IELTS CLASS WORK

INDEX

Sr. Topics Pages No.

No.
1 Unit 1 2 to 13
2 Unit 2 14 to 24
3 Unit 3 25 to 34
4 Unit 4 35 to 46
5 Unit 5 47 to 57
6 Unit 6 58 to 68
7 Unit 7 69 to 81
8 Unit 8 82 to 92
9 Unit 9 93 to 105
10 Unit 10 106 to 115
11 Unit 11 116 to 126
12 Unit 12 127 to 136
13 Unit 13 137 to 147
14 Unit 14 148 to 158
15 Unit 15 159 to 168
16 Unit 16 169 to 180
17 Unit 17 181 to 190
18 Unit 18 191 to 201
19 Unit 19 202 to 211
20 Unit 20 212 to 221
21 Unit 21 222 to 229
22 Unit 22 230 to 240
23 Unit 23 241 to 252
24 Unit 24 253 to 268
25 Unit 25 269 to 283

1
 UNIT: 1
Reading Passage 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below: *

Creating Artificial Reefs

In the coastal waters of the US, a nation’s leftovers have been discarded. Derelict ships, concrete
blocks, scrapped cars, army tanks, tyres filled with concrete and redundant planes litter the sea
floor. However, this is not waste disposal, but part of a coordinated, state-run programme. To
recently arrived fish, plants and other sea organisms, these artificial reefs are an ideal home,
offering food and shelter.
Sea dumping incites widespread condemnation. Little surprise when oceans are seen as ‘convenient’
dumping grounds for the rubbish we have created but would rather forget. However, scientific
evidence suggests that if we dump the right things, sea life can actually be enhanced. And more
recently, purpose-built structures of steel or concrete have been employed – some the size of small
apartment blocks – principally to increase fish harvests.
The choice of design and materials for an artificial reef depends on where it is going to be placed.
In areas of strong currents, for example, a solid concrete structure will be more appropriate than
ballasted tyres. It also depends on what species are to be attracted. It is pointless creating high-rise
structures for fish that prefer flat or low-relief habitat. But the most important consideration is the
purpose of the reef.
In the US, where there is a national reef plan using cleaned up rigs and tanks, artificial reefs have
mainly been used to attract fish for recreational fishing or sport-diving. But there are many other
ways in which they can be used to manage the marine habitat. For as well as protecting existing
habitat, providing purpose-built accommodation for commercial species (such as lobsters and
octopi) and acting as sea defenses, they can be an effective way of improving fish harvests.
Japan, for example, has created vast areas of artificial habitat – rather than isolated reefs – to
increase its fish stocks. In fact, the cultural and historical importance of seafood in Japan is
reflected by the fact that it is world leader in reef technology; what’s more, those who construct and
deploy reefs have sole rights to the harvest.
In Europe, artificial reefs have been mainly employed to protect habitat. Particularly so in the
Mediterranean where reefs have been sunk as physical obstacles to stop illegal trawling, which is
destroying sea grass beds and the marine life that depends on them. ‘If you want to protect areas of
the seabed, you need something that will stop trawlers dead in their tracks,’ says Dr. Antony Jensen
of the Southampton Oceanography Centre.
Italy boasts considerable artificial reef activity. It deployed its first scientifically planned reef using
concrete cubes assembled in pyramid forms in 1974 to enhance fisheries and stop trawling. And
Spain has built nearly 50 reefs in its waters, mainly to discourage trawling and enhance the
productivity of fisheries. Meanwhile, Britain established its first quarried rock artificial reef in 1984
off the Scottish coast, to assess its potential for attracting commercial species.

* Hereafter, in all the passages 20 minutes should be spent for around 13-15 questions.

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But while the scientific study of these structures is a little over a quarter of a century old, artificial
reefs made out of readily available materials such as bamboo and coconuts have been used by
fishermen for centuries. And the benefits have been enormous. By placing reefs close to home,
fishermen can save time and fuel. But unless they are carefully managed, these areas can become
over-fished. In the Philippines, for example, where artificial reef programmes have been instigated
in response to declining fish populations, catches are often allowed to exceed the maximum
potential new production of the artificial reef because there is no proper management control.

There is no doubt that artificial reefs have lots to offer. And while purpose-built structures are
effective, the real challenge now is to develop environmentally safe ways of using recycled waste to
increase marine diversity. This will require more scientific research. For example, the leachates
from one of the most commonly used reef materials, tyres, could potentially be harmful to the
creatures and plants that they are supposed to attract. Yet few extensive studies have been
undertaken into the long-term effects of disposing of tyres at sea. And at the moment, there is little
consensus about what is environmentally acceptable to dump at sea, especially when it comes to oil
and gas rigs. Clearly, the challenge is to develop environmentally acceptable ways of disposing of
our rubbish while enhancing marine life too. What we must never be allowed to do is have an
excuse for dumping anything we like at sea.

Questions 1-3
The list below gives some of the factors that must be taken into account when deciding how to
construct an artificial reef. Which THREE of these factors are mentioned by the writer of the
article? Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

A The fishing activity in the area

B The intended location of the reef
C The existing reef structures
D The type of marine life being targeted
E The function of the reef
F The cultural importance of the area

Questions 4-8
Complete the table below. Choose no more than three words from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 4-8 on your answer sheet.

Area/country Type of Reef Purpose

US made using old to attract fish for leisure activities.
… (4) …
Japan forms large area of artificial habitat to improve … (5) …
Europe lies deep down to form … (6) … to act as a sea defense
Italy consists of pyramid shapes made of … (7) to prevent trawling
…
Britain made of rock to encourage
… (8) … fish species.
Questions 9-12
Using no more than three words, complete the following sentences. Write your answers in boxes
9-12 on your answer sheet.

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In … (9) …, people who build reefs are legally entitled to all the fish they attract.
Trawling inhibits the development of marine life because it damages the …(10)…
In the past, both … (11) … were used to make reefs.
To ensure that reefs are not over-fished, good … (12) … is required.
Question 13
Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 13 on your answer sheet.

13. According to the writer, the next step in the creation of artificial reefs is

A. to produce an international agreement.

B. to expand their use in the marine environment.
C. to examine their dangers to marine life.
D. to improve on purpose-built structures.

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 Listening Test 1
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5
Circle the appropriate letter.
Example
What has the woman lost?
A. a briefcase B. a suitcase C. a handbag D. a wallet

1. What does her briefcase look like?

2. Which picture shows the distinguishing features?

3. What did she have inside her briefcase?

A. wallet, pens and novel B. papers and wallet

C. pens and novel D. papers, pens and novel
4. Where was she standing when she lost her briefcase?

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5. What time was it when she lost her briefcase?

Questions 6-10
Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
PERSONAL DETAILS FORM
Name: Mary (6) …………………………………………………………………
Address: Flat 2
(7) ………………………… (8) ………………………………….. Road
Canterbury
Telephone: (9) ………………………….…………………………………………………..
Estimated value of lost item: (10)£ …………………………………………………………..

SECTION 2: Questions 11-21

Questions 11-13
Tick the THREE other items, which are mentioned in the news headlines.

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Questions 14-21
Complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces
provided.

The Government plans to give (14) $ …………………………………. to assist the

farmers. This money was to be spent on improving Sydney’s
(15) …………………………………………………… but has now been re-allocated.
Australia has experienced its worst drought in over fifty years.
Farmers say that the money will not help them because it is
(16) ………………………………………………

An aeroplane which was carrying a group of (17) …………………………………. was

forced to land just (18) ……………………………… minutes after take-off.
The passengers were rescued by (19) …………………………………… The operation
was helped because of the good weather. The passengers thanked the (20)
…………………………….. for saving their lives but unfortunately they lost their (21)
…………………………….. .

SECTION 3: Questions 22-31

Questions 22-25
Circle the appropriate letter.

Example
The student is looking for the School of
A. Fine Arts. B. Economic History . Economics D. Accountancy

22 The orientation meeting

A. took place recently. B. took place last term.
C. will take place tomorrow. D. will take place next week.
23 Attendance at lectures is
A. optional after 4 pm. B. closely monitored.
C. difficult to enforce. D. sometimes unnecessary.
24 Tutorials take place
A. every morning. B. twice a week.
C. three mornings a week. D. three afternoons a week.

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25 The lecturer’s name is
A. Roberts. B. Rawson. C. Rogers. D. Robertson.

Questions 26-31
Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Course requirements:
Tutorial paper:
A piece of work on a given topic. Students must:
• (26) ………………………………… for 25 minutes
• (27) …………………………………
• give to lecturer for marking
Essay topic:
Usually (28) …………………………………………………..
Type of exam:
(29) …………………………………………………………..
Library:
Important books are in (30) ………………………..
Focus of course:
Focus on (31) …………………………………………

SECTION 4 Questions 32-41

Questions 32-33
Circle the appropriate letter.
32 The speaker works within the Faculty of
A. Science and Technology. B. Arts and Social Sciences.
C. Architecture. D. Law.
33 The Faculty consists firstly of
A. subjects. B. degrees. C. divisions. D. departments.

Questions 34-36
Complete the notes in NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

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 The subjects taken in the first semester in this course are psychology, sociology,

(34) ………………………………………….. and

…………………………………………… .
Students may have problems with
(35) ………………………………………….. and
(36) ………………………………………….. .

Questions 37-41
Circle the appropriate letter.
37 The speaker says students can visit her
A. every morning. B. some mornings.
C. mornings only. D. Friday morning.
38 According to the speaker, a tutorial
A. is a type of lecture.
B. is less important than a lecture.
C. provides a chance to share views.
D. provides an alternative to groupwork.
39 When writing essays, the speaker advises the students to
A. research their work well. B. name the books they have read.
C. share work with their friends. D. avoid using other writers’ ideas.
40 The speaker thinks that plagiarism is
A. a common problem. B. an acceptable risk.
C. a minor concern. D. a serious offence.
41 The speaker’s aims are to
A. introduce students to university expectations.
B. introduce students to the members of staff.
C. warn students about the difficulties of studying.
D. guide students round the university.

9
 Speaking
1. Describe your favorite style of dress.
You should say:
 What kind of clothes you like to wear.
 What fabrics and colors you prefer.
 What (or who) influences you in your choice of clothes.
 And explain whether clothes are important for you or not.
Related questions:
 What kind of clothes you feel least comfortable in?
 Do you enjoy shopping for clothes?
 Do you like to shop from supermarkets or from local markets?
 Do you think it is important to wear formal clothes for a job interview?
 Do you think people should be free to wear whatever they like to wear at their
workplace?
 How much can you judge a person form his her/her appearance?
 Do you think that people have become more conscious about dressing these days?
 What do you think about school uniforms? Are they a good idea?
 What is the importance of fashion in our lives?
 Do you think that fashion industry has a bad influence on the teenagers?

Writing (General) - TASK-1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You are due to start a new job next week but you will not be able to because
you have some problems.
Write a letter to your new employer. In your letter
 Explain your situation
 Describe your Problem
 Tell him/her when you think you can start

2. Write a letter of complaint about late delivery to the website where you
ordered an item.
Write a letter to the official. In your letter
 What item did you order?
 Why and when did you order that item?
 How would you like them to resolve this issue?

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 Writing (Academic) - Task 1
*You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The charts below show the results of a survey of adult education. The first
chart shows the reasons why adults decide to study. The pie chart shows how
people think the costs of adult education should be shared.

Write a report for a university lecture, describing the information shown below.
*You should write at least 150 words.
Reasons for Study

Interest in Subject 40

To gain qualifications 38

Helpful for current job 22

To impprove prospects
20
of promotion

Enjoy learning/studying 20

To be able to change
12
jobs

To meet people 9

0 10 20 30 40 50

How the costs of each

course should be shared

Taxppayer
25%
Individual
40%

Employer
35%

2. The graph below shows the proportion of the population aged 65 and over
between 1940 and 2040 in three different countries.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant.
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Write at least 150 words.

12
 Writing - Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.
1. There are many different types of music in the world today. Why do we need music? Is the
traditional music of a country more important than the international music that is heard
everywhere nowadays?
2. Should wealthy nations be required to share their wealth among poorer nations by providing
such things as food and education? Or is it the responsibility of the governments of poorer
nations to look after their citizens themselves?
3. News editors decide what to broadcast on television and what to print in newspapers. What
factors do you think influence these decisions? Have we become used to bad news? Would it
be better if more good news were reported?

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 UNIT: 2
Reading Passage 2
Looking for a Market among Adolescents
A In 1992, the most recent year for which data are available, the US tobacco industry spent $5
billion on domestic marketing. That figure represents a huge increase from the approximate
£250-million budget in 1971, when tobacco advertising was banned from television and radio.
The current expenditure translates to about $75 for every adult smoker, or to $4,500 for every
adolescent who became a smoker that year. This apparently high cost to attract a new smoker
is very likely recouped over the average 25 years that this teen will smoke.

B In the first half of this century, leaders of the tobacco companies boasted that innovative mass-
marketing strategies built the industry. Recently, however, the tobacco business has
maintained that its advertising is geared to draw established smokers to particular brands. But
public health advocates insist that such advertising plays a role in generating new demand,
with adolescents being the primary target. To explore the issue, we examined several
marketing campaigns undertaken over the years and correlated them with the ages smokers
say they began their habit. We find that, historically, there is considerable evidence that such
campaigns led to an increase in cigarette smoking among adolescents of the targeted group.

C National surveys collected the ages at which people started smoking. The 1955 Current
Population Survey (CPS) was the first to query respondents for this information, although only
summary data survive. Beginning in 1970, however, the National Health Interview Surveys
(NHIS) included this question in some polls. Answers from all the surveys were combined to
produce a sample of more than 165,000 individuals. Using a respondent’s age at the time of
the survey and the reported age of initiation, [age they started smoking], the year the person
began smoking could be determined. Dividing the number of adolescents (defined as those 12
to 17 years old) who started smoking during a particular interval by the number who were
“eligible” to begin at the start of the interval set the initiation rate for that group.

D Mass-marketing campaigns began as early as the 1880s, which boosted tobacco consumption
sixfold by 1900. Much of the rise was attributed to a greater number of people smoking
cigarettes, as opposed to using cigars, pipes, snuff or chewing tobacco. Marketing strategies
included painted billboards and an extensive distribution of coupons, which a recipient could
redeem for free cigarettes …. Some brands included soft-porn pictures of women in the
packages. Such tactics inspired outcry from educational leaders concerned about their
corrupting influence on teenage boys. Thirteen percent of the males surveyed in 1955 who
reached adolescence between 1890 and 1910 commenced smoking by 18 years of age,
compared with almost no females.

E The power of targeted advertising is more apparent if one considers the men born between
1890 and 1899. In 1912, when many of these men were teenagers, the R.J. Reynolds
company launched the Camel branch of cigarettes with a revolutionary approach. … Every
city in the country was bombarded with print advertising. According to the 1955 CPS,
initiation by age 18 for males in this group jumped to 21.6 per cent, a two thirds increase over
those born before 1890. The NHIS initiation rate also reflected this change. For adolescent
males it went up from 2.9 per cent between 1910 and 1912 to 4.9 percent between 1918 and
1921.
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F It was not until the mid-1920s that social mores permitted cigarette advertising to focus on
women. … In 1926 a poster depicted women imploring smokers of Chesterfield cigarettes to
“Blow Some My Way”. The most successful crusade, however, was for Lucky Strikes, which
urged women to “Reach for a Lucky instead of a Sweet.” The 1955 CPS data showed that 7
percent of the women who were adolescents during the mid-1920s had started smoking by age
18, compared with only 2 percent in the preceding generation of female adolescents. Initiation
rates from the NHIS data for adolescent girls were observed to increase threefold, from 0.6
percent between 1922 and 1925 to 1.8 percent between 1930 and 1933. In contrast, rates for
males rose only slightly.

G The next major boost in smoking initiation in adolescent females occurred in the late 1960s.
In 1967 the tobacco industry launched “niche” brands aimed exclusively at women. The most
popular was Virginia Slims. The visuals of this campaign emphasized a woman who was
strong, independent and very thin. … Initiation in female adolescents nearly doubled, from 3.7
per cent between 1964 and 1967 to 6.2 percent between 1972 and 1975 (NHIS data). During
the same period, rates for adolescent males remained stable.

H Thus, in four distinct instances over the past 100 years, innovative and directed tobacco
marketing campaigns were associated with marked surges in primary demand from
adolescents only in the target group. The first two were directed at males and the second two
at females. Of course, other factors helped to entrench smoking in society. … Yet it is clear
from the data that advertising has been an overwhelming force in attracting new users.

Questions 1-6

Passage 2 has eight paragraphs (A-H). Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from
the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers (i - xi) in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.
You may use any heading more than once.

List of Headings
i. Gathering the information
ii. Cigarettes produced to match an image
iii. Financial outlay on marketing
iv. The first advertising methods
v. Pressure causes a drop in sales
vi. Changing attitudes allow new marketing tactics
vii. Background to the research
viii. A public uproar is avoided
ix. The innovative move to written adverts
x. A century of uninhibited smoking
xi. Conclusions of the research.
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C

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 Example Answer
Paragraph D iv
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
6. Paragraph G
Example Answer
Paragraph H xi

Questions 7-11

Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 7-11 write:

YES if the statement is true according to the passage

NO if the statement contradicts the passage
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage

7. Cigarette marketing has declined in the US since tobacco advertising was banned on TV.
8. Tobacco companies claim that their advertising targets existing smokers.
9. The difference in initiation rates between male and female smokers at the turn of the 19th
century was due to selective marketing.
10. Women who took up smoking in the past lost weight.
11. The two surveys show different trends in cigarette initiation.

Questions 12-14

Complete the sentences below with words from the Reading Passage. Use no more than three
words for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 12-14 on your answer sheet.

Tobacco companies are currently being accused of aiming their advertisements mainly at … (12) …
Statistics on smoking habits for men born between 1890 and 1899 were gathered in the year
… (13) …
The … (14) … brand of cigarettes was designed for a particular sex.

16
 Listening Test 2
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10

Questions 1-2
Circle the correct letters A-C.
Example
Gavin moved into his apartment.
A. two days ago (B). two weeks ago C. two months ago

1. Gavin’s apartment is located on the …

A. ground floor. B. second floor. C. third floor.
2. The monthly rent for Gavin’s apartment is ..
A. $615 B. $650 C. $655

Questions 3-6
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
ITEM VALUE
(3) ……………………………………… $450
(4) ……………………………………… $1,150
Watches $2,000
CDs and (5) …………………………… $400
Total annual cost of insurance (6) $ …………………………………………………….

Questions 7-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

INSURANCE APPLICATION FORM

Name: Mr. Gavin (7) ……………………………………….
Address: (8) …………………………………………. Biggins Street
(9) ………………………………………….
Date of Birth: 12th November 1980
Telephone: Home: 9872 4855
Nationality: (10) ………………………………………..

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SECTION 2: Questions 11-20

Question 11
Circle the correct letter A-D.
Smith House was originally built as ..
A. a residential college. B. a family house. C. a university. D. an office block.

Questions 12-14
Complete the explanation of the room number.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Room number: N 2 34

(12) ………………. Wing

(13) ………………..… personal (14) ………………..

Questions 15-17
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
• Students need a front door key between (15) …………… AND ………. .
• In an emergency, students should use (16) ………………………………. .
• Fees also cover some (17) ………………………………………….. charges.

Questions 18-20
Complete the notice below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

18
  No noise after 9 pm.
 Smoking only allowed on (18) …………………………………
 No changes can be made to (19) ……………………………….
If you have any questions, ask the (20) ………………………………….

SECTION 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Forms of media Examples
Print • books
• (21) …………………………………………………………
Pictures • (22) ………………………………………………………….
Audio (listening) • CDs
(23) …………………………………………………………
Audio-visual • film
• (24) …………………………………………………………
Electronic • videos
• (25) ………………………………………………………

Questions 26-30
Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 26-30.
According to the speakers, in which situation are the following media most useful?

A. individual children B. five or six children C. whole class

Example Answer
Pictures A

26 tapes ………………
27 computers ………………
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28 videos ………………
29 books ………………
30 wall maps ………………

SECTION 4: Questions 31-40

Question 31
Circle the correct letter A-D.
What percentage of the workforce were employed in agriculture in mid 1900s?
A. 3% B. 10% C. 20% D. 50%
Questions 32 and 33
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Three factors contributing to the efficiency of the agricultural sector are ..
• 50-60 years of intelligent state support
• the quality of (32) ……………………………………….. among those employed
• the farmers’ investment in (33) ………………………………………..

Questions 34-39
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Region North East West
Land hilly with thin soil flat with rich soil
(36) …………………….
Climate (34) ……………………. mixed (38) ……………………..
and …………………….. and ……………………..
Farm type small, family-run commercial average size
(39) ……………. hectares
Produce (35) ……………………. cereals and milk, cheese and meat
and …………………….. (37) …………………….

Question 40
Circle the correct letter A-C.
Farmers have a strong sense of solidarity because …
A. the media supports them.
B. they have a strong Union.
C. they have countrywide interests.

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 Speaking
2. Describe a Film, TV or Theatre performer you admire.
You should say:
 Who he/she is.
 How he/she looks like.
 What you like about him/her.
 And mention a performance of him/her you particularly enjoyed.
Related questions:
 Do you think that film stars are paid too much?
 How can the film stars use their fame to do good to the society?
 What do you think of ‘paparazzi’? Is it good or bad?
 Do you think cinema’s popularity has been affected by the video? If yes, then to
what extent?
 Do you think that the concept of going to cinema hall will disappear in next 15
years?
 What changes have you seen in the TV programs in the last 10 years?
 Do you like commercial films or art films? Why?
 Talk about an art film/commercial film that has left an impression on you.
 What do your think about making film on real life events?
 Should films and television be censored? To what extent?
 How do you think that the censorship laws will change in the next 20 years
 How do advertisements influence our buying habits?
 Any special advertisement that you remember?
 Should advertisements targeting children be banned?
 Special cameras are sometimes used to film everything that happens in public places
like on railway stations, in streets, in shops etc. Do you think it is a good idea?

Writing (General) - TASK-1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear Sir/Madam:

1. You are unhappy about a plan to make your local airport bigger and increase the
number of flights. You live near the airport??
Write a letter to your local newspaper. In your letter
 Explain where you live
 Describe your problem
 Give reasons why you do not want this development
2. You recently read an article in newspaper about someone you know personally. You
found some information wrong. Write a letter to the editor to inform him about it.

21
 Write a letter to the editor. In your letter

 What is the article all about?

 What is the error?
 What you expect an editor to do?

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1 The table below shows the consumer durables (telephone, refrigerator etc.) owned in Britain
from 1972 to 1983.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
Consumer durables 1972 1974 1976 1978 1979 1981 1982 1983
Percentage of
households with:
Central heating 37 43 48 52 55 59 60 64
Television 93 95 96 96 97 97 97 98
Video 18
Vacuum cleaner 87 89 92 92 93 94 95
Refrigerator 73 81 88 91 92 93 93 94
Washing machine 66 68 71 75 74 78 79 80
Dishwasher 3 3 4 4 5
Telephone 42 50 54 60 67 75 76 77

2 The map below is of the town of Garlsdon. A new supermarket (S) is planned for the
town. The map shows two possible sites for the supermarket.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

22
23
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. The idea of having a single career is becoming an old fashioned one. The new fashion will
be to have several careers or ways of earning money and further education will be something
that continues throughout life.
2. We are becoming increasingly dependent on computers. They are used in businesses,
hospitals, and crime detection and even to fly planes. What things will they be used for in
the future? Is this dependence on computers a good thing or should we be more suspicious
of their benefits?
Merits:
a. Easy, fast
b. Accuracy
c. Analysis
d. Monitoring
e. Distance learning
f. Information
g. Business strategies
Demerits:
a. Health
b. Memory
c. Unemployment
d. Misuse
e. Hacking
3. Popular events like the Football World Cup and other international sporting occasions are
essential in easing international tensions and releasing patriotic emotions in a safe way.

24
 UNIT: 3
Reading Passage 3

The Pursuit of Happiness

New research uncovers some anti-intuitive insights into how many people are happy – and why?

Compared with misery, happiness is relatively unexplored terrain for social scientists. Between
1967 and 1994, 46,380 articles indexed in Psychological Abstracts mentioned depression, 36,851
anxiety, and 5,099 anger. Only 2,389 spoke of happiness, 2,340 life satisfaction, and 405 joy.

Recently we and other researchers have begun a systematic study of happiness. During the past two
decades, dozens of investigators throughout the world have asked several hundred thousand
representatively sampled people to reflect on their happiness and satisfaction with life – or what
psychologists call “subjective well-being”. In the US the National Opinion Research Center at the
University of Chicago has surveyed a representative sample of roughly 1,500 people a year since
1957, the Institute for Social Research at the University of Michigan has carried out similar studies
on a less regular basis, as has the Gallup Organization. Government-funded efforts have also probed
the moods of European countries.

We have uncovered some surprising findings. People are happier than one might expect, and
happiness does not appear to depend significantly on external circumstances. Although viewing life
as a tragedy has a long and honorable history, the responses of random samples of people around
the world about their happiness paints a much rosier picture. In the University of Chicago surveys,
three in 10 Americans say they are very happy, for example. Only one in 10 chooses the most
negative description “not too happy”. The majority describe themselves as “pretty happy”.

How can social scientists measure something as hard to pin down as happiness? Most researchers
simply ask people to report their feelings of happiness or unhappiness and to assess how satisfying
their lives are. Such self-reported well-being is moderately consistent over years of retesting.
Furthermore, those who say they are happy and satisfied seem happy to their close friends and
family members and to a psychologist-interviewer. Their daily mood ratings reveal more positive
emotions, and they smile more than those who call themselves unhappy. Self-reported happiness
also predicts other indicators of well-being. Compared with the depressed, happy people are less
self-focused, less hostile and abusive, and less susceptible to disease.

We have found that the even distribution of happiness cuts across almost all demographic
classifications of age, economic class, race and educational level. In addition, almost all strategies
for assessing subjective well-being – including those that sample people’s experience by polling
them at random times with beepers – turn up similar findings.

Interviews with representative samples of people of all ages, for example, reveal that no time of life
is notably happier or unhappier. Similarly, men and women are equally likely to declare themselves
“very happy” and “satisfied” with life, according to a statistical digest of 146 studies by Marilyn J.
Haring. William Stock and Morris A. Okun, all then at Arizona State University.
… Wealth is also a poor predictor of happiness. People have not become happier over time as their
cultures have become more affluent. Even though Americans earn twice as much in today’s dollars

25
as they did in 1957, the proportion of those telling surveyors from the National Opinion Research
Center that they are “very happy” has declined from 35 to 29 percent.

Even very rich people – those surveyed among Forbes magazine’s 100 wealthiest Americans – are
only slightly happier than the average American. Those whose income has increased over a 10-year
period are not happier than those whose income is stagnant. Indeed, in most nations the correlation
between income and happiness is negligible – only in the poorest countries, such as Bangladesh and
India, is income a good measure of emotional well-being.

Are people in rich countries happier, by and large, than people in not so rich countries? It appears
in general that they are, but the margin may be slim. In Portugal, for example, only one in 10
people reports being very happy, whereas in the much more prosperous Netherlands the proportion
of very happy is four in 10. Yet there are curious reversals in this correlation between national
wealth and well-being-the Irish during the 1980s consistently reported greater life satisfaction than
the wealthier West Germans. Furthermore, other factors, such as ‘civil rights’, literacy and duration
of democratic government, all of which also promote reported life satisfaction, tend to go hand in
hand with national wealth. As a result, it is impossible to tell whether the happiness of people in
weather nations is based on money or is a by-product of other facilities.

Although happiness is not easy to predict from material circumstances, it seems consistent for those
who have it. In one National Institute on Aging study of 5,000 adults, the happiest people in 1973
were still relatively happy a decade later, despite changes in work, residence and family status.

Questions 1–3

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

1. What point are the writers making in the opening paragraph?

A Happiness levels have risen since 1967.
B Journals take a biased view on happiness.
C Happiness is not a well-documented research area.
D People tend to think about themselves negatively.

2. What do the writers say about their research findings?

A They had predicted the results correctly.
B They felt people had responded dishonestly.
C They conflict with those of other researchers.
D Happiness levels are higher than they had believed.

3. In the fourth paragraph, what does the reader learn about the research method used?

A It is new.
B It appears to be reliable.
C It is better than using beepers.
D It reveals additional information.

26
Questions 4-7

According to the passage, which of the findings below 4-7 is quoted by which Investigative Body
(A-G)? Write your answers in boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more Investigative Bodies than findings, so you do not have to use all of them.

4. Happiness is not gender related.

5. Over fifty per cent of people consider themselves to be ‘happy’.
6. Happiness levels are marginally higher for those in the top income brackets.
7. ‘Happy’ people remain happy throughout their lives.

Investigative Bodies

A. The National Opinion Research Center, University of Chicago

B. Arizona State University
C. The Institute for Social Research, University of Michigan
D. Forbes Magazine
E. The National Institute on Aging
F. The Gallup Organization
G. The Government

Questions 8-13

Complete the summary of Passage 3 below. Choose your answers from the box at the bottom of the
page and write them in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

NB There are more words than spaces so you will not use them all. You may use any of the words
more than once.

HOW HAPPY ARE WE?

Example Answer
Our happiness levels are … (O) … by relatively few factors. affected

For example, incomes in the States have … (8) … over the past forty years but happiness levels
have … (9) … over the same period. In fact, people on average incomes are only slightly … (10)
… happy than `extremely rich people and a gradual increase in prosperity makes … (11) …
difference to how happy we are. In terms of national wealth, populations of wealthy nations are …
(12) … happier than those who live in poorer countries. Although in some cases this trend is …
(13) … and it appears that other factors need to be considered.

LIST OF WORDS

stopped slightly too great

doubled significant similar some
stabilised remarkably reversed dropped
no less much affected
crept up slowed down more clearly
27
 Listening Test 3
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

NOTES – Christmas Dinner

Example Answer
Number to book for: 45

Date of dinner: 21 December

Choice for venue:
• First choice 1 …………………………….. Tel. Number: not known
• Second choice 2 …………………………….. Tel. Number: 777192
• Third choice 3 ……………………………...Tel. Number: 4 ……………….
Price per person: ₤12
Restaurant must have vegetarian food and a 5 ………………………………………
Menu: First course - French Onion Soup OR Fruit Juice
Main course - Roast Dinner OR 6 …………………………………
Dessert - Plum Pudding OR Apple Pie
- Coffee
Restaurant requires from us:
7 ……………………………………… and letter of confirmation and we must
8 ………………………………………in advance. Must confirm in writing by:
9 ………………………………………Put notice in 10 ………………………………………

SECTION 2: Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MEMBERSHIP OF SPORTS CENTRE

Cost 11 ₤ ………………………… per 12 ………………………….
Where? 13 …………………………
When? 2 to 6 pm, Monday to Thursday
Bring: Union card
Photo
Fee
28
Questions 14-16
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Always bring sports 14 …………………………… when you come to

15 ……………………….. or use the Centre’s facilities.

Opening hours 9 am to 10 pm on 16 …………………………………..

10 am to 6 pm on Saturdays
50% ‘morning discount’ 9 am to 12 noon on weekdays

Questions 17-20
Look at the map of the Sports Complex below.
Label the buildings on the map of the Sports Complex.
Choose your answers from the box below and write them against Questions 17-20
Arts Studio
Football Pitch
Tennis Courts
Dance Studio
Fitness Room
Reception
Squash Courts

29
SECTION 3: Questions 21-30
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.
YOUNG ELECTRONIC ENGINEER COMPETITION
Name(s) of designer(s): John Brown
21 ……………………………..
Age: 22 …………………………….
Name of design: 23 ……………………………..
Dimensions of equipment: 24
Width Length Depth
…………..cm ………….. cm ………….. cm
Power: Battery
Special features: 25 ……………………………………………………………………
26 ……………………………………………………………………
27 ……………………………………………………………………
Cost: parts $ 5
28 ……………………………………. $ 9.50
Other comments: need help to make 29 …………………………………………….
would like to develop range of sizes
Send by: 30 ……………………………….

SECTION 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33
Complete the table below:
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

“NEW” MEAT CAN BE COMPARED TO PROBLEM

kangaroo 31 …………………… 32 ……………………….
crocodile chicken fatty
ostrich 33 …………………….

30
Questions 34-36
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
OSTRICH PRODUCT USE
Ostrich feathers • tribal ceremonial dress
• 34 ………………………..
• decorated hats
Ostrich hide • 35 ………………………..
Ostrich 36 …………………………… • ‘biltong’

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letters A-C.
37 Ostrich meat
A. has more protein than beef.
B. tastes nearly as good as beef.
C. is very filling.
38 One problem with ostrich farming in Britain is
A. the climate.
B. the cost of transporting birds.
C. the price of ostrich eggs.
39 Ostrich chicks reared on farms
A. must be kept in incubators until mature.
B. are very independent.
C. need looking after carefully.
40 The speaker suggests ostrich farms are profitable because
A. little initial outlay is required.
B. farmed birds are very productive.
C. there is a good market for the meat.

31
 Speaking
3. Describe a Sports Personality you admire.
You should say:
 Who the person is.
 How does he/ she looks?
 Why do you admire him/ her.
 And how he / she is different from other sportsperson.
Related questions:
 Do you think that sports should be incorporated in education in a more aggressive
manner?
 Which is the most popular sport in your country? How can you say that?
 What are the advantages of sports for an individual?
 What is the difference between a ‘game’ and a ‘sport’?
 Do you think money spent on organizing international sports events is a waste?
 Is ‘sports’ a safe way of releasing of patriotic emotions?
Writing (General) –TASK -1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have had a bank account for a few years. Recently you received a letter from the
bank stating that your account is $240 overdrawn and that you will be charged $70
which will be taken directly from your account. You know that this information is
incorrect.
Write a letter to the bank. In your letter
 Explain what has happened
 Describe your Problem
 Say what you would like them to do

2. You live in a room in college which you share with another student. You find it
very difficult to work there because he or she always has friends visiting. They
have parties in the room and sometimes borrow your things without asking you.

Write a letter to Accommodation officer at the college. In your letter

 Ask for a new room next term.
 You would prefer a single room.
 Explain your reasons

Writing (Academic) TASK 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
32
1. The diagram below shows how the Australian Bureau of Meteorology collects up-to-
the-minute information on the weather in order to produce reliable forecasts.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

.
2. The table below gives information about the underground railway systems in six cities.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

33
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. When a country develops its technology, the traditional skills and ways of life die out. It is
pointless to try and keep them alive. To what extent do you agree or disagree to this
opinion?
2. In many countries children are engaged in some kind of paid work. Some people regard this
as completely wrong, while others consider it as valuable work experience, important for
learning and taking responsibility. What are your opinions on this?
3. Improvements in health, education and trade are essential for the development of poorer
nations. However, the governments of richer nations should take more responsibility for
helping the poorer nations in such area. To what extent do you agree or disagree to this
opinion?

34
 UNIT: 4
Reading Passage 4
The Birth of Blue
As a primary colour, blue has been the most difficult for artists and scientists to create.

Artists have always been enchanted by blue, yet line blues have long been difficult to obtain. Blues
are relatively rare in nature, and painters throughout the ages have therefore found themselves at the
mercy of what contemporary chemical technology could offer. Some blues have been prohibitively
expensive, others were unreliable. The quest for a good blue has driven some crucial technological
innovations, showing that the interaction of art and science has not always been a one-way affair.

The first pigments were simply ground-up coloured minerals dug from the earth. But few blue
minerals are suitable as pigments – so there are no blues in cave art. Ancient Egyptian artists used
blue prominently, however, because they knew how to make a fine artificial pigment, now known
as Egyptian blue.

The discovery of Egyptian blue, like that of many other artificial pigments, was almost certainly an
accident. The Egyptians manufactured blue-glazed stones and ornaments called faience using a
technique they inherited from the Mesopotamians. Faience manufacture was big business in the
ancient world – it was traded all over Europe by 1500 BC. Faience is made by heating stone
ornaments in a kiln with copper minerals such as malachite. Egyptian blue, which was made from at
least 2500 BC, comes from firing chalk or limestone with sand and copper minerals, and probably
appeared by the chance mixture of these ingredients in a faience kiln.

Scientists recently deduced the secrets of another ancient blue: Maya blue, used for centuries
throughout central America before the Spanish Conquest. This is a kind of clay – a mineral made of
sheets of atoms – with molecules of the blue dye indigo wedged between the sheets. Using indigo
in this way makes it less liable to decompose. No one has made colours this way since the Mayas,
and no one knows exactly how they did it. But technologists are now interested in using the same
trick to make stable pigments from other dyes.

The finest pigment available to medieval artists was ultramarine, which began to appear in Western
art in the 13th century. It was made from the blue mineral lapis lazuli, of which only one source was
known: the remote mines of Badakshan, now in Afghanistan. In addition to the difficulty of
transporting the mineral over such distances, making the pigment was a tremendously laborious
business. Lapis lazuli turns greyish when powdered because of impurities in the mineral. To extract
the pure blue pigment, the powder has to be mixed to a dough with wax and kneaded repeatedly in
water.

As a result, ultramarine could cost more than its weight in gold, and medieval artists were very
selective in using it. Painters since the Renaissance craved a cheaper, more accessible, blue to
compare with ultramarine. Things improved in 1704, when a Berlin-based colour maker called
Diesbach discovered the first “modern” synthetic pigment: Prussian blue. Diesbach was trying to
make a red pigment, using a recipe that involved the alkali potash. But Diesbach’s potash was
contaminated with animal oil, and the synthesis did not work out as planned. Instead of red,
Diesbach made blue.

35
The oil had reacted to produce cyanide, a vital ingredient of Prussian blue. Diesbach kept his recipe
secret for many years, but it was discovered and published in 1724, after which anyone could make
the colour. By the 1750s, it cost just a tenth of ultramarine. But it wasn’t such a glorious blue, and
painters still weren’t satisfied. They got a better alternative in 1802, when the French chemist Louis
Jacques. Thenard invented cobalt blue.

Best of all was the discovery in 1826 of a method for making ultramarine itself. The French Society
for the Encouragement of National Industry offered a prize of 6,000 francs in 1824 to anyone who
could make artificial ultramarine at an affordable price.

The Toulouse chemist Jean-Baptiste Guimet was awarded the prize two years later, when he
showed that ultramarine could be made by heating china clay, soda, charcoal, sand and sulphur in a
furnace. This meant that there was no longer any need to rely on the scarce natural source, and
ultramarine eventually became a relatively cheap commercial pigment (called French ultramarine,
as it was first mass-produced in Paris).
In the 1950s, synthetic ultramarine became the source of what is claimed to be the world’s most
beautiful blue. Invented by the French artist Yves Klein in collaboration with a Parisian paint
manufacturer, Edouard Adam, International Klein Blue is a triumph of modern chemistry. Klein
was troubled by how pigments lost their richness when they were mixed with liquid binder to make
a paint. With Adam’s help, he found that a synthetic resin, thinned with organic solvents, would
retain this vibrant texture in the dry paint layer. In 1957, Klein launched his new blue with a series
of monochrome paintings, and in 1960 he protected his invention with a patent.

Questions 1-4
Complete the summary below. Choose no more than three words from the passage for each
answer.

The colours used in cave paintings and other early art were made by crushing … 1 … However,
later artists have generally had to rely on the … 2 … of the day for their supplies of blue. Among
the first examples of the widespread use of blue was in … 3 … art. Over the centuries, many more
attempts to create acceptable blues have been made, some of which have led to significant … 4 ….

1 …………… 2 ……………… 3 …………… 4 …………….

Questions 5 and 6

Choose the appropriate letter A-D

5. What was the main disadvantage in using ultramarine for medieval artists?
A It contained a number of impurities.
B It was excessively expensive.
C The colour wasn’t permanent.
D The preparation process was hazardous.

6. The discovery of Prussian blue was the result of

A using the wrong quantity of an ingredient.
B mixing the wrong ingredients together.
C including an ingredient that was impure.
D using an ingredient of the wrong colour.
36
Questions 7-12

Look at the following notes that have been made about the types of blue described in Reading
Passage 4. Match each description with a type of blue.

Example Answer
was developed in the early years of the 19th century E

NOTES

7 derived from a scarce natural resource ______

8 specially designed to retain its depth of colour when used in paint ______
9 was cheap to produce but had limited appeal for artists ______
10 made using a technique which is not yet fully understood ______
11 thought to have been produced during another manufacturing
process ______
12 came to be manufactured inexpensively in large quantities ______

Types of Blue
A Egyptian blue
B Maya blue
C ultramarine
D Prussian blue
E cobalt blue
F French ultramarine
G International Klein Blue

37
 Listening Test 4
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Questions 1 and 2
Birth Statistics
Complete the form opposite
Example Answer
Date of birth 10 August
Write NO MORE THAN THREE
Sex: male
WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for
First name: Tom
each answer.
Surname: Lightfoot
Weight: 1 …………………………. kgs
Length: 2 …………………………. cms
Colour of hair: black

Questions 3-5
Label the map. Choose your answers from the box below.
Write the appropriate letters A-E on the map.

A State Bank
B St George’s Hospital
C Garage
D Library
E University

Questions 6-10

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Gift for Susan Gift for baby

What will they buy? 6 ……………………………. 7 ……………………………

38
Where will they buy the gifts? 8 ……………………………. 9 ……………………………
Approximate prices? $15 10 $ ………………………

SECTION 2: Questions 11-20

Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
For the recommendation column, write
A. You must buy this.
B. May be you should buy this.
C. You should never buy this.
Name Advantage(s) Disadvantage(s) Recommendation
Unbreakable * Contains no • Expensive
Vacuum Flask 11 ……………….. • Leaves
* Steel guaranteed 13 …………..
B
for 20 years
* Keeps warm for
12 ………………..
Whistle Key • Press-button light useful • Unpleasant noise
Holder for finding keyhole. • Doesn’t work 16 ………………
• 14 ……………….. through
15 …………..
Army Flashlight • Useful for • Has
(squeeze light) 17 …………………. 19 ….…………..
C
• Works …………………..
18 ……..…………..
Decoy Camera • Realistic • Difficult to fix
(to trick 20 ….……….. onto wall A
burglars)

SECTION 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letters A-C.
21. Amina’s project is about a local
A. school. B. hospital. C. factory.
22. Dr Bryson particularly liked
A. the introduction. B. the first chapter. C. the middle section.
23. Amina was surprised because she
A. thought it was bad B. wrote it quickly. C. found it difficult to do.

39
Questions 24-26

What suggestions does Dr Bryson make?

Complete the table as follows.

Write A if he says KEEP UNCHANGED
Write B if he says REWRITE
Write C if he says REMOVE COMPLETELY

Example Answer
Section headings B

Information on housing 24 …………………….

Interview data 25 …………………….
Chronology 26 …………………….
Questions 27-30
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SCHEDULE OF ACTION
• Read ‘Approaches to Local History’
by John Mervis.
• Read 27 …………………………………..
by Kate Oakwell.
• Make changes and show to
28 …………………………………..
• Do 29 …………………………………..
by 29 June.
• Laser print before 30 …………………………………..
Hand in to Faculty Office.

SECTION 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34
Write NUMBERS AND / OR NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS for each answer.
31 Between what times is the road traffic lightest?
………………………………………………………………………………………………

40
32 Who will notice the noise most?
………………………………………………………………………………………………

33 Which day of the week has the least traffic?

………………………………………………………………………………………………

34 What will be the extra cost of modifying houses?

………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question 35

Choose the correct letter A-D.

The noise levels at the site can reach

A. 45 decibels. B. 55 decibels. C. 67 decibels. D. 70 decibels.
Questions 36-38
Complete the table showing where devices used in reducing noise could be fitted in the houses.
Write: W for walls
D for doors
C for ceilings

Example Answer
acoustic seals D

36 double thickness plaster board

37 mechanical ventilation
38 air conditioning

Questions 39 and 40
Choose the correct letters A-D.
39 Which is the correct construction for acoustic double-glazing?

41
40 What is thy best layout for the houses?

Highway

42
 Speaking
4. Describe a book that you have read recently or in the past but you are highly
impressed.

You should say:

 What the book was.
 What it was about.
 When you read it.
 And explain why you enjoyed it.
Related questions:
 What kinds of books do you read generally?
 What is the importance of books in our lives?
 Will books/newspapers become a medium of past in next few years because of the
Internet?
 What do you think of the concept of ‘virtual’ classrooms?

Writing (General) Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You traveled by plane last week and your suitcase was lost. You have still heard
nothing from the airline company.
Write a letter to the airline, in your letter
 Explain what happened
 Describe your suitcase and tell them what was in it
 Find out what they are going to do about it

2. You play a team sport with some friends. Last week a member of the team had an
accident and wasn't able to play with you at the weekend. You decide to write to him in
hospital, telling him about the match
Write a letter to your friend. In your letter,
 Tell him which team won
 Describe the conditions on the day
 Say how you felt about the match

43
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The chart below shows the amount of money per week spent on fast foods in
Britain. The line graph shows the trends in consumption of fast foods.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

2. The diagrams below show the stages and equipment used in the cement-making
process, and how cement is used to produce concrete for building purposes.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

44
45
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational; otherwise they
are a complete waste of time. Do you agree or disagree? Give reasons for your answer and
include any relevant examples from your experience.
2. It is generally accepted that families are not as close as they used to be. Give some reasons
why this change has happened and suggest how families could be brought closer together.
Include any relevant examples from your experience.
3. Fatherhood ought to be emphasized as much as motherhood. The idea that women are solely
responsible for deciding whether or not to have babies leads on to the idea that they are also
responsible for bringing the children up. To what extent do you agree or disagree?

46
 UNIT: 5
Reading Passage 5

An Ordinary Miracle

Bigger harvests, without pesticides or genetically modified crops? Farmers can make it happen by
letting weeds do the work.

Across East Africa, thousands of farmers are planting weeds in their maize fields. Bizarre as it
sounds, their technique is actually raising yields by giving the insect pests something else to chew
on besides maize. “It’s better than pesticides, and a lot cheaper,” said Ziadin Khan, whose idea it is,
as he showed me round his demonstration plots at the Mbita Point research station on the shores of
Lake Victoria in Kenya. “And it has raised farm yields round here by 60 to 70 per cent.”

His novel way of fighting pests is one of a host of low-tech innovations boosting production by 100
per cent or more on millions of poor Third World farms in the past decade. This “sustainable
agriculture” just happens to be the biggest movement in Third World farming today, dwarfing the
tentative forays into genetic manipulation.

In East Africa, maize fields face two major pests, and Khan has a solution to both. This first is an
insect called the stem borer, whose larvae eat their way through a third of the region’s maize most
years. But Khan discovered that the borer is even fonder of a local weed, napier grass. By planting
napier grass in their fields, farmers can lure the stem borer away from the maize - and into a honey-
trap. For the grass produces a sticky substance that traps and kills stem borer larvae. The second
pest is Striga, a parasitic plant that wrecks $10 billion worth of maize crops every year, threatening
the livelihoods of 100 million Africans. “Weeding Striga is one of the most time-consuming
activities for millions of African women farmers,” says Khan. But he has an antidote: another weed
called Desmodium. “It seems to release another sort of chemical that Striga doesn’t like. At any
rate, where farmers plant Desmodium between rows of maize, Striga won’t grow.”

“The success of sustainable agriculture is dispelling the myth that modern techno-farming is the
most productive method,” says Miguel Altieri of the University of California, Berkeley. “In
Mexico, it takes 1.73 hectares of land planted with maize to produce as much food as one hectare
planted with a mixture of maize, squash and beans. The difference,” he says, “comes from the
reduction of losses due to weeds, insects and diseases and a more efficient use of the available
resources of water, light and nutrients. Monocultures breed pests and waste resources,” he says.

Researchers from the Association Tefy Saina, a Madagascan group working for local farmers, were
looking for ways to boost rice yields on small farms. They decided to make the best use of existing
strains rather than track down a new breed of super-rice. Through trial and error, a new system was
developed that raises typical rice yields from three to twelve tonnes per hectare. The trick is to
transplant seedlings earlier and in smaller numbers so that more survive; to keep paddies unflooded
for much of the growing period; and to help the plants grow using compost rather than chemical
fertilisers. The idea has grown like wildfire, and 20,000 have adopted the idea in Madagascar
alone.

Few countries have switched wholesale to sustainable agriculture. But Cuba has. The collapse of
the Soviet Union in 1990 cut off cheap supplies of grain, tractors and agrochemicals. Pesticide use

47
halved overnight, as did the calorie intake of its citizens. The cash-strapped country was forced to
embrace low-input farming or starve. “Today,” says Fernando Funes of the Country’s Pasture and
Fodder Research Institute, “teams of oxen replace the tractors, and farmers have adopted organic
methods, mixing maize with beans and cassava and doubling yields in the process, helping average
calorie intake per person rise back to pre-1990 levels.”

Worldwide, one of the most widely adopted sustainable techniques has been to throw away the
plough, the ultimate symbol of the farmer. Ploughing aerates the soil, helping rot weeds and crop
residues. But it can also damage soil fertility and increase erosion. Now millions of Latin
American farmers have decided it isn’t worth the effort. A third of Argentina’s farms no longer use
the plough. Instead, they fight weeds by planting winter crops, such as black oats, or by spraying a
biodegradable herbicide such as glyphosate. “The farmers saw results in a short time – reduced
costs, richer soils, bigger grain yields and increased income.” Says Lauro Bassi of EPAGRI, the
agricultural research institute in Santa Catarina state, southern Brazil, which has been promoting the
idea.

Zero-tillage also benefits the planet in general. Unploughed soils hang on to carbon that would
otherwise escape into the air as carbon dioxide when organic matter rots. “A one-hectare field left
unploughed can absorb up to a tonne of carbon every year,” says Pretty, “making soils a vital
element in preventing global warming.”

Sustainable agriculture is no magic bullet for feeding the world. It is an approach rather than a
blueprint. Small farms with low yields stand to gain the most and agribusiness the least. But it does
offer an alternative for the millions of small farms that have plenty of hands to work the land, but
not the skills or financial resources to adopt conventional mechanised farming.

Questions 1-4
Complete each of the following statements with the best ending A-I from the box below.

1. Napier grass ….. 2. The plant called Striga …..

3. Growing single crops …. 4. Ploughing the land ….

List of Endings
A reduces losses due to plant diseases
B can lead to soil erosion
C causes major financial losses
D increases soil fertility
E discourages the growth of weeds
F helps to retain carbon dioxide
G destroys harmful insect larvae
H helps prevent global warming
I encourages pests to breed

48
Questions 5-12
Complete the table below.
Choose no more than three words from the passage for each answer.

Area Strategy Benefits to farmers

East Africa 5. ………………………………... Lower costs
with food crops Higher yields
6. Growing mixed crops together. Higher yields
………………
Madagascar Transplanting seedlings earlier. Higher yields
Leaving paddy fields unflooded.
Replacing chemical fertilisers with
7. ………………………………….
Cuba Reducing 8 …………………. Yields doubled
Using 9 …………………………… Citizens’ 10 ………………
instead of farm vehicles. increased.
Growing mixed crops together.
Latin America Zero-tillage Lower costs, Improved
11. ………………….
Higher yields
Higher
12. …………………

49
 Listening Test 5
SECTION 1: Questions 1-12

Questions 1-5
Circle the appropriate letter.
Example What are the students looking for?

A Main Hall C Old Hall

B Great Hall D Old Building

1. Where is the administration building?

2. How many people are waiting in the queue?

A 50 B 100 C 200 D 300

3. What does the woman order for lunch?

4. What does the woman order to drink?

50
5. How much money does the woman give the man?
A $2.00 B $3.00 C $3.50 D $5.00

Questions 6-10
Complete the registration form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Name of student: (6) ………………………………………………
Address: (7) Flat 5/………………………………………
Town: (8) ………………………………………………
Tel: (9) ………………………………………………
Course: (10) ……………………………………………

Questions 11-12
11 What did the man buy for her to eat?

12. What must the students do as part of registration at the university?

A Check the notice board in the Law Faculty.
B Find out about lectures.
C Organise tutorial groups.
D Pay the union fees.

51
SECTION 2: Questions 13-21
Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

STUDENT BANKING
Recommended Banks Location
Barclays Realty Square
National Westminster Example: Preston Park
Lloyds City Plaza
Midland (13) …………………………………………..

Note: May not be allowed all facilities given to resident students.

Funding
 Must provide (14) ………………………………….. I can support myself.
 Services will depend on personal circumstances and discretion of Bank Manager.
Opening an account
 Take with me: (15) ………………………………….. and letter of enrolment.
 Recommended account: (16) …………………………………………………..
 Bank supplies: (17) …………………………… and chequecard which guarantees
cheques.
Other services
 Cashcard: (you can (18) ………………………………….. cash at any time.)
 Switch/Delta cards: (take the money (19) …………………………….. the account.)
Overdraft
 Must have (20) …………………………………..
 Sometimes must pay interest.
Opening times
 Most banks open until (21) ………………………………………. during the week.
 Some open for a limited time on Saturdays.

52
SECTION 3: Questions 22-31

Questions 22-25
Complete the factsheet. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

FACTSHEET – Aluminium Cans

• (22) ………………………………. produced every day in the US – more cans
produced than nails or (23) ………………………………….
• each can weighs 0.48 ounces – thinner than two
(24) ………………………………….
• can take more than 90 pounds of pressure per square inch – over
(25) …………………………………. the pressure of a car tyre.

Questions 26-31
Label the aluminium can. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SECTION 4: Questions 32-42

Complete the lecture notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Purpose of the mini lecture
To experience To find out about
(32) ………………………………. (33) ………………………………….

53
 The three strands of Sports Studies are:
a Sports psychology
b Sports (34) …………………………….
c Sports physiology

A The psychologists work with (35) ………………………………….

They want to discover what (36) ………………………………….

B Sports marketing looks at (37) ………………………………….

Sport now competes with (38) ………………………………….
Spectators want (39) ………………………………….

C Sports physiology is also known as (40) ………………………………….

Macro levels look at (41) ………………………………….
Micro level looks at (42) ………………………………….

54
 Speaking
5. Describe an important letter that you received?
You should say:
 Who the letter was from.
 What it was about.
 Why it was important.
 And explain how you felt about it.
Related questions:
 Do you think letters have become a medium of past?
 What is the significance of ‘face to face’ communication?
 Will THE Internet wash away all other forms of communication in future?
 How has THE Internet changed the way we communicate?
 What are the negative impacts of THE Internet as a medium of communication?
Writing (General) Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You borrowed some books from your school or college library. Unfortunately, you
have to go away visit a sick relative and cannot return the book in time.
Write a letter to the library, in your letter
 Explain what has happened
 Describe your reason
 Tell them what you want to do about it

2. Write a letter to one of your old teachers asking for a reference.

In your letter:
 Say what job you have applied for
 Explain why you want this job
 Suggest what information the teacher should include

Writing (Academic) - Task 1

1. Chorleywood is a village near London whose population has increased steadily since
the middle of the nineteenth century. The map below shows the development of the
village.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the development of the village.

55
2. The graph below shows the quantities of goods transported in the UK between 1974
and 2002 by four different modes of transport.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

You should write at least 150 words.

56
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Without capital punishment (the death penalty) our lives are less secure and crimes of
violence increase. Capital punishment is essential to control violence in society. To what
extent do you agree or disagree to this opinion?
2. The position of women in society has changed markedly in the last twenty years. Many of
the problems young people now experience, such as “juvenile delinquency”, arise from the
fact that many married women now work and are not at home to care for their children. To
what extent do you agree or disagree to this opinion?
3. Some governments mandate how many children a family can have in their country. They
may control, the number of children someone has through taxes. Is it right for a government
to control the population in this way? To what extent do you agree or disagree with this
approach or policy?

57
 UNIT: 6
Reading Passage 6

Is Global Warming Harmful to Health?

Today, few scientists doubt the atmosphere is warming. Most also agree that the rate of heating is
accelerating and that the consequences of this temperature change could become increasingly
disruptive. Even high-school students can recite some projected outcomes: the oceans will warm,
and glaciers will melt, causing sea levels to rise and salt water to inundate low-lying coasts. Yet
less familiar effects could be equally detrimental. Notably, computer models indicate that global
warming, and other climate alterations it induces, will expand the incidence and distribution of
many serious medical disorders.
Heating of the atmosphere can influence health through several routes. Most directly, it can
generate more, stronger and hotter heatwaves, which will become especially treacherous if the
evenings fail to bring cooling relief. Global warming can also threaten human well-being
profoundly, if somewhat less directly, by revising weather patterns – particularly by increasing the
frequency and intensity of floods and droughts and by causing rapid swings in the weather. Aside
from causing death by drowning or starvation, these disasters promote by various means the
emergence, resurgence and spread of infectious disease. That prospect is deeply troubling, because
infectious illness may kill fewer people in one fell swoop than a raging flood or an extended
drought, but once it takes root in a community, it often defies eradication and can invade other
areas.
Mosquitoes Rule in the Heat
Diseases relayed by mosquitoes – such as malaria, dengue fever, yellow fever and several kinds of
encephalitis – are among those eliciting the greatest concern as the world warms. Mosquito-borne
disorders are projected to become increasingly prevalent because their insect carriers, or “vectors”,
are very sensitive to meteorological conditions. Cold can be a friend to humans, because it limits
mosquitoes to seasons and regions where temperatures stay above certain minimums. Winter
freezing kills many eggs, larvae and adults outright.
Excessive heat kills insects as effectively as cold does. Nevertheless, within their survivable range
of temperatures, mosquitoes proliferate faster and bite more as the air becomes warmer. As the
same time, greater heat speeds the rate at which the pathogens inside them reproduce and mature.
As whole areas heat up, then, mosquitoes could expand into formerly forbidden territories, bringing
illness with them. Further, warmer nighttime and winter temperatures may enable them to cause
more disease for longer periods in the areas they already inhabit.
The extra heat is not alone in encouraging a rise in mosquito-borne infection. Intensifying floods
and droughts resulting from global warming can each trigger outbreaks by creating breeding
grounds for insects whose desiccated eggs remain viable and hatch in still water. As floods recede,
they leave puddles. In times of drought, streams can become stagnant pools, and people may put out
containers to catch water, these pools and pots, too, can become incubators for new mosquitoes.
And the insects can gain another boost if climate change or other processes (such as alterations of
habitats by humans) reduce the populations of predators that normally keep mosquitoes in check.
Opportunists like Sequential Extremes

58
The increased climate variability accompanying warming will probably be more important than the
rising heat itself in fuelling unwelcome outbreaks of certain vector-borne illnesses. For instance,
warm winters followed by hot, dry summers (a pattern that could become all too familiar as the
atmosphere heats up) favor the transmission of St Louis encephalitis and other infections that cycle
among birds, urban mosquitoes and humans.
This sequence seems to have abetted the surprise emergence of the West Nile virus in New York
City in 2000. No one knows how this virus found its way into the US. But one reasonable
explanation for its persistence and amplification here centers on the weather’s effects on Culex
pipiens mosquitoes, which accounted for the bulk of transmission. These urban dwellers typically
lay their eggs in damp basements, gutters, sewers and polluted pools of water.
The interaction between the weather, the mosquitoes and the virus probably went something like
this: the mild winter of 1998-99 enabled many of the mosquitoes to survive into the spring, which
arrived early. Drought in spring and summer concentrated nourishing organic matter in their
breeding areas and simultaneously killed off mosquito predators, such as lacewings and ladybugs,
that would otherwise have helped limit mosquito populations. Drought would also have led birds to
congregate more, as they shared fewer and smaller watering holes, many of which were shared,
naturally, by mosquitoes.
Once mosquitoes acquired the virus, the July heatwave that accompanied the drought would speed
up viral maturation inside the insects. Consequently, as infected mosquitoes sought blood meals,
they could spread the virus to birds at a rapid rate. As bird after bird became infected, so did more
mosquitoes, which ultimately fanned out to infect human beings. Torrential rains towards end of
August provided new puddles for the breeding of C. pipiens and other mosquitoes, unleashing an
added crop of potential virus carriers.
Solutions
The health toll taken by global warming will depend to a large extent on the steps taken to prepare
for the dangers. The ideal defensive strategy would have multiple components, including improved
surveillance systems to spot the emergence or resurgence of infectious diseases; predicting when
environmental conditions could become conducive to disease outbreaks; and limiting human
activities that contribute to the heating or that exacerbate its effects.

Questions 1-5
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Reading Passage 6
Use no more than three words for each answer.
Scientists base their predictions about global warming on evidence from
(1) ……………………..
Two weather conditions which are likely to become more common as an indirect result of global
warming are (2) ……………………………. and ………………………….
Once infectious disease has become established in an area, its (3) …………….………... can prove

extremely difficult.

Mosquitoes can be effectively destroyed by (4) ……………………………….. and

59
(5) ……………………………….
Questions 6-10
Do the following statements agree with information given in Reading Passage 6?
Write:
TRUE if the statement is true according to the passage
FALSE if the statement is false according the passage
DOES NOT SAY if there is no information about this in the passage
6. Mosquito eggs are capable of surviving dry conditions.
7. Animals which feed on mosquitoes may be adversely affected by global warming.
8. Mosquitoes are becoming increasingly resistant to standard drugs.
9. Higher temperatures are likely to be the most important factor in encouraging diseases
carried by mosquitoes.
10. The mosquitoes which transmit West Nile disease breed in rural areas.

Questions 11-15
Complete the flow chart with words taken from Reading Passage 6:
Use no more than three words for each answer.

60
 Listening Test 6
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Questions 1 and 2
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

MIC HOUSE AGENCY – REPAIRS

Example Answer
Name: Paul ……… SMILEY……..

Address: Apartment 2, (1) …………………………………………………., Newton

Length of lease: One year
Date moved in (2) ………………………………………………….

Questions 3-9
Complete the table below.
Write A if the repair will be done immediately.
B if the repair will be done during the following week.
C if the repair will be done in two or more weeks.

Item Problem When to be done

washing machine leaking Example A
cooker (3) ……………………………… (4) ………………………………
windows (5) ………………………………
B

(6) flickers (7) ………………………………

………………………..
(8) torn (9) ………………………………
…………………………

Question 10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
Workman to call between (10) ……………………………. and ………………………….
SECTION 2
Questions 11 & 12
Circle the correct letters A-C.
61
11 At Rainforest Lodge there aren’t any…
A telephones or TVs.
B newspapers or TVs.
C telephones or newspapers.
12 The guests are told to …
A carry their luggage to the cabin.
B go straight to the restaurant.
C wait an hour for dinner.

Questions 13-15
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
TOUR NAME DETAILS
Orchid and Fungi walking tour
Four-Wheel-Drive tour to the (13) …………………………
Fishing to catch lunch
Crocodile Cruise departs at (14) ……………………….. daily
(15) ………………………… departs at sundown

Questions 16-20
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
What THREE items of clothing does the speaker recommend for the rainforest?
16 …………………………………………………………………………………………..
17 …………………………………………………………………………………………..
18 …………………………………………………………………………………………..
Which TWO things in the rainforest does the speaker give a warning about?
19 …………………………………………………………………………………………..
20 …………………………………………………………………………………………..

SECTION 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25
Circle the correct letters A-C.
21 These sessions with a counsellor are …
A compulsory for all students.
B available to any students.
C for science students only.

62
22 The counsellor says that new students have to …
A spend more time on the college premises.
B get used to working independently.
C work harder than they did at school.
23 John complains that the resource centre …
A has limited opening hours.
B has too few resources.
C gets too crowded.
24 The counsellor suggests to John that …
A most other students can cope.
B he needs to study all the time.
C he should be able to fit in some leisure activities.
25 Before being able to help John the counsellor needs to …
A talk with some of his lecturers.
B consult his tutor.
C get more information from him.

Questions 26-30
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
WRITING
• Pay careful attention to the question
• Leave time to (26) …………………………………
LISTENING
• Try to (27) …………………………………. lectures
• Check notes with (28) ……………………………….
READING
• Choose topics of (29) ……………………………….
• Buy a good (30) ………………………………………

SECTION 4: Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35
Circle the correct letters A-C.
31 John was first interested in the subject because of something …
A he had witnessed.
B he had read about.
C he had experienced.

63
32 The main research method was …
A interviews.
B questionnaires.
C observation
33 Which pie chart shows the proportion of men and women respondents?

Women
A B C
Men Men
Women Women
Men

34 How many respondents were there?

A 50 - 100
B 100 - 150
C 150 – 200
35 The most common type of road rage incident involved …
A damage to property.
B personal violence.
C verbal abuse.

Questions 36-40
Which group gave the following advice?
Tick Column A if it was mainly women.
Tick Column B if it was mainly men.
Tick Column C if it was both men and women.
B C

Example √
Don’t stop to ask directions.
(36) Avoid eye contact with other drivers.
(37) Inform someone of your likely arrival time.
(38) Ensure car keys are ready when you return to the car.
(39) Leave plenty of space when parking.
(40) Keep all doors locked.

64
 Speaking
6. Describe a modern equipment that you are impressed with.
You should say:
 What the equipment is.
 How you use it.
 How others use it generally.
 And why are you so much impressed with it.
Related questions:
 How has technology revolutionized our lives?
• Business
• Medical field
• Communication
• Education
• Household activities etc.
 How will technology change things around us in the next 20 to 50 years?
• Global Warming
• Fewer Species
• Longer lives
• Nuclear war
• Alternative energy resources
• Space exploration
• Computers everywhere
• Fewer languages, etc.
 What are the advantages/ disadvantages of computers/ internet/ credit cards/ mobile
phones?
 What is E-commerce? What are the Advantages/Disadvantages to sellers/buyers?
 Are automobiles a boon or a curse?
 What can be done to curb pollution?
 How can you encourage people to use more public transport so as to reduce the
pollution and save fuel?
 How has technology helped male and females differently?
 How do you feel about the idea that soon people may be living on colonies in
space/different planets? Would you like to be one of the pioneers?
 Space exploration is a waste of money. What do you say?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

65
1. Your friend has just won a sizeable amount of money in the lottery. She would like
your advice as to how to spend it.

Write a letter to your friend. In your letter

 Congratulate him/her on their win

 Give practical advice on how to spend the money
 Advise him/her on benefits/drawbacks associated with large wins

2. You have recently started work in a new company.

Write a letter to an English-speaking friend. In your letter,
 Explain why you changed jobs
 Describe your new job
 Tell him / her your other news

66
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The chart below shows the amount of leisure time enjoyed by men and women of
different employment status.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

2. The tables below give information about sales of Fairtrade*-labelled coffee and
bananas in 1999 and 2004 in five European countries.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

67
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Millions of people every year move to English speaking countries such as Australia, Britain
or America, in order to study at school, college or university. Why do so many people want
to study English? Why is English such an important international language? Give reasons
for your answer.
2. In the last 20 years, the assessment of students has undergone major transformation. Many
educational institutions no longer use formal examinations as a means of assessment as they
believe formal examination results are an unfair indication of a student’s ability. To what
extent do you agree or disagree to this opinion?
3. The average British child between the ages of 4 and 15 watches more than 20 hours of
television a week. Studies show she/he only spends about 7 hours per week on physical
exercise. How does this compare with the situation in your country? How can parents make
sure that their children get enough exercise?

68
 UNIT: 7
Reading Passage 7
Job Satisfaction and Personnel Mobility
Europe, and indeed all the major industrialised nations, is currently going through a recession. This
obviously has serious implications for companies and personnel who find themselves victims of the
downturn. As Britain apparently eases out of recession, there are also potentially equally serious
implications for the companies who survive, associated with the employment and recruitment
market in general.

During a recession, voluntary staff turnover is bound to fall sharply. Staff who have been with a
company for some years will clearly not want to risk losing their accumulated redundancy rights.
Furthermore, they will be unwilling to go to a new organisation where they may well be joining on
a ‘last in, first out’ basis. Consequently, even if there is little or no job satisfaction in their current
post, they are most likely to remain where they are, quietly sitting it out and waiting for things to
improve. In Britain, this situation has been aggravated by the length and nature of the recession –
as may also prove to be the case in the rest of Europe and beyond.

In the past, companies used to take on staff at the lower levels and reward loyal employees with
internal promotions. This opportunity for a lifetime career with one company is no longer available,
owing to ‘downsizing’ of companies, structural reorganisations and redundancy programmes, all of
which have affected middle management as much as the lower levels. This reduction in the layers
of management has led to flatter hierarchies, which, in turn, has reduced promotion prospects within
most companies. Whereas ambitious personnel had become used to regular promotion, they now
find their progress is blocked.

This situation is compounded by yet another factor. When staff at any level are taken on, it is
usually from outside and promotion is increasingly through career moves between companies.
Recession has created a new breed of bright young graduates, much more self-interested and cynical
than in the past. They tend to be more wary, sceptical of what is on offer and consequently much
tougher negotiators. Those who joined companies directly from education feel the effects most
strongly and now feel uncertain and insecure in mid-life.

In many cases, this has resulted in staff dissatisfaction. Moreover, management itself has
contributed to this general ill-feeling and frustration. The caring image of the recent past has gone
and the fear of redundancy is often used as the prime motivator.

As a result of all these factors, when the recession eases and people find more confidence, there will
be an explosion of employees seeking new opportunities to escape their current jobs. This will be
led by younger, less-experienced employees and the hard-headed young graduates. “Headhunters’
confirm that older staff are still cautious, having seen so many good companies ‘go to the wall’, and
are reluctant to jeopardise their redundancy entitlements. Past experience, however suggests that,
once triggered, the expansion in recruitment will be very rapid.

The problem which faces many organisations is one of the strategic planning; of not knowing who
will leave and who will stay. Often it is the best personnel who move on whilst the worst cling to
the little security they have. This is clearly a problem for companies, who need a stable core on
which to build strategies for future growth.
69
Whilst this expansion in the recruitment market is likely to happen soon in Britain, most employers
are simply not prepared. With the loss of middle management, in a static marketplace, personnel
management and recruitment are often conducted by junior personnel. They have only known
recession and lack the experience to plan ahead and to implement strategies for growth. This is true
of many other functions, leaving companies without the skills, ability or vision to structure
themselves for long-term growth. Without this ability to recruit competitively for strategic
planning, and given the speed at which these changes are likely to occur, a real crisis seems
imminent.

Questions 1-2

According to the information in the reading passage, select the most appropriate of he given options
(A-D). Write the appropriate letter for each question in boxes 1-2 on your answer sheet.

1 The current economic downturn…

A has serious consequences for personnel and companies which survive
B has serious consequences for companies which survive
C may have serious consequences for companies which survive
D has serious consequences for voluntary staff

2 Many staff are unlikely to leave their jobs until

A they get their redundancy rights
B they can join a new company on a secure basis
C they think the economic situations is better
D they are dissatisfied with their current position

Questions 3-8

In questions 3-8, complete each sentence by choosing one of the possible endings from the list
below, which best reflects the information in the reading passage. Write the corresponding letter
(A-K) for each question in boxes 3-8 on your answer sheet. Note there are more choices than
spaces, so you will not need to use all of them.

The first one has been done for you as an example.

Example Answer

A lifetime career with one company… E

3 The ‘downsizing’ of companies…

4 Ambitious personnel…
5 Today, new graduates …
6 Long-serving personnel ….
7 Management policy …
8 Companies often care less about staff and …

70
List of possible endings
A has often contributed to staff dissatisfaction
B are more sceptical and less trusting
C has affected all levels of personnel
D use fear as a means of motivation
E was usual in the past
F career moves between companies
G reduce the layers of management
H feel uncertain and insecure
I increasingly have to look elsewhere for promotion
J is a result of flatter hierarchies
K reward loyal employees with internal promotions.

Questions 9-13

The paragraph below is a summary of the last section of the reading passage. Complete the
summary by choosing no more than three words from the reading passage to fill each space.
Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

Example Answer

Taking all of these various … factors

Into consideration.

When the economy picks up and people …9 …. there will be a very rapid expansion in recruitment.
Younger employees and graduates will lead the search for new jobs, older staff being more ….10…
Not knowing who will leave creates a problem for companies, they need a ….11… of personnel to
plan and build future strategies. This is a serious matter, as ….12… is often conducted by
inexperienced staff, owing to the loss of many middle management positions. This inability to
recruit strategically will leave many companies without the skills and vision to plan ahead and
…13…to achieve long-term growth.

Question 14
In your view, is the writer of the reading passage warning the reader about a coming…

A economic crisis
B personnel management crisis
C redundancy crisis?

Write the appropriate letter (A-C) in box 14 on your answer sheet.

71
 Listening Test 7
SECTION 1: Questions 1- 11
Questions 1-3
Circle the correct answer.

1. Claudia and Toshio decide to go to …

A. the coast. B. Sydney. C. the desert. D. the mountains.
2. Toshio doesn’t like …
A. setting up tents. B. campfires.
C. sleeping outdoors. D. cooking outdoors.
3. Claudia doesn’t like youth hostels because …
A. she dislikes meeting people. B. the beds are uncomfortable.
C. there’s no privacy. D. the kitchens are Unfamiliar.

Questions 4-7
Tick (√) in the appropriate column. Where necessary, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.
Who will join Claudia and Toshio?

Question Name Will join Will NOT join, going to…

Peter Example √ Hong Kong
(4) Maria
Gyorg Example √
(5) David Wong
(6) Walter Wong
(7) Jennifer
Michael Sullivan √ stay home

Questions 8 – 11
Complete the form below by filling in the blanks
How does Toshio fill out the form?

72
nmnmnmnmnmnmnnnhkhk
Sunnystones Holiday Rental Agency
Rental Application Form

Applicant # 1 Applicant # 2

Name: Toshio Jones Name: Claudia Hussein

Address: 52 Miller St Address: (Question 8)

Chapmanville 614 ……………St
Chapmanville
Phone: 35456681 Phone: 35432349

(Question 9)
Credit card number: ……………………………………………………………
(Question 10)
Credit card type: ……………………………………………………………
(Question 11)
Deposit amount: $ ……………………………………………………………

SECTION 2: Questions 12 – 21
Questions 12 and 13
Choose the letters corresponding to the correct people.
12. Which person is Bruce Chandler? 13. Which person is Donna Wilcox?

73
Question 14

Circle the letter A-D indicating the location of the speaker.

14. Where is Jennifer Davis (the speaker)?

Questions 15 and 16
Write a NUMBER for each answer
15. The Maslow University campus has ………. buildings.
16. The buildings are on ………. hectares of land.
Questions 17-19
Circle the correct answer.
17. Before immigrating, John Maslow was …
A. a teacher. B. a trainer.
C. a college president. D. a mathematician.
18. Maslow’s Teacher’s College …
A. operated for 10 years. B. was originally a private college.
C. closed in 1848. D. trained high-school teachers.
19. Maslow University …
A. is 11 kilometres from the City center.
B. was established in 1866.
C. was established after Riversdale University.
D. was built next to Maslow Teacher’s College.
Questions 20 and 21
Circle TWO letters.
74
20-21 Riversdale University normally beats Maslow University at …
A. basketball. B. women’s swimming. C. soccer.
D. track and field. E. baseball. F. men’s swimming.
G. football.
SECTION 3: Questions 22-33
Complete the notes below: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or NUMBERS for each
answer:

NOTES ON COFFEE

Example

• Journal: Food Economics Review

22. • Coffee farming provides work for ……………………….. people.

• Great economic importance

23. • Ranked …………………………………most important commodity in world

• Most farmers produce coffee on 4-5 hectares of land.

Questions 24-27

Complete the table.

COFFEE BEAN GROWING USED FOR LARGEST GROWER

TYPE ALTITUDE COUNTRY

Example Example Example

Arabica
600-2000 metres premium coffee Brazil

Robusta (24)………. (25)……. (27)……..

Example below
1200 metres (26)……..
Liberica

75
Questions 28-30
Tick (√) the relevant box for each country.

Country Style of coffee preferred

(28) (29) (30)
Instant coffee Espresso coffee Brewed coffee
Brazil

France

Germany

Italy

Japan
√ Example
Norway
√ Example
Sweden

USA

UK

Questions 31-33
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

31. The ICO was established by …………………………………. .

32. ………………………..destroyed the 1975 Brazil coffee crop.

Circle the correct answer.

33. Because of the Brazil coffee crop failure,….

A The ICO had to supply the world coffee market.
B prices rose, then fell.
C prices remained high.
D premium coffee became unavailable.
SECTION 4: Question 34-41
Questions 34 and 35
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
What is the main interest in a meeting…….
34. for the meeting leader? ……….
35. for the facilitator? ……………….
76
Questions 36-41
Complete the table below by writing the appropriate letter A-E in each blank box.
Link each task below to the appropriate global responsibility.
Facilitator’s global responsibilities

‘Blueprinting’ = A
‘Pro-integration’ = B
‘Focusing’ = C
‘Prompting’ = D
‘Friction management’ = E

Tasks

writing an agenda Example A

defining technical terms (36) ……….
maintaining harmony (37) ……….
getting to know participants (38) ……….
guiding discussion (39) ……….
promoting agreement (40) ……….
encouraging everyone’s participation (41) ………

77
 Speaking
7. Describe a competition that you entered at school level.
You should say:
 When/Where the competition took place.
 What you had to do.
 How well you did in it.
 And explain how you felt about the competition.
Related questions:
 Positive and negative aspects of incorporating competition at school level?
 How can children be made to take competition positively? What roles do teachers
and parents play in that?
 Throw light on the loopholes of the education system in your country and suggest
some remedies.
 Do well-behaved children deserve less of the teacher’s attention than the badly
behaved ones?
 What are the qualities required in a good teacher?
 Should a teacher encourage the students to be friendly with him/her? To what extent?
 Do you need a teacher for learning a language?
 Do you prefer to study all alone to study in a group?
 Do you study all the year round or only before the exams?
 What do you think about studying further after a gap?
 Do you think training for work should replace the broad based theoretical education
system?
 What do you think of the ‘assessment system’ of education?
 What considerations should a student go for before choosing tertiary education?
 Importance of extracurricular activities in education.
 Importance of video in education
 Advantages / Disadvantages of studying abroad
 Co education or single gender schools

78
 Writing (General) Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You live in a flat and you have a tenancy agreement, which states that you must
give three-month notice when you wish to leave. You have paid a deposit of two
months rent. Now a member of your family has a problem and you need to give up
your flat and return home as soon as possible.
Write a letter to your landlady, in your letter
 Explain your circumstances
 Tell her what you intend to do
 Ask her for special consideration.

2. You eat at your college cafeteria at lunch time every day. However, you think it
needs some improvements.
Write a letter to the college magazine. In your letter:
 Explain what you like about the cafeteria
 Say what is wrong with it
 Suggest how it could be improved

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The first chart below shows the results of a survey, which sampled a cross-action of
100,000 people asking if they traveled abroad and they traveled for the period 1994-98.
The second chart shows their destinations over the same period.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
VISITS ABROAD BY UK RESIDENTS BY PURPOSE OF VISIT (1994-98)
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
Holiday 15246 14898 17896 19703 20700
Business 3155 3188 3249 3639 3957
Visits to friends and relatives 2689 2628 2774 3051 3181
Other reasons 982 896 1030 1054 990
Total 22072 21610 24949 27447 28828

79
 DESTINATION OF VISIT ABROAD BY UK RESIDENTS BY MAIN REGION
(1994-98)
Western Europe North America Other areas Total
1994 19371 919 1782 22072
1995 18944 914 1752 21610
1996 21877 1167 1905 24949
1997 23661 1559 2227 27447
1998 24519 1823 2486 28828

2. The diagrams below show the life cycle of a species of large fish called the salmon.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

80
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. A country’s first duty to its citizens is to protect them. Therefore it is logical that defense
should take up a significant proportion of the national budget. Write a report for an educated
non-specialist audience for or against the above.
2. Too much education is dangerous. If people receive more education than they need to
function in their job, it only breeds dissatisfaction. Write a report for an educated non-
specialist audience for or against the above.
3. If countries are serious about solving traffic problems, they should tax private cars very
heavily and use the money to provide free or very cheap rail travel. To what extent do you
agree?

81
 UNIT: 8
Reading Passage 8
The Education Gap
Education is the passport to modern life, as a pre-condition of national prosperity. But more than a
quarter of the world’s adults – 900 million – cannot read or write, and more than 100 million young
children are deprived of even a primary school education. In most developing countries, after
decades of educational expansion, spending on learning is falling. The illiterate are virtually
helpless in a world ruled by the written word, where notices are official papers can seem a mass of
meaningless hieroglyphics. People who cannot decipher them are at the mercy of those who can;
many, as a result, have been cheated of their rights or their land.

Studies show that people with even a basic education are healthier and eat better. They are more
likely to plan their families and their children are more likely to survive. According to the World
Bank, just four years of primary education enables farmers to increase productivity by ten per cent,
often the difference between hunger and sufficiency. National economic returns from education
outstrip those from most other forms of investment.

Enrolment: rise and fall

As they became independent, most developing countries enthusiastically embraced education. Two
decades of astonishing expansion followed. Between 1960 and 1981, the world’s thirty-two poorest
countries (excluding India and China, which have long had good records) increased the proportion
of their children enrolled in primary school from thirty-eight to seventy-two per cent. The thirty-
eight next poorest achieved almost universal primary school enrolment by 1980; up from about two-
thirds in 1960. It seemed as if it would not be long before every child alive could be sure of going to
school.

By the end of the 1980s, that dream had turned to bitter disillusion. The decade brought economic
disaster to developing countries. They slumped when rich nations went into recession at the
beginning of the 1980s, the subsequent recovery passed them by and they were hit again by the
renewed recession in the late 1980s and early 1990s. The educational expansion of the 1960s and
1970s first halted, then went into reverse. By 1989, enrolment rates had dropped in one out of
every five developing countries. In some African countries, the number of children in primary
schools declined by a third between 1980 and 1985. Tanzania’s universal primary school enrolment
fell dramatically during this period. Unesco’s Director-General, Federico Mayor, warns that this
threatens to ‘set back the countries of the South by a whole generation or even more’.

Declining expenditure
The proportion of national expenditure going to education declined in more than half of developing
countries over the 1980s. In the world’s thirty-seven poorest countries, the average expenditure per
head on education dropped by a quarter. In Africa as a whole, says the World Bank, only $0.60 a
year is spent on educational materials for each student, whilst it estimates ‘minimum requirements’
at $5.00.

Illiteracy and the poor

82
In industrialised countries, absolute illiteracy was largely eradicated half a century ago; they contain
only two per cent of the world’s illiterate. ‘Functional illiteracy’, however, remains; in Canada, the
literacy of a quarter of all adults is seriously inadequate; in the United States, estimates range from
five to twenty-five per cent; in France, the total numbers range from two to eight million people,
depending on the study. Most are among the poorest members of their societies.

Generally speaking, the poorer a country, the higher the number of illiterate; two-thirds of adults in
the very poorest countries cannot read or write. Furthermore, the poorest individuals suffer most.
The poorer a child’s family, the less likely he (or, particularly, she) is to start school and the more
likely it is that those who do start will drop out.

The disadvantaged countryside

More people in the Third World live in the countryside, where schools and teachers are always
scarcer. But even in the cities, the poor miss out. In Calcutta, over sixty per cent of children do not
attend school because they have to work to help keep the family going, or look after younger
siblings to enable their mothers to work. Two-thirds of the children who either never start school or
drop out early, are girls. Two-thirds of the world’s illiterate are women. Yet women’s education is
particularly important. The World Bank identifies it as ‘perhaps the single most important
determinant of family health and nutrition’, and its research shows that infant mortality rates fall
steadily, and dramatically, for every year women spend at school. But tradition, prejudices and the
burden of work to be done at home ensure that daughters are pulled out of school first. In the first
grade of Kampala’s primary schools, the sexes are evenly balanced; by the seventh grade, there are
more than twice as many boys as girls.

Primary education: the productive dollar

Every dollar invested in primary school education, according to another World Bank study, is fifty
per cent more productive than one invested in secondary schooling, and gives twice as much as one
spent on universities. Yet, throughout the Third World, these spending priorities are reversed.

A few countries have started to change their priorities, emphasising primary education. Zimbabwe
doubled its number of primary schools in its first five years of independence; the proportion of its
budget spent on education is the fifth highest in the world, and the curriculum has been re-orientated
to meet local needs. Bangladesh has opened more than 2,500 basic village primary schools with
appropriate syllabuses since 1985, at an annual cost of just $15.00 per pupil. Only 1.5 per cent of
the children drop out, compared to sixty per cent of their peers in the ordinary primary schools.
Moreover, ninety-five per cent of pupils, the majority girls, continue their education after leaving.

Nonetheless, all these countries are under harsh economic pressure. There is little hope for the
children of the Third World countries, even if their governments do change their priorities, unless
their countries are enabled to develop.

Questions 1-2
1. According to the passage, education is not only important for the individual’s life but it also
essential for …
Write your answer in box 1 on your answer sheet.
2. What do you think is the main purpose of the passage?
A. to promote the development of primary education
83
 B. to promote the development of tertiary education
C. to illustrate the need for development in general
D. to highlight the problems of rural areas

Write the appropriate letter (A-D) in box 2 on your answer sheet.

For questions 3-7, complete the table below by selecting the most appropriate answer from the list
beneath the table. Write the corresponding letter (A-J) in boxes 3-7 on your answer sheet.
1960 1980 1981 1985 1989
Example Answer
32 poorest J
countries
Enrolment 3
38 next
countries

4 5

Expenditure 6 7

List of possible answers

A Tanzania
B India and China
C the thirty-seven poorest countries
D some African countries
E decreased by a quarter
F decreased by over a quarter
G decreased by a third
H decreased by a half
I increased to nearly 100 per cent
J increased from thirty eight per cent to seventy-two per cent

Questions 8-11

In questions 8-11. choose which of the answers best represents the information in the reading
passage. Write the appropriate letter (A-D) for each question in boxes 8-11 on your answer sheet.

8. Illiteracy has been almost completely eradicated …

A from the developing world.
B except in the USA, Canada and France.
C in absolute terms in industrialised countries.
D in functional terms in industrialised countries.

9. Girls very often fail to complete their schooling because….

84
A they have to go out to work.
B there are twice as many boys as girls.
C of tradition and prejudice.
D of family health and nutrition.

10. Spending on tertiary education is….

A twice as productive as spending of secondary education.
B only half as productive as spending on primary education.
C fifty per cent less productive than spending on secondary schooling.
D twenty-five per cent less productive than spending on primary schooling.

11. Primary education has been given more importance …

A in Calcutta.
B in some parts of Africa and Asia.
C in the last five years.
D by reorienting the curriculum.

85
 Listening Test 8
SECTION 1: Question 1-10
Questions 1-4
Circle the correct letters A-C.
Example
Which course is the man interested in?
A. English B. Mandarin (c). Japanese

Tip Strip
1. What kind of course is the man seeking?
• Look at the questions
and decide how many A. Daytime B. Evenings C. Weekends
different types of
question there are. 2. How long does the man want to study?
• Read the multiple
choice options and A. 12 weeks B. 6 months C. 8 months
underline any
important words. 3. What proficiency level is the student?
• Note there is always an A. Beginner B. Intermediate C. Advanced
example of the first
question type in 4. When does the man want to start the course?
Section-1.
A. March B. June C. September

Questions 5-10
Complete the form
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Language Centre Client Information Card
Tip Strip Name: Richard 5 ………………………………………
E-mail address 6……………………………@hotmail.com
• Look at the form
Decide what kind of Date of birth 7 ………………………………….1980
information you will
need to write. There is Reason for studying Japanese: 8 ……………………………
often a name or an
address in this type of Specific learning needs: 9 ……………………………………
question. You must
Place of previous study (if any): 10………………………….
spell the name
correctly, as it is given
on the tap.

86
Tip Strip SECTION 2: Questions 11-20
• Make sure you know what
type of
Questions 11-12
Information you are being Complete the sentences below.
asked for
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
• Look at the table and find the
common theme to understand 11. The story illustrates that dogs are ……………………animals.
how the table works.
• Look carefully at the headings 12. The people of the town built a …………………….of a dog.
of each column.
What information is missing?

Questions 11-20 Questions 13-20

Remember if you want to write Complete the table below:

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
TYPE OF WORKING ESSENTIAL ADDITIONAL
DOG CHARACTERISTICS FOR THE INFORMATION
JOB
Sheep dogs Smart, obedient Herd sheep and
13……………..them
Guide dogs Confident and Training paid for by
14………………… 15…………………..
Guard dogs and Tough and courageous Dogs and trainers available
16…………….. and through
……………..dogs 17…………………..

Detector dogs Need to really In Sydney they catch

19……………a month
18………………
Transport dogs Happy working International treaty bans
huskies from Antarctica
20………………….

SECTION 3: Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23
Complete the notes below:

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

87
 Braille – a system of writing for the blind
• Louis Braille was blinded as a child in his 21…………………….
• Braille invented the writing system in the year 22 …………
• An early writing system for the blind used embossed letters.
• A military system using dots was called 23…………………….
Questions 24-27
Circle the correct letters A-C
24 Which diagram shows the Braille positions?
O O O O O O O O O
O O O O O O O O O
O O O O O O
A B C
25 What can the combined dots represent?
A. both letters and words
B. only individual words
C. only letters of the alphabet
26 When was the Braille system officially adopted?
A. as soon as it was invented.
B. two years after it was invented.
C. after Louis Braille had died.
27 What is unusual about the way Braille is written?
A. It can only be written using a machine.
B. The texts have to be read backwards.
C. Handwritten Braille is created in reverse.
Questions 28-30
List THREE subjects that also use a Braille code.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.
28 ………………….
29 ………………….
30 ………………….
SECTION 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Tip strip
• Look at the questions to orientate yourself to the topic.
• See whether you recognize the question types
• Look at the note completion tasks. The information is presented in a format similar to a flow chart
demonstrating a progression of some kind. Work out what the progression is.
• Look at the tables and find the common thread. What information is missing?
• Decide whether you are looking for numbers, percentages or words.
88
Complete the notes below:
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
Question: Can babies remember any 31……………………?

Experiment with babies:

Apparatus: baby in cot
Colou rful mobile
some 32 ……………………………….
Re-introduce mobile between one and 33 …………………..later.

Table showing memory test results

Baby’s age Maximum memory span

2 months 2 days
3 months 34 ……………….
21 months several weeks
2 years 35 …………….

Questions 36-40
Research questions: Is memory linked to 36 …………….. development?
Can babies 37 …………………their memories?

Experiment with older children:

Stages in incident: a) lecture taking place

b) object falls over

c) 38 ………………

Table showing memory test results

Age % remembered % remembered

next day after 5 months

Adults 70% 39…………

9 year olds 70% Less than 60%
6 year olds Just under 70% 40 ……….

89
 Speaking
8. Describe a city you have visited and you are impressed with it.
You should say:
 What city it is.
 When you visited it.
 Where it is situated.
 And what you like about it.
Related questions:
 Do you prefer staying in a city to staying in a countryside area?
 Negative aspects of staying in big crowded cities.
 Describe the architectural design of you city.
 Describe the town planning, transportation, and traffic system of your city.
 Describe nightlife in your city.
 Advantages / Disadvantages of working and staying abroad.
 What would you do to prepare yourself before you visited another country?
 Describe the area where you stay. How has it changed in the last 10 years?
• Size
• Population
• Layout
• Facilities
• Attraction

Writing (General) Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have a friend who lives in a city abroad. You have decided that you would like to
apply to do a course at one of the colleges in this city.
Write a letter to your friend, in your letter
 Explaining what you would like to do
 Tell him/her what type of work or studies you have been doing for the past few years
 Ask for assistance in contacting an appropriate institution

2. You have received a letter from your bank, asking you to acknowledge the receipt of a
new bank card. However, the card was missing from the envelope.
Write a letter to the bank's head office. In your letter:
 Explain why you are writing
 Express concern about the missing card
 Ask them what they intend to do

90
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The table below shows the figures for imprisonment in five countries between 1930 and
1980.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
Great Britain
140 Australia
In thousands
New Zealand
120
United States
100 Canada

80

60

40

20

0
1930 1940 1950 1960 1970 1980

2. The maps below show the centre of a small town called islip as it is now, and plans for
its development.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

91
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. As most foreign aid often benefits the donor more than the receiver, developing countries
should resist repaying their debts. To what extent do you agree?
2. In some countries the average worker is obliged to retire at the age of 50, while in others
people can work until they are 65 or 70. Meanwhile, we see some politicians enjoying power
well into their eighties. Clearly, there is little argument on an appropriate retirement age.
Until what age do you think people should be encouraged to remain in paid employment?
Give reasons for your answer.
3. Going overseas for university study is an exciting prospect for many people. But while it
may offer some advantages, it is probably better to stay at home because of the difficulties a
student inevitably encounters living and studying in a different culture. To what extent do
you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer.

92
 UNIT: 9
Reading Passage 9
Developing Environmental Management Strategies
Strong and sustainable economic activity depends on healthy environmental management. It is
being increasingly recognised by the public, government and industry that there is a need to shift
smoothly from a ‘react and cure’ approach to an ‘anticipate and prevent’ approach. The mechanism
governing this change started to appear three to four years ago and the momentum for change has
been gathering steadily ever since.

Whilst the need to embrace these changes is almost universally accepted, the mechanisms for
change and the priorities for action have been far from clear. The public and the media point to
anecdotal evidence of lack of progress or setbacks, over a bewildering range of topics. These
incidents are catalogued by local and national pressure groups to enhance their own campaigns for
change. The Government, under pressure from the European Community, has introduced legislation
which, although progressive, often appears to industry to be fragmented and difficult to digest.

There is, therefore, a clear and often expressed need on the part of British and European
management for techniques to identify and prioritise the key environmental issues for allocation of
resources and action. The technique emerging as the most effective is a strategy which involves the
formulation of a policy statement setting out the organisation’s philosophy on the environment and
the aims to be achieved. A detailed assessment of the environmental status and performance of the
operation is then undertaken, key issues identified and targets set. The performance of the operation
or unit is regularly audited to measure progress towards the targets set. This environmental strategy
is often called an Environmental Management System or simply referred to as an Environmental
Audit.

The need for environmental strategies

Over the past few years, the incentives for introducing such an Environmental Risk Management
Strategy have changed as public attitude has evolved, insurance markets have hardened and national
legislation has been enacted. Environmental Risk Management Strategies may therefore be
implemented for reasons of insurance, market forces, acquisitions, national legislation or
Environmental Accreditation Schemes.

The basic elements of the Environmental Strategies currently being proposed by most authorities
are as follows:

Environmental strategy
As Environmental Strategy is a documented plan, comprising the drawing up of an Environmental
Policy and an Initial Environmental Assessment, which provides prioritised recommendations for
action and targets to be achieved. This is followed by regular audits to measure progress towards
the targets.

Environmental policy
An Environmental Policy is a statement of the overall aims and principles of action of an
organisation with respect to the environment. It may be expressed in general terms, but it may also
include quantitative targets.
93
Initial environmental assessment
An Initial Environmental Assessment is a comprehensive assessment of the environmental impact
as a result of an organisation’s activities. It leads to a report to top management in which the key
issues are identified and priorities for action allocated. This initial Environmental Assessment is
referred to in the Draft British Standard as an Environmental Effects inventory and in the Draft Eco-
Audit scheme as an Environ-mental Review. The topics covered in Initial Assessments may include
a review of management systems, a historical review of the site, assessment of emissions and
impact on air, water and land as well as control and monitoring of emissions. Noise, odours,
recycling, disposal and duty of care will usually come into the assessment, as will raw materials
management, savings, transportation, storage, water conservation, energy management and products
planning. Other important aspects of the assessment are the prevention and mitigation of accidents,
unexpected and foreseen pollution and of course staff information, the relationship with the public
and the need for Environmental Audits.

An Environmental Audit is systematic, documented, periodic and an objective evaluation of how

well the organisation’s systems are performing, assessed against internal procedures and
compliance with internal policies and statutory requirements.

Both the Draft British Standard and Draft Eco-Audit scheme stipulate that the audits should be
carried out by personnel independent of the plant or process being audited.

Environmental statements
Under the UK Environmental Protection Act the details declared in the application for
Authorisation to Operate are included in a Register which is open to the public. Such legislation
also exists in many of the other European Community countries.

The Eco-Audit scheme also proposes that organisations which are accredited under the scheme
should regularly publish an environmental statement containing factual information and data on the
environmental performance of each site.

Question 1-3
Read the following statements and say how they reflect the information in the reading passage by
writing:

T if it is true according to the passage

F if it is false according to the passage
NG if the information is not given in the passage
Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.
1. There is no connection between a healthy environment and a healthy economy.
2. A ‘react and cure’ policy is replacing an ‘anticipate and prevent’ approach to environmental
management.

3. European Community directives on environmental management are clear and easily

implemented.

94
Questions 4-9
The paragraph below is a summary of the first part of the reading passage. Complete the summary
by choosing no more than three words from the reading passage to complete the spaces 4-9. Write
the words in boxes 4-9 on your answer sheet.

The first one has been done for you as an example.

Summary: Developing environmental management strategies

Example Answer
There has been a steady movement
towards more efficient, proactive… environmental management

Whilst the …4… is generally accepted, the means have yet to be agreed. Attempts at introducing
…5… have, so far, been unsatisfactory. Techniques are currently being defined for allocating
…6… to act on key environmental issues. The most useful approach is to draw up a …7… which
clarifies the environmental attitudes and aims of the organisation. Performance and …8… towards
these targets can then be measured. A detailed evaluation or …9… is regularly carried out.

Questions 10-12
Give three factors which have been responsible for increasing interest in Environmental Risk
Management.
Write no more than three words for each factor in boxes 10-12 on your answer sheet.

Questions 13-15

Match the item below with the appropriate definition A-G.

A description of government requirements

B assessment of performance towards targets
C overview of the planning process
D measurement of the effects on the environment
E general position statement
F public report giving evidence of performance

Write A-G in boxes 13-15 on your answer sheet.

13 Environmental Strategy
14 Initial Environmental Assessment
15 Environmental Statement

95
 Listening Test 9
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10

• Look at the questions again to see exactly

Tip Strip
what information you must listen for.
• Note how many different types of questions
there are. In this case, there are four multiple • Underline any keywords in the main part of
choice, note completion selecting from a list the questions with options. Then look at the
and short answer.
• Look at the instructions for each set of options and make sure you understand how
questions. they differ from each other.
• Read the questions; try to predict the context of
the conversation.

Questions 1-3
Listen to the telephone conversation between a student and the
owner of a paragliding school and answer the questions below:

Circle the correct letters A-D

Example
Which course does the man suggest?

A. 2 day B. 4 day
C. 5 day D. 6 day

1 How much is the beginner’s course?

A. $19 B. $320 C. $330 D. $430

2 What does the club insurance cover?
A. injury to yourself B. injury to your equipment
C. damage to other people’s property D. loss of personal belongings

3 How do the girls want to travel?

A. public transport B. private bus C. car D. bicycle
Questions 4-7
Complete the form below:
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer:

96
 TELEPHONE MEMO

Name: Maria Gentle

Address: C/o. Mr & Mrs. 4…………………………………………..

5 ……………………………………………………………..Newcastle

Fax no: 0249 6 ……………………………………………………….

Type of Card: 7 ……………………………………………………..

Question 8

Tip Strip Circle TWO letters A-G

• Questions 8 & 9: You Which TWO of the following items must people take with them?
must get both parts of the
question right to get your A. sandals D. shirt with long sleeves G. sunglasses
mark. The correct answer
may not be the actual B. old clothes E. soft drinks
words, which you hear on C. pullover F. hat
the tape. Option E in
question 8 is an example Question 9
of this.
• Be on the look out for Circle TWO letters A-G
paraphrasing of this type.
Which TWO accommodation options mentioned are near the paragliding
school?
A. camping D. backpackers’ inn G. cheap hotel
B. youth hostel E. caravan park
C. family F. bed and breakfast
Tip Strip Question 10
Question 10 is a Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer.
different type of
question. Make sure Which weekend do the girls decide to go?
you are listening out
for the answer. ………………………………………………………………………..

SECTION 2: Questions 11–20

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer:

97
 GOODWOOD CAR SHOW

Type of car: Duesenberg J-type

Number made: 11 ………………………
Type of body: 12………………………..
Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a 13 ……………………trip.
Top speed: 14 ……………………………….per hour.
Sold as a 15 …………………….and …………………….
Main attraction: 16 …………………………….
Type of car: Leyat Helica
Number built: 17 …………………………
Car looks like a 18 ………….without 19 ………………..
Steering used the 20 ………………………………..
Tip Strip
• Section 2 is always a talk by one speaker. Look at the questions and the title of the task. Try to guess the context
from the language and the picture.
• Note that all the questions here are note completion format. Turn the notes into questions in your head e.g. Number
made = How many were made? Do this for all the questions before you listen.

• Decide what type of information is missing (noun,

number, adjective?).
• The questions follow the order of the text.
• There are two parts to this listening. This will help
to orientate you.
• Question 15: You must get both words to get your
mark.

98
SECTION 3: Questions 21-30

Tip strip
• Section 3 can have between 2 and 4 people • Look through the questions to get an idea on the
speaking. The voices will sound quite different. topic.
• The questions follow the order of the text. • Look carefully at the graphs. Reading the questions
• Note how many different types of questions there and underlining key words will help you make sense
are. In this case there are four: note completion, of the graphs. E.g. question 24: relative
charts and diagrams, multiple choice and popularity… cinemas. Each column in the bar chart
completing a chart. represents how popular each cinema is in relation to
the other. Look at C: Which is the most popular
cinema in this graph? Which is the least popular.
Questions 21-22
Complete the notes below:
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Research details:
Title of project: 21 ………………………………………………………………………..

Focus of project: entertainment away from 22 …………………………………

Question 23-26
Circle the correct letters A-C
23. Which chart shows the percentage of cinema seats provided by the different cinema houses?
I
Males Females
Employed f 45 Employer38
Employed p 40 35%
Unemploye 85 75
Retired 85 75
Housewlves 50

Leisure time in a typical week: by

100
24. Which graph shows the relative popularity of different cinemas?

25. What did Rosie and Mike realise about the two theatres?
A. The prices were very similar.
B. They were equally popular.
C. They offered the same facilities.
99
 26. Which graph shows comparative attendance for cinema and theatre?

A B C
Questions 27-30
Complete the chart about the different music clubs below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or use ONE of the symbols for each answer.

X poor  OK  excellent

Tip Strip Club Type of music Quality of

venue
• Questions 27-30: In the
27 ……….
middle column of the The Blues Club Blues
grid you must listen for
a word, which means a The Sansue 28 …….. 
type of music. In the
right column you have Pier Hotel Folk 29……
to choose from three
options, which are Baldrock Café Rock 30………
already given in the box
above. Make sure you

100
 SECTION 4: Question 31-40
Questions 31-32
Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
Tip Strip answer.

• Look at the questions Main focus of lecture: the impact of 31…………..on the occurrence of dust
and decide how many storm.
different types of
question there are. Two main types of impact:
• Information presented in
a table will have a A) break up ground surface, e.g. off-road vehicle use.
common thread. Look at
the table for Questions B) remove protective plants, e.g. 32 ……… and …….
33-36 and decide what
information makes up
Questions 33-36
this common thread. In Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
this case there are 4
places mentioned. These answer.
place names will act as a
reference for you while Name of area Details
you listen and prevent USA ‘dust bowl’ Caused by mismanagement of farmland
you from getting lost.
• Note the heading at the Decade renamed the 33 ……………
top of the flow chart. West Africa Steady rise in dust storms over 20 year period
Check that you know Arizona Worst dust clouds arise from 34 ………
what kind of words are
missing from the flow Dust deposits are hazardous to 35 ………
chart before you listen.
Sahara Increased wind erosion has occurred along
Questions 31 & 32 are
note-completion questions. with long-term 36 ……………………
What kind of words are you
looking for?
Questions 32: Remember you
Questions 37-40
must get both parts of the Complete the flow chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
question to get your mark.
Questions 37-40: This is a
answer.
flow chart. It visually Drying-up of Aral Sea
represents a progression of

Intensive 37 ……………..in Central Asian Republics

Drop in water in major tributaries

Total volume of water in lake reduced by 38 ……………..

Increase in wind-blown material

Lake has become more 39 ……………………….

Serious effects on 40 ……………….... nearby

101
 Speaking

9. Describe a museum/art gallery that you have visited.

You should say:
 Which museum it is.
 Where it is.
 When you visited it.
 And explain what impressed you about that museum.
Related questions:
 What is the need of museums and art galleries in our society?
 How can the museum be made more interesting?
 What is the role of public artworks like statues and buildings?
 What is the significance of the hobby of stamp collection/coin collection?
 Do you think money spent on art galleries and museums is a ‘waste’?
 Do you think art has lost its significance of late?
Writing 9 (General) Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;

1. You recently went shopping at the local supermarket. When you got home and
studied your bill you found that you had been charged for items you did not
purchase.
Write a letter to the supermarket manager, in your letter
 Explaining what has happened
 Tell the manager how you feel about the error
 Ask him to do something about it

2. You recently stayed in a hotel in a large city. The weather was very unusual for the
time of year and the heating / cooling system in the hotel was quite inadequate.
Write a letter to the manager of the hotel. In your letter:
 Give details of what went wrong
 Explain what you had to do to overcome the problem at the time
 Say what action you would like the manager to take

102
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. Eating sweet foods produces acid in the mouth, which can cause tooth decay. (High
acid levels are measured by low pH values.)
Describe the information below and discuss the implications for dental health.
Acid Level in minutes from consumption of sugars/honey

6
acid level at which tooth decay is unlikely
P H Level

acid level at which tooth decay occurs

5

3
Moment 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
Eaten minutes minutes minutes minutes minutes minutes minutes minutes

Fruit sugar Cane Sugar Honey

Time elapsed after eating sugar/honey

2. The diagram below shows how geothermal energy is used to produce electricity.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

103
104
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Many people believe that women make better parents than men and that this is why they
have the greater role in raising children in most societies. Others claim that men are just as
good as women at parenting. Write an essay expressing your point of view. Give reasons for
your answer.
2. The mass media, including television, radio and newspapers, have great influence in shaping
people’s ideas. To what extent do you agree or disagree to this statement? Give reasons for
your answer.

3. Telecommuting refers to workers doing their jobs from home for part of each week and
communicating with their office using computer technology. Telecommuting is growing in
many countries and is expected to be common for most office workers in the coming
decades. How do you think society will be affected by the growth of telecommuting?

105
 UNIT: 10
Reading Passage 10
Questions 1-4
Reading Passage 10, Stay Awake, Stay Alive, is divided into four sections. From the list of
headings (A-G) below, choose the best heading for each section and write the corresponding letter
in boxes 1 to 4 on your answer sheet. There are more headings than you need.

1 Section 1
2 Section 2
3 Section 3
4 Section 4

List of headings
A Unreliable data
B Sleeping while driving
C Government investigations
D Motorway accidents
E Identifying sleep-related accidents
F The reluctance of drivers to talk
G Lack of government support

Stay Awake, Stay Alive

Section 1
Sleep laboratories around the world are finding that an alarming number of drivers on motorways
may be falling asleep at the wheel. Although researchers have difficulty in knowing for certain
whether an accident has been caused by sleepiness, it appears that a driver who is on the road
between 4 am and 6 am is about 10 times as likely to have a sleep-related accident as someone who
is driving in the middle of the morning or early in the evening. Some British police forces have
become sufficiently concerned to launch campaigns to alert the public to the danger. Leicestershire
police, for example, consider sleepiness to be the cause of 20 per cent of accidents on motorways
and in the summer of 1990 ran a campaign with the slogan “Stay Awake, Stay Alive’, Major motor
manufacturers such as Ford and Renault are investigating ways of incorporating sleepiness detectors
and alarms into their vehicles.

Section 2
However, British government bodies responsible for road safety have not initiated any studies into
the problem of sleepy drivers on motorways. The Department of Transport claims that it is ‘aware
of the problems’, but does not regard it as a high priority issue and is not planning to support any
relevant research apart from a general study on ‘driver behaviour’. The department has no figures
on the number of accidents caused by driver sleepiness and says it doubts whether reliable statistics
can ever be obtained.

106
Section 3
Unfortunately, the issue is clouded by the fact that many motorway accidents that might be caused
by sleepiness are categorised under other headings, such as ‘inattention’, ‘failed to look or see other
vehicle’ and ‘misjudged speed/distance. Figures collected in the 1970s by the Transport and Road
Research Laboratory list the cause of 20 per cent of all road accidents as ‘perceptual errors’.
‘Fatigue’ was specified in only 2 per cent of cases. However, few investigators inquire further to
discover just why a driver was not attending, failed to look or made errors in perception. For
various reasons, including the fear of prosecution and possible difficulties with insurance claims,
drivers are reluctant to admit to falling asleep, but are more willing to admit to ‘inattention’. When
these rather vague responses are examined thoroughly, sleepiness often emerges as the true culprit.

Section 4
Driving on a road as dull as a motorway exacerbates sleepiness in a driver who is already sleepy.
But how can we tell if an accident on a motorway has been caused by sleepiness? There are some
very strong pointers. If an accident involves only one vehicle, which runs off the road into the
central crash barrier, the embankment, a tree or a bridge, then sleepiness is likely to be the cause,
especially if there are no skid marks or other signs of braking. A driver who is alert to an
impending crash grips the steering wheel and suffers different injuries from someone who is asleep
and holding the steering wheel loosely. This pattern of injury, combined with an absence of skid
marks on the road, also suggests that the driver was asleep in accidents where one vehicle runs into
the back of another, especially if it occurs where traffic is light and vehicles are consequently well-
spaced on the road. Under these conditions, the driver’s ‘inattention’ must have been more than just
momentary.

Summary of Reading Passage 10

Recent research shows a (Example) driving early in the morning……..

Answer: Driver

Recent research shows that a (Example) driving early in the morning is more __5___ be involved
in an accident caused by __6___ than a driver driving during the middle of the morning or early
evening. Police forces and __7___ are trying to find ways to reduce the numbers of sleep-related
accidents. However, the government does not seem to be sufficiently worried to invest in __8___
and __9___ the reliability of statistics. The statistics are difficult to gather because motorway
accidents are often __10___ under imprecise headings such as ‘inattention’, and investigators fail to
__11___ into the reason for inattention - which may be sleepiness. Various __12___ at the scene of
an accident, for example lack of evidence of __13___ or certain injury patterns, reveal that sleep
may have been the cause.

107
 Listening Test 10
SECTION 1: Question 1-11
Questions 1 and 2
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD, or circle the correct answer.

1. What is the subject of this morning’s lecture?

………………………………………………………
2. What time does the lecture begin?

A B C D

Question 3
Listen to the directions and find the Bradley Building. Choose the appropriate letter.
3. Where is the Bradley Building?

Questions 4-6

Circle the appropriate letter, A, B, C or D, as you listen.

108
4. Which floor is Lecture Theatre H on?
A. fourth B. sixth C. eighth D. tenth
5. How do William and Mary go to Lecture THEATRE H?
A. escalator, then lift B. lift, then stairs
C. stairs only D. stairs, then lift
6. What does the sign say?

A C

Lecture postponed Dr Jones ill –

until 10.00 today lecture cancelled today

B D
Lecturer change – Lecture to be held in
Professor Smith to
Theatre C today
present today’s lecture

Questions 7-11
Complete the table below.

Mary’s timetable
Class Day of week Time
Chemistry lecture Example Tuesday Example 10 o’clock

Chemistry lab Wednesday (7) ………………..o’clock

Genetics lecture (8) ……………………… 5 o’clock

Microbiology lecture (9) ……………………… 2 o’clock

Microbiology tutorial Wednesday (10) ………………….o’clock

Plant pathology lecture Friday (11)……………… …o’clock

Plant pathology lab Tuesday 3 o’clock

Plant pathology tutorial Wednesday 12 o’clock

SECTION 2: Question 12-23

Questions 12-15

Complete the notes below: Write a NUMBER or ONE WORD for each answer.

The Island of Astoria

109
12. ·Distance from New Zealand: ……………………………………..km
13. ·Direction from New Zealand: ………………………………………….

·Size compared with New Zealand: Example 25 percent larger

14. ·Shape of island: …………………………………………

15. ·Climate: …………………………………..
Questions 16-23

Complete the table. Write a NUMBER or NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
The provinces of Astoria
Province Part of island Population Language Main tourist
attraction
Hornchurch (16) …….. Example Example Example
2.5 million English culture
New Devon Example (17) …….. English (18) …….
northeast
Anglezark (19) …….. English (20) ………
New Albion (21) …… 1.5 million (22) ….. (23) ………

SECTION 3: Questions 24-33

Questions 24-26

Complete the table by ranking the THREE senses indicated.

How did Immanuel Kant rank the senses?
Sense Ranking
touch
24. hearing…………
25. sight …………

smell 5. Example

26. taste …………

Questions 27-29
Circle the correct answer.
27. Immanuel Kant believed …
A. only smell was subjective. C. touch was subjective.
B. hearing was subjective. D. smell was not necessary.
28. A person who is ‘odour-blind’ …
A. can smell only some odours. C. does not think flowers smell wonderful.
110
 B. is unable to smell flowers. D. is probably colour-blind, too.
29. The sense of smell …
A. is half as strong after the age of 65. C. is stronger in women than men.
B. is not affected by age. D. is weakened in half of people over 80.
Questions 30-33
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer:
30. The country that buys the most perfume is ……………………………. .
31. A perfume thought to be …………………………………..will sell well.
32. French scientists believe the ………………………………..determines how a perfume will
smell on a person.
33. Some people who dislike perfume compare it to …………………….. .

SECTION 4: Questions 34-42

Questions 34 and 35
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

34. In Australia, when MUST men shake hands? ……………………………..

35. What is the message when men DON’T shake hands? …………………………..
Questions 36-42
Match the gestures with their messages. Choose the appropriate letters A-I from the table. You
may use a letter more than once.

What message is sent by each of the following gestures?

FOR AUSTRALIAN MEN

Example a weak handshake …. D……

36. crushing handshake …………. A no message

B confidence
37. half handshake ………………… C lack confidence
38. quickly released handshake ………….. D lack of interest
E arrogance
39. long handshake …………………. F competence
FOR AUSTRALIAN WOMEN G competitiveness
H mutual liking
40. half handshake ………………….
I recognition
41. full, firm handshake …………………
FOR BOTH SEXES
42. no eye contact during handshake ……….

111
 Speaking
10. Describe a child you met and have become fond of him/her.
You should say:
 Who is he/she.
 Where you met him/her.
 When you met him/her.
 And explain why you are so much fond of him/her.
Related questions:
 What do you think of the intellectual capabilities of children of today?
 What kind of ‘gifts’ do children ask for today?
 How can the ‘generation gap’ between parents and children be reduced?
 How can the children be made to develop a responsible attitude towards spending?
 Why do many advertisers use children in their ‘ads’ or they target ‘ads’ towards
children?
 Do you think that children over the age of 16 years should be allowed to take
decisions on their own?
 Describe how the toys with which children play have changed in the last 20 years.
 A toy that you have seen recently and are highly impressed with it.
 What hobbies did you have as a child?
 Describe a toy with which you used to play with when you were a child.
 Is TV watching a good hobby for children?
 What other hobbies children should take up which prove to be productive?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. A friend is already attending a TAFE college in Australia. You will be going to

Australia next year.
Write a letter to your friend, in your letter
 Ask him/her about what you should do before you go
 Ask him/her about any problem he/she has had
 Ask him/her other important point need to be taken care if any

2. You live in an area where the local council has made some changes to regulations.
You believe these changes are not good for residents.
Write a letter to a councilor. In your letter:
 Introduce yourself
 Describe the problem
 Say what you think the council should do about the situation
112
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graphs below show the numbers of male and female workers in 1975 and 1995 in
several employment sectors of the republic of Fredonia.
Write a report for a university teacher describing the information shown.

2. The graph below gives information about how people in the United Kingdom spend

their income.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make

comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

113
114
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Some employers reward members of staff for their exceptional contribution to the company
by giving them extra money. This practice can act as an incentive for some but may also
have a negative impact on others. To what extent is this style of management effective? Are
there better ways of encouraging employees to work hard?
2. In the past sporting champions used to be motivated primarily by the desire to win a match
or to break world records. These days they are more likely to be motivated by prize money
and the opportunity to be famous. What message does this send to young people and how
does this attitude to sport affect the sports themselves? Give reasons for your answers.
3. Failure is proof that the desire wasn’t strong enough; to what extent do your agree to this
statement? Give reason for your answer.

115
 UNIT: 11
Reading Passage 11
Falling Asleep
What happens when you are falling asleep? As sleepiness increases a glazed look comes over the
eyes visual awareness declines and eye rolling begins. The eyes roll up under the slowly closing
eyelids, which then slowly open and the eyes roll back down again. One complete eye roll lasts
about two seconds, and is usually followed immediately by another. Such events are called
microsleeps where consciousness is clouding and the brain is losing contact with reality. It is
possible to snap out of this state for a while. Drivers can open the car windows, turn up the radio
and sing a song in the hope that all this stimulation will overcome the sleepiness. But for anyone
who is really sleepy, such countermeasures are seldom effective for more than a few minutes.
Microsleeps and eye rolling reappear, maybe lasting for many seconds, interspersed with short
bursts of greater alertness. Successive microsleeps get longer until true sleep sets in and the head
lolls forward causing, with luck, a startled awakening.

A driver having microsleeps is still vaguely aware of the road but is likely to misperceive events
ahead. Limited driving skills can be maintained to keep the vehicle on a fairly straight course or
carry out simple steering manoeuvres. Nevertheless, the vehicle may begin to drift sideways and
foot-pressure on the accelerator may relax, causing the vehicle to slow down. The driver may still
seem to be in control, but as microsleeps particularly impair vision, the immediate danger is one of
collision or running off the road. Sleepy drivers tend to drive more slowly, anyway, and try to keep
in the slow lane. When the vehicle drifts sideways the main risk is collision with a stationary
vehicle on the hard shoulder.

It is known that the brain’s 24 hour clock is set to bring sleep twice a day: at night and the early
afternoon. The early afternoons therefore a time that can produce a marked feeling of sleepiness,
and this is not due to eating lunch. This is the period when sleep-related accidents reach their
daytime peak. Many cultures especially in hot countries, have bowed to the inevitable and adopted
the siesta as a way of life. The time of greatest alertness on the other hand, is on the early evening.
Alcohol interacts with this daily rhythm to worsen afternoon sleepiness, which is why many people
find that even two units of alcohol (equivalent to a pint of beer) at lunchtime have a strongly
soporific effect. While this alcohol intake is unlikely to push drivers over the legal limit, a study
showed that at this time of day, it clearly impaired simulated motorway driving. The same alcohol
intake in the early evening has the same effect on blood alcohol level but can go almost unnoticed,
and driving will be less affected. This suggests there is a strong case for setting a lower legal blood
alcohol limit for the early afternoon compared with that for the early evening. The more sleepy
drivers are feeling, the more alcohol affects them. Tranquillisers can also be soporific, especially at
the vulnerable times of the day. Little is known about whether they present a problem for
monotonous driving, although many sleep researchers believe they do.

116
Questions 1-8
Complete the diagram below by selecting a maximum of four words from the text for each answer.
Write the answers in boxes 1-8 in your answer sheet.

Effects on eyes Temporary

(example) glazed look countermeasures

1 3
2 4

MICROSLEEPS AND DRIVERS

Effects on vehicle Possible accidents

5 7
6 8

Questions 9 and 10
Write your answers in boxes 9 and 10 of your answer sheet.
9. What does the writer imply early afternoon sleepiness is often attributed to?
10. When do most daytime sleep-related accidents occur?

Question 11 – 15
Complete the flow chart below with words from passage 11. You should use ONE or TWO words
for each answer. Write them on your answer sheet.

Alcohol intake works together with ___(Example)_____daily rhythm______

Increased sleepiness if drinking at ______11_________
Deterioration in ____12___ ability.
Comparison with evening alcohol has _____13_____ effect on blood,
______14______ effect on driving.
Argument for change in legal limit of ____15_____

117
 Listening Test 11
SECTION 1: Questions 1-12
Questions 1-4
Circle the appropriate letter.

Example
How does the woman travel every day?

A. by car
B. by bus
©. on foot
D. by train

1 What are the parking regulations on campus?

A. undergraduate parking allowed
B. Postgraduate parking allowed
C. staff parking only allowed
D. no student parking allowed
2 The administration office is in
A. Block B.
B. Block D.
C. Block E.
D. Block G.
3 If you do not have a parking sticker, the following action will be taken:
A. wheel clamp your car.
B. fine only.
C. tow away your car and fine.
D. tow away your car only.

118
4 Which picture shows the correct location of the Administration office?

Questions 5-10
Complete the application form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Application for parking sticker

Name (5)……………………………………………………………………..
Address (6) Flat 13 ………………………………………………………..
Suburb (7)…………………………………………………………………
Faculty (8) ………………………………………………………………..
Registration number (9)…………………………………………………
Make of car (10) …………………………………………………………

Questions 11-12

11 Cashier’s office opens at A. 12.15 B. 2.00 C. 2.15 D. 4.30

12 Where must the sticker be displayed? …………………………………………

119
Section 2 Questions 13-23
Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Date the museum was opened (13)

The museum consists of a building and (14)
Handicapped toilet door shows Example a wheel chair

The Education Centre is signposted by (15)

If you lose your friend, meet at the (16)
Warning about The Vampire (17)
How often are the tours of The Vampire? (18)
Person featured in today's video (19)
The Leisure Gallery shows how Australian culture is (20)
influenced by
The Picture Gallery contains pictures by (21)
Cost of family membership of the museum (22)
'Passengers and the Sea' includes a collection of (23)

SECTION 3: Questions 24-32

Questions 24-27
Circle the correct answer
24 Mark is going to talk briefly
A. marketing new products. B. pricing strategies.
C. managing large companies. D. setting sales targets.
25 According to Susan, air fares are lowest when they
A. include weekend travel. B. are booked well in advance.
C. are non-refundable. D. are for business travel only.
26 Mark thinks revenue management is
A. interesting. B. complicated. C. time-consuming. D. reasonable.
27 The airline companies want to
A. increase profits. B. benefit the passenger.
C. sell cheap seats. D. improve the service.

120
Questions 28-32
Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Two reasons for the new approach to pricing are:

(28) ……………………………………………..and
(29) ……………………………………………… .
In future people will be able to book airline tickets (30)……………………… .
Also being marketed in this way are (31)…………………………………and
(32)…………………………………………………………………….. .

SECTION 4: Questions 33-42

Questions 33-37
Complete the table. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SPACE MANAGEMENT
RESEARCH METHOD INFORMATION PROVIDED
Questionnaires what customers think about
(33)…………………………………………..

(34)……………………… how customers move around supermarket

aisles

Eye movement the most eye-catching areas of the shop

(35)………………..

Computer programs the best (37)…………………………

e.g. (36)……………….. for an article in the shop.

121
Questions 38-42

Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

A SUPERMARKET AISLE

ENTRANCE EXIT
Checkout – often
First shelves – used to sell
customers usually (42) ………………….
(38)………………. these. ……………………….

klklkl
AISLE
Products placed here
sell well particularly if
they are placed (39)
…………….
…………………..

These areas are known

as
(40) ……………..
…………………..

Gondola end often find

Gondola end –
(41) …………………
prime position: used to
………………………
launch new products
displayed here.

122
 Speaking
11. Describe a friend who is very dear to you.
You should say:
 Who he/she is.
 When you met him/her.
 Where you met him/her.
 And why do you like him/her so much
Related questions:
 Importance of friends vs. neighbors
 Importance of friends vs. family
 Do you have a boyfriend/girlfriend? What role does he/she play in your life?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. An Australian colleague suggesting what he/she should see and do while he/she is in
your home town, and has written a letter to you asking for advice about things to
see and do there.
Write a letter to the colleague, in your letter
 Suggesting what he/she should see
 What to do while he/she is in your hometown
 Ask about other advice which needs to counderation, if any

2. You are going on a month training programme to the UK and know that the head
of the course would like one of the participants to be the social events’ organizer.
Write a letter to the Training Organizer, in your letter
 Expressing your interest in the role
 Requesting more information about it
 Explaining what experience you have

123
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend 20 minutes on this task.
1. The diagram below shows the typical stages of consumer goods manufacturing,
including the process by which information is back to earlier stages to enable
adjustment.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the process shown.

2. The table and note given below give information about student enrollment at the
Brighton Co-ed Secondary School (a privately run, fee paying institute) in 1990, 2000
and 2010.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.

124
Write at least 150 words.

125
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. To be labeled a ‘Work of Art’, a painting, sculpture or other art form should display certain
qualities that are unique. However, over the last century there has been a decline in the
quality of prize winning artwork and it is now possible for quite ordinary pieces of art to be
labeled ’masterpieces’ whilst true works of art pass unnoticed. Do you agree or disagree?
Give reasons for you answer.
2. Popular hobbies and interests change over time and are more a reflection of trends and
fashions than an indication of what individuals really want to do in their spare time. To what
extent do you agree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer.
3. Have newspapers become a medium of the past or they still play an important role in
people’s lives?

126
 UNIT: 12
Reading Passage 12

Planes that Fall to Pieces

On April 28, 1988, the roof came off a Boeing 737 of Aloha Airlines while it was flying over
Hawaii. In the explosive decompression that followed, a flight attendant was sucked out to her
death and seven passengers were seriously injured, but miraculously the aircraft managed to land,
18 minutes later, without disintegrating.

It was dramatic introduction to the phenomenon of the geriatric jet. Until then, few air travellers
worried about the age of aircraft. It was generally assumed that international regulatory authorities
insisted on rigorous maintenance and inspection procedures specifically designed to detect and
prevent structural fatigue and corrosion.

Aloha Airlines aircraft number N73711 changed all that. It was discovered that rivets holding two
sections of the fuselage together had blown and the bonding had failed. The cause: corrosion and
metal fatigue. The plane was 19 years old and had completed 89 680 take-off and landing cycles.
Its design life was 75 000 cycles. Nor was its age in any way unusual. Boeing produced figures
this year showing that 558 of its aircraft were still in service beyond their ‘economic design life
objective’ of 20 years.

Ensuring aircraft are safe to fly depends on a crucial troika: the national regulatory authority, which
grants airworthiness certificates: the aircraft manufacturer, which issues technical instructions for
the maintenance, inspection and replacement of parts; and the airline, which is supposed to carry out
the manufacturers’ instructions.

In the case of N73711, Aloha Airlines’ maintenance procedures were seriously deficient. Its
aircraft were overworked on short, island-hopping flights and were exposed to a corrosive salt
atmosphere, yet its corrosion control programme was inadequate. Boeing, which had discovered
the problems at Aloha, had failed to alert the FAA.

With a worldwide shortage of new aircraft and an ever-ageing fleet, it was realised belatedly that
growing numbers of elderly aircraft were going to pose problems hitherto unforeseen .. like the need
to check 70 000 rivets, rivet by rivet, on other geriatric jets.

‘We no longer believe you can rely on inspections forever as aircraft approach their life- limit goal,’
says Tom Swift, a British born metallurgist at the FAA. ‘We think it is important to establish a
point at which you must start replacing parts.’

A particular recent concern is the phenomenon of multi-site damage when hairline cracks develop
behind a row of rivets and create a fault that can rip apart like serrated paper. MSD was identified
as the cause of the crash of the Japanese Airlines Boeing 747 in 1985 when 520 people lost their
lives.

In Britain, the CAA has a good record for upholding high standards of aircraft maintenance,
insisting on fatigue testing of every fuselage and pioneering the concept of structural audits to find
fault at an early stage. Nevertheless, Ronald Ashford, the director of safety, admits that there were
127
shortcomings. ‘In future there will be much more rigorous inspection programmes and a greater
tendency to require replacement of large areas of frames and skins.’

Questions 1-5
Decide whether the statements are, according to the text, true, false or the information is not given
and write A for true, B for false, and C for not given, on your answer sheet.

1. In the Aloha Airlines accident the roof blew off because of explosive decompression in
the plane.
2. According to the writer it is remarkable that the aeroplane did not break apart before
landing.
3. The cause of the Aloha Airlines accident was never discovered.
4. Many old aircraft still in use beyond their 20-year-limit have passed Boeing fitness tests.
5. The safety of aircraft depends on, among other things, the airline following the
instructions given by the aircraft manufacturer.

Questions 6–12

6&7 What TWO factors made Aloha Airlines aircraft deteriorate especially quickly?

Write the answers in boxes 6 and 7 of your answer sheet.

8. Tom Swift says that as planes approach their ‘life-limit goal’:
A they should be replaced.
B they should increase the numbers of inspections.
C a decision should be made about when to replace, instead of fix, whole parts.
D certain parts should be replaced.

Write the appropriate letter (A, B, C or D) in box 8 on your answer sheet.

9. According to the information in the text, multi-site damage:
A has only recently been discovered.
B is of particular concern now.
C has been the cause of several airline accidents.
D can rip apart like serrated paper.

Write the appropriate letter (A, B, C or D) in box 9 on your answer sheet.

10 & 11 What TWO maintenance procedures are carried out by the CAA in Britain? Use two
words from the text for each answer and write them in boxes 10 and 11 on your answer
sheet.

12 ‘Safety checks on aircraft in Britain are improving.’

Write T in box 12 on your answer sheet if you think that this statement is true, or F if you think that
it is false.

128
 Listening Test 12
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

KATE

Her first impressions of the

Example Quiet
town

Type of accommodation (1)

Her feelings about the

(2)
accommodation

Her feelings about the other

(3)
students
Environmental Studies
Name of course
Difficulties experienced on
the course (4)

Suggestions for improving

the course (5)

LUKI

First type of accommodation (6)

Problem with the first

(7)
accommodation

Second type of (8)

accommodation

Name of course (9)

Comments about the course Computer room busy

Suggestions for improving
the course (10)

129
SECTION 2: Questions 11-20
Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

There are many kinds of bicycles available:

racing
touring
(11) ………………………
ordinary………….

They vary in price and (12) ……………………………………………

Prices range from $50.00 to (13)……………………………………..
Single speed cycles are suitable for (14) ………………………….
Three speed cycles are suitable for (15) ………………………….
Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills and (16) …………………
Ten speed bikes are better because they are (17)………….. in
price but (18)……………………….

Buying a cycle is like (19) …………………

The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of
the (20)………………………

SECTION 3: Questions 21-32

Questions 21-24
21 At first Fiona thinks that Martin’s tutorial topic is
A. inappropriate. B. dull. C. interesting. D. fascinating.
22 According to Martin, the banana
A. has only recently been cultivated. B. is economical to grow.
C. is good for your health. D. is his favourite food.
23 Fiona listens to Martin because she
A. wants to know more about bananas. B. has nothing else to do today.
C. is interested in the economy of Australia. D. wants to help Martin.
24 According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from
A. India. B. England. C. China. D. Africa.
130
Questions 25-30
Complete Martin’s notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Commercially grown
banana plant

Each banana tree produces

(25) ……………………………………………
of bananas.

On modern plantations in tropical

conditions a tree can bear fruit after
(26)……………………………………..

Banana trees prefer to grow (27) ………………………………………and they require

rich soil and (28)………………………………………… The fruit is often protected by
(29) …………………………………………………………….
Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other (30)…………………………………

Questions 31 and 32

Circle the TWO correct boxes.

hjhjhjhjh
Consumption of Australian bananas
A Europe

B Asia

C New Zealand

D Australia

E Other

131
SECTION 4: Questions 33-41

Questions 33-35
Circle the correct answer.
According to the first speaker:
33 The focus of the lecture series is on
A. organising work and study. B. maintaining a healthy lifestyle.
C. coping with homesickness. D. settling in at university.
34 The lecture will be given by
A. the president of the Union. B. the campus doctor.
C. a sports celebrity. D. a health expert.
According to the second speaker:
35 This week’s lecture is on
A. campus food. B. dieting.
C. sensible eating. D. saving money.

Questions 36-39
Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

A balanced diet
A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living.
Vitamins in food can be lost through (36) ……………………………………. .
Types of vitamins:
(a) Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body.
(b) Water soluble vitamins – not stored, so you need
a (37) …………………………………………………….
Getting enough vitamins
Eat (38) ……………………………………………………………….of foods.
Buy plenty of vegetables and store them in
(39) ………………………………………………………. .

132
 Questions 40-41
Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided.

Example
Try to avoid
sugar, salt and butter

40----------------------------------
-----------------------------------
milk, lean meat, fish, nuts,
eggs

41-------------------------------
----------------------------------
bread, vegetables and fruit

133
 Speaking
12. Describe your dream house.
You should say:
 What kind of house it will be.
 Describe its appearance.
 Special provisions you will want in it.
Related questions:
 Do you prefer staying in bungalow to staying in a flat?
 Favorite room of your house

Writing (General) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….
1. You have lost your credit card.
Write to the manager of your bank, in the letter
 Explain where and how you lost the card
 Describe other relevant details
 Ask the manager to cancel the old card and to send you a replacement

2. You are part of a group of musicians who meet on Monday and Wednesday evenings to
practise in the community hall. You have been told, however, that it is no longer
possible for the group to use the hall.
Write a letter to the manager. In the letter:
 Describe what the group does
 Explain why the group is good for the community
 Suggest alternative days and times for practice

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graph shows Underground Station people numbers in London.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
134
 400

Number of people at a London

underground station
300

200

100

0
6.00
7.00
8.00
9.00
10.00
11.00
12.00
13.00
14.00
15.00
16.00
17.00
18.00
19.00
20.00
21.00
22.00
Time

• Read the following description of the graph above.

At 6 a.m. the station had 100 people. At 8 a.m. it had a big increase to
400 people. Not many people were there at 10 a.m. The same thing
happened after 8 p.m. It declined a lot to 120 and 180 people at 9
p.m. and 10 p.m. respectively. Between 12 noon and 2 p.m. the
number of people was stabilized at 300.

• Discuss what is wrong the above paragraph, and then write your own paragraph,
making improvements. A model answer, one of many possible versions, is given.
2. The table shows the percentage of the rooms occupied in six hotels during May
to September between 1985 and 2000. The table also indicates the star rating of
each hotel.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

135
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. A company in which every employee is made to feel important will run more smoothly and
experience greater success than a company that values some employees above others.
2. Is education degree good enough to give bread butter or to be thrown in the dustbin? Should
education system changed?
3. Nowadays there is lot of pressure of studies and competition on the students. Should it be
there? Should the children be over pressurized with their studies? In what way this pressure
can be beneficial to the students.

136
 UNIT: 13
Reading Passage 13
Birth of a Profession
As pressure grows on companies to respond to environmental issues, one of the easiest ways to do
so is to appoint an environmental manager from inside the organisation, whether or not they already
have a quality or health and safety manager or director. It is another matter whether or not it makes
any difference to the environmental performance of that company.

It is in response to the needs of these personnel, thrust suddenly into an entirely new role in the
corporate structure, that an initiative was launched a year ago to provide a framework of key
standards of competence. It is nearing its closing stage of development but that will then lead on to
further phases in creating what is intended to be a new breed of professional, capable of wielding
the same authority as his or her colleagues inside the company.

The Institute of Environmental Managers was established last year to create a forum for those often
in a still embryonic role to learn and exchange methods, rather than struggle in isolation with what
their companies increasingly demand of them. The Institute’s members, now numbering about 400,
range from some of those in large multi-nationals, who have been developing expertise and
experience over a number of years, to newcomers in the field, often in smaller organisations.
Concern that many were struggling in the deep end was confirmed in a survey, carried out by the
Institute on its members, on the stature of the environmental managers in the UK.

The co-director of the Centre for Environment and Business in Scotland, which provides the
secretariat for the Institute, explained that these managers were looking for some sort of support.
The main problem was the attitude of other people in the company, both of the management and of
the workforce, resulting in slipping priorities and difficulties in gaining access to the decision
makers.

A principal factor that was identified was that there was no formal recognition of individuals’
environmental management skills and, indeed, that they had no standards of competence to aim for.
One of the first things the Institute’s steering group, which oversees its day-to-day matters,
therefore decided to do was to establish these. After much brainstorming and interviews with
environmental managers, six key areas of competence were defined: strategic vision; business
awareness; management skills; motivation, training and leadership, external communications; and
crisis management.

The management element has been specified very strongly because a lot of environmental
managers, although technically very competent people, are being pushed into a management role
with very few of the required skills. On the other hand, some experience of their organisation will
remain a prerequisite, as the managers have to be aware of their own business and how it works.
People who have come straight out of university having studied environmental management will be
little use, so the environmental remit is being given to people who are already well established in
the company, probably in middle management. While some big companies may want to train their
own specialist team of managers straight from university, this situation is unlikely to change
dramatically.

137
While all decision-makers round the company will be responsible for their own areas, the
environmental manager will act as co-ordinator, providing the framework. To standardise the levels
of competence for such a multi-disciplinary role, to be taken up by people from different career
routes, education and training will become a matter of complementing and extending individuals’
own knowledge and expertise.

A survey of training in Scotland is currently being conducted to establish what kind of courses are
provided and whether they are suitable for business people who have insufficient time to do a
modular course. A similar project is under way for the rest of the UK, identifying centres of
excellence on a regional basis, so that people know they can go to at least one centre near them.
The long-term plan is to work with educational establishments to design courses in line with
required competences, so providing the business community with the training it requires on a
flexible, modular basis. In the meantime, with the final consultation period for the standards and
assessment procedure completed, the aim is to start inviting applicants to put themselves forward
for assessment leading to full membership.

The Institute is confident there is a demand, both from managers and their employers. The aim is to
empower the environmental managers and to get them professional status, so they start being
considered seriously within their companies. The growing need to be able to demonstrate this
commitment through certification, and other needs, will only add to this demand.

The environmental management systems standard BS7750 in its final draft stipulates that ‘the
organisation shall appoint a management representative who, irrespective of other responsibilities,
shall have defined authority and responsibility for ensuring that the requirements of this standard
are implemented and maintained’. More and more companies, however, will look beyond even this.
The intention, then, is to produce a code of practice for members, to enable them to say to their
employers, in difficult situations, that they have professional standards to maintain and must be
taken seriously.

Far from being confrontational, the belief is that companies will become aware of the importance of
having, and indeed spotlighting, someone responsible for managing their environmental policy. It
will provide their customers, financiers, insurers and regulators with greater assurance than simply
demonstrating compliance.

Questions 1-9

The paragraph below is a summary of the passage. Complete the summary by choosing no more
than three words from the passage to fill the spaces numbered 1-9. Write the words in boxes 1-9
on your answer sheet.

The first one has been done for you as an example:

Summary: Birth of a Profession

Example Answer

One way for companies to respond to

pressure on environmental issues is to… appoint
an environmental manager.

138
These …1… , however, need a framework of key standards of competence before they will be
regarded as professionals. The Institute of Environmental Managers was established to fulfill this
need by drawing together isolated individuals, some experienced within …2… other newcomers
from smaller organisations, thus providing an opportunity to exchange ideas. Many need this
support, as prevailing attitudes make it difficult to gain access to decision-makers. The aims are to
gain …3… of environmental management skills, to establish much needed …4… to work towards
and to achieve professional status through certification. Management skills are emphasised, as
environmental management is a co-ordinating …5… role where both knowledge and expertise are
necessary. Training will thus need to extend the skills of experienced individuals from differing
backgrounds. The Centre aims to identify regional …6… and provide relevant …7… courses and
to establish a …8… to support members. Companies should also welcome this move as they
become increasingly aware of the importance of formulating and managing their own company
…9…

Questions 10-14

The list below contains six descriptions or definitions of the key areas of competence defined in the
passage. Match each description or definition with the relevant area of competence.

Write your answers in boxes 10-14 on your answer sheet. You should write no more than three
words for each answer.

Example Answer
To understand the need for an emergency
action plan and be able to justify the crisis management
contingency measures

10 to ensure environmental measures are effectively communicated to and adopted by others

11 to identify cost-efficient solutions in a commercial context
12 to handle individuals and organisations outside
13 to undertake effective project and systems management and internal communications
14 to see beyond strict compliance and steer the company towards a sustainable future.

Questions 15-16
Write either true or false in boxes 15 and 16 on your answer sheet.
15 Many environmental managers are competent in the technical rather than managerial field.
16 Most big companies will prefer to take graduates straight out of university.

139
 Listening Test 13
Section 1: Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below:
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

VIDEO LIBRARY
APPLICATION FORM
Example Answer
Surname: Jones
First names: Louise Cynthia
Address: Apartment 1, 72 (1) ……………………………Street
Highbridge
Post code: (2) ………………………………………………….
Telephone: 98356712 (home)
(3)………………………………(work)

Driver’s
licence number: (4) ………………………………………..
Date of birth: Day: 25th Month: (5) ………………..Year: 1977

Questions 6-8
Circle THREE letters A-F
What types of films does Louise like?
A Action B Comedies C Musicals D Romance
E Westerns F Wildlife
Questions 9 and 10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

9 How much does it cost to join the library?

…………………………………………………..

10 When will Louise’s card be ready?

……………………………………………

140
SECTION 2: Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Expedition Across Attora Mountains

Leader: Charles Owen
Prepared a (11)………………………………………………….. for the trip
Total length of trip (12)……………………………………………………
Climbed highest peak in (13)……………………………………………………

Questions 14 and 15
Circle the correct letters A-C.

14 What took the group by surprise?

A. the amount of rain
B. the number of possible routes
C. the length of the journey
15 How did Charles feel about having to change routes?
A. He reluctantly accepted it.
B. He was irritated by the diversion.
C. It made no difference to his enjoyment.
Questions 16-18
Circle THREE letters A-F.
What does Charles say about his friends?
A. He met them at one stage on the trip.
B. They kept all their meeting arrangements.
C. One of them helped arrange the transport.
D. One of them owned the hotel they stayed in.
E. Some of them traveled with him.
F. Only one group lasted the 96 days.
Questions 19 and 20
Circle TWO letters A-E.
141
What does Charles say about the donkeys?
A. He rode them when he was tired.
B. He named them after places.
C. One of them died.
D. They behaved unpredictably.
E. They were very small.
SECTION 3: Questions 21-30
Question 21-25
Complete the table below:

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer:

TIM JANE
Day of arrival Sunday (21) ……………
Subject History (22)………………
Number of books to read (23) ……………….. (24) …………………
Day of first lecture Tuesday (25) ………………..

Questions 26-30
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

26 What is Jane’s study strategy in lectures?

………………………………………………….
27 What is Tim’s study strategy for reading?
…………………………………………………
28 What is the subject of Tim’s first lecture?
……………………………………………….
29 What is the title of Tim’s first essay?
……………………………………………..
30 What is the subject of Jane’s first essay?
……………………………………………..
SECTION 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Course Type of course: Entry requirements
duration and level
Physical Fitness Instructor Example None
Six month certificate
Sports Administrator (31)…………………………. (32)…………………………
………………………… in sports administration.
Sports Psychologist (33)………………………. Degree in psychology
……………………….
Physical Education Four year degree in (34) ……………………….
142
Teacher education ………………………
Recreation Officer (35) ………………………… None
…………………………
Questions 36-40
Complete the table below.
Write the appropriate letters A-G against questions 36-40

Job Main role

Physical Fitness Instructor (36) …………………..
Sports Administrator (37) …………………..
Sports Psychologist (38) ……………………
Physical Education Teacher (39)……………………
Recreation Officer (40) ………………….

MAIN ROLES
A the coaching of teams
B the support of elite athletes
C guidance of ordinary individuals
D community health
E the treatment of injuries
F arranging matches and venues
G the rounded development of children

143
 Speaking
13. Describe a musical instrument that you like very much.
You should say:
 Which instrument it is.
 Do you know playing it?
 Any famous player you like.
 And why are you so much impressed with it.
Related questions:
 How has music changed over the last 20 years?
 Do you like international much/traditional music?
 What is the need of music in our lives?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have lost a costly article belonging to your friend.

Write a letter to your friend, in the letter
 Describe apology
 Explaining how the mishap occurred
 How you intend to make amends

2. You share a parking area with several neighbours and have recently started having
problems.
Write a letter to be copied to all neighbours that share the parking area, in the letter
 Explain the problems
 Suggest ways to help the situation
 Propos a possible meeting

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend 20 minutes on this task.

1. The bar chart below illustrates the use of tobacco products by secondary school
students in the United States.

Write a report describing the information shown.

144
 Current Tobacco use among Middle and High School Students

40
35 Middle School

Percentage of Students
30 High School
25
20
15
10
5
0
s s s s s s
se t te ar es pe di ek
y
U re C
ig kel Pi Bi r et
a
An ig o K
C Sm
Type of Tobacco Product

2. The diagrams below give information about the manufacture of frozen meat pies.

Summarise the information by selecting reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant.

Write at least 150 words.

145
146
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Animals should not be used for the benefits of human beings unless there is evidence that
the animals do not suffer in any way.
2. What is the importance of historical buildings? Should they be preserved or demolished to
make better hotels or multiple complexes?
3. The threat of nuclear weapons maintains world peace. Nuclear power provides, cheap and
clear energy. The benefits of nuclear technology far outweigh the disadvantages. Give
reasons for you answer.

147
 UNIT: 14
Reading Passage 14
Rethinking Europe: ICI and the Single European Market
Recently, amid a fanfare of proclamations by its senior managers about the need to ‘reshape for the
single market challenge’, the world’s fourth largest chemical multi-national created a new regional
organisation, based in Brussels. Then, barely sixteen months later, it decided quietly – although
amid internal controversy – to shut it down. The closing down of ICI Europe, in the countryside
near Brussels, reflects the company’s new-found willingness to adjust to changing circumstances far
more rapidly than in the past.

By reversing its decision, ICI had done two things. First, it recognised that it had overrated the
potential demand from multi-national customers – ranging from BMW to several household
appliance makers – for cross-border European sales co-ordination across its various businesses.
Instead, it now feels that any pan-European sales ‘synergies’ can be handled within individual
businesses. Second, the turnaround represented the final triumph within ICI of movement which, as
in many multi-nationals today, was already on the rise inside the chemical company before the
Brussels decision was taken: the need to speed decision-making and cut costs by streamlining the
complex ‘matrix’ structures through which they had been managed since the 1960s.

In September 1990, when ICI celebrated the opening of ICI Europe, a clear shift of influence
towards the global businesses, away from its existing regional organisations and national
companies, had already been under way since the 1970s. Although the reasons for the creation of
ICI Europe seemed powerful to those directly involved and to the outside world, it was seen
elsewhere within ICI as being inappropriately timed.

With hindsight, it is said that ICI Europe was really a project, not a permanent organisation. This is
because its most publicised purpose, the creation of ‘corporate coherence’ towards customers in
continental Europe, proved to be ahead of its time. Car companies, for instance, still prefer not to
purchase through a single point, even if four ICI businesses supply them separately with paint,
polyurethane for bumpers, advanced materials for engines, and fibres for seats.

ICI is by no means the only large multi-national which, in its Euro-enthusiasm, misread its
customers’ purchasing intentions in this way. Nonetheless, it is surprising that ICI accepted the
now mainly discredited ‘supermarket’ theory of business-to-business purchasing. The result was
that ICI Europe’s main tasks from the start actually turned out to be transitional:

• to establish an orderly transfer of sales activities and staff from the fifteen national
companies to ICI’s global businesses, splitting sales staff into European sub-regions such as
Benelux, Nordic and what ICI calls ‘mid-Europe’ (Germany, Austria and Switzerland)

• to support the businesses across Europe by creating half a dozen sub-regional centres for
shared ‘support services’, such as information technology, finance, health and safety, public
affairs and personnel

• to streamline the old way of maintaining a ‘corporate presence’ in each country.

By the summer of 1991, several things had happened

148
• Most of the first two tasks were well in hand or complete.

• The business climate had changed for the worse, and ICI’s profits had slumped. Moreover,
a takeover was threatened and a desperate hunt was under way within ICI to simplify
structures and cut costs.

• From the beginning of 1991 the group’s fourteen businesses had been agglomerated into
eight larger units, all with revenues of more than £ 1 billion. If necessary, regional co-
ordination could be done at that level.

• It was felt that the upkeep of ICI Europe was affecting their European selling costs.
Furthermore, it was also felt that control over the entire business process, from the customer
right back to the factory, was being affected.

The response from ICI’s top management was to set up a study group. It decided that ICI Europe
had, in effect, fulfilled much of its remit. It should be shut down, and its remaining activities split
up. The provision of shared services would be transferred to the strongest business in each country
or sub-region. At the same time a senior manager in each business would be selected to act as a
part-time ‘ICI supremo’ there. The first to take on such a representative role, for the whole Nordic
area, was the head of ICI Pharmaceuticals.

Both these moves follow the growing tendency within other multi-nationals of stream-lining their
bureaucracies, by delegating such geographic ‘head office’ responsibilities to senior divisional
managers on a part-time basis. The decision to conform with international practice was not
unanimous, however. There were complaints that it was not adequately discussed and it was
opposed by the main ICI board member responsible for Europe, by the chairman of ICI Europe, and
by one of the business heads. One concern was that ICI might lose continental perspective; another
was that it would lose the ability to develop international managers capable of moving across
businesses.

The costs saved by shutting ICI Europe are hard to estimate, since about twenty of its sixty staff
have been transferred, either to the UK head office or to the businesses. More significantly, its
efforts cut the cost of ICI’s continental support services by a fifth between 1990 and 1992. There is
potentially at least as much again to be saved through streamlining within the businesses.

Questions 1- 3

Complete each sentence below with a maximum of three words from the passage. Write your
answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

Example Answer
ICI was attempting to prepare for the single market

1. One of the main reasons that ICI reversed its decision was that it had…
2. One purpose of streamlining company structures is to …
3. Another purpose is …
Questions 4 – 5

149
In questions 4–5 choose which of the options best represents the information in the reading passage.
Write the appropriate letter (A-D) for each question in boxes 4-5 on your answer sheet.

4. Its planned ‘corporate coherence’ failed because ICI…

A bought discredited supermarkets
B misread customers’ purchasing power
C misjudged customers’ purchasing plans
D discredited business-to-business purchasing

5. ICI’s main tasks were to …

A transfer, streamline and support operations
B support its services, such as information technology
C form fifteen national companies
D transfer sales and services to mid-Europe

Questions 6 – 13

The paragraph below is a summary of the middle section of the reading passage. ‘Complete the
summary by choosing the appropriate word, phrase or clause from the list below to fill the spaces
numbered 6-13. Write the corresponding letter (A-N) in boxes 6-13 on your answer sheet. There
are more choices than spaces, so you will not need to use all of them.

The first one has been done for you as an example.

Summary: Rethinking Europe

Example Answer

After a year most staff had been

transferred to the…. and support service E
centres had been created.

Owing to the …6… however, profits, …7… and a take-over was threatened. This forced …8… on
streamlining the business. Eight units, each with a revenue …9… £1 billion, had been formed and
it was decided that regional co-ordination could be achieved at that level. Nonetheless, it was still
felt that …10… ICI Europe was not cost-effective and that there had been a …11… over the entire
production to after-sales process. A study group was established, which decided, on the basis of
what had been accomplished, to close ICI Europe, transfer the shared service centres to one
business …12… and to appoint a senior manager there to act as …13… on a part-time basis.

List of possible answers

A further action
B were down substantially
C worsening economic situation
D marked economic situation
E sub-regions
150
F corporate coherence
G loss of control
H maintaining
I representative
J the upkeep
K in excess of
L in each area
M in each country
N a desperate search

Questions 14-16

14. Did the study group feel that ICI Europe had been a partial success or a total failure?
Write one of the given phrases in box 14 on your answer sheet.
15. How many people opposed the study group’s decision?
Write a number in box 15 on your answer sheet.
16. How much more could be saved on continental support service costs?
Write words or figures in box 16 on your answer sheet.

151
 Listening Test 14
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ITALIABREAKS
Example Destination Venice

Name John 1 ………..

Mobile number 07987 2 ………..
Number of people Two adults
Holiday length 3 ………..
Hotel Scotland 4 ……….. star

Questions 5 and 6
Choose TWO letters A-E
Which TWO good things about Hotel Scotland are mentioned?
A restaurant
B convenience
C room with a terrace
D large rooms
E cleanliness
Questions 7-10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
7. The departure date is …………… .
8. The holiday excluding insurance costs £…………… .
9. The discount is …………… per cent if booked before 17th February.
10. The booking reference is …………… .

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 1’. Now check your answers.

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
11. The land for development has not been used for over a …………… .
12. There was pressure to build a training centre and a …………… on the land.
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13. Sponsorship has been received from a number of …………… .

Questions 14-20
Label the plan below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 2’. Now check your answers.

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
21. Generally, Rosana finds the Wednesday programme
A. worthless. B. very slow. C. valuable
22. Rosana wants to change her course because
A. she always arrives home very late at night.
B. it affects her work on the next two days.
C. she doesn’t get on with the course tutors.
23. If Rosana changes her course, she
A. may not have the same tutor.
B. cannot change her mind again.
C. may regret the change.
Questions 24 and 25
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO good things about the distance-learning component are mentioned?

153
 A course length
B evening seminars
C course tutor
D course flexibility
E time factor
Questions 26-30
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Course Assessment
Students are required to keep a written 26 ……………………. and present a paper
monthly. Thirty per cent of the marks are allocated to the 27 ……………………. .
Each student has to keep a 28 ……………………. portfolio which in the end
accounts for 29 ……………………. of their marks. Each student is also expected to
present at least one piece of work at a 30 ……………………. .

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 3’. Now check your answers.
Section 4 Question 31-40
Questions 31-37
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
31. The purpose of the data collection was to
A. test people’s reaction to different buildings.
B. collect detailed information on various buildings.
C. assess the beauty of different public buildings.
32. The initial plan to use a questionnaire was abandoned, because
A. it would take too much time to produce.
B. the questions were too difficult to write.
C. it would take too long for people to complete.
33. People indicated their reactions on a 1-5 scale,
A. giving rise to some interesting answers.
B. ensuring that the information was easier to collect.
C. making it quicker to choose the top three images.
34. To make sure people could see the detail in the images better
A. only daylight images were used.
B. black and white images were used.
C. the images were produced in colour.
35. What was done to preserve the images when being used?
A. they were covered in plastic with a special machine.
B. people were asked to wear gloves when touching them.
C. the images were handled only by the researcher.
36. Among the people who formed part of the sample were
A. tourists from various places.
B. office workers during lunch-break.
C. commuters as they exited stations.
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37. What was the reason for appointing a leader for the group?
A. to comply with the instructions for the task.
B. to help hold the team together.
C. to allocate tasks to the various members.
Questions 38-40
Which findings match the age groups of the image testing?
Write the appropriate letter A-D next to each age group.
Findings
A varied reaction
B mainly scored 1
C mostly scored 3
D mainly scored 5
38. 11-18 year-olds …………..
39. 20-40 year-old …………..
40. 50 years old and over …………..

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 4’. Now check your answers.

155
 Speaking
14. Describe/Tell about a musical concert/band/singer that you have visited/like?

You should say:

 What was the name of the concert/singer/band?
 Where was the programme held?.
 How did you come to know about it?
 What is the best thing you like about the particular concert/band/ singer
 What is their type of music? (classical, semi-classical, pop, sufi)
Related questions:
 What kind of music do you like?
 Do you think music that was produced in earlier days was more melodious?
 What are your views on remixes?
 Do you think the quality of music being made has deteriorated?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have won a prize in an inter college mono-acting competition.

Write a letter to a friend, in the letter
 Describing your feeling before, during the performance
 Describe the feeling after the performance
 Explain your preparation

2. Finding it hard to remember important facts and figures? Improve your memory in
10 weeks with our Memory Course. Places are limited and the course is available for
only a short time.
Apply in writing to:
 You see the above advertisement for a course designed to help improve your
memory. Write a letter to the organizer of the course. In the letter
 Give some background information about yourself
 Explain your own problems and why you would like to do the course
 Enquire about the methods used on the course
 Enquire about course fees and dates

156
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should 20 minutes about on this task.
1. The pie graphs below show the results of a survey of children’s activities. The first
graph shows the cultural leisure activities that boys participate in, whereas the second
graph shows the activities in which girls participate.
Write a report describing the information shown in the two pie graphs.

2. The graph and table below give information about water use worldwide and water
consumption in two different countries.

Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and
make comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

157
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Some business now says that no one can smoke cigarettes in any of the offices. Some
governments have banned smoking in public places. This is a good idea, but it takes away
some of our freedom. Give your opinion.
2. In almost all the countries there are laws regulating the contents of films, videos, books and
newspaper. Should the media be controlled in these ways? What are the benefits or risks of
censorship?
3. Our modern lifestyles have been made dependent on large quantities of energy. What are the
main sources of energy in our country? What alternatives are there?
158
 UNIT: 15
Reading Passage 15
The Muddle of MBAs
It is incongruous that the number of British institutions offering MBA courses should have grown
by 254 per cent during a period when the economy has been sliding into deeper recession.
Optimists, or those given to speedy assumptions, might think it marvellous to have such a resource
of business school graduates ready for the recovery. Unfortunately, there is now much doubt about
the value of the degree – not least among MBA graduates themselves, suffering as they are from the
effects of recession and facing the prospect of shrinking management structures.
What was taken some years ago as a ticket of certain admission to success is now being exposed to
the scrutiny of cost-conscious employers who seek ‘can-dos’ rather than ‘might-dos’, and who feel
that academia has not been sufficiently appreciative of the needs of industry or of the employers’
possible contribution.
It is curious, given the name of the degree, that there should be no league table for UK business
schools; no unanimity about what the degree should encompass; and no agreed system of
accreditation. Surely there is something wrong. One wonders where all the tutors for this massive
infusion of business expertise came from and why all this mushrooming took place.
Perhaps companies that made large investments would have been wiser to invest in already existing
managers, perched anxiously on their own internal ladders. The Institute of Management’s 1992
survey, which revealed that eighty-one per cent of managers thought they personally would be more
effective if they received more training, suggests that this might be the case. There is, too, the fact
that training alone does not make successful managers. They need the inherent qualifications of
character; a degree of self-subjugation; and, above all, the ability to communicate and lead; more so
now, when empowerment is a buzzword that is at least generating genuflections, if not total
conviction.
One can easily think of people, some comparatively unlettered, who are now lauded captains of
industry. We may, therefore, not need to be too concerned about the fall in applications for
business school places, or even the doubt about MBAs. The proliferation and subsequent
questioning may have been an inevitable evolution. If the Management Charter Initiative, now
exploring the introduction of a senior management qualification, is successful, there will be a
powerful corrective.
We believe now that management is all about change. One hopes there will be some of that in the
relationship between management and science within industry, currently causing concern and which
is overdue for attention. No-one doubts that we need more scientists and innovation to give us an
edge in an increasingly competitive world. If scientists feel themselves undervalued and under-
used, working in industrial ghettos, that is not a promising augury for the future. It seems we have
to resolve these misapprehensions between science and industry. Above all, we have to make sure
that management is not itself smug about its status and that it does not issue mission statements
about communication without realising that the essence of its dialogue. More empowerment is
required – and we should strive to achieve it.

159
Questions 1 - 4
In questions 1-4, choose which of the answers (A-D) best represents the information in the passage.
Write the appropriate letter (A-D) for each question in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1. What is the writer’s view in the passage? He believes that

A there are too many MBAs.
B the degree is over-valued.
C standards are inconsistent.
D the degree has dubious value.
2. According to the passage, employers
A feel that they have not been consulted sufficiently about their needs.
B consider that cost-consciousness is the most important qualification.
C are more concerned about the value of the degree than graduates themselves.
D feel that MBAs will not be necessary because of shrinking management structures.
3. According to the passage,
A Managers need a degree and the ability to communicate.
B Training needs to be done in groups to be successful.
C Managers today must have good communication and leadership skills.
D Industrial managers do not need to write letters.
4. In the writer’s opinion,
A Science increases competition.
B Scientists are undervalued.
C The management of science needs reassessment.
D Management feels smug about its status.
Questions 5-8
Read the following statements and say how they reflect the information in the passage, by writing:
T if the information is true according to the passage
F if the information is false according to the passage
NG if the information is not given
Write your answers in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.
The first one has been done for you as an example.
Example Answer
The number of MBA courses being
offered more than doubled during T
the recession

5 Employers today are looking for proven experience rather than potential ability.
6 Most managers interviewed felt that their colleagues needed more training.
7 The Management Charter initiative is an attempt to standardise MBAs.
8 Companies would have benefited more from investing in their own staff rather than
recruiting MBAs.

160
 Listening Test 15
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Sidney Street Community Centre

Venue booking form

Example Answer
Name Maria Lincoln

Details of party booking

Number of people 1 approximately ………..
Date of party 2 ………..
Name of room The 3 ………..
Time 4 from ……….. to ……….. pm
Drinks Licensed only for soft drinks
Contact details
Postcode 5 ………..
Address Flat 6 ……….., 35 Beeches Street
Telephone:
Landline 22 32 79
Mobile 07897 7 ………..
Booking fee
Cost of room hire £115 with 8 ………..
Disco system hire Optional. Fee £25 with no technician.
Deposit 9 £………..
Insurance £9 for 24 hours. Covers cancellation, 10 ………..

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Sections 1’. Now check your answers.

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
11. Green products are aimed at
A. people who can afford to pay the higher prices.
161
 B. the young who are very environmentally aware.
C. those who care more about the environment.
12. Grass roofs have been used
A. on buildings in Europe.
B. on homes and other buildings.
C. mostly on residential buildings.
13. On the grass roof, soil or crushed stones are directly on top of
A. the insulation and drainage layer.
B. the waterproof underlay.
C. the wooden roof deck.
Questions 14-18
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Type of roof Advantages Disadvantages Verdict

Grass roof Cooler in summer, 15 ………………… Highly

warmer in winter recommended
appearance in winter
14 Little ……………..
Encourages biodiversity
Absorbs water run-off

Tiles 16 ……………………… 17 ……………………

Not recommended
Appearance Absorption

Thatched roof Good insulators 18 Very Not ideal for cities

……………………….

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO methods for encouraging people to install grass roofs are mentioned?
A educating school children
B holding design competitions
C support from celebrities
D making grass roofs cheaper
E using the media
Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 2’. Now check your answers.

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23
Complete the sentence below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
162
21. Karen is planning to use an …………….. for her presentation.
22. Karen is also going to prepare a power-point presentation as a ……………..
23. Karen wants a few websites to obtain more ……………..

Questions 24-28
What recommendations does Dr. Own make about the websites?
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-G next to questions 24-28.
A must read
B read recent articles
C look at abstracts quickly
D check links
E scan references
F Useful
G limited use

Example Answer
www.kmul.org A

24. investment_IT.com ………..

25. knowledge_journal.com ………..
26. IT_knowledge_review.com ………..
27. IT_online.com ………..
28. NationalStatistics.com ………..

Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO things should be avoided in the presentation?
A too much information at once
B irrelevant visuals
C small font
D too many colours
E talking fast

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 3’. Now check your answers.

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

163
 Department of the Printed Word
Statistics
• Many different full- and part-time courses
• 17 students on the 31 …………… MA course and 7 full-time research students
• 9 full-time lecturers
• About 32 …………… per cent of students are from outside the country
Sponsorship
• Links with organizations in the publishing world
• Sponsorship of students, technicians and 33 ……………
• Outside speakers
• Workshops built to expand facilities for book bindings and 34 ……………
Teaching
• Main work is teaching the 35 ……………
• As most printing is now very technological, students have to be 36 ……………
• For students without the necessary skills, there are specialist technicians who deliver 37
……………
Facilities
• In printing, editing, page design and layout, book-binding
• Former students are not working as expert book 38 …………… and ……………
Research
• Growing interest in the history of the printed word from early European etc. printing
techniques
• A visiting lecturer, Dr. Yu, is an expert on early Chinese manuscripts and 39 ……………
• Department is very popular, with many 40 …………… for each research position

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 4’. Now check your answers.

164
 Speaking
15. Describe about an important decision you have taken?
You should say:
 What the decision was.
 Why you had to take it
 How it changed your life/personality
 Whether you were initially happy/unhappy with the decision.
Related questions:
 Do we need to consult others while taking decisions?
 What are the factors that may influence a person’s decision.
 Do you think nowadays children are capable of taking decisions independently?
Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have been embarrassed by an incident involving a group of your friends.

Write a letter to your mother relating the incident.
 Express your feeling
 State how you intend to overcome
 The impact of the incident

2. Write a letter to an electronics company requesting information about their latest

model of digital camera you have seen advertised.
 Ask about the following items:
 The price and availability of the new camera
 The exact size and special functions of the set

165
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graphs below show how money was spent on different forms of entertainment over
a five-year period.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

Fun Money
World entertainment markets

300

250

200

150

100

50

0
1995 2000 1995 2000 1995 2000

Asia Europe United

States

Source: Booz Allen & Hamilton Figures are in $billion

2. The diagrams below show the life cycle of the silkworm and the stages in the
production of silk cloth.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

166
167
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. How do you think working at night affects a person’s family life, finance, health, leisure,
social life, and travel? Give your opinion.
2. While studying abroad provides an opportunity to broaden one’s experience, it also presents
the danger of negative influences.
3. Coins and paper money will soon be replaced by credit and bankcards. Eventually we will
have cash less society, which will be safer and more convenient for every one. Do you agree
or disagree?

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 UNIT: 16
Reading Passage 16
Questions 1-5

The passage NVQs in retailing – the BHS experience has six sections. Choose the most suitable
heading for each section from the list below (A-J) and write the corresponding letter in boxes 1-5 on
your answer sheet. Note there are more headings than sections, so you will not need to use all of
them. You may use the same heading for more than one answer if you wish.

List of headings

A The Storehouse Group

B Putting theory into practice
C Cause for the initiative
D Increased dividends
E Staff incompetence
F New structures – new solutions
G Staff records
H Pay incentives and bonus schemes
I Benefits for BHS and staff
J New decade – new approach

Example Answer

Section I J
1 Section II
2 Section III
3 Section IV
4 Section V
5 Section VI

NVQs in retailing – the BHS experience

Section I
In 1990, BHS, one of the UK’s leading clothing retailers, made the radical decision to restructure
the company and introduce new training and personnel policies which were linked to National
Vocational Qualifications (NVQs) in retailing. The retailing NVQs have now become a central part
of BHS’s long-term commercial strategy for recovery and success. This initiative was launched
under its ‘First Choice’ programme, which was designed to achieve a dramatic improvement in the
performance of front-line staff. The strategy was to focus on and be driven by the customer, and to
provide exceptional service. NVQs were to be the means by which BHS was to achieve this
objective. BHS was breaking new ground not only within the company itself but also in the retail
sector at large. BHS, alongside Boots and WH Smith, have now become trail-blazers and market
leaders in the implementation of NVQs.

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Section II
In 1986 BHS became part of the Storehouse Group alongside Habitat and Mothercare. However,
commercial success proved elusive. Whilst the retailing sector generally prospered, BHS did not.
Staff performance was poor. Staff morale was low and attitudes towards management were
negative. Staff turnover was far too high. Shop-floor staff were poorly rewarded and career
prospects were very limited. Training was ineffective, focusing on knowledge and procedures, but
not competence. It was divorced from line management. Shop-floor staff were trained
independently from managers and there was little input by store managers into training policy.
There were too many layers of management, making communication difficult. Shop-floor staff felt
remote from management and were not involved in decision-making.

Section III
In 1989 a new management team was appointed with the brief to transform the company and put it
on the road to success. New strategies were required for organisational change, customer service,
and staff development and training. Layers of line management were stripped out of the
organisation. Store managers became fully responsible for recruitment and training. Shop
assistants were to be called ‘associates’ to emphasise team work and partnership. Training was to
become management driven within an integrated process of continuous staff development. The
decision to introduce the retailing NVQs was taken from the top and was seen as being central to
the company’s wider human resource and organisational strategy. Furthermore, NVQs were to be
the vehicle for the introduction of a performance-linked pay scheme, whilst providing a reliable
measure of competence based on national standards.

Section IV
NVQs fitted in with BHS’s philosophy of improving the performance, motivation and effectiveness
of front-line staff. Pay incentives were offered on successful completion of the NVQs. This meant
that BHS could now create a proper career structure to enable staff to progress within the
organisation, using the NVQ levels as staging posts. Staff would be trained and assessed on the job
by in-store line managers and store managers would act as internal verifiers and countersigning
officers.

Bonuses were offered to the stores in each region which achieved the best overall monthly figures.
This system soon caught on, as the most successful stores tended to be those most effectively
implementing the retailing NVQs.

City and Guilds was the chosen awarding body, supported by the National Retail Training Council
(NRTC), which has been involved from the start in developing the standards underpinning the
NVQs, in training assessors and verifiers, and in supporting promotional activities.

Section V
The scheme now feeds on its own success. Out of a workforce of 15,000, over 8,000 have been
registered for NVQs since 1990. At present some 5,000 staff are registered for levels 1 and 2.
Approximately 2,000 are qualified to level 1, and 500 to level 2. Many more will qualify soon, and
level 3 is now on offer. Although BHS has recently moved towards a more flexible part-time
system of working, replacing over 800 full-time jobs, staff who work more than 12 hours per week
are automatically entered for the NVQ scheme. In fact, all new staff are required to work towards
the NVQs, and eventually it is expected that all line and store managers will achieve NVQs at levels
3 and 4.
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Section VI
Staff retention has increased dramatically. Staff morale, staff competence and commercial
performance have improved significantly. BHS has bucked the trend in this recession and increased
its sales in 1992/3. The new career structure, underpinned by the retailing NVQs has enabled more
women to become store managers, reversing the pattern before 1990. BHS’s huge investment in
NVQs, staff development and customer service has paid substantial dividends for the company.
However, Kevin Heald, BHS Human Resource Director, says that ‘the most significant and
important factor for BHS staff is not just the additional remuneration they gain through NVQs, but
the recognition they gain as individuals in achieving a qualification which is based on nationally
recognised and approved standards. There is a sense of pride in this achievement which is reflected
in the high levels of staff morale and motivation now present in the company. There is a pay-off for
both company and staff’. Commitment from the top to NVQs is total, making BHS the biggest
single participant in the NVQ system in the retail industry. It is not only a market leader in retailing
– it also leads the way in showing how NVQs should be implemented and can work to the benefit of
both organisations and individuals alike.

Question 6

6 According to the information in the text, how would you describe the decision to restructure
BHS?
Afundamental
B peripheral
C superficial
Dvocational

Write the appropriate letter (A-D) in box 6 on your answer sheet.

Questions 7-12

For each of the phrases in questions 7-12 say how they reflect the information in the passage, by
writing:

S If it applies to staff.
SFS if it applies to shop-floor staff.
T if it applies to trainers.
M if it applies to managers.

Write your answers in boxes 7-12 on your answer sheet.

Example Answer
poor performance S
7 limited prospects
8 high turnover
9 ineffective procedures
10 no contribution to decisions
11 negative attitudes
12 lots of different levels

171
Questions 13-16

Read the following statements and say how they reflect the information in the passage, by writing:

T if it is true according to the passage.

F it is false according to the passage.
NG if the information is not clearly given in the passage.

Write your answers in boxes 13-16 on your answer sheet.

Example Answer

A new management team was F

temporarily appointed.

13 Countersigning officers are trained at City and Guilds.

14 New staff must register for NVQs.
15 More women were store managers before the restructuring.
16 Both the company and staff are paid for implementing NVQs.

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 Listening Test 16
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example Answer
Purpose placing an advertisement

 Laptop for Sale 

Condition Almost new
Weight 1 …………………..
Make Allegro
Memory 2 …………………..
Screen 3…………………..
Touch pad but with cordless mouse
Number of ports 4 …………………..
Latest programmes Not 5 …………………..
Extras
Web cam
Printer with 6 …………………..
Smart case
Price 7 …………………..
Contact details
Name: David 8 …………………..
E-mail address: [email protected]
Mobile number: 9 …………………..
Advert placed 10 …………………..

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 1’. Now check your answers.

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12
Complete the sentence below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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11. In the Club, there are nine ………………
12. The main purpose of the Open Day is to give a ……………… of the premises.
Questions 13-15
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Name Role
Sean Bond to supervise equipment
Margaret Lloyd to 13 ………………………………………..
James Todd to 14 ……………………………………….
Edward Marks to 15 ………………………………………..

Questions 16-18
Which floor contains which amenities?
Choose from A-F.
A storerooms
B therapy rooms
C offices
D study area
E cafeteria
F lecture theatre

16. Ground floor ……………..

17. First floor ……………..
18. Second floor ……………..

Questions 19 and 20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Programme Number Time of chat with trainers
Counseling 19 ………………………… Saturday 10 am
Yoga etc 9 20 ……………………….. pm

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 2’. Now check your answers.

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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 Joint Presentation
Self-evaluation Form
Title: The application of robotics in a non-industrial setting
Date: 21 …………………..
Insert your names and comments on the following aspects of the presentation.

Mark Anna Suggestions: Tutor

General worked well not thorough or no comment
impression 22 ………………..
enough
Hand-outs 23…………………… the best part reduce by
looking 24 ………………
Middle of power-point slides not in overestimated more practice with
presentation 25 ………………….. 26 ……………….. the equipment
Aims and very focused clearly no comment
objectives 27 ………………..
Delivery performance was difficult to coordinate need the
28 ……………….. speaking and presenting 29 ………………..
Score six 30 ………………..

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 3’. Now check your answers.

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
31. The local business people who had approached the Centre had all encountered
A. enormous problems. B. few problems. C. many obstacles.
32. The main focus of the Centre is now
A. large national companies.
B. technology companies.
C. business that have just started up.
33. Snapshot research was carried out
A. over the Internet. B. by telephone. C. by personal contact.
Questions 34 and 35
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
34. How much higher are local business rents compared to those nationally?
………………………………………
35. How many local business close a year after they have started working with the Centre?
………………………………………
Questions 36-40
Complete the table below.
175
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Size of business Companies Help being given
Start-ups O-foods improving the 36 ……………… turnaround
Innovations support to attract business partners and achieve
37 ………………
Small Sampson’s Ltd business 38 ………………
Vintage Scooter product monitoring scheme after sales customer service
Medium Build Ltd extension of 39 ………………
Jones Systems conflict management and 40 ………………

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 4’. Now check your answers to
Section 4 of the test.

176
 Speaking
16. Describe a product produced in India that you like.
You should say:
 What the product is.
 Where it is produced.
 What it is used for.
 If possible a brief history of its production.
Related questions:
 Do you think foreign goods are superior to Indian goods in terms of quality?
 Name an Indian product that is famous internationally.

Writing (General) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. Write a letter to your father

 Detailing the progress in your studies
 Request him to increase your monthly allowance citing reasons

2. As an international student in Sweden, you have an account with a local bank. The
monthly bank transfer you receive from your parents has been delayed this month due
to an error at your parents’ bank.
Write a letter to your bank. In your letter:
 Introduce yourself and ask for a loan
 Say why you need the money
 Tell how you intend to pay back the money

177
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graphs below show the type of music albums purchased by people in Britain
according to sex and age.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

2. The chart below shows information about changes in average house prices in five
different cities between 1990 and 2002 compared with the average house prices in 1989.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

178
179
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Should parents punish their children and to what extent is punishment important in a child’s
life? Give your opinion.
2. In western countries many people spend lot of money on their pets. They buy special food
for their cats and dogs; buy them toys and often pay high fees, for their medical treatment.
Some people think, this is a waste of money and argue that pets are dirty and dangerous.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a pet? Do people spend too much
money on pets? Give reasons for your answer.
3. There have been many technological developments in the 20th century e.g. in transport,
telecommunication and management. What technological development in your view has
been the most important?

180
 UNIT: 17
Reading Passage 17

Harmful Publications
Lack of culture, or rather an excess of the wrong sort of culture, is often considered to be
synonymous with disadvantage. Most commonly associated with low cultural standards are low
levels of reading, and some thirteen per cent of all twenty-three-year-olds feel they have trouble
with reading and writing. One way of compensating such disadvantaged young people is thought to
be to provide them with the culture they lack: in particular, high-quality reading material.

Comic tragedy?
Whereas forty to fifty per cent of young people aged sixteen to twenty rarely read a book, the
majority of young people appear to read comics. In 1991 sales of Viz. a UK comic, exceeded one
million copies per issue, making it the fourth best-selling periodical in Britain. The reading of
comics, however, is not restricted to young people: by 1992 it was estimated that two out of three
men aged eighteen to fifty-three read Viz. The number of imitators this comic has spawned,
including Zit, Gas, Brain Damage and Swiz, indicates the extent of the influence it wields.

The reading of comics was traditionally regarded by the educational establishment with
considerable suspicion. Whereas the received arts were always assumed to exert an improving or
civilising influence, comics were thought to ‘rot children’s brains’, to lower educational standards
and to threaten morality. They were, and are, assumed to be an inferior cultural form, their readers
assumed to come from the lower social classes, to be low educational attainers and to be easily led
astray.

Over the past decade, perceptions of comics have shifted. Since the 1970s, the comic format has
been commonly used to represent the interests of various disenfranchised groups – community
groups, the unemployed, welfare recipients – who became more conscious of a climate conditioned
by other contemporary movements such as civil rights, consumerism, self-help and de-
institutionalisation. As cultural signifiers, comics have become the subject matter of academic
courses in cultural and media studies. Indeed, young people’s cultural activities, grounded in the
commercial rather than the subsidised sector, are beginning to merit the attention of the arts
establishment.

Since the mid – 1980s the comics market itself has boomed: the number of specialist shops and
attendances at comics conventions has increased six-fold; the number of publishers and mainstream
bookshops stocking comics has expanded; collecting comics was reported to be the fastest growing
hobby, and, in the process, an adult readership has effectively ‘come out’.

A survey carried out for Crisis, a fortnightly comic, clearly contradicted the stereo-typical image of
a comics reader by revealing that two-thirds of its readers were aged sixteen to twenty-four, with the
remaining third over twenty-five. Furthermore, the comic’s readers were highly educated: over half
were studying full- or part-time; nearly three-quarters read a quality daily. The comic’s most
popular stories focused on serious issues to do with the Third World and Northern Ireland.

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Comics as education
The tone of educational comics has also changed. Twenty years ago it would have been considered
immoral to produce advisory comics for prisoners, offering health advice for potentially illegal
practices, not least because they would have appeared to condone the practices described. Yet
comics are now considered to be the most effective medium for such advice, not least because they
secure the interest of their target readership.

Certain British educationists, such as Margaret Meek, now advocate comics as educationally
beneficial. This is because they encourage children and young people to read and contribute
positively to the development of their fantasy play and to their acquisition of confidence and
assurance. Yet, 150 years since they were first published, comics remain subject to the old
prejudices, which maintain a particularly firm hold in schools.

Research is currently under way, in part prompted by curiosity as to why comics are still regarded
with such disdain by the teaching profession. It is suspected that when comics are used in the
classroom they are primarily given to children with learning difficulties, those learning English as a
second language and those with behavioural problems; conversely, they are not given to children
who have achieved higher educational standards. The research aims to establish to what extent
comics are used in statutory and non-statutory education, what they are used for and what their
potential might be. The resulting report focuses on the use of comics for and by disenfranchised
young people, particularly those who may be denied access to the whole statutory curriculum and
whose special educational needs are not adequately met.

Questions 1-5

The paragraph below is a summary of the first half of the reading passage. Complete the summary
by selecting three words from the reading passage to complete the spaces numbered 1-5. Write the
words in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

The first one has been done for you as an example.

Summary: Harmful publications

Example Answer

Low cultural standards are often

associated with disadvantage, levels of reading
such as low …

which is a difficulty experienced by many young adults. While around half of sixteen to twenty-
three year olds only rarely read books, most read comics. One …1… in Britain is a comic, with a
wide adult readership, and yet …2… still considers them to be an …3… appealing only to the lower
levels of society. Attitudes are beginning to change as …4… have adopted the format to present
their views. The study of certain aspects of comics even provides the content …5… while the arts
establishment is also turning its attention to youth culture.

Questions 6-11

6 How many examples of an increase in the comic market are given?

182
 A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6

Write the appropriate letter (A-D) in box 6 on your answer sheet.

7. A survey of readers conducted for one of the publications showed that:
A all readers of comics are at least sixteen years old
B most readers in the survey were highly educated
C most readers of comics also read quality newspapers
D readers of the most popular comics also read quality newspapers
Write the appropriate letter (A-D) in box 7 on your answer sheet.
8 According to the reading passage, comics have been proved to be the most effective way of
giving advice to prisoners.
Write:
A if you agree with the statement above
D if you disagree
In box 8 on your answer sheet.
9 According to the passage, schools agree with some educationists that comics are
educationally beneficial.
A if you agree with the statement above
D if you disagree with the statement above
In box 9 on your answer sheet.
10 Research is being conducted into aspects of the current use of comics in education. What
other aspect does the research aim to establish?
Write two words in box 10 on your answer sheet.
11 Broadly speaking, do you think the authors feel that comics have educational value or that
they should continue to be regarded with disdain?
Write either have value or disdain in box 11 on your answer sheet.

183
 Listening Test 17
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Question 1-4
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
Example
How many types of membership are there?
A Two
B Three
C One

1. How much is the life-time membership of the Society?

A. £1,535 B. £1,935 C. £1,537
2. How much does the ordinary membership cost per year?
A. £293 B. £396 C. £193
3. What are the opening times on week-days?
A. 9 am to 10 pm B. 10 am to 9 pm C. 10 am to 5 pm
4. What is the arts programme at the Society like?
A. limited B. wide C. interesting
Questions 5-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Name Margaret 5 ……………
Address 55 6 ……………
Postcode 7 ……………
Work number 0207 895 2220 Extension 8 ……………
Payment terms by 9 ……………
Guest restrictions one per 10 ……………

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 1’. Now check your answers.

Section 2 Question 11-20

Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters A-E.
What TWO changes to the organization of this year’s festival are mentioned?
A free parking
B free refreshments
C new uniforms
D free concert
E large tents
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Questions 13-15
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Teams Purpose Meeting point Time
Beach Team pick up liter Beach 13 ………….. 8 am
Town Team Arrange 14 ………….. Village Hall 15 ………….. am

Questions 16-20
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
16. What does the speaker say about the judges in the competitions?
A. Most people judging will have some experience.
B. None of the judges will have experience.
C. Every judge will be experienced.
17. The winner in each of the competitions will
A. be given vouchers.
B. be awarded a cash prize.
C. receive book-tokens.
18. The profits from the marathon will be given to the Children’s Hospital to help
A. buy new specialist equipment
B. decorate the hospital wards.
C. provide books for the children.
19. Warden will be needed at the car park because
A. they helped organize the parking well last year.
B. the parking last year was disorganized.
C. they will be needed to collect parking fees.
20. Bags will be provided by the council
A. for all the rubbish.
B. only for food rubbish.
C. only for material that can be recycled.

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 2’. Now check your answers.

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letters A, B, or C.
21. In the practice exams, the students did
A. two exams altogether.
B. seven exams in total.
C. eleven exams in total.
22. Adam thinks that essay papers are
A. inappropriate for assessing theoretical medical knowledge.
B. not good for assessing practical medical knowledge.
C. suitable for testing theoretical medical knowledge.
23. Mary criticizes multiple-choice questions, because
A. they require detailed instructions.
185
 B. they benefit women more than men.
C. they favour men rather than women.
Questions 24 and 25
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which two aspects of the role-play examination are mentioned?
A the rest stations
B 24 test stations
C the recording
D the examiners
E the simulated patients
Questions 26-30
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
In the problem-solving tests, students had to work in groups of four people and 26 ………. to solve
a problem. As they discussed the problem, 27 ………. watched them. As well as assessing the
ability to speak, the problem-solving tested if people can 28 …………, organize their thoughts and
demonstrate they can be part of a 29 …………. Re-sits of the final exams are held in September.
After that any problems are dealt with by 30 ………….

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 3’. Now check your answers.

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.
31. The Indian Ocean differs from the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
A. by being closed in to the north.
B. by being warmer than both.
C. by extending into cold regions.
32. Approximately how much of the world’s total ocean area does the Indian Ocean constitute?

33. The island of Madagascar is

A the tip of a submerged ridge.
B. the result of a volcanic eruption.
C. structurally part of the continent of Africa.
Questions 34 and 35
Complete the sentences below.
186
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
34. Oceanographers and meteorologists are monitoring changes in the Indian ocean’s
temperature and ………….. .
35. An assessment is being made of the impact of the changes on low-lying ………… and
...………..

Questions 36-40
Complete the flow-chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Data Processing
• Ship off Antarctica
• Buoys anchored at sea
• Five buoys off Antarctica which are 36 …………………… and icebergs
• Satellites recording the 37 …………………… of icebergs

38 …………………… data received at Institute

Constantly processed by a 39 …………………… of computers.

Data collated

Then analyzed by 40 …………………… around the world

Stop the recording when you hear ‘That is the end of Section 4’. Now check your answers.

187
 Speaking
17. Describe a sports event/family event that you enjoyed.
You should say:
 When and where that event happened.
 What was the event about?
 Who were the people involved.
 Why is that event so special for you?
Related questions:
 Do you think cricket is being promoted at the cost of other games?
 Should cricket be made the national game of India keeping in view its popularity
 What other games are you interested in?
 Do you think watching live telecast of a match on TV is same as watching it in the
stadium?
 Do you think we Indians spend a lot of money on marriages?
 What is the importance of ceremonies in our lives?
 What do you think is good, joint family or nuclear family?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. The holi festival is just a month away and undesirable elements are indulging in
indiscriminate felling of tender trees and branches for bonfire.
Write a letter to the authority stating.
 Reason to stop felling trees
 Consequence of such an action
 Substitute for bonfire

2. There have been several complaints about the reception area where visitors to your
company arrive. Your manager has asked you to suggest how the reception area could
be improved.
Write a letter to your manager, in the letter
 Describe the complaints that have been made
 Say why the reception area is important
 why the reception area is important
 Suggest how the reception area could be improved

188
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graphs below show the number of men and women in full and part-time
employment in Australia between 1973 and 1993.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

2. The pie charts below show units of electricity production by fuel sources in Australia
and France in 1980 and 2000.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

189
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. In many countries the problem of drug addiction is increasing. Government and general
public are particularly concerned about young people using illegal drugs such as ecstasy and
heroin. What method could be used to prevent young people from taking drugs? Is it
appropriate to send young drug users to prison?

2. Last year many famous pop and sports stars earned millions of dollars each. Many other
entertainment and sports personalities also have very high income. On the other hand most
people in ordinary professions like nursing, medicine and teaching earn only a small fraction
of the income of these stars. What do you think about stars receiving very high salaries? Is it
fair that people with jobs that directly help people should be paid much less?

3. People can no longer expect a job for life. What should individuals and organizations do to
prepare the current and future work environment of different jobs?

190
 UNIT: 18
Reading Passage 18

The Urban Revolution

The earth is witnessing an urban revolution, as people worldwide crowd into towns and cities. In
1800 only five per cent of the world’s population were urban dwellers; now the proportion has risen
to more than forty-five per cent, and by the year 2010 more people, will live in towns and cities than
in the countryside. Humanity will, for the first time, have become a predominantly urban species.
Though the world is getting more crowded by the day, absolute numbers of population are less
important than where people concentrate and whether these areas can cope with them. Even
densities, however, tell us nothing about the quality of the infrastructure – roads, housing and job
creation, for example – or the availability of crucial services.
The main question, then, is not how many people there are in a given area, but how well their needs
can be met. Density figures have to be set beside measurements of wealth and employment, the
quality of housing and the availability of education, medical care, clean water, sanitation and other
vital services. The urban revolution is taking place mainly in the Third World, where it is hardest to
accommodate.
The move to towns
Between 1950 and 1985 the number of city dwellers grew more than twice as fast in the Third
World as in industrialised countries. During this period, the urban population of the developed
world increased from 477 million to 838 million, less than double; but it quadrupled in developing
countries, from 286 million to 1.14 billion. Africa’s urban population is racing along at five per cent
a year on average, doubling city numbers every fourteen years. By the turn of the century, three in
every four Latin Americans will live in urban areas, as will two in every five Asians and one in
every three Africans. Developing countries will have to increase their urban facilities by two thirds
by then, if they are to maintain even their present inadequate levels of services and housing.
The urban challenge
In 1940 only one out of every hundred of the world’s people lived in a really big city, one with a
population of over a million. By 1980 this proportion had already risen to one in ten. Two of the
world’s biggest cities, Mexico and São Paulo, are already bursting at the seams – and their
populations are doubling in less than twenty years.
About a third of the people of the Third World’s cities now live in desperately overcrowded slums
and squatter settlements. Many are unemployed, uneducated, undernourished and chronically sick.
Tens of millions of new people arrive every year, flocking in from the countryside in what is the
greatest mass migration in history.
Pushed out of the countryside by rural poverty and drawn to the cities in the hope of a better life,
they find no houses waiting for them, no water supplies, no sewerage, no schools. They throw up
makeshift hovels, built of whatever they can find: sticks, fronds, cardboard, tar-paper, straw, petrol
tins and, if they are lucky, corrugated iron. They have to take the land no-one else wants; land that
is too wet, too dry, too steep or too polluted for normal habitation.
Yet all over the world the inhabitants of these apparently hopeless slums show extraordinary
enterprise in improving their lives. While many settlements remain stuck in apathy, many others are

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gradually improved through the vigour and co-operation of their people, who turn flimsy shacks
into solid buildings, build schools, lay out streets and put in electricity and water supplies.
Governments can help by giving the squatters the right to the land that they have usually occupied
illegally, giving them the incentive to improve their homes and neighbourhoods. The most
important way to ameliorate the effects of the Third World’s exploding cities, however, is to slow
down migration. This involves correcting the bias most governments show towards cities and towns
and against the countryside. With few sources of hard currency, though, many governments in
developing countries continue to concentrate their limited development efforts in cities and towns,
rather than rural areas, where many of the most destitute live. As a result, food production falls as
the countryside slides ever deeper into depression.
The demanding city
Since the process of urbanisation concentrates people, the demand for basic necessities, like food,
energy, drinking water and shelter, is also increased, which can exact a heavy toll on the
surrounding countryside. High-quality agricultural land is shrinking in many regions, taken out of
production because of over-use and mismanagement. Creeping urbanisation could aggravate this
situation, further constricting economic development.
The most effective way of tackling poverty, and of stemming urbanisation, is to reverse national
priorities in many countries, concentrating more resources in rural areas where most poor people
still live. This would boost food production and help to build national economies more securely.
Ultimately, though, the choice of priorities comes down to a question of power. The people of the
countryside are powerless besides those of the towns; the destitute of the countryside may starve in
their scattered millions, whereas the poor concentrated in urban slums pose a constant threat of
disorder. In all but a few developing countries the bias towards the cities will therefore continue, as
will the migrations that are swelling their numbers beyond control.
Question 1
1. What do you think is the purpose of the reading passage?
A to warn about the dangers of revolutions in towns
B to warn about the possibility of a population explosion
C to suggest governments should change their priorities
D to suggest governments invest in more housing in cities
Write the appropriate letter (A-D) in box 1 on your answer sheet.
Questions 2-7
In each of questions 2-7 below, choose which of the answers best completes the sentence according
to the information in the passage. For each question, write the appropriate letter (A-D) in boxes 2-7
on your answer sheet.
2. The urban population of the world …
A has risen to around forty per cent in the last 200 years.
B will have risen to more than fifty per cent by the year 2010.
C has risen by forty-five per cent since 1800.
D will live in cities for the first time.
3. The most important factor is …
A the quality of the infrastructure and services.
B where people are concentrated.
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 C wealth and employment.
D density figures and measurements.
4. The fastest growth in the rate of urbanisation is in …
A Africa
B developing countries
C Latin America
D Asia
5. A third of the people in Third World cities …
A live in Mexico and São Paulo.
B are undernourished and ill.
C live in inadequate housing.
D arrived last year.
6. Many Third World city dwellers …
A start their own business enterprises.
B create their own infrastructure and services.
C sleep in the streets.
D form people’s co-operatives.
7. Governments …
A give incentives to improve the slums.
B give land to squatters.
C give preference to urban areas.
D give hard currency to cities and towns.
Questions 8-13
Complete the following summary by writing up to three words mainly from the text to complete
spaces 8-13. Write the words in boxes 8-13 of your answer sheet.

The first one has been done for you an example.

Summary: The urban revolution
Example Answer
Increasing numbers of people have
migrated from the countryside last two centuries.
and moved into towns and cities
over the …

Most are in the Third World, where they are …8… accommodate because facilities are at their most
inadequate and meagre resources are most stretched. In spite of dreadful living conditions, the vast
numbers of people moving into cities constitute the biggest … 9 … ever. While governments can
take action to improve the conditions of squatters, the real solution is to … 10 … the process of
urbanisation. But to do this governments need to change the ways in which they … 11 … their
development funds on the urban areas. If their priorities were … 12 … rural productivity could be
increased and this would help develop the national economy. In the end, however, the rural
population also lack the … 13 … that their urban countrymen can exert on governments.

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 Listening Test 18
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Easylet Accommodation Agency

Cheapest properties: £ 1 ……………… per week
Minimum period of contract: 2 ………………
Office open Saturday until 3 ………………
List of properties available on 4 ………………

Questions 5-7
Choose THREE letters A-G.
Which THREE things are included for free with every property from Easylet?
5. ………………
6. ………………
7. ………………

A heating bills
B kitchen equipment
C plates and glasses
D sheets and towels
E telephone
F television
G water bill

Questions 8-10
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 8-10
Where are the following blocks of flats situated?

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 From train station

8. Eastern Towers ………………

9. Granby Mansions ………………
10. Busby Garden ………………

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12
For each question, choose TWO letters A-E.
11. Which TWO activities for school groups need to be booked one week in advance?
A. drama workshops
B. garden sculpture experience
C. painting demonstrations
D. tours for the blind
E. video making
12. Which TWO facilities are closed in winter?
A. adventure playground B. artists’ studio C. café
D. mini zoo E. shop

Questions 13-17
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

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 HOLLYLANDS MUSEUM & EDUCATION CENTRE

EXHIBITION STARTING DATE POINTS TO REMEMBER

History in Pictures 13 ………………. opportunity to go on an old bus
14 ………………. 19th September visitors can use 15 ……………
service
16 ………………. 11th November competition – prize 17 …………
for 2 people

Questions 18-20
Label the plan below.
Choose three answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 18-20.
Museum
↑ A bicycle parking
20 …
B drinks machine
C first aid room
19 … Picnic area 18 … D manager’s office
E telephone
F ticket office
G toilets
Car park

↑
Entrance from road
18. ……………………..
19. ……………………..
20. ……………………..

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21. Before giving her presentation, Kate was worried about
A. being asked difficult questions.
B. using the projection equipment.
C. explaining statistical results.
22. During many presentations by students, Martin feels that
A. the discussion of research methods is not detailed enough.
B. lecturers do not show enough interest in their students’ work.
C. the student does not make enough eye contact with the audience.
23. What is Kate’s opinion of the tutorials she attends?
A. They involve too much preparation.
B. They should be held more frequently.
C. They do not have a clear focus.
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24. What does Martin intend to do next semester?
A. make better use of the internet
B. improve his note-taking skills
C. prioritise reading lists effectively
25. What problem do Kate and Martin both have when using the library?
A. The opening hours are too short.
B. There are too few desks to work at.
C. The catalogue is difficult to use.

Questions 26-30
Who will do the following tasks?
A. Martin
B. Kate
C. Both Martin and Kate
Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 26-30
26. compose questionnaire ……………..
27. select people to interview ……………..
28. conduct interviews ……………..
29. analyze statistics ……………..
30. prepare visuals for presentation ……………..

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
31. Where was a Stone Age rubbish dump found?
………………………………………………………………………..
32. In Medieval times, what type of waste was most common?
………………………………………………………………………..
33. What did science link with waste?
………………………………………………………………………..
34. Which invention is the biggest problem for the environment?

Questions 35-37
List THREE factors which led to the increase in waste.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
35. ………………………………………………………………………..
36. ………………………………………………………………………..
37. ………………………………………………………………………..

Questions 38-40
Which country uses the highest proportion of each method of waste disposal?
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 38-40.

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 A Denmark
B Germany
C Japan
D Switzerland
E UK
F USA

38. incineration: ………………..

39. landfill: ………………..
40. recycling: ………………..

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 Speaking
18. Describe a historical place/monument that you have visited?
You should say:
 Name of the monument/place.
 Where is it located?
 What is special about it?
 Why you liked it.
 A brief history of the place/monument.
Related questions:
 Do you think old monuments should be destroyed and new buildings should be built
in their place?
 What is the importance of historical monuments and places?
 Don’t you think we are indifferent when it comes to protecting and conserving our
monuments?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….
1. Your tenant who lives on the second floor has a habit of playing a musical instrument
loudly at night, which disturbs you especially during the examination days.
Write a Complain letter to tenant, in the letter
 Describe your problem / describe your situation
 Suggest him to what steps he could take to solve the problem

2. You have seen an advertisement in an English newspaper for a job working in the City
Museum shop during the holidays. You decide to apply for the job.
Write a letter to the director of the Museum. In your letter,
 Introduce yourself
 Explain what experience and special skills you have
 Explain why you are interested in the job

199
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

1. The diagram below shows how the water cycle works.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown.
You should write at least 150 words.

• Read some descriptions aloud in class and discuss them.

2. The two maps below show an island, before and after the construction of some tourist
facilities.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

200
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. What difficulties will your country face in the next 10 years? How can these problems be
overcome?
2. Every country has poor people and every country has difficult ways of dealing with the
poor. What are some of the reasons for world poverty? What can we do to help the poor?
3. Men do most high-level jobs. Should the government encourage a certain percentage of
these jobs to be reserved for women?

201
 UNIT: 19
Reading Passage 19

Industrialisation and Development

During the 1980s development stagnated, and often regressed, in much of the Third World. A third
of the entire population of the world lives in countries which experienced either zero growth or
actual decline in the decade. More than forty Third World countries left the 1980s with lower per
capita incomes than when they entered them and most fell even lower in 1990 and 1991.
The prices of the raw materials which poor countries sell to survive fell to record low levels, while
the cost of manufactured goods that they import continued to rise. They became shackled with
ever-increasing debts, paying about a quarter of their earnings to service them. Aid stagnated and
bank lending to developing nations fell by almost two-thirds.
With falling commodity prices and the rising cost of manufactured goods, and an inability to
industrialise, most developing countries are unable to pay off what they owe. Even increasing their
commodity exports does not necessarily help. Sudan tripled its cotton exports between 1981 and
1983 but its revenue increased only marginally due to falling prices. Indeed, raising production
helps to drive prices down, it can also do grave environmental damage by using the best land to
grow cash crops and by increasing indiscriminate logging of tropical rainforests.
Third World exports
The economic pattern developed in the nineteenth century is still in operation: Third World
countries overwhelmingly produce raw materials for export to richer countries. Third World
economies depend on commodity prices: more than half rely on just one or two crops or minerals
for over half of their foreign exchange. As the 1980s began, for example, Sudan’s export earnings
were sixty-five per cent dependent on cotton. Mauritius’s sixty-eight per cent on sugar and
Burundi’s ninety-three per cent dependent on coffee. By 1987, the prices of thirty-three
commodities monitored by the World Bank (excluding oil) stood at about half the 1960 level,
falling by about forty per cent in the 1980s alone.
Falling demand: falling prices
Prices, largely determined by demand in the industrial world, have been kept low since the mid-
1970s by recession and slow growth. Most agricultural commodities are produced by dozens of
developing countries – sixty-two grow coffee – who compete for this same sluggish demand. If
prices rise, rich countries can cut consumption, as many of the commodities, like bananas and
coffee, are luxury items. Many more are being replaced by substitutes developed in wealthy
countries: optical fibres are replacing copper wire in telecommunications, causing havoc for Zaire
and Zimbabwe, while sugar substitutes in soft drinks have cut demand for sugar cane by around a
quarter. These trends will continue, advances in biotechnology bringing a whole range of new
substitutes, and there is little chance of prices recovering in the foreseeable future.
Industrialisation
The Third World accounts for only 14.2 per cent of the world’s industry and 60 per cent of this is in
just nine countries, mainly in Asia and Latin America; least developed countries share just 0.21 per
cent of world industry between them. If more developing countries industrialised they could earn
more from their commodities by processing them and turning them into finished products, cutting
their import bills at the same time. Unfortunately they face formidable obstacles. Most countries
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lack large home markets and have to sell as much as possible to the industrialised world – and
indeed need to earn scarce foreign exchange. Even if there were a free market for their goods,
however, it would not be easy to penetrate. Whilst they have the advantage of cheap labour and
locally available raw materials, they have to face well-established rivals with markets and
connections already set up, the best technology and science to hand, long production runs and mass
production techniques.
Tariffs and barriers
Poor exporters generally have to overcome a series of tariffs and other barriers before they reach the
well-protected markets of the technologically advanced rich. Generally speaking, semi-
manufactured goods face tariffs which are double those for raw materials and finished goods are
penalised twice as highly again. Non-tariff barriers, such as quotas, are even stricter. Together they
are biased against developing countries: cloth imported into the European Community from poor
countries faces tariffs four times as high as those imposed on other rich nations. The World Bank
estimates that such trade barriers cost Third World countries between $ 50 and $ 100 billion a year.
Vulnerable industries are often concentrated in politically sensitive areas. Rather than embark on
diversification and retraining programmes, governments find it easier to increase protection.
Despite several international agreements designed to make access easier for Third World products,
twenty of the world’s twenty-four industrialised countries were more protectionist in 1992 than a
decade before.
Stagnant aid
The United Nations Development Programme estimated in 1992 that the bias of the world’s
economy against developing countries costs them $ 500 billion a year, nearly ten times the amount
they receive in aid. The UN target of 0.7 per cent of GNP in aid from richer countries is exceeded
only by Norway, the Netherlands, Denmark and Sweden; the UK, Switzerland and the USA are
among those that do not meet half this figure.
Questions 1-5
The passage gives several examples of changes which affected Third World development during the
1980s. Complete the table by selecting one item from the list of items (A-L) which affect
development to fill each of the boxes (1-5), showing where there was an increase, no change or
decrease.
increased

1 2

Example Answer

3 ?
zero K

4 5

decreased
203
 Write the appropriate letter (A-L) in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

List of items
A manufacturing
B price of manufactured goods
C per capita income
D raw material production
E import/export
F aid
G industrialisation
H price of commodities
I debt
J the best land
K growth
L bank lending

Questions 6-15
The paragraph below is a summary of the passage. Complete the summary by choosing up to three
words from the passage to fill the spaces numbered 6-15. Write the words in boxes 6-15 on your
answer sheet.

The first one has been done for you as an example.

Summary: Industrialisation and development
Example Answer

A third of the world lives in

countries which experienced … zero growth
or decline in the 1980s.

Whilst the cost of … 6 … and debts rose, … 7 … and bank lending, raw material prices and per
capita incomes all fell. Unable to industrialise, Third World countries have become trapped by their
dependence on … 8 … only to earn much of their … 9 … Affected by … 10 … and slow growth in
the industrialised world, prices fell by almost half during the decade and are likely to remain low as
a … 11 … synthetic substitutes further reduce demand. Ideally, developing countries … 12 … by
processing their own commodities, simultaneously cutting the cost of imports. Unfortunately, they
have very small … 13 … and need the foreign exchange. It is not a free market internationally,
however, as Third World countries lack their own trading connections and only have access to
outdated technology and techniques. They are further penalised by restrictive tariffs and … 14 …,
estimated to have cost them up to $ 100 billion a year. Despite agreements to encourage freer
access for … 15 …, protectionism in industrialised nations actually increased over the period.

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 Listening Test 19
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

COMPLAINT RECORD FORM

Holiday booked in name of: 1 First name ……………….. Last name ………………..
Address: Flat 4
2 ………………..
Winchester SO2 4ER
Daytime telephone number: 3 ………………..
Booking reference: 4 ………………..
Special offer? Yes, from 5 ……………….. Company
Insurance? Yes, had 6 ……………….. Policy
Type of holiday booked: 7 ……………….. Break
Date holiday commenced: 8 ………………..
Details of complaint: ♦ no 9 ……………….. at station
♦ a 10 ……………….. was missing

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15
Choose the table below.
Choose your answers from the box and write the appropriate letters A-H next to questions 11-15.
A. driving
B. flexible working week
C. free meals
D. heavy lifting
E. late shifts
F. training certificate
G. travel allowance
H. website maintenance

205
 TEMPORARY HOTEL JOBS
JOB EMPLOYER NOTES
Reception Assistant Park Hotel • 11 ……
• foreign languages
• 12 ……
General Assistant Avenue Hotel • low pay
• 13 ……
• 14 ……
Catering Assistant Hotel 56 • free uniform
• 15 ……
• outside city

Questions 16-20
Complete the flow chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

RECRUITMENT PROCESS

Step 1
Complete a 16 …………… form

Step 2
Do a 17 …………… questionnaire

↓
Step 3
If accepted go on a 18 …………… course
- includes 19 …………… activities

↓
Step 4
Will be sent a 20 …………… about the hotel

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26
Complete the sentences below.

206
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
21. David feels that progress on the project has been slow because other members of the group
are not …………………………………….
22. Jane thinks that ………………………….. were not clearly established.
23. Dr. Wilson suggests that the group use the ……………………………… available from the
Resource Centre.
24. David doubts that the research will include an adequate ………………………………….
25. According to Dr. Wilson, the ……………………………… is now the most important thing
to focus on.
26. Jane believes the group could make more use of some …………………………….

Questions 27-30
Complete the timetable below.
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 27-30.

A Compare photographs at newspaper offices.

B Interview a local historian.
C Listen to tapes in the City Library.
D Study records of shop ownership.
E Take photographs of the castle area.
F Talk to the archivist at the City Library.
G Tour city centre using copies of old maps.
H Visit exhibition at the University Library.

MON – WED: FIELD TRIP TO CAMBRIDGE

Mon 22nd am arrive at hotel
pm 27 ………..

Tue 23rd am 28 ………..

pm free time

Wed 24th am 29 ………..

pm 30 ………..

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

207
 THE LONDON EYE
The architects who designed the London Eye originally drew it for a 31 ……….. in
1993. Subsequently, they formed a partnership with 32 ……….. to develop the
project. As the biggest observation wheel built, its construction involved 1.700
people in five countries. Most of its components had to be 33 ………. and
delivering them had to be coordinated with the 34 ………… in the River Thames.
On average, 350 hours a week are spent on maintenance of the Eye, and only 35
…….. is used to clean the glass.

Questions 36-40
Label the diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

passenger capsule
rim
spindle
39 mounting ………
38 ………

plinth

40 ………
37 ………

36 ……… piles

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 Speaking
19. Describe your first day in school/college.
You should say:
 What did you wear on that day?
 What did you do before that day?
 What were your feelings?
 What you did on the first day.
 How was the experience? Pleasant/unpleasant.
 Who were the friends you made.
 Whether you were ragged?
 Describe your school or college in short (esp. infrastructure).
Related questions:
 Do you think that college/school days are the best part of ones life?
 Should ragging be banned in colleges?
 Should there be a dress code in colleges?
 Do you think what we learn in colleges may be useful for us in later life (with
regards to subjects)
 How does a school/college mould you as a person?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. Write a letter to a prominent citizen, in the letter

 Requesting his help in raising funds for a cause
 You intend to achieve and narrate
 How it will help the beneficiaries

2. You cannot go to a company where you got an offer.

Write a letter to the HR supervisor, in the letter
 Explain the reason why you decline the offer
 Express your gratitude
 Explain you like your current job very much

209
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graph and pie chart below give information on in house training courses in a large
financial company.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.

2. The charts below show the percentage of water used for different purposes in six areas
of the world.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

210
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Does the media treat famous people unfairly? Should they be given more privacy? Or is it
the price of their fame, invasion into their private lives.
2. Should developing countries concentrate on improving industrial base or should they
promote education first?
3. Does modern technology make life more convenient or was life better when technology was
simple?

211
 UNIT: 20
Reading Passage 20

Handling the High Flyers

A senior director describes his responsibilities in the Industrial Society’s study Leaders: The
learning curve of achievement: ‘I am paid primarily to think, secondly to lead and direct, and lastly,
to manage’. This could serve as a description of what is expected of senior managers. So how can
the up-and-coming prepare themselves for this role? Here we look at how senior managers can be
prepared for their responsibilities through training. The ingredients needed for successful senior
management can be divided, for the sake of argument, into intellectual knowledge and personal
qualities.
On the first count, let us assume that our aspiring manager is thoroughly numerate and possessed of
a reasonable grasp of economic affairs, since this remains a fundamental basis for any senior
managerial role. We will also assume that he or she has received, and absorbed, a fair amount of
management training already, in such matters as time management, marketing, team building and
people management – a fairly reasonable expectation today when the trend towards management
education is gathering force in the UK. Finally, let us assume that the aspiring manager also has a
sound technical knowledge, which is certainly not a far-fetched proposition, since promotion to
senior management on the board often follows a strong performance in a specialist area. Moreover,
while some skills, such as marketing, people management and finance are readily transferable,
investment decisions in many cases would presumably, demand a genuine technical understanding
from those on the board. Often, too, senior managers need an understanding of technicalities to win
the respect of professionals and technical staff – indeed, to communicate with them at a serious
level.
It is the ability to move from being a specialist to a generalist that is all important for a manager
wanting to assume a more senior role. Patricia Marshall of Hay/McBer management consultancy
calls this transition the ‘paradigm shift’. One problem that recurs, says Andrew Forrest of the
Industrial Society, is that people join the board with experience of only one function, such as
finance or marketing, when what is needed, intellectually speaking, is vision, maturity, and the
ability to think laterally and logically beyond specialist confines.
Just as important is the need to think internationally – if not globally, then certainly in European
terms. In addition, senior managers need to have a firm grasp of strategy in order to make
fundamental long-term choices which will shape the course of a business – such as the choice of
markets or whether or not to demerge a business.
This broader, more self-critical and strategic outlook can be cultivated in a number of ways. Forrest
believes it is vital that managers assuming director-level responsibilities get outside their own
organisation – go abroad, go to business school, talk to the City, the media, customers – so that they
learn to see their company from the outside.
Non-executive directorships can be a route to directorial enlightenment. One of the best ways of
learning to be a good executive director is to be the non-executive director of another company.
Directors have to stand back and view themselves and where they are taking their business, which is
enormously difficult because people, on the whole, are not self-critical and tend to become
defensive. As a non-executive director of another company, one can see in others what one’s own
colleagues will be looking for in oneself. As a result, quite a number of company chairmen now
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instruct their executive directors to take on non-executive directorships; everyone benefits from the
experience.

The business schools, of course, provide a variety of short management courses aimed at improving
managers’ perception. One particularly effective one is the intensive three-week senior manager
programme (SMP) at Cranfield School of Management. It has been specifically devised to get its
students to think and act as ‘strategists, leaders, and global managers’. Some 100 high-flying
managers from around the world attend the course every year. Programme director and lecturer
David Butcher says that the priorities of the course are in line with the best management thinking
and theory of today. The current emphasis on leadership, for example, corresponds with the need
for greater individual contributions from all levels of today’s corporations. This is due to the
fashion for less hierarchical structures.
Cranfield, like most business schools runs both public programmes (such as the SMP) and courses
tailored to specific companies. Each has its advantages. Managers attending the latter will be
working towards the same goals, so they will explore business issues in greater depth, and people
can also be developed in relationship with each other. On the other hand, the advantage of the
public SMP, says Butcher, is the scope for individual attention and development (this would be less
practical for managers working within the same company). It also gives trainees insights into other
organisations and opportunity to build up an international network.
Most forward-thinking companies groom their brightest and best senior management through a
blend of management training courses, both public and tailor-made, and carefully-plotted job
appointments and secondments. Indeed, provided the company is sufficiently international in scope
and diverse in character, secondments abroad are invaluable.
The Industrial Society offers smaller organisations short (one-week) attachments within
organisations. Outside managers are seconded to other companies that can help them solve a real
problem. For instance, a civil servant was sent to the Chester Chronicle and was able to design a
newspaper on youth employment when he returned to work. The Industrial Society has arranged
over 1,400 such attachments. Forrest believes this is an excellent way of learning.
So far, it is mainly the intellectual aspects of management development that have been explored.
But the ‘paradigm shift’ necessary for a manager to become a director also involves developing
personal skills and ways of handling people. Marshall at Hay/McBer claims that the move from
functional head to director status involves thinking about how best to co-operate with one’s peers,
rather than simply directing subordinates, and influencing other people without giving direct orders.
At the GHN consultancy, which specialises in mentoring (the training term for coaching) for senior
managers, corporate relations director Susan Bloch says that the modern manager needs to learn to
balance skills, acting at times as project manager, at times as team member. There are some
situations which require authoritative behaviour, others which need a more consultative approach.
She stresses that communication at all levels (from the way you talk to the way you dress) is all-
important. She also believes that high flyers need to think about politics and internal networking.
Personal coaching (or mentoring) is an effective way of building up these – and other – personal
skills. Indeed, Forrest at the Industrial Society recommends that all companies consider setting up a
mentoring scheme, although he stresses that the art of mentoring is a subtle one. Sheila Forbes at
Reed Elsevier sees a further role for it in the development of such qualities as the courage to take
risks and the ability to cope with uncertainty.

213
Questions 1-4

Write a maximum of two words for each answer in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

Questions 1 and 2
What are the two main requirements for successful senior management?

Questions 3 and 4
As well as being good at figures and having an extensive management education, what two other
areas of competence should a potential senior manager have?

Questions 5-6

Read the following statements and say how they reflect the information in the passage, by writing:

T if it accurately reflects the information given

F if it does not reflect the information in the passage
NG if the information is not clearly given in the passage.

Write your answers in boxes 5-6 on your answer sheet.

5 Successful managers must broaden their range of abilities rather than developing their
specialised skills.

6. Many companies now insist that managers take on a non-executive directorship before they
can become executive directors.

Questions 7-11

In questions 7-11, choose which of the endings (A-J) in the list below best completes the sentence
according to the information in the passage.

Write the appropriate letter in boxes 7-11 on your answer sheet.

List of endings
A up-to-date management ideas
B interpersonal relationships
C international networks
D international secondments
E strategic, internationally-oriented thinking
F tackle genuine problems
G individual contributions
H effective strategies
I design newspapers
J training and appropriate experience.
7 One short management course aims to develop …
8 The course reflects …
9 Cranfield’s private course allows for greater concentration on …
214
10 Most senior managers are selected and prepared for their positions by means of…
11 Secondments allow managers to experience other organisations and …

Questions 12-15
In the passage different experts claim that different qualities and skills are important for successful
management at director level. Match the qualities below with the name of the relevant expert.

Write A, B or C in boxes 12-15 on your answer sheet.

A Susan Bloch
B Sheila Forbes
C Patricia Marshall

12 working with and influencing other people

13 dealing with insecurity and risk-taking
14 balancing skills
15 using all channels of communication

215
 Listening Test 20
Section 1
Questions 1-10
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
1. How many members does the cycling club have currently?
………………………………………………………………..
2. How much does Youth Membership cost?
………………………………………………………………..
3. From whom must you get a signature when applying to join?
………………………………………………………………..
4. How long does it take to process a membership application?
………………………………………………………………..
5. How often do family rides take place?
………………………………………………………………..
6. How long are the Saturday rides usually?
………………………………………………………………..
7. What must you get for your bike?
………………………………………………………………..
8. When is the next camping tour?
………………………………………………………………..
9. What is happening on May 5th?
………………………………………………………………..
10. How much discount do members get at Wheels Bike Shop?
………………………………………………………………..

Section 2
Questions 11-20
Complete the timetable below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PARK ARTS CENTRE

DATES TIMES EVENT NOTES

Can get
18-24 Feb 11 ….. and …… Folk music concert
12 ……… in shop
Groups from
1-8 March See the 13 ……. Annual 14 ………
15 ………..
Talk by the
16 ……….. 8 pm Film: 17 ………
18 ……….
It will be
2 April To be confirmed 19 ………… 20 ………

216
Section 3 Questions 21-30
Questions 21-25
What opinion is expressed about each dissertation?
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-I next to questions 21-25.
A It has an inadequate index.
B It contains unusual illustrations.
C It is too detailed in places.
D It presents clear arguments.
E It contains diagrams which are not clear.
F It omits important historical facts.
G It is poorly translated.
H It contains useful background information.
I It is not suitable for new students.

21. Twentieth Century Architecture …………….

22. Modern Construction …………….
23. Steel, Glass and Concrete …………….
24. The Space We Make …………….
25. Change and Tradition …………….
Questions 26-30
Complete the flow chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
BEN’S PROGRAMME

Step 1
Look at drawings of 26 ………………………….

Step 2
Get images of 27 ……………………… from internet

Step 3
Find books about 28 ……………………… of the period

Step 4
Show 29 ……………………… to Dr. Forbes

Step 5
Ask Dr. Gray for more 30 ………………………

217
Section 4 Questions 31-40
Complete the sentence below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
31. Rival cameras were claimed to ……………………… less than the Cinematographe.
32. In Russia, on one occasion, the Cinematographe was suspected of being a ……………….
33. Early filming in Russia led to the creation of a new approach to ……………………….
34. One problem for historians is not knowing whether early equipment ………………………
as it was claimed.
35. Marey encountered difficulties achieving the …………………… of strips of photographic
paper.
36. The ……………………… of the comic strip influenced the way films were planned.
37. Documentaries used ……………………… shots before fiction films did.
38. The popularity of ……………………… films led to increased numbers of shots.
39. When filming ………………………, the screen might be divided.
40. As films became more complex, ……………………… became an important part of film-
making.

218
 Speaking
20. Describe an elder person whom you met and who influenced you a lot.
You should say:
 Who that person is.
 Where you met him.
 What is he doing?
 What you liked the best about him.
 How did he influence you?
Related questions:
 Do you think there is wide generation gap between the older generation and younger
generation?
 Do you think nowadays old people are not taken care of by their children?
 Should there be old age homes for the elderly?
 Do you have grandparents? How is your relation with them?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have sent a parcel to your sister who lives in Agra. However, the parcel and its
contents were damaged when delivered to your sister.
Write a letter to the Post Master, in the letter
 Complain about the damaged parcel
 Claiming value of the same

2. You would like to buy some electrical goods at a shop in a nearby town.
Write a letter to the shop, in the letter
 Ask if they have the things you want
 Whether they will be able to order them.
 Ask what the prices are and how long they will be able to hold the goods for you

219
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The table below summaries some data collected by a college bookshop for the month of
February 2000.
Write a report describing the sales figures of various types of publications, based on the
information shown in the table.
Non-Book Club Members Book Club Total
Members
College staff College Students Members of Public
Fiction 44 31 - 76 151
Non-fiction 29 194 122 942 1287
Magazines 332 1249 82 33 1696
Total 405 1474 204 1051 3134

2. The charts below show the proportions of British students at one university in England who
were able to speak other languages in addition to English, in 2000 and 2010.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

220
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Does travel help to promote understanding and communication between countries?

2. Should sports classes be sacrificed in high school so students can concentrate on academic
subjects?
3. Will modern technology such as the Internet ever replace book or the written word as the
main source of information?

221
 UNIT: 21
Reading Passage 21
Problems with Contaminated Land in the UK
‘The polluter pays’ principle
Those with an interest in land which is contaminated with noxious substances, or has been put to a
use which makes it liable to be so contaminated, are growing increasingly concerned that the land
may carry with it liabilities for clean-up costs or compensation to third parties. The UK has
followed the EC in endorsing the general principle that ‘the polluter pays.’ However, this principle
extends not just to those who are primarily responsible for causing any contamination, and the
resulting damage to the environment, but also to others who merely have an interest in the land in
question.
Who is potentially liable?
Anyone causing or permitting pollution is clearly at risk, and this may involve both criminal and
civil liability. In the case of criminal offences by a corporate body, certain individuals could be
personally liable for offences for which they are responsible.
Where the ‘owner’ is made liable for clean-up costs, it is not clear precisely who is covered by this.
In the Environmental Protection Act 1990, for example, there is no definition of ‘owner’ and it
appears to have been the Government’s intention that this should be the party with the most
immediately relevant interest. However, if that party is not in a position to meet financial
obligations, then one can expect that others may be the subject of claims. This may extend to
mortgages, especially where a lender enforces its security by taking possession of land, and possibly
also in other circumstances where it exercises a degree of control. Lending institutions are currently
looking anxiously in the direction of Brussels to see the extent to which lenders are going to be able
to avoid being caught for liabilities greater than the value of their security.
The impact on land transactions
Buying and selling land
The principle of caveat emptor still applies in UK land transactions and the seller is not obliged to
disclose the existence of contamination. However, the seller will be in a stronger position if he has
good information as to the state of the premises. Thus a seller may carry out his own environmental
audit of the site and will usually find it advantageous to disclose the resulting information to a
prospective purchaser. In certain cases the seller may obtain an indemnity from the purchaser
where premises are sold subject to declared defects or outstanding environmental problems. The
purchaser for his part will be seeking the best possible information, preferably backed with
warranties from the seller and, if possible, coupled with an indemnity from the seller.
Lending
The lender’s concerns are similar to those of the purchaser. Where there is the possibility of
contamination, the preliminary investigations must be sufficient to enable a lender to make a
reasonable assessment of risks. The loan documentation should include appropriate warranties,
covenants and events of default. Care also needs to be taken in enforcing security so that action is
not taken by the lender which could open the door to environmental liabilities.
Leasing

222
When granting a lease of land, an owner will need to be careful not only to avoid exposure to
liability during the term of the lease but, even more, to prevent the situation arising whereby he
inherits a liability on the termination of the lease. Thus, it would be prudent for the landlord to
control more closely the use to which the premises are put, as well as including expressed covenants
on the part of the tenant not to cause pollution.
Questions 1-10
Read the following statements and indicate how they reflect the information in the reading passage,
by writing.

T if the statement is true

F if it is false
NC if it is not clear from the passage.
Write your answers in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

Example Answer
Britain has persuaded the EC to
adopt the ‘polluter pays’ principle. F

1. Impending legislation on the pollution of land will probably only apply to land which has
already been polluted.
2. Those holding an interest in contaminated land will be made liable for clean-up costs and
compensation.
3. Responsibility extends to the owners of the property as well as those who cause any
contamination.
4. Individuals within companies may be personally liable for criminal and civil offences
committed on land owned by their company.
5. Owners who simply lend property to individuals and companies may also be made liable.

Questions 6-10

6. Both the seller and the purchaser want detailed information on the state of the property.
How does the seller obtain this?
Write up to three words as your answer in box 6 on your answer sheet.
7 - 8. As well as information on the state of the property, what two other assurances will a
purchaser seek?
Write one word only for each answer in boxes 7-8 on your answer sheet.
9. What extra precaution needs to be taken in lending rather than buying and selling?
Write two words as your answer in box 9 on your answer sheet.
10. At which point is it most important that owners who lease property make sure they are not
being exposed to liability?
Write no more than four words as your answer in box 10 on your answer sheet.

223
 Listening Test 21
Section 1
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ABLE EMPLOYMENT AGENCY

APPLICATION FORM
Full Name: 1 ………………..………………..
Address: 2 …………………………………
Melford MF4 5JB
Contact number: 3 …………………………………

Qualification: (a) A levels

(b) 4 …………………………………
(c) 5 …………………………………
Previous experience: (a) general work in 6 ……………………… (3 months)
(b) part-time job as a 7 ……………………………
Interests: (a) member of a 8 …………………………………
(b) enjoys 9 ………………………………… (10 years)
Date available: 10 …………………………………

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16
Complete the sentence below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
The hotel
11. You must book ………………………… in advance.
12. There are some interesting ………………………… in the lounge.
Activities
13. The visit to the ………………………… has been cancelled.
14. There will be a talk about ………………………… from the area on Saturday.
15. The visit to the ………………………… will take place on Sunday.
16. There is a collection of ………………………… in the art gallery.

224
Questions 17-20
Label the map below.
Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20.
Where are the following places situated?

17. Park Hotel …………………………

18. Internet Café …………………………
19. Tourist Information Office …………………………
20. Royal House Restaurant …………………………

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26
Write the correct letter, A, B, or C next to questions 21-26.
At which college are the following features recommended?
A. at Forth College
B. at Haines College
C. at both Forth and Haines Colleges
21. student support services
22. residential accommodation
23. on-line resources
24. libraries
25. teaching staff
26. research record

Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
225
27. David is concerned that he may feel
A. unmotivated. B. isolated. C. competitive
28. In the future, Dr. Smith thinks David should aim to
A. do further research B. publish articles. C. get teaching work
29. What does Dr. Smith think has improved masters’ study in recent years?
A. the development of the internet
B. the growth of flexible courses.
C. the introduction of changes in assessment
30. David would like to improve the way he
A. takes notes in lectures. B. writes up assignments. C. manages his time.

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Questions 31-37
Complete the table below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Type of writing Notes Tips

Short stories 3 basic styles start with a 31 ………….
Non-fiction biographies often popular tell publishers about your
32 ………….
Articles advice articles work well write for a 33 ………….
Poetry meaning shouldn’t be too read your poems aloud
34 ………….
Plays movements usually decided by learn about acting
the 35 ………….
Radio BBC publishes Handbook try 36 …………. first
Children’s literature illustration important decide on an 37 ………….

Questions 38-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
38. What is a disadvantage of first person narration in novels?
A. It makes it harder for the main character to be interesting.
B. It is difficult for beginners to do well.
C. It limits what can be described.
39. What is a mistake when writing novels?
A. failing to include enough detail
B. trying to explain ironic effects
C. including too many characters
40. In order to make dialogue seem natural, writers should
A. make recordings of real conversations.
B. include unfinished sentences.
C. break up long speeches.

226
 Speaking
21. Tell something about one of your family members whom you like the most.
You should say:
 Who is he/she?
 How are you related to him/her?
 How does he/she look like?
 What about him/her that you like the most.
 What is he/she doing?
Related questions:
 Do you live in a joint family or nuclear family?
 What are the advantages/disadvantages of joint/nuclear family?
 What sort of family would you prefer?
 What role does a family play in an individual’s life?

Writing (General) – Task -1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You have noticed that a local bus service has become inefficient in recent weeks. Buses
are infrequent and sometimes a number of them are going to the same place at the
same time.
Write a letter complaining to the officer, in the letter
 About the inadequate services
 Describe whole problem

2. You have just spent a weekend at a friend’s house. When you returned home, you
discovered you have left a coat containing some belongings in his house.
Write a letter to your friend telling him that you left the coat.
 Tell him what the coat looks like
 Where you think you left it and what was inside it
 Make some suggestions about how to get it back

227
 Writing (Academic) – Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

1. The flowchart below shows the process involved in writing a formal academic essay for
a particular university course.
Describe the stages of the process in a report for university lecturer.

2. The graph below shows average carbon dioxide (co2) emissions per person in the
United Kingdom, Sweden, Italy and Portugal between 1967 and 2007.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

228
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Computers can translate all kinds of languages well, so children don’t need to learn more
languages in future.
2. People are expecting major changes in this new millennium. To what extent you think is
their optimism justified? What major changes will you like from your side?
3. Human beings do no need to eat meat in order to maintain good health because they can get
all their food needs from meatless products and meatless substitutes. Vegetarians do eat as
healthy food as a diet containing meat. Argue for or against the opinion above.

229
 UNIT: 22
Reading Passage 22
In Praise of Amateurs
Despite the specialisation of scientific research, amateurs still have an important role to play.

During the scientific revolution of the 17th century, scientists were largely men of private means
who pursued their interest in natural philosophy for their own edification. Only in the past century
or two has it become possible to make a living from investigating the workings of nature. Modern
science was, in other words, built on the work of amateurs. Today, science is an increasingly
specialised and compartmentalised subject, the domain of experts who know more and more about
less and less. Perhaps surprisingly, however, amateurs – even those without private means – are
still important.
A recent poll carried out at a meeting of the American Association for the Advancement of Science
by astronomer Dr. Richard Fienberg found that, in addition to his field of astronomy, amateurs are
actively involved in such fields as acoustics, horticulture, ornithology, meteorology, hydrology and
palaeontology. Far from being crackpots, amateur scientists are often in close touch with
professionals, some of whom rely heavily on their co-operation.
Admittedly, some fields are more open to amateurs than others. Anything that requires expensive
equipment is clearly a no-go area. And some kinds of research can be dangerous; most amateur
chemists, jokes Dr. Fienberg, are either locked up or have blown themselves to bits. But amateurs
can make valuable contributions in fields from rocketry to palaeontology and the rise of the Internet
has made it easier than even before to collect data and distribute results.
Exactly which field of study has benefited most from the contributions of amateurs is a matter of
some dispute. Dr. Fienberg makes a strong case for astronomy. There is, he points out, a long
tradition of collaboration between amateur and professional sky watchers. Numerous comets,
asteroids and even the planet Uranus were discovered by amateurs. Today, in addition to comet and
asteroid spotting, amateurs continue to do valuable work observing the brightness of variable stars
and detecting novae – ‘new’ stars in the Milky Way and supernovae in other galaxies. Amateur
observers are helpful, says Dr. Fienberg, because there are so many of them (they far outnumber
professionals) and because they are distributed all over the world. This makes special kinds of
observations possible; if several observers around the world accurately record the time when a star
is eclipsed by an asteroid, for example, it is possible to derive useful information about the
asteroid’s shape.
Another field in which amateurs have traditionally played an important role is palaeontology.
Adrian Hunt, a palaeontologist at Mesa Technical College in New Mexico, insists that his is the
field in which amateurs have made the biggest contribution. Despite the development of high-tech
equipment, he says, the best sensors for finding fossils are human eyes – lots of them. Finding
volunteers to look for fossils is not difficult, he says, because of the near-universal interest in
anything to do with dinosaurs. As well as helping with this research, volunteers learn about science,
a process he calls ‘recreational education’.
Rick Bonney of the Cornell Laboratory of Ornithology in Ithaca, New York, contends that amateurs
have contributed the most in his field. There are, he notes, thought to be as many as 60 million
birdwatchers in America alone. Given their huge numbers and the wide geographical coverage they
provide, Mr. Bonney has enlisted thousands of amateurs in a number of research projects. Over the
past few years their observations have uncovered previously unknown trends and cycles in bird
230
migrations and revealed declines in the breeding populations of several species of migratory birds,
prompting a habitat conservation programme.
Despite the successes and whatever the field of study, collaboration between amateurs and
professionals is not without its difficulties. Not everyone, for example is happy with the term
‘amateur’. Mr. Bonney has coined the term ‘citizen scientist’ because he felt that other words, such
as ‘volunteer’ sounded disparaging. A more serious problem is the question of how professionals
can best acknowledge the contributions made by amateurs. Dr. Fienberg says that some amateur
astronomers are happy to provide their observations but grumble about not being reimbursed for
out-of-pocket expenses. Others feel let down when their observations are used in scientific papers,
but they are not listed as co-authors. Dr. Hunt says some amateur palaeontologists are disappointed
when told that they cannot take finds home with them.
These are legitimate concerns but none seems insurmountable. Provided amateurs and professionals
agree the terms on which they will work together beforehand, there is no reason why co-operation
between the two groups should not flourish. Last year Dr. S. Carlson, founder of the Society for
Amateur Scientists won an award worth $290,000 for his work in promoting such co-operation. He
says that one of the main benefits of the prize is the endorsement it has given to the contributions of
amateur scientists, which has done much to silence critics among those professionals who believe
science should remain their exclusive preserve.
At the moment, says Dr. Carlson, the society is involved in several schemes including an innovative
rocket-design project and the setting up of a network of observers who will search for evidence of a
link between low-frequency radiation and earthquakes. The amateurs, he says, provide enthusiasm
and talent, while the professionals provide guidance ‘so that anything they do discover will be taken
seriously’. Having laid the foundations of science, amateurs will have much to contribute to its
ever-expanding edifice.
Tip Strip Questions 1-8
• Read through the summary at Complete the summary below. Choose ONE or TWO
normal speed so that you have a WORDS from the passage for each answer.
fair idea of what it is about.
Write your answer in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.
• Check the instructions; you can
use a maximum of two words for Summary
each answer and these words Prior to the 19th century, professional …1… did not exist
must be taken from the reading
passage, if you use more than and scientific research was largely carried out by amateurs.
two words or words that are not However, while …2… today is mostly the domain of
in the passage; the answer will professionals, a recent US survey highlighted the fact that
be marked wrong. amateurs play an important role in at least seven …3… and
• Skim the passage and find out indeed many professionals are reliant on their …4… In
where the part that has been
summarised begins.
areas such as astronomy, amateurs can be invaluable when
• Read the text around each gap making specific …5… on a global basis. Similarly in the
carefully. See if you can predict area of palaeontology their involvement is invaluable and
the answer or the kind of helpers are easy to recruit because of the popularity of
word(s) that you are looking for. …6… Amateur birdwatchers also play an active role and
• text for each gap. their work has led to the establishment of a …7….
• Re-read the summary, with the Occasionally the term ‘amateur’ has been the source of
words you have selected for each disagreement and alternative names have been suggested
gap, to make sure that it makes
sense both grammatically and in
but generally speaking, as long as the professional scientists
terms of meaning. …8… the work of the non-professionals, the two groups
can work productively together.

231
 Questions 9-13
Tip Strip Reading passage 1 contains a number of opinions provided by four
• Read through the different scientists. Match each opinion (Question 9-13) with the
questions, underlining the scientists A-D.
key words e.g. Question
10: accidents.
• Scan the passage for the NB You may use any of the scientists A-D more than once.
name of the first scientist.
• Read the text around the
name carefully. 9 Amateur involvement can also be an instructive pastime.
• Check for any opinions that
are expressed by that 10 Amateur scientists are prone to accidents.
person. Verbs like ‘says’,
‘felt’, ‘contends’ are used 11 Science does not belong to professional scientists alone.
to express opinions. 12 In certain areas of my work, people are a more valuable
• Re-read the questions and
see whether any of these resource than technology.
express a similar idea to the
opinions you have noted in 13 It is important to give amateurs a name which reflects the
the passage.
• If you find an answer, skim value of their work.
the rest of the passage to
see whether the same name A Dr. Fienberg
occurs again. If so, repeat
the above procedure. (At B Adrian Hunt
least one name must be
used twice in this set as C Rick Bonney
there are five questions and
only four names.) D Dr. Carlson

232
 Listening Test 22
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-16
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GROUP TRIP
TO TIDBOROUGH

1. How far is it from the youth hostel to the city centre?

……………………………………………………….
2. What is the website address of the youth hostel?
……………………………………………………….
3. What event is taking place on March 22nd?
……………………………………………………….
4. Who does the concert feature?
……………………………………………………….
5. What exhibition starts on March 24th?
……………………………………………………….
6. What will be closed in March?
……………………………………………………….

Questions 7-10
Choose the correct letters A-C.
7. When does the train ride depart?
A. 9.00 B. 9.15 C. 9.30
8. Where is it recommended to buy tickets?
A. at the tourist office B. at the station C. at the youth hostel
9. How much is the group discount?
A. 10% B. 15% C. 20%
10. How long does the excursion last?
A. 3 hours B. 3½ hours C. 4 hours
Section 2 Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
11. Which chart shows the company’s sales figures for the last five years?

233
 A 30 B 30 C 30
Sales25 Sales25 Sales25
20 20 20
15 15 15
10 10 10
5 5 5
0 0 0

1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
Year Year Year

12. Which chart shows the relationship of three departments this year?

A B C

13. Which chart shows numbers of temporary staff in the company?

35 35 35

A 30
B 30
C 30

25 25 25

20 20 20

15 15 15

10 10 10

5 5 5

Last This Next Last This Next Last This Next

year year year year year year year year year

Questions 14-19
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

• Company’s mission statement: 14 …………………….. for customers’

• In case of problems, always ask your 15 …………………….. for help.
• Important for customers to have to 16 …………………….. experience
• Tell customers about 17 …………………….. goods.
• Read the 18 …………………….. every month.
• Must attend 19 …………………….. on Thursday

Questions 20
Choose TWO letters A-E.
20. Which TWO things must be done today?
234
 A. complete form
B. get security pass
C. register for discount
D. show certificates
E. watch information video

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24
Which action does each type of penguin do?
Choose your answers A-G from the box below and write them next to questions 21-24.
A always hesitate before jumping
B avoid climbing if possible
C lean backwards at night
D move around at night
E use its bill when climbing
F usually look twice at things
G walk with its flippers pointing downwards

21. Gentoo ……………

22. Rockhopper ……………
23. Magellanic ……………
24. King ……………

Questions 25-27
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
25. How do penguins usually sleep?
……………………………………………………………………
26. What do a Rockhopper’s yellow feathers do when it is angry?
……………………………………………………………………
27. What do penguins recognize in the Skua’s wings?
……………………………………………………………………

Questions 28-30
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Penguins prefer to swim in groups because it makes it easier to 28 …………………… .
When they are on land, they appear to be 29 ………………. . The majority of species are
characterized by their 30 …………………., which makes them particularly interesting for
humans to study.

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
31. Governments have been mistaken to ………………………. slums.
32. There is often a lack of ………………………. concerning housing projects.
235
33. Housing policies which are based on principles of ………………………. are particularly
effective.
34. Some ………………………. should always be provided by governments.
35. Migrants will only ………………………. in housing if they feel secure.
36. Governments often underestimate importance of ………………………. to housing projects.
37. The availability of ………………………. is the starting point of successful housing
development.
38. Urbanisation can have a positive effect on the ………………………. of individuals.
39. The population size of cities enables a range of ………………………. to occur.
40. City living tends to raise the level of ………………………. among people.

236
 Speaking
22. Describe an advertisement/subject/animal/teacher you like the most?
You should say:
 What was it all about (in case of Advt.)
 Where did you see it (in case of Advt., animal)
 Why did you like it/him/her?
 What was special about it/him/her?
 What was the name of the animal/subject/teacher?
Related questions:
 Do you think advertisements inform the customer or brainwash them?
 Should national parks and sanctuaries be created for animals?
 Should animals be kept in zoos?
 Do you think a student should be allowed to pursue the subject of his/her choice?
 Don’t you think because of advertisements the price of a product increases? So
should advertisements be necessary?

Writing (General) - Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. Your club plans to hold a youth festival in the city. As president of the club
Write a letter to the Managing Director, in the letter
 Any well-known company giving details requesting him to sponsor it
 Brief details about youth festival

2. Your friend is about to celebrate a landmark birthday and has asked for suggestions as
how it should be celebrated.
Write a letter to your friend. In your letter
 Thank your friend for inviting you to the party and say that you have some ideas
about how to celebrate it
 Suggest what type of party your friend could have
 Suggest a good place to hold a party

237
 Writing (Academic) –Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task .
1. The bar chart below shows the number of overseas students enrolled in a second year
Graphic Design course at a college in the south of England.
Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown.

KEY Enrolled in Photography core option

Enrolled in CAD core option
F-
10
Sweden
No.of enrolled students from abroad

Spain
8 France Germany

CAD- Computer Aided Design

2. The two pie charts below show changes in world population by region between 1900
and 2000.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

238
239
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. The best way to reduce the number of traffic accidents is to make all young drivers complete
a safe driving education course before being/licensed to drive.
2. Forests are the lungs of the earth. Destruction of the world’s forests amounts to death of the
world we currently know. To what extent do you agree or disagree?
3. Many lives are in danger when hastily erected buildings collapse because safety standards
have been sacrificed to get quick profits. To prevent disaster of this kind, government should
play greater role in setting and enforcing safety standards for building construction.

240
 UNIT: 23
Reading Passage 23
Reading the Screen

Are the electronic media exacerbating illiteracy and making our children stupid? On the contrary,
says Colin McCabe, they have the potential to make us truly literate.

The debate surrounding literacy is one of the most charged in education. On the one hand there is
an army of people convinced that traditional skills of reading and writing are declining. On the
other, a host of progressives protest that literacy is much more complicated than a simple technical
mastery of reading and writing. This second position is supported by most of the relevant academic
work over the past 20 years. These studies argue that literacy can only be understood in its social
and technical context. In Renaissance England, for example, many more people could read than
could write, and within reading there was a distinction between those who could read print and
those who could manage the more difficult task of reading manuscript. An understanding of these
earlier periods helps us understand today’s ‘crisis in literacy; debate.
There does seem to be evidence that there has been an overall decline in some aspects of reading
and writing – you only need to compare the tabloid newspapers of today with those of 50 years ago
to see a clear decrease in vocabulary and simplification of syntax. But the picture is not uniform
and doesn’t readily demonstrate the simple distinction between literate and illiterate which had been
considered adequate since the middle of the 19th century.
While reading a certain amount of writing is as crucial as it has ever been in industrial societies, it is
doubtful whether a fully extended grasp of either is as necessary as it was 30 or 40 years ago.
While print retains much of its authority as a source of topical information, television has
increasingly usurped this role. The ability to write fluent letters has been undermined by the
telephone and research suggests that for many people the only use for writing, outside formal
education, is the compilation of shopping lists.
The decision of some car manufacturers to issue their instructions to mechanics as a video pack
rather than as a handbook might be taken to spell the end of any automatic link between
industrialisation and literacy. On the other hand, it is also the case that ever-increasing numbers of
people make their living out of writing, which is better rewarded than ever before. Schools are
generally seen as institutions where the book rules – film, television and recorded sound have
almost no place; but it is not clear that this opposition is appropriate. While you may not need to
read and write to watch television, you certainly need to be able to read and write in order to make
programmes.
Those who work in the new media are anything but illiterate. The traditional oppositions between
old and new media are inadequate for understanding the world which a young child now
encounters. The computer has re-established a central place for the written word on the screen,
which used to be entirely devoted to the image. There is even anecdotal evidence that children are
mastering reading and writing in order to get on to the Internet. There is no reason why the new and
old media cannot be integrated in schools to provide the skills to become economically productive
and politically enfranchised.
Nevertheless, there is a crisis in literacy and it would be foolish to ignore it. To understand that
literacy may be declining because it is less central to some aspects of everyday life is not the same
as acquiescing in this state of affairs. The production of schoolwork with the new technologies
could be significant stimulus to literacy. How should these new technologies be introduced into the
schools? It isn’t enough to call for computers, camcorders and edit suites in every classroom;
unless they are properly integrated into the educational culture, they will stand unused. Evidence
suggests that this is the fate of most information technology used in the classroom. Similarly,
241
although media studies are now part of the national curriculum, and more and more students are
now clamouring to take these course, teachers remain uncertain about both methods and aims in this
area.
This is not the fault of the teachers. The entertainment and information industries must be drawn
into a debate with the educational institutions to determine how best to blend these new
technologies into the classroom.
Many people in our era are drawn to the pessimistic view that the new media are destroying old
skills and eroding critical judgement. It may be true that past generations were more literate but –
taking the pre-19th century meaning of the term – this was true of only a small section of the
population. The word literacy is a 19th century coinage to describe the divorce of reading and
writing from a full knowledge of literature. The education reforms of the 19th century produced
reading and writing as skills separable from full participation in the cultural heritage.
The new media now point not only to a futuristic cyber-economy, they also make our cultural past
available to the whole nation. Most children’s access to these treasures is initially through
television. It is doubtful whether our literacy heritage has ever been available to or sought out by
more than about 5 per cent of the population; it has certainly not been available to more than 10 per
cent. But the new media joined to the old, through the public service tradition of British
broadcasting, now makes our literary tradition available to all.

