MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

(GPAT 2010)

PREPARED BY

I
DR. NAITIK D. TRIVEDI,

ED
M. PHARM, PH. D

IV
LECTURER AT GOVERNMENT AIDED,
A. R. COLLEGE OF PHARMACY & G. H. PATEL INSTITUTE OF
TR

I
&
PHARMACY, VALLABH VIDYANAGAR, ANAND.

ED
Mobile: +91 - 9924567864
D

IV
E-mail: [email protected]
IK

TR
&
IT

N.
NA

DR. UPAMA N. TRIVEDI,

M. PHARM, PH. D
A
.

ASSOCIATE PROFESSOR & HoD (Pharm.D),

AM
DR

INDUBHAI PATEL COLLEGE OF PHARMACY AND RESEARCH

UP

CENTRE, DHARMAJ.
E-mail: [email protected]
.
DR

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

GPAT - 2010
Q.l The vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is
(A) Pyridoxine
(B) Thiamine
(C) Nicotinic acid

I
(D) Inositol

ED
Ans. B

IV
Q.2 Gingkgo biloba is used for its
(A) Expectorant activity
TR

I
&
(B) Lipid lowering activity

ED
(C) PAF antagonistic activity
D

(D) Antidepressant activity

IV
Ans. C
IK

TR
Q.3 The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is
IT

(A) <1%
N.
NA

(B) 3.5-4%
(c) 1-1.5%
(D) 2-2.5%
A
.

Ans. B
AM
DR

UP

Q.4 Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders :

(A) Systolic hypertension
(B) Unstable angina
.

(C) Pulmonary hypertension

DR

(D) Hypertension due to eclampsia

Ans. C

Q.5 Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the aglycone part of
the steroid nucleus :

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(A) 5a, 1 4 a –
(B)5a, 14β-
(C) 5β, 1 4 a –
(D) 5β,14β-
Ans. D

I
ED
Q.6 Quassia wood is adulterated with
(A) Brucea antidysentrica

IV
(B) Cassia angustifoila
(C) Cinnamomum zeylanicum
TR

I
&
(D) Cephaelis ipecacuanaha

ED
Ans. B
D

IV
Q.7 Eugenol is present in
IK

(A) Fennel

TR
(B) Tulsi
IT

(C) Cardamom
N.
NA

(D) Coriander
Ans. B
A
.

Q.8 Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of
AM
DR

Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with Chronic myeloid Leukemia?

UP

(A) Pentostatin
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Imatinib
.

(D) L-Asparaginase
DR

Ans. C

Q.9 Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients

with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
(A) Infliximab

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(B) Abciximab
(C) Gemtuzumab
(D) Rituximab
Ans. D

I
Q.10 Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by

ED
Plasmodium falciparum:
(A.) Artemisinin

IV
(B) Primaquine
(C) Quinine
TR

I
&
(D) Mefloquine

ED
Ans. B
D

IV
Q.ll Which one of the following drugs does NOT act through G-Protein coupled
IK

receptors?

TR
(A) Epinephrine
IT

(B) Insulin
N.
NA

(C) Dopamine
(D) TSH
Ans. B
A
.

AM
DR

Q.12 Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission
UP

of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

(A) Lamivudine
(B) Zidovudine
.

(C) Indinavir
DR

(D) Ribavirin
Ans. B

Q.13 Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by drugs

which increase transmission in

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(A) cholinergic receptors

(B) dopaminergic receptors
(C) GABAergic receptors
(D) adrenergic receptors
Ans. A

I
ED
Q.14 Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?
(A) Piroxicam

IV
(B) Celecoxib
(C)Nabumetone
TR

I
&
(D) Ketorolac

ED
Ans. C
D

IV
Q.15 Which one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent?
IK

(A) Chlorpromazine

TR
(B) Haloperidol
IT

(C) Risperidone
N.
NA

(D) Flupentixol
Ans. C
A
.

Q.16 Which one of the followings is a plasminogen activator?

AM
DR

(A) Tranexamic acid

UP

(B) Streptokinase
(C) Aminocaproic acid
(D) None of the above
.

Ans. B
DR

Q.17 Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by

using
(A) Donepezil
(B) Edrophonium

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(C) Atropine
(D) Pancuronium
Ans. B

Q.18 Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the

I
activated T lymphocytes?

ED
(A) Daclizumab
(B) Prednisone

IV
(C) Sirolimus
(D) Tacrolimus
TR

I
&
Ans. D

ED
D

Q.19 The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

IV
(A) acidic
IK

(B)Basic

TR
(C) neutral
IT

(D) amphoteric
N.
NA

Ans. B

Q.20 At physiological pH the following compound would be MOSTLY in the

A
.

(A) cationic form

AM
DR

(B) unionized form

UP

(C) zwitterionic form

(D) anionic form
Ans. B
.
DR

Q.21 Which one of the followings is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder
and also in certain epileptic convulsions?
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Lithium
(C) Sodium valproate

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) Fluoxetine
Ans. C

Q.22 An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

(A) pyrrole

I
(B) isoxazole

ED
(C) phenol
(D) tetrazole

IV
Ans.-D
TR

I
&
Q.23 The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins :

ED
(A) Roxythromycin
D

(B) Adriamycin

IV
(C) Aureomycin
IK

(D) Rifamycin

TR
Ans. D
IT

N.
NA

Q.24 For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical EXCEPT
(A) O-demethylation
(B) aromatic oxidation
A
.

(C) benzylic hydroxylation

AM
DR

(D) amide hydrolysis

UP

Ans. B

Q.25 The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the

.

treatment of Parkinsonism have been attributed to its catabolism to dopamine.

DR

Carbidopa, can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that crosses the bloodbrain
barrier by
(A) increasing penetration of levodopa through BBB by complexation with it
(B) decreasing peripheral metabolism of levodopa
(C) decreasing metabolism of levodopa in the CNS

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) decreasing clearance of levodopa from the CNS

Ans. B

Q.26 Ethambutol molecule has

(A) two chiral centers and 3 stereoisomers

I
(B) two chiral centers and 4 stereoisomers

ED
(C) two chiral centers and 2 stereoisomers
(D) one chiral center and 2 stereoisomers

IV
Ans. B
TR

I
&
Q.27 A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the

ED
following properties undergo transition on
D

(A) Polarizability

IV
(B) Dielectric constant
IK

(C) Dipole moment

TR
(D) Refractivity
IT

Ans. C
N.
NA

Q.28 X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its

(A) Optical rotatory dispersive power
A
.

(B) Absolute configuration

AM
DR

(C) Relative configuration

UP

(D) Optical purity

Ans. B
.

Q.29 Which one of the following statements is WRONG?

DR

(A) A singlet or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is
excited to higher energy levels
(B) In an excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is paired with
the electron in the ground state orbital
(C) Triplet excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) When the electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the
molecule always shows fluorescence phenomenon
Ans. C

Q.30 Aminotransferases usually require the following for their activity :

I
(A) Niacinamide

ED
(B)Vitamin B12
(C) Pyridoxal phosphate

IV
(D) Thiamine
Ans. C
TR

I
&

ED
Q.31 Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties
D

instrumentally :

IV
(A) pH
IK

(B) Refractivity

TR
(C) Viscosity
IT

(D) Conductivity
N.
NA

Ans. D

Q.32 Which one of the following statements is WRONG?

A
.

(A) Carbon NMR is less sensitive than proton NMR

AM
DR

(B) 12C nucleus is not magnetically active

UP

(C) Both 13C and *H have same spin quantum numbers

(D) The gyromagnetic ratio of *H is lesser than that of1 C
Ans.D
.
DR

Q.33 In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps,

incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place :
(A) Citrate synthase
(B) Aconitase
(C) Maleate dehydrogenase

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) Succinyl Co-A synthase

Ans. C

Q-34 Which website first Providing GPAT-2010 paper with answer key
(A)Gpatindia.com

I
(B) Gpatindia.com

ED
(C) Gpatindia.com
(D)Gpatindia.com

IV
Ans. Have fun (all)
TR

I
&
Q.34 Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

ED
(A) hydrogen bond formation
D

(B) covalent bond formation

IV
(C) complex formation
IK

(D) the action of London forces

TR
Ans. A
IT

N.
NA

Q.35 In the mixing of thymol and menthol the following type of incompatibility occurs:
(A) Chemical incompatibility
(B) Therapeutic incompatibility
A
.

(C) Physical incompatibility

AM
DR

(D) Tolerance incompatibility

UP

Ans. C

Q.36 Bloom strength is used to check the quality of

.

(A) Lactose
DR

(B) Ampoules
(C) Hardness of tablets
(D)Gelatin
Ans. D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

Q.37 The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include :

(A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose
(B) Elimination half-life remains constant,
(C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose
(D) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant

I
Ans. C

ED
Q.38 In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is

IV
(A) Schedule M
(B) Schedule C
TR

I
&
(C) Schedule Y

ED
(D) Schedule H
D

Ans. A

IV
IK

Q.39 Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic

TR
formulations :
IT

(A) Depilatory preparations

N.
NA

(B) Epilatory preparations

(C) Vanishing creams
(D) Skin tan preparations
A
.

Ans. A
AM
DR

UP

Q.40 Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged
drug?
(A) Aluminium chloride
.

(B) Bentonite
DR

(C) Tragacanth
(D) Sodium biphosphate
Ans. A

Q.41 The healing agent used in hand creams is

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(A) soft paraffin

(B) urea
(C) bees wax
(D) stearyