prosecuted for impeachment?

(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Lord Wellesley

22. Who established the judicial organization in India?

(a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Attlee (d) Lord Curzon

23. Who among the following Governor-Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India
which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis (d) William Bentinck

24.Which one of the following was the last Governor Bengal appointed by the Mughal
Emperor?
(a) Sarfraz Khan
(b) Murshid Quli Khan
(c) Alivardi Khan
(d) Shujauddin Muhammad Khan

25. Which of the following war began the consolidation of British supremacy over India ?
(a) Battle of Buxar
(b) Battle of Plassey
(c) IIIrd Battle of Mysore
(d) Independence Struggle of 1857

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POLITY
26. The Fundamental Duty to uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
is mentioned at number
(a) four (b) one
(c) two (d) three

27. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian
citizen?
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and (d) Neither 1 nor 2

28. Under which Articles of Indian Constitution, provision for Fundamental Duties has been
made by the 42-Constitutional Amendment Act?
(a) Article 50 (b) Article 51A
(c) Article 52 (d) Article 53

29. The provisions relating to Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were added on
the recommendation of:
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (b) Iyengar Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee (d) Thakkar Commission

30.Indian Parliament has the power to create a new State under which of the following
Constitutional provisions?
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 2
(c) Article 3 (d) Article 4

31. The power to carve out a new State is vested in-

(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The Council of Ministers
(d) States' Reorganisation Commission

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32. Which one of the following is empowered to alter the boundaries of States under the
Constitution of India?
(a) Parliament (b) Lok Sabha
(c) President (d) Supreme Court

33. Who among the following has the executive power to admit a State in the Union or
establish new States ?
(a) Parliament (b) Lok Sabha
(c) Political Parties (d) Central Government

34. Which of the following is correct?

(a) The Nehru Report (1928) had advocated the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution of India.
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935 referred to Fundamental Rights.
(c) The August Offer, 1940, included the Fundamental Rights.
(d) The Cripps Mission 1942 referred to Fundamental Rights.

35. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a state
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many

ECONOMICS
36. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances (b) Deposits
(c) Investments (d) Money at call and short notice

37. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor for reducing risk
of currency crisis-
1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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38.The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the

(a) Banks Board Bureau (b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Management of concerned bank

39.Money Inflation can be explained better as.

(a) High prices
(b) Increase in price index
(0) Increase in purchasing power of money
(d) Increase in prices of specific commodities

40. A zero rate of Inflation prevails necessarily in a year where the annual rate of inflation
(a) In every week of the year is zero
(b) is falling in every week of the year
(c) Is both falling and rising in a year
(d) Is constant in every week of the year

41. Which one of the following governmental steps has proved relatively effective in
controlling
the double-digit rate of inflation in the Indian economy during recent years?
(a) Enhanced rate of production of all consumer goods
(b) Streamlined public distribution system
(c) Pursuing an export-oriented strategy
(d) Containing budgetary deficits and unproductive expenditure

42: The first year in which the rupee was devalued in India was:
(a) 1949 (b) 1966
(C) 1972 (d) 1990

43. Which one of the following is covered by the KISAN CREDIT CARD scheme?
(a) Consumption credit and investment credit
(b) Consumption credit only
(c) Investment credit only
(d) None of the above

44: The payment of foreign trade is related to –

(a) Import properties (b) From export properties
(C) Foreign trade multiplier (d) Balance of Payments

45: Globalization does not include

(a) Decrease in Import duty (b) Elimination of import licensing
(c) Free flow of Foreign Direct Investment (d) Public sector equity investment.

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SCIENCE
46. Which of the living tissues acts as the carrier of organic nutrients in higher plants ?
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Cortex
(d) Epidermis

47. Which of the following elements is not essential for plant growth?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium

48.Which of the following is macronutrient in relation to growth of plants?

(a) Potassium
(b) Zinc
(c) Boron
(d) Chorine

49.which of the following elements is NOT micronutrient in plants?

(a) Iron (e) Copper
(b) Manganese (d) Magnesium

50.Which one of the following is not an essential nutrient for plants?

(a) Boron
(b) Potassium
(c) Sodium
(d) Magnesium

51.Under Palaeobotany, one studies -

(a) Fossil of animals
(c) Fungi
(b) Algae
(d) None of these

52. Rearing silk worms is known as

(a) Apiculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Floriculture

53. Honey bees are used in :

(a) Sericulture
(b) Tissue culture
(c) Apiculture

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(d) Pisciculture

54. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Cultivation Nomenclature of Cultivation
(a) Flower Cultivation - Floriculture
(b) Crop Cultivation - Agronomy
(c) Vegetable Cultivation - Horticulture
(d) Fruit's Cultivation - Pomology

55.Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Apiculture - Honey bee
(b) Sericulture - Silkworm
(c) Pisciculture - Insect of lakh
(d) Horticulture – Flower

COMPUTER
56. The use of Computers in Governance known as
(a) Computer Governance
(b) E.mal Governance
(c) Internet Governance
(d) E-Governance

57. A computer derives its strength from

(a) Its speed
(b) Accuracy
(c) Memory
(d) All of the above

58. Multimedia can contain:

(a) Numeric, text, and picture data
(b) Graphics, animation, video, music and voice
(c) Only numeric type data
(d) None of the above

59. O.M.R. stands for :

(a) Optical Mark Reader
(b) Optical Machine Reader
(c) Octal Machine Reader
(d) Octal Mark Reader

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60. Which one of the following expresses error in computer data

(a) Chip
(b) Byte
(c) Bug
(d) Bit

LABOUR LAW
(61). Section 2(d) of the Provident Fund Act defines ………
A. hazardous process
B. employee
C. employment
D. controlled industry

(62). The term “Employer” is defined in the section ……….. of the PF Act.
A. 2(e)
B. 2(g)
C. 2(f)
D. 2(m)

(63). The term “Employee” is defined in the section …… of the PF Act, 1952.
A. 2(ab)
B. 2(g)
C. 2(f)
D. 2(d)

(64). The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section ……. of the PF Act, 1952
A. 2 (gg)
B. 2(hh)
C. 2(ff)
D. 2(cc)

(65). An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted under section………

A. 26
B. 17
C. 14
D. 20

(66). The term “Exempted Establishment” is defined under which section of the EPF Act, 1952?
A. 2(aaa)
B. 2(ee)
C. 2(j)

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D. 2(fff)

(67). Section 2(g) of the PF Act defines ………………

A. non-exemption
B. exemption
C. factory
D. exempted job

(68). The term “Fund” is defined under section ………. of the PF Act, 1952
A. 2(i)
B. 2(h)
C. 2(k)
D. none of these

(69). Under the PF Act, 1952 “Insurance Fund” means ……………

A. unit linked insurance plan
B. deposit linked insurance fund
C. employees’ group accident insurance
D. medical insurance fund

(70). The scheme defined under section 2(i-b) of the PF Act, 1952 is ……………..
A. pension scheme
B. provident fund scheme
C. family pension scheme
D. insurance scheme

(71). The section 2(i-a) of PF Act, 1952 defines………..

A. member
B. insurance
C. insurance fund
D. none of these

(72). The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the Section ……… of the PF Act,
1952.
A. 8-a
B. 7-b
C. 6-c
D. 5-d

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(73). The term “Member” is defined in the section ………… of the PF Act, 1952.
A. 2(j)
B. 2(u)
C. 2(m)
D. 2(p)

(74). Section 2(k-A) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………..

A. occupier of the factory
B. pension fund
C. establishment
D. pension scheme

(75). The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section (2) of the section ………
A. 8-a
B. 7-a
C. 6-a
D. 5-a

CURRENT
76 . With reference to Mugger Crocodile, consider the following statements:
1. These are mainly restricted to the Indian subcontinent.
2. They are found in freshwater habitat types but not in coastal saltwater lagoons.
3. They are designated as Critically endangered under IUCN list of threatened species.
Choose the correct option from the given code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

77. Consider the following statements regarding the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
1. 100% equity of IPPB is owned by the Government of India.
2. It is governed by the Finance Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. With reference to Project 75, consider the following statements:

1. Project-75 has been undertaken with transfer of technology from Israel Naval Group
company.
2. Submarine Vagsheer, a part of Project-75, is a diesel attack submarine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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79. With reference to Remission of Duties and Taxes on Export Products (RoDTEP) scheme,
consider the following statements:
1. It was started in 2021 as a replacement for the Merchandise Export from India Scheme
(MEIS).
2. Iron & steel and Pharma sectors are omitted from the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. Consider the following statements:

1. Haemophilia is a rare medical condition in which the ability of blood to clot is severely
reduced.
2. Men are more vulnerable to haemophilia than women.
3. According to the World Federation of Haemophilia, India emerges as the country with the
highest count of persons with Haemophilia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

81. With reference to World Heritage Site, consider the following statements:
1. World Heritage Sites are designated by UNESCO.
2. Ajanta Caves and Ellora Caves is India's first and the only “Mixed World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

82. Consider the following statements with reference to the Hunar Haat:
1. It has been conceptualised to protect and promote the country’s ancestral legacy of arts and
crafts.
2. Its theme is Make in India and Atma Nirbhar Bharat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. Consider the following statements with reference to the UDAN Scheme:
1. Its objective is to develop the international and regional aviation market.
2. Financial incentives from the Centre, state governments and airport operators are extended
to selected airlines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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84. Which of the following is/are the impacts of parboiling the rice?
1. It increases the chances of the rice kernel breaking during milling.
2. It increases the nutrient value of the rice.
3. Makes rice more vulnerable to insects and fungi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

85. With reference to Polio, consider the following statements:

1. It is caused by protozoa.
2. There is no cure but it can be prevented.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

ACCOUNT
86. Due to lack of audit evidence, auditor issues a........
(a) Qualified opinion (b) Unqualified opinion
(c) Adverse opinion (d) Disclaimer of opinion

87. When an auditor does not have any objection regarding the information under
(a) Qualified opinion (b) Adverse opinion
(c) Unqualified opinion (d) Negative opinion

88. Copyright should be revalued at the date of the

(a) Balance sheet (b) Audit report
(c) internal check (d) None of these

89. Internal auditor is appointed by ........

(a) Management (b) Shareholders
(c) Government (d) Statutory body

90........... is the medium through which an auditor expresses his opinion on the state of affairs
of the client's business.
(a) Audit report (b) Audit certificate
(c) Audit programme (d) Audit planning

91. If there is a capital loss, the auditor should

(a) Not allow payment of dividend
(b) Allow payment of dividends
(c) Allow payment of dividends after making such losses good
(d) None of the above

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92. Audit done by the employees of the business undertaking is called ..........
(a) Final audit (b) Internal audit
(c) Company audit (d) Statutory audit

93. Internal auditor of a company must be .......

(a) Cost accountant (b) Chartered accountant
(c) ICWA (d) Need not possess any professional qualification

94. Internal control includes

(a) Internal audit (b) Internal check
(c) Both internal audit and internal check (d) Internal check and external audit

95. Techniques to obtain audit evidence are

(a) Inspection (b) Recalculation
(c) External confirmation (d) All of these

96. The books of account etc. of the company shall be kept at the ........... of the company.
(a) Corporate office (b) Branch office
(c) Registered office (d) Head office

97. A progressive audit programme is also programme

(a) Tailor made (b) Man made
(c) Auditor made (d) Skeleton

98. Civil liability of an auditor implies liability for called a -

(a) Misappropriation of cash (b) Misappropriation of goods
(c) Fraud (d) Misfeasance

99. A company auditor can be removed before expiry of his term by

(a) Shareholders (b) Board of Directors
(c) Central Government (d) State Government

100. When the auditor is an employee of the organization being audited, the audit is classified
as ........
(a) Internal (b) External
(c) Compliance (d) Both a & b

ENGLISH
FILL IN THE BLANKS
101. We didn’t ______ the programme to be such a huge success.
a) except b)expect c)access d)accept

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102. We should ______ opportunities as they arise.

a)cease b)size c)sneeze d)seize

103. The students’ aren’t prepared _______ the examination.

a) to listen b) to work c)to take d)to give

104. The government, in a bid to make Bihar a preferred investment destination, has
_________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.
a) opposed b)opened c)pushed d)launched

105. I suffer from no________ about my capabilities.

a) doubts b)hallucinations c)imaginations d)illusions

106.The child was so spoiled by her indulgent parents that she became _______ when she did
not receive all of their attention.
a)discreet b)suspicious c)sullen d)elated

107. His directions to the driver were _______ and helped him to reach on time.
a)explicit b)implicit c)expletive d)implicate

Idiom phrases

108. Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
Spick and Span
(a) High and low (b) Dark and light
(c) Neat and clean (d) Happy and sad

109. Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.
To draw the longbow
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(a) To nullify (b) To exaggerate

(c) To underrate (d) To demarcate

One Word Substitution

Q.110 A person who eats too much

(A) Sensualist
(B) Omnivore
(C) Reveller
(D) Glutton

Q.111 Animals that can live on land and water

(A) Gregarious
(B) Reptiles
(C) Amphibians
(D) Aquatic

Spotting errors
112. I saw him (1)/a couple of times (2)/ since May (3). /No error (4)

113. Tea (1)/which I am drinking (2)/ is hot (3). /No error (4)

114. Although the pol ice officer sympathised with poor (1)/ he refused to (2) /take an action
against the rich man (3). /No error (4)

Antonyms
115. improvident
a. cautious b. fortunate
c. proven d. intelligent

116. demur
a. embrace b. crude

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c. boisterous d. falter

117. fatuous
a. crafty b. frugal
c. sensible d. inane

Synonyms
118. louche
a. gauche b. fine
c. brilliant d. indecent

119. stentorian
a. violent b. misbegotten
c. loud d. stealthy

120. ramble most nearly means

a. knot b. confuse
c. wander d. wonder

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ANSWER SHEET
MATHS
1. ANS-A

2.ANS-D

3.ANS-C

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4.ANS-C

Hence , smallest is 14
5.ANS-D

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REASONING
6.ANS -1

7.Ans -2

8.Ans -2
Sitting arrangement EBACD

9.Ans -2
Right arrangement will be ; PXSZRA

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10.Ans 2

11. ANS-1.
B is mother of A
C is daughter of E
D is brother of B and C
Therefore, D is maternal uncle of A

12. ANS-4.
M is mother of Tand wife of P.
Therefore, P is son-in-law of K

13. ANS-3
M and B are brother of D and N.
The sex of D and N is not clear.
M is B's brother

14.ANS-3
T is a teacher. He is father of Rand U.
Tis husband of S, who is doctor.
Q is husband of P. P iş housewife.
Q is father of T
Grandson of the family is an engineer.
Grand daughter of the family is a student

15.ANS-3.

G.S HISTORY

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16. Ans. (b)

Wahabi Movement offered a serious and organized threat to British supremacy in India during
the 19th century. The movement was led by Syed Ahmed, who was greatly influenced by the
teachings of Abdul Wahab of Arabia and Shah Walliulah, the saint of Delhi. It was a revivalist
movement which stated that the return to the true spirit of Islam was the only way to get rid
of the socio-political oppression. By efforts of Syed Ahmad, Wahabi ideology was spread in
Kabul, North-West Frontier province, Bengal, Bihar and Central Provincial regions. In 1830
Syed occupied Peshawar for sometimes and issued coins by his name but later in the following
year Syed Ahmed lost his life in Battle of Balakot. Patna became the centre of the Wahabi
Movement after the death of Syed Ahmad.
17.Ans.(c)
Kuka Movement was similar to the Wahabi Movement, Both movements began as religious
revolt but converted into a political movement, which had a general ideology of removal of
British rule from India. In Western Punjab, Kuka Movement was initiated by Bhagat Jawahar
Mal in 1840 who was known as Sian Sahib. The origin of the Kuka Movement had its roots in
the religious purification of the Sikhism. The leader of Kuka Movement, Ram Singh, was
expelled to Rangoon in 1872 where he died in 1885.

18.Ans. (b) The Pagalpanthi rebellion was indeed a rebellion of Garos Pagalpanth which was a
quasi-religious community/sect which was introduced by Karam Shah of North Bengal. Son of
Karam Shah and successor Tipu was inspired with religious and political purposes. Tipu and
Shah led these people to uphold the religion and rights of the peasants in Bengal. He captured
Sherpur in 1825 and became king. He appointed a judge, a magistrate and a collector to
control administration.

19.Ans.(a)
The policy of 'Security Cell" is related to Warren Hastings and Wellesley. Warren Hastings
fought with Mysore and Marathas to achieve status equivalent to other Indian states. During
this time the company tried to form buffer state (also known as Ring Fence) with an aim to
protect its state from Afghans and Marathas. Thus, they agreed to protect Awadh on the
condition that the Nawab of Oudh will bear the expenses. The main aim of Wellesley was to
enforce Indian states to rely on his army power. The British policies towards Indian
states were-
1. Company's struggle for equality with Indian provinces. (1740-1765 AD)
2. Security cell' or the policy of siege. (1765-1813 AD)
3. Subordinate separation policy. (1813-1857 AD)
4. Subordinate union policy. (1858-1935 AD)
5. The policy of equal union. (1935-1947 AD)

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20Ans.(c)
The court of directors took the decision in 1772 to abolish the dual government system in the
tenure of Warren Hastings and ordered council of Calcutta and its chiefs to serve as Diwan and
officiate the administration of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. Warren Hastings dismissed both the
deputy Divans Muhammad Raza Khan and Raja Shitab Roy.

21.Ans.(a)
Warren Hastings was prosecuted from 1788 to 1795 for impeachment for unjust and arbitrary
functions, but British parliament dropped all the charges against him after considering his
service. It was said that Warren Hastings had done all this for the benefit of the empire.
22.Ans. (b)
Lord Cornwallis introduced criminal and judicial regulation to a significant degree which is still
underpins the Indian Judicial system. Cornwallis gave limited judicial powers to the company's
revenue collectors, who already served as civil magistrates. In 1790 the company took over
the administration of justice from Nawab and Cornwallis introduced a system of circuit courts
with a superior court that met in Calcutta and had the power of review over the circuit court
decision.

23.Ans.(c)
Cornwallis introduced Civil Services in India. After becoming the Governor-General of Bengal,
Cornwallis restructured the administration and abolished the revenue boards and laid the new
laws for them. He introduced new policies regarding the personal business of British officers.
He exclusively divided the jurisdiction of civil and judicial administration through "Cornwallis
code” which later, in turn, transformed into civil services in India.

24.Ans. (b)
Farrukh Siyar, the Mughal Emperor, promoted Murshid Qui Khan to Governor of Bengal in
1717. Shujauddin, the son-in- law of Murshid Quli Khan, became the Governor of Bengal after
the death of Murshid Quli Khan who was duly ratified by the Mughal Emperor Muhammad
Shah Rangeela". Hence his Father-in-law was the last Governor of Bengal appointed by
Mughal emperor independently.

25.Ans. (b)
British supremacy established in India from the battle of Plassey. British defeated Nawab
Sirajuddaulah in the battle of Plassey on 23 June, 1757 under the command of Robert Clive.
Nawab's army was under the command of three traitors-Jafar, Yar Latif Khan and Rai Durlab.
Siraj fled from the battlefield to Murshidabad due to reverse circumstances of war. It finally
resulted in his defeat. This victory provided instant military and commercial benefits to

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Britishers. Battle of Plassey set the ground for British political dominion establishment over
three leading states of agriculture and Handcrafting: Bihar, Bengal, and Orissa.

POLITY
26.Ans. (d)
The fundamental duty to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is
mentioned at number three in Article 51-A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian
Constitution.Article 51 A enumerates certain duties which are as follows.
According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India
(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
the National Anthem;
(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the
nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
(k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the
case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

27.Ans. (d)
The Fundamental Duties were added as Article 51-A (Part IV A) in the Indian Constitution by
the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee.
Fundamental duties are non-justiciable in nature as there is no legal sanction behind them.
These duties are not enforceable in the court. Thus, statement (1) is incorrect. Besides,
Fundamental Duties are not correlative with legal duties. Therefore, statement 2 is also
wrong.

28.Ans. (b)
The 42 Amendment Act inserted Article 51-A to create a new part called IV-A in the
Constitution, which prescribed the fundamental duties of citizens.

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29.Ans.(c)
Part IV-A and Article 51 A (Fundamental Duties) were added to the Constitution of India by 42-
Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee. At present, the
total number of Fundamental Duties is 11. Originally they were 10 in number.

30.Ans.(c) Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form a new State
by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States.
Indian Parliament under the Constitutional provisions of Article 2 has the power to admission
or establish new States.
31.Ans.(a) Article 2 of the Indian Constitution provide that the Parliament may by law admit
into the Union or establish new States. According to Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the
Parliament may form a new State by separating two States or by uniting States. The
Parliament can increase, diminish the area of any State or can alter the boundary and name of
the State.

32.Ans.(a) Article 2 of the Indian Constitution provide that the Parliament may by law admit
into the Union or establish new States. According to Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the
Parliament may form a new State by separating two States or by uniting States. The
Parliament can increase, diminish the area of any State or can alter the boundary and name of
the State.

33.Ans.(a) Article 2 of the Indian Constitution provide that the Parliament may by law admit
into the Union or establish new States. According to Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the
Parliament may form a new State by separating two States or by uniting States. The
Parliament can increase, diminish the area of any State or can alter the boundary and name of
the State.

34 .Ans.(a)
The Nehru Report (1928) was in favour of inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution
of India, so option (a) is correct.

35.Ans.(c)
Rights are essential for the complete development of human beings. The importance of rights
has expanded immensely and has given birth to the concepts of fundamental rights human

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rights etc. Rights impose restrictions on the powers of the state. These are a guarantee
against state action. Thus, rights are claims of the citizens against the state.

ECONOMICS
36.Ans: (b)
Deposits are not included in the assets of any commercial bank in India. The assets of
commercial banks are divided into four categories:
(1) Physical asset - It consists of land, furniture, buildings etc. owned by the bank, which are
called
minor assets.
(2) Cash- Cash which is paid in day, cash withdrawal and cheque processing
(3) Interest amount on loan - Interest amount is the main asset of any bank. And this is how
banks earn
more assets. .
(4) Investment - This includes government securities demand and short notice currency,
treasury bill etc.
While deposits are bank liabilities. Therefore deposits are not considered assets of the bank.

37.Ans : (b)
To reduce the risk of currency crisis, factors like remittance of foreign exchange earnings by
citizens living abroad are helpful. In the context of India, the risk of currency crisis can be
reduced by the acquisition of foreign exchange by the IT sector, money sent by NRI in India.

38.Ans: (a) The presidents of public sector banks are selected by the Bank Boards Bureau. The
Bank Board Bureau has been formed as autonomous advisory body since 1 April, 2016. Its
main function is to take administrative decisions related to public sector banks and appoint
heads of banks.

39.Ans: (d)
Money inflation can be explained better an Increase in prices of specific commodities.
Inflation in India is calculated using the point-by-point method based on the wholesale price
index of certain selected commodities. Economically limited and controlled inflation is
beneficial for developing underdeveloped economies. Inflation arises due to deficit financing,
war borne economic pressures, development pressures, cost overruns and banking activities.

40.Ans : (c)
A zero rate of Inflation obtains necessarily in a year where the annual rate of inflation is both
falling and rising in a year. Unexpected inflation tends to hurt those whose money received in
terms of wages and interest payments does not rise with inflation.

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41.Ans: (d)
Over the past few years, the government's efforts to control the budget deficit and
unproductive expenditure have been effective in controlling the double-digit inflation rate of
the Indian economy, and the inflation rate has been kept below double digits. It is known that
inflation is the stage in which the value of money falls and the value of goods increases.
Inflation arises due to inefficient management, war- related economic pressures,
developmental pressures, increase in costs and banking activities. Inflation in India is
calculated based on the wholesale price index.

42.Ans. (b)

India devalued Rupee for the first time in 1966. In July of 1991 the Indian government
devalued the rupee by between 18 and 19 percent. Devaluation currer means reduction in the
external value of the domestic marke currency while internal value of the domestic currency
remains constant.

43.Ans. (a)
The Kisan loan (Credit) card scheme was launched in August, 1998 with a large share of crop
loans. Both the Consumption Credit and investment credit are covered by the Kisan Credit
Card Scheme. Kisan Credit card and pass book or card cum pass book is provided to the eligible
farmers. It is used by farmers to purchase seeds, fertilizers and pesticides etc. for agriculture.

44.Ans. (d) :
Payment of foreign trade is related to balance of payments. Balance of payment can be said
to be the account of financial transactions between a country and the rest of the world. It
involves financial transactions between one country and the rest of the world for import and
export.

45.Ans. (d)
Globalization refers to the integration of various societies and economies of the world. It is an
idea resulting from the mutual exchange of products, ideas, attitudes, different cultural
aspects, etc. It does not include economic activities taking place within any country in
globalization. Thus, we see that the reduction of import duty , climination of import Licensing,
free flow of foreign direct investment, etc are included in globalization, as the disinvestment
of public sector equity is not included in globalization due to a particular country,

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SCIENCE
46.Ans. (b)
Xylem is composed of dead cells, while phloem is made up of living cells. Phloem transports
food from the leaves to the rest of the plant body.

47.Ans.(a)
Essential elements are classified into following two categories. 6) Macroelements (Major
elements) - These are required by the plant in larger quantities e.g.- Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H),
Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K), Magnesium (Mg), Calcium (Ca) and
Sulphur (S). (ii) Microelements (Minor elements or Trace elements) These are required by the
plant in low quantities. Examples are Boron (B), Zinc (Zn), Manganese (Mn), Copper (Cu),
Molybdenum (Mo), Chlorine (CI), Iron (Fe) and Nickel (Ni)
48.Ans a
49.Ans d
50.Ans c
51.Ans. d
Palaeobotany is the branch of palaeontology or dealing with the recovery and identification of
plant remains from geological contexts and their use for the biological reconstruction of past
environments. In India, Prof. Birbal Sahni is known as Father of Indian Palaeobotany.

52.Ans.(c)
Apiculture -Rearing bees
Horticulture- Study of fruit and flower producing plants
Sericulture -Rearing silk worm
Floriculture- Study of flowers for decoration work

53.Ans.(C)
Honey bees are used in apiculture.

54.Ans.(c)
Horticulture is a special branch of agriculture. Pomology, olericulture, and floriculture come
under this branch. The name floriculture and pomology used in option (b) and (d) are of
specific terminology. In option (c) the word horticulture has been used for the cultivation of
vegetables. The specific terminology for cultivation of vegetables should be "Olericulture'. If
all the names used in the given options are considered in literal sense then option (c) is not

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correctly matched because the word olericulture should be used in place of horticulture. The
word crop has a wide ranged vocabulary containing all types of crops like eatable, non-eatable
and animal foods etc. Thus the word 'agronomy correctly matched for crop cultivation.

55.Ans.(C)
Pisciculture is related to the fish hatchery. Other options are correctly matched.

Computer
56.(D) 57.(D) 58 -(B) 59.(A) 60.(C)

LABOUR LAW
61. A 62.A 63.C 64.C 65.B 66.D 67.C 68.B 69.B 70.D 71.C 72.C 73.A 74.B
75.C

CURRENT
76. (a) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (b)

ACCOUNT
86.A 87.C 88.A 89.A 90.A 91.B 92.B 93.D 94.C 95.D 96.C 97.D 98.D 99.A 100.A

ENGLISH -FILL IN THE BLANKS

101. (b) Use ‘expect’ * except,expect, access, accept
102. (d) Use ‘seize’ * seize opportunity-, cease, sneeze
103. (c) Use ‘to take’ *to take the examination- to give the examination
104. (d) Use ‘launched’ [ scheme, launch
105. (d) Use ‘illusions’ * doubts, hallucinations, imaginationsillusions
106. (c) Use ‘sullen’ * discreet, suspicious ,sullen ,elated
107. (a) Use ‘explicit’ , explicit ,implicit ,expletive, implicate

Idiom phrases
108. C 109. B

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One Word Substitution

110. D Glutton

111.C Amphibians

Spotting errors
112. (1) 113. (1) 114. (1)

Antonyms
115. a. improvident means lacking prudent foresight, or careless; cautious means to be wary
or to exercise forethought
116. a. to demur means to delay or hesitate; to embrace means to accept readily or gladly;
demure means coy
117. c. fatuous means inanely foolish; sensible is its nearest opposite

Synonyms
118. d. louche means not reputable, or indecent
119. c. stentorian means loud and is usually used to imply a voice of great power and range
120. c. to ramble means to move aimlessly from place to place, or to wander

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SE

WE ARE THE TEAM OF

SELECTED OFFICERS

निश्चित सफऱता के लऱए केवऱ हमारा लसफफ एक लसऱेक्टे ड

मटे ररयऱ , वीडडयो , टे स्ट सीरीज पर फोकस करे