242
Tip Strip Questions 1-4
• The questions follow Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 1-4 in
the order of your answer sheet.
information in the 1. When discussing the debate on literacy in education, the writer
passage. notes that
• Read the first question A. children cannot read and write as well as they used to.
and the four options A- B. academic work has improved over the last 20 years.
D. One of these C. there is evidence that literacy is related to external factors.
completes the D. there are opposing arguments that are equally convincing.
statement so that it 2. In the 4th paragraph, the writer’s main point is that
expresses an idea that A. the printed word is both gaining and losing power.
is also given in the B. all inventions bring disadvantages as well as benefits.
passage. C. those who work in manual jobs no longer need to read.
• Decide whether the D. the media offers the best careers for those who like writing.
question focuses on a 3. According to the writer, the main problem that schools face
detail in the passage or today is
a main idea. A. how best to teach the skills of reading and writing.
• Note the key words in B. how best to incorporate technology into classroom teaching.
the question. These C. finding the means to purchase technological equipment.
will help you locate the D. managing the widely differing levels of literacy amongst
area of the passage pupils.
where you will find the 4. At the end of the article, the writer is suggesting that
answer. A. literature and culture cannot be divorced.
• Read this part of the B. the term ‘literacy’ has not been very useful.
passage very carefully. C. 10 per cent of the population never read literature.
You will find that some D. our exposure to cultural information is likely to increase.
of the vocabulary in
options A-D also
occurs in the passage
but only one of the
options will complete
the sentence correctly.
Questions 5-10
Tip Strip Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in

243
Questions 5-10 test your Reading Passage 23.
understanding of what the
writer believes; i.e. his/her In boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet write
views or opinions. There are
three choices: Yes– the writer YES if the statement agrees with the writer
believes this: No– the writer NO if the statement contradicts the writer
believes the opposite of this; NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer
Not Given – the writer thinks about this
doesn’t give any views on
this. 5. It is not as easy to analyse literacy levels as it used to be.
• The questions follow the 6. Our literacy skills need to be as highly developed as they were
order of information in the
passage. in the past.
• Start with the first 7. Illiteracy is on the increase.
question and note the key
words. 8. Professional writers earn relatively more than they used to.
• Skim or scan the passage 9. A good literacy level is important for those who work in
until you come to the part
where the writer is television.
discussing his/her views 10. Computers are having a negative impact on literacy in
on the topic or idea
presented in the question. schools.
If you cannot find any
information on this, the
answer may be ‘not
given’. Check this
carefully.
• If you do find some
information, decide
whether the writer’s views
are the same of the
opposite of those given in
the question.

Questions 11-13
Complete the sentences below with words taken from Passage 23
Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet. Use no more than three words for each
answer.

244
Tip Strip
• The questions follow the order of In Renaissance England, the best readers were those
information in the passage. able to read …11…
• Check the instructions; you can use a
maximum of three words for each The writer uses the example of …12… to illustrate
answer and these words must be taken the general fall in certain areas of literacy.
from the reading passage. If you use
more than three words or words that are It has been shown that after leaving school, the only
not in the passage, the answer will be things that a lot of people write are …13…
marked wrong.
• Read the sentences and underline the
key words.
• Read the words around each gap
carefully. See if you can predict the
answer or the kind of word(s) that you
are looking for.
• Scan or skim the passage until you come
to the part that is relevant.
• Re-read the sentence with the word you
have chosen for the gap to check that it
makes sense both grammatically and in
terms of meaning.

245
 Listening Test 23
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Questions 1-7
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GO-TRAVEL BOOKING FORM

Name: 1 [Last] ……….. [First] ……………………

Source of enquiry: saw ad in 2 …………………. Magazine
Holiday reference 3 ……………………………………………
Number of people: 4 ……………………………………………
Preferred departure date: 5 ……………………………………………
Number of nights: 6 ……………………………………………
Insurance: 7 ……………………………………………

Questions 8-10
Choose THREE letters A-H.
Which THREE options does the woman want to book?
A. arts demonstration
B. dance show
C. museums trip
D bus tour at night
E. picnic lunches
F. river trip
G. room with balcony
H. trip to mountains
8. ……………………..
9. ……………………..
10. ……………………..

Section 2 Questions 11-20

Questions 11-17
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

246
 RUN-WELL CHARITY
Background to Run-Well charity
• Set up in 11 …………………………
• Aim: raise money for the 12 …………………………

Race details
• Teams to supply own 13 …………………………
• Teams should 14 ………………………… together
• Important to bring enough 15 …………………………
• Race will finish in the 16 …………………………
• Prizes given by the 17 …………………………

Questions 18-20
Choose THREE letters A-H
Which THREE ways of raising money for the charity are recommended?
A. badges
B. bread and cake stall
C. swimming event
D. concert
E. door-to-door collecting
F. picnic
G. postcards
H. quiz
I. second-hand sale
18. ……………………..
19. ……………………..
20. ……………………..

Section 3 Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26
What do the students decide about each topic for Joe’s presentation?
A. Joe will definitely include this topic.
B. Joe might include this topic.
C. Joe will not include this topic.

Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 21-26

21. cultural aspects of naming people ……….
22. similarities across languages in naming practices ……….
23. meanings of first names ……….
24. place names describing geographic features ……….
25. influence of immigration on place names ……….
247
26. origins of names of countries ……….

Questions 27-30
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Researchers showed a group of students many common nouns, brand

names and 27 ……………. . Students found it easier to identify brand
names when they were shown in 28 ……………. . Researchers think that
29 ……………. is important in making brand names special within the
brain. Brand names create a number of 30 ……………. within the brain.

Section 4 Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Gas balloons
Uses:
• instead of 31 …………………… in the
US civil war
• to make 32 …………………….
• to 33 ……………………… for research
• as part of studies of
34 ……………………………
Hot air balloons
Create less 35 ……………………. than
gas balloons

Airships
Early examples had no 36
………………………… for crew
To be efficient, needed a
37 ……………………...
Development of large airships stopped
because of:
• success of 38 ………………………
• series of 39 ………………………..
Recent interest in use for carrying
40 ………………………………

248
 Speaking
23. Describe the main forms of transport in your hometown.
You should say:
 What the different forms of transport are.
 How often you use them.
 Which types of transport are the most popular?
 Consider whether or not the transportation systems are satisfactory.
Related questions:
 What is the traffic like in your hometown?
 What are the benefits of traveling by public transport?
 In your opinion, in what ways can governments encourage people to use public
transport?
 Having too many cars on our roads causes air pollution. What are some of the other
causes of pollution?
 How are environment-friendly practices encouraged in your country?
 Science can be used to develop environment is it needed friendly alternatives. In
what ways can this be done?
24. Describe a memorable sporting event that you participated in or watched.
You should say:
 What the event was.
 Why the event is memorable.
 How you felt at the event.
… and describe whether or not winning or losing is a significant memory.
Related questions:
 Governments allocate large amounts of money to sporting events such as the
Olympics. Do you agree with this spending?
 Can or should sport play a significant role in developing inter-national relations?
 The idea of sportsmanship has changed over the years.
 A significant amount of money and time is spent on testing for the use of drugs in
sport. How important is this?
 Large companies now sponsor major sporting events and teams. Can this
sponsorship lead to problems?
 What do you think the future of international sports will be?

Writing (General) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

249
1. Write a letter to an aunt who is seriously ill and convalescing in a hospital.
 Wish her speedy recovery
 Mention details from her family and friend to cheer her up

2. Your children go to a local school that requires volunteers to accompany school science
trips.

Write a letter to the school to apply to be a volunteer. In the letter:

 Introduce yourself and give details of your children who attend the school
 Explain why you are interested in the position
 Talk about any relevant experience that you have with children

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The graph below shows the monthly profits of 3 British companies in the car retail
industry for the 2000 financial year.
Write a report for a university lecturer comparing the performance of Acme Sports Cars and
Branson Motors for the period given.

End of 1st Quarter: End of 2nd Quarter: End of 3rd Quarter: End of Financial
Profit (in £1000s)Introduction of tax Media reports boost Year:
on Luxury goods in economy
100

80

60

40

20

0
0 Apr-00 May- Jun- Jul-00 Aug- Sep- Oct-00 Nov- Dec- Jan- Feb- Mar-
00 00 00 00 00 00 01 01 01
2000 Financial Year
Acme Sports Cars Branson Motors Curtis Car Mart

250
2. The diagrams below show how chocolate is made and how the price of a chocolate bar
is divided up among those involved in the process.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

251
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Children learn best by observing the behavior of adults and copying it. To what extent do
you agree or disagree to this statement.

2. Zoos are sometimes seen as necessary but poor alternative to a natural environment. Discuss
some of the arguments for and against keeping animals in zoos.

3. Education is recognized as vital for the future of children in today’s world. Government
throughout the world should make education compulsory for all children between the age of
5 and 15.

252
 UNIT: 24
Reading Passage 24
The Revolutionary Bridges of Robert Maillart

Swiss engineer Robert Maillart built some of the greatest bridges of the 20th century. His designs elegantly
solved a basic engineering problem: how to support enormous weights using a slender arch.

A Just as railway bridges were the great structural symbols of the 19th century, highway
bridges became the engineering emblems of the 20th century. The invention of the
automobile created an irresistible demand for paved roads and vehicular bridges throughout
the developed world. The type of bridge needed for cars and trucks, however, is
fundamentally different from that needed for locomotives. Most highway bridges carry
lighter loads than railway bridges do, and their roadways can be sharply curved or steeply
sloping. To meet these needs, many turn-of-the-century bridge designers began working
with a new building material: reinforced concrete, which has steel bars embedded in it. And
the master of this new material was Swiss structural engineer, Robert Maillart.
B Early in his career, Maillart developed a unique method for designing bridges, buildings and
other concrete structures. He rejected the complex mathematical analysis of loads and
stresses that was being enthusiastically adopted by most of his contemporaries. At the same
time, he also eschewed the decorative approach taken by many bridge builders of his time.
He resisted imitating architectural styles and adding design elements solely for
ornamentation. Maillart’s method was a form of creative intuition. He had a knack for
conceiving new shapes to solve classic engineering problems. And because he worked in a
highly competitive field, one of his goals was economy – he won design and construction
contracts because his structures were reasonably priced, often less costly than all his rivals’
proposals.
C Maillart’s first important bridge was built in the small Swiss town of Zuoz. The local
officials had initially wanted a steel bridge to span the 30-metre wide Inn River, but Maillart
argued that he could build a more elegant bridge made of reinforced concrete for about the
same cost. His crucial innovation was incorporating the bridge’s arch and roadway into a
form called the hollow-box arch, which would substantially reduce the bridge’s expense by
minimising the amount of concrete needed. In a conventional arch bridge the weight of the
roadway is transferred by columns to the arch, which must be relatively thick. In Maillart’s
design, though, the roadway and arch were connected by three vertical walls, forming two
hollow boxes running under the roadway (see diagram). The big advantage of this design
was that because the arch would not have to bear the load alone, it could be much thinner –
as little as one-third as thick as the arch in the conventional bridge.
D His first masterpiece, however, was the 1905 Tavanasa Bridge over the Rhine river in the
Swiss Alps. In this design, Maillart removed the parts of the vertical walls which were not
essential because they carried no load. This produced a slender, lighter-looking form, which
perfectly met the bridge’s structural requirements. But the Tavanasa Bridge gained little
favourable publicity in Switzerland; on the contrary, it aroused strong aesthetic objections
from public officials who were more comfortable with old-fashioned stone-faced bridges.
Maillart who had founded his own construction firm in 1902, was unable to win any more
bridge projects, so he shifted his focus to designing buildings, water tanks and other

253
 structures made of reinforced concrete and did not resume his work on concrete bridges until
the early 1920s.
E His most important breakthrough during this period was the development of the deck-
stiffened arch, the first example of which was the Flienglibach Bridge, built in 1923. An
arch bridge is somewhat like an inverted cable. A cable curves downward when a weight is
hung from it, an arch bridge curves upward to support the roadway and the compression in
the arch balances the dead load of the traffic. For aesthetic reasons, Maillart wanted a
thinner arch and his solution was to connect the arch to the roadway with transverse walls.
In this way, Maillart justified making the arch as thin as he could reasonably build it. His
analysis accurately predicted the behaviour of the bridge but the leading authorities of Swiss
engineering would argue against his methods for the next quarter of a century.
F Over the next 10 years, Maillart concentrated on refining the visual appearance of the deck-
stiffened arch. His best-known structure is the Salginatobel Bridge, completed in 1930. He
won the competition for the contract because his design was the least expensive of the 19
submitted – the bridge and road were built for only 700,000 Swiss francs, equivalent to
some $3.5 million today. Salginatobel was also Maillart’s longest span, at 90 metres and it
had the most dramatic setting of all his structures, vaulting 80 metres above the ravine of the
Salgina brook. In 1991 it became the first concrete bridge to be designated an international
historic landmark.
G Before his death in 1940, Maillart completed other remarkable bridges and continued to
refine his designs. However, architects often recognised the high quality of Maillart’s
structures before his fellow engineers did and in 1947 the architectural section of the
Museum of Modern Art in New York City devoted a major exhibition entirely to his works.
In contrast, very few American structural engineers at that time had even heard of Maillart.
In the following years, however, engineers realised that Maillart’s bridges were more than
just aesthetically pleasing – they were technically unsurpassed. Maillart’s hollow-box arch
became the dominant design form for medium and long-span concrete bridges in the US. In
Switzerland, professors finally began to teach Mailart’s ideas, which then influences a new
generation of designers.
Questions 1-7

Reading passage 24 has seven paragraphs A-G

From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

254
Tip Strip
• Although the instructions ask List of headings
you to choose the ‘most
suitable’ heading, each heading i The long-term impact
will only fit one paragraph. ii A celebrated achievement
• Read through the list of
heading. Note that each heading iii Early brilliance passes unrecognised
expresses a main idea. iv Outdated methods retain popularity
• There are ten headings and
seven questions, so three of the v The basis of a new design is born
headings do not fit any of the vi Frustration at never getting the design right
paragraphs.
• Skim through the whole vii Further refinements meet persistent objections
passage so that you have a good
viii Different in all respects
idea of what it is about.
• Read each paragraph carefully, ix Bridge-makers look elsewhere
noting the main idea or theme.
x Transport developments spark a major change
• Do not worry it there are words
that you do not understand.
• Select the heading that best
describes the main idea of the
paragraph.

1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
6. Paragraph F
7. Paragraph G

Questions 8-10

Complete the labels on the diagrams below using ONE or TWO WORDS from the passage. Write
your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

255
 Tip Strip

• Check the instructions for

Questions 8-10: you can use a
maximum of two words for each
answer and these words must be
taken from the passage. If you use
more than two words or words that
are not in the passage, the answer
will be marked wrong.
• Skim /scan the passage until you
come to the section that describes
the two types of bridge.
• Read this part very carefully and
select the words in the passage that
fit the labels.

Tip Strip Questions 11 – 14

• The part-statements or Complete each of the following statements (Questions 11-14) with
questions follow the order the best ending (A-G) from the box below.
of information in the
passage.
• There are four part- Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 11-14 on your answer
statements and seven sheet.
endings so some of the
endings will not be used at 11 Maillart designed the hollow-box arch in order to...
all.
• Many of the endings A-G
will fit each question 12 Following the construction of the Tavansasa Bridge,
grammatically. Maillart failed to…
• You have already read the
passage at least once. Can 13 The transverse walls of the Flienglibach Bridge
you guess any of the allowed Maillart to…
answers?
• Do not re-read the whole
passage. Underline the 14 Of all his bridges, the Salginatobel enabled Maillart
keywords in statement, to…
then scan the passage for
these words, e.g. Question
11: the hollow-box arch.
A …. prove that local people were wrong.
• When you find the relevant
part of the passage, read it B …. find work in Switzerland.
very carefully. Question
11: Which paragraph C …. win more building commissions.
discusses the design of
hollow-box arch? D …. reduce the amount of raw material required.
• Select the option that best
completes each sentence. E …. recognise his technical skills.
• Re-read the completed F …. capitalise on the spectacular terrain.
sentence and compare this
for meaning with the G …. improve the appearance of his bridges.
appropriate section of the
passage.

256
 Listening Test - 24
SECTION 1 (Questions 1-10)
Questions 1 and 2
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Example

In the library George found

A. a book.

B. a brochure.

C. a newspaper.

(1) In the lobby of the library George saw

A. a group playing music.
B. a display of instruments.
C. a video about the festival.
(2) George wants to sit at the back so they can
A. see well.
B. hear clearly.
C. pay less.

257
Questions 3-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Summer music festival Booking form

NAME: George O’Neill

ADDRESS: (3) ____________ Westsea
POSTCODE: (4) ____________
TELEPHONE: (5) ____________
Price per No. of
Date Event
ticket tickets

5 June Instrumental group - Guitarrini £7.50 2

Singer (price includes (6) ______

17 June £6 2
in garden)

22 June (7)________ (Anna Ventura) £7.00 1

(8) £ (9)
23 June Spanish Dance & Guitar Concert
________ ________

NB Children / Students / Senior Citizens have (10) ________ discount on all tickets.

258
 SECTION 2 (Questions 11-20)
Questions 11-15
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
The Dinosaur Museum
11. The museum closes at _____________ p.m. on Mondays.
12. The museum is not open on _____________
13. School groups are met by tour guides in the _____________
14. The whole visit takes 90 minutes, including _____________ minutes for the guided tour.
15. There are _____________ behind the museum where students can have lunch.

259
Questions 16-18
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?
A. food
B. water
C. cameras
D. books
E. bags
F. pens
G. worksheets

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?
A. build model dinosaurs
B. watch films
C. draw dinosaurs
D. find dinosaur eggs
E. play computer games

260
 SECTION 3 (Questions 21-30)
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Field Trip Proposal
(21) The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal
A. should be re-ordered in some parts.
B. needs a contents page.
C. ought to include more information.

(22) The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra

A. inserted subheadings.
B. used more paragraphs.
C. shortened her sentences.

(23) What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal?
A. Separate points were not clearly identified.
B. The headings were not always clear.
C. Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way.

(24) Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through
A. articles she read.
B. movies she saw as a child.
C. photographs she found on the internet.

261
Questions 25-27
Choose THREE letters, A-G.
Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A. climate change
B. field trip activities
C. geographical features
D. impact of tourism
E. myths and legends
F. plant and animal life
G. social history

Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
(28) The tribal park covers _________ hectares.
(29) Sandra suggests that they share the _________ for transport.
(30) She says they could also explore the local _________.

262
 SECTION 4 (Questions 31-40)
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Geography
Studying geography helps us to understand:
• the effects of different processes on the (31) _________ of the Earth
• the dynamic between (32) _________ and population
Two main branches of study:
• physical features
• human lifestyles and their (33) ___________

Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical and
(34) ______ geography, and also cartography
Key point: geography helps us to understand our surroundings and the associated (35) ________
What do geographers do?
• find data - e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of (36) ______ using
computer and satellite technology
• analyse data - identify (37) ________, e.g. cause and effect
• publish findings in form of:
(a) maps
- easy to carry
- can show physical features of large and small areas
- BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some (38) _______
(b) aerial photos
- can show vegetation problems, (39) _______ density, ocean floor etc.
(c) Landsat pictures sent to receiving stations
- used for monitoring (40) _______ conditions etc.

263
 UNIT: 24
Speaking
25. Describe a big public event that you have attended.
You should say:
 What it was.
 When was it held, and why.
 What happened?
 And describe how you felt about being there.
Related questions:
 What kind of public events do you enjoy attending? Why?
 Is there anything you dislike about such events?
26. Describe a leisure activity that you enjoy.
You should say:
 What the activity is.
 Where and when you take part in it.
 What it involves.
And explain why you enjoy it so much.
Related questions:
 Why is it a good idea for a child to have a hobby?
 Do young people get enough physical exercise these days?
 Is watching television a good way of relaxing?
 What leisure activities would you recommend as a way of combating stress?
27. Describe a photograph that you have taken yourself or seen in a book, which you
particularly like.
You should say:
 What the picture shows.
 Where you saw it.
 Why you particularly like it.
Related questions:
 Do you like taking photographs/painting/drawing?
 Do you prefer photographs or paintings?
 Explain the value of teaching art in primary and secondary schools?
 What is the role of traditional arts and crafts in your country?
 Are technology and the video camera changing our appreciation of photography?

264
 Writing (General) - Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. You are in charge of the welfare club of your school.

Write a letter to the District Magistrate of your city, in the letter
 Launch a night school in your area soon

2. You paid a refundable deposit when you rented an apartment. You left the apartment
in a good condition but the landlord won't return your deposit.

Write a letter to the landlord. In your letter

 explain why you are writing
 ask for the return of your deposit
 inform the landlord of possible legal action

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
1. The chart below shows the growth in population of some of the world’s largest cities.

Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below.
You should write at least 150 words.

Tokyo
1970
New York 1990
Shanghai 2015

Bombay

Jakarta

0 5 10 15 20 25 30
Population in millions

Top 5 biggest cities By population (millions)

265
 1950 2010

1. New York 12.5 1. Tokyo 27.6

2. London 7.9 2. Bombay 26.6
3. Tokyo 6.5 3. Lagos 23.9
4. Paris 5.3 4. Shanghai 22.9
5. Moscow 5.3 5. Jakarta 20.8

World Population Billions

4
Urban
3
Rural

1
1980 1990 2000 2010

2. The two graphs below show the percentage of smokers and the consumption of alcohol in
liters in selected countries, for the period 1960-2000
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

266
267
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.

1. Tourism is becoming increasingly important as a source of revenue to many countries, but

its disadvantages should not be overlooked.

2. Some people prefer to marry in their early 30s but others think they should marry in 20s.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of marrying late or marrying early?

268
 UNIT: 25
Reading Passage 25

Tackling Obesity in the Western World

A Obesity is a huge problem in many Western countries and one which now attracts
considerable medical interest as researchers take up the challenge to find a ‘cure’ for the
common condition of being seriously overweight. However, rather than take responsibility
for their weight, obese people have often sought solace in the excuse that they have a slow
metabolism, a genetic hiccup which sentences more than half the Australian population
(63% of men and 47% of women) to a life of battling with their weight. The argument goes
like this: it doesn’t matter how little they eat, they gain weight because their bodies break
down food and turn it into energy more slowly than those with a so-called normal metabolic
rate.
B ‘This is nonsense,’ says Dr Susan Jebb from the Dunn Nutrition Unit at Cambridge in
England. Despite the persistence of this metabolism myth, science has known for several
years that the exact opposite is in fact true. Fat people have faster metabolisms than thin
people. ‘What is very clear,’ says Dr Jebb, ‘is that overweight people actually burn off more
energy. They have more cells, bigger hearts, bigger lungs and they all need more energy just
to keep going.’
C It took only one night, spent in a sealed room at the Dunn Unit to disabuse one of their
patients of the beliefs of a lifetime: her metabolism was fast, not slow. By sealing the room
and measuring the exact amount of oxygen she used, researchers were able to show her that
her metabolism was not the culprit. It wasn’t the answer she expected and probably not the
one she wanted but she took the news philosophically.
D Although the metabolism myth has been completely disproved, science has far from
discounted our genes as responsible for making us whatever weight we are, fat or thin. One
of the world’s leading obesity researchers, geneticist Professor Stephen O’Rahilly, goes so
far as to say we are on the threshold of a complete change in the way we view not only
morbid obesity, but also everyday overweight. Prof. O’Rahilly’s groundbreaking work in
Cambridge has proven that obesity can be caused by our genes. ‘These people are not weak-
willed, slothful or lazy,’ says Prof. O’Rahilly. ‘They have a medical condition due to a
genetic defect and that causes them to be obese.’
E In Australia, the University of Sydney’s Professor Ian Caterson says while major genetic
defects may be rare, many people probably have minor genetic variations that combine to
dictate weight and are responsible for things such as how much we eat, the amount of
exercise we do and the amount of energy we need. When you add up all these little
variations, the result is that some people are genetically predisposed to putting on weight.
He says while the fast/slow metabolism debate may have been settled, that doesn’t mean
some other subtle change in the metabolism gene won’t be found in overweight people. He
is confident that science will, eventually, be able to ‘cure’ some forms of obesity but the
only effective way for the vast majority of overweight and obese people to lose weight is a
change of diet and an increase in exercise.

269
F Despite the $ 500 million a year Australians spend trying to lose weight and the $ 830
million it costs the community in health care, obesity is at epidemic proportions here, as it is
in all Western nations. Until recently, research and treatment for obesity had concentrated on
behaviour modification, drugs to decrease appetite and surgery. How the drugs worked was
often not understood and many caused severe side effects and even death in some patients.
Surgery for obesity has also claimed many lives.
G It has long been known that a part of the brain called the hypothalamus is responsible for
regulating hunger, among other things. But it wasn’t until 1994 that Professor Jeffery
Friedman from Rockerfeller University in the US sent science in a new direction by
studying an obese mouse. Prof. Friedman found that unlike its thin brothers, the fat mouse
did not produce a hitherto unknown hormone called leptin. Manufactured by the fat cells,
leptin acts as a messenger, sending signals to the hypothalamus to turn off the appetite.
Previously, the fat cells were thought to be responsible simply for storing fat. Prof.
Friedman gave the fat mouse leptin and it lost 30% of its body weight in two weeks.
H On the other side of the Atlantic, Prof. O’Rahilly read about this research with great
excitement. For many months two blood samples had lain in the bottom of his freezer, taken
from two extremely obese young cousins. He hired a doctor to develop a test for leptin in
human blood, which eventually resulted in the discovery that neither of the children’s blood
contained the hormone. When one cousin was given leptin, she lost a stone in weight and
Prof. O’Rahilly made medical history. Here was the first proof that a genetic defect could
cause obesity in humans. But leptin deficiency turned out to be an extremely rare condition
and there is a lot more research to be done before the ‘magic’ cure for obesity is ever found.

Questions 1-8

List of headings
i Obesity in animals
ii Hidden dangers
iii Proof of the truth
iv New perspective on the horizon
v No known treatment
vi Rodent research leads the way
vii Expert explains energy requirements of obese people
viii A very uncommon complaint
ix Nature or nurture
x Shifting the blame
xi Lifestyle change required despite new findings

270
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
6. Paragraph F
7. Paragraph G
8. Paragraph H
For the each of paragraphs A to H now listed as 1 to 8 choose an appropriate heading from the list
in the box that follows.

Questions 9-13
Complete the summary of the Passage (Question 9-13) using words from the box at the bottom of
the page.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

Tip Strip OBESITY
• Read through the summary Example weight
so that you have a fair idea
of what it is about. People with a ….(0).. often try to deny responsibility.
• Check the instructions: you They do this by seeking to blame their …(9)… for the fact that
must choose ONE word for they are overweight and erroneously believe that they use
each gap from the box …(10)… energy than thin people to stay alone. However, recent
below the summary. If you
use words that are not in research has shown that a …(11)… problem can be responsible for
the box, the answer will be obesity as some people seem programmed to …(12)… more than
marked wrong. others. The new research points to a shift from trying to change
• Skim the passage and find people’s …(13)… to seeking an answer to the problem in the
out where the section that laboratory.
has been summarised
begins.
• Read the text around each
gap carefully. See if you
List of words
can predict the answer or
the kind of word that you weight exercise sleep
are looking for. mind bodies exercise
• Re-read the summary, with metabolism more genetic
the words you have
selected for each gap, to
less physical consume
make sure that it makes behaviour use mental
sense both grammatically
and in terms of meaning.

271
 Listening Test 25
SECTION 1 (Questions 1-10)
Questions 1-3
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Total Insurance Incident Report

Example Answer

Name Michael Alexander

Address 24 Manly Street, (1) ________ Sydney

Shipping agent (2) __________

Place of origin China

Date of arrival (3) __________

Reference number 601 ACK

Questions 4-10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Item Damage Cost to repair/replace

Television The (4) _______ needs to be not known

replaced

The (5) The (6) ________ of the cabinet is (7) $ __________

________ cabinet damaged

Dining room table A (8) _________ is split $200

Set of china Six (9) _______ were broken about 10 $ _______ in

total

272
 SECTION 2 (Questions 11-20)
Question 11
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
(11) According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are
A. education and entertainment.
B. research and education.
C. research and entertainment.

273
Questions 12-14
Label the plan below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Agricultural Park

(12) ___________
(13) ___________
(14) ___________

274
Questions 15-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
(15) When are the experimental areas closed to the public?
A. all the year round
B. almost all the year
C. a short time every year

(16) How can you move around the park?

A. by tram, walking or bicycle
B. by solar car or bicycle
C. by bicycle, walking or bus
(17) The rare breed animals kept in the park include
A. hens and horses.
B. goats and cows.
C. goats and hens.

(18) What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section?
A. to save unusual animals
B. to keep a variety of breeds
C. to educate the public

(19) What can you see in the park at the present time?
A. the arrival of wild birds
B. fruit tree blossom
C. a demonstration of fishing
(20) The shop contains books about
A. animals.
B. local traditions.
C. the history of the park.

275
 SECTION 3 (Questions 21-30)
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Honey Bees in Australia
(21) Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past?
A. Queensland
B. New South Wales
C. several states

(22) A problem with Asian honey bees is that they

A. attack native bees.
B. carry parasites.
C. damage crops.

(23) What point is made about Australian bees?

A. Their honey varies in quality.
B. Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers.
C. They are sold to customers abroad.

(24) Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia,
A. the country’s economy would be affected.
B. they could be used in the study of allergies.
C. certain areas of agriculture would benefit.

276
Questions 25-30
Complete the summary below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Looking for Asian honey bees

Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only (25) _________, and cough up small bits of skeleton and
other products in a pellet.
Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for (26) __________
They collect the pellets and take them to a (27) _________ for analysis.
Here (28) ________ is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the (29) ________ of Asian
bees in the pellets.
The benefit of this research is that the result is more (30) __________than searching for live Asian
bees.

277
 SECTION 4 (Questions 31-40)
Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Research on questions about doctors
(31) In order to set up her research programme, Shona got
A. advice from personal friends in other countries.
B. help from students in- other countries.
C. information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries.

(32) What types of people were included in the research?

A. young people in their first job
B. men who were working
C. women who were unemployed

(33) Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was

A. to get a wide range of data.
B. to limit people’s responses.
C. to guide people through interviews.

(34) What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain?
A. Current concerns are misrepresented by the press.
B. Financial issues are critical to the government.
C. Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful.

(35) Shona needs to do further research in order to

A. present the government with her findings.
B. decide the level of extra funding needed.
C. identify the preferences of the public.

(36) Shona has learnt from the research project that

A. it is important to plan projects carefully.
B. people do not like answering questions.
C. colleagues do not always agree.
Questions 37-40
Which statement applies to each of the following people who were interviewed by Shona?
278
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 37-40.
A. gave false data
B. decided to stop participating
C. refused to tell Shona about their job
D. kept changing their mind about participating
E. became very angry with Shona
F. was worried about confidentiality

People interviewed by Shona

(37) ____________ a person interviewed in the street
(38) ____________ an undergraduate at the university
(39) ____________ a colleague in her department
(40) ____________ a tutor in a foreign university

279
 UNIT: 25
Speaking

28. Describe a character in a book you have read or a film you have seen.
You should say:
 Why you chose this character.
 When you read the book/saw the film.
 How this character influenced you.
Related questions:
 Would you like to be like this character?
 Do you know anyone who is like this character?
 What is the value of encouraging children to read stories or novels?
 How do you think authors create characters for their books?
 Where do these characters come from?
 Do you think film is the best medium for telling a story?
29. Describe a wedding or celebration that you have attended which you enjoyed.
You should say:
 When the event took place.
 What happened?
 Why you enjoyed it.
Related questions:
 Is it type of celebration popular in your country?
 Have you been to a similar celebration since this one?
 How important is it to celebrate anniversaries or special days?
 What are the benefits of having national or public holidays?
 Is it concept of the 5-day working week and the 2-day weekend becoming out-of-
date?
 How has the attitude of people changed towards marriage?
 How do men-women perceive marriage as different?
 What is better love marriage or arranged marriage?
30. Do you like giving and receiving gifts?
You should say:
 Gift you value the most.
 What the gift was.
 Who gave it to you?
 Why do you think it was the most special present?
Related questions:
 What type of gifts do children demand today?
 Do you like shopping or not?
 Your favourite spot for shopping in your city?
 Is it important to celebrate special occasions like anniversaries and birthdays?

280
 Writing (General) - Task 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You should write at least 150 words.
You do NOT need to write your own address.
Begin your letter as follows;
Dear……………….

1. A newspaper has published an incorrect account of a theft in your house.

Write a letter to the editor, in the letter
 Informing him of what actually happened
2. You are going to visit New Zealand for an 'English and Home-stay' program. You have
just received details of your home-stay host family.

Write your first letter to the family. In your letter

 introduce yourself
 ask the family some questions to get information that is important to you.
 tell the family about your arrival date and time

Writing (Academic) – Task 1

You should spend about 20 minute on this task.

1. Tourism in the United Kingdom contributes billion of pounds sterling to the UK

economy. The table below identifies the twelve most visited paid admission attractions
in the UK in 1999 and 2000.

Write a report describing the information shown in the table.

The Top Most Visited Paid Admission in the UK 1999 & 2000
Attraction Location Country Visits Visits 1999 % Change
2000
Millennium Dome London England 6516874E Not opened yet N/A
British Airways London England 3300000E Not opened yet N/A
London Eye
Alton Towers Alton England 2450000 2650000 -7.5
Madame Tussaud’s London England 2388000 2640000 -9.5
Tower of London London England 2303167 2428603 -5.2
Natural History London England 1577044 1696725 -7.1
Museum
Chessington World of Chessington England 1500000E 1550000 -3.2
Adventures
Legoland Windsor Windsor England 1490000 1620000 -8.0
Victoria & Albert London England 1344113 1251396 7.4
Museum
Science Museum London England 1337432 1483234 -9.8
281
Flamingo land Kirby England 1301000E 1197000E 8.7
Theme park & Zoo Misperton
Canterbury Cathedral Canterbury England 1263140E 1318066E -4.2

2. The three diagrams below show the development of, and plans for, the coastal zone of
Brightsea.

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

282
 Writing Task 2
Instructions
 Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the
following topic:
 You should write at least 250 words.
 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
 Use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples
and relevant evidence.
1. What are the threats to environment in the present times? What can individuals and
governments do to prevent such abuses to nature?
2. Nowadays there is lot of pressure of studies and competition on the students. Should it be
there? Is it beneficial in making them better students?

283
 IELTS UPDATED BAND LIST

LISTENING
BANDS RAW
2.5 4,5
3 6,7
3.5 8,9,10
4 11,12
4.5 13,14,15
5 16,17
5.5 18,19,20,21,22
6 23,24,25
6.5 26,27,28,29
7 30,31
7.5 32,33,34
8 35,36
8.5 37,38
9 39,40

READING (ACADEMIC) READING (GENERAL)

BANDS RAW BANDS RAW
2.5 4,5 2.5 6,7,8
3 6,7 3 9,10,11
3.5 8,9 3.5 12,13,14
4 10,11,12 4 15,16,17,18
4.5 13,14 4.5 19,20,21,22
5 15,16,17,18 5 23,24,25,26
5.5 19,20,21,22 5.5 27,28,29
6 23,24,25,26 6 30,31
6.5 27,28,29 6.5 32,33
7 30,31,32 7 34,35
7.5 33,34 7.5 36
8 35,36 8 37,38
8.5 37,38 8.5 39
9 39,40 9 40

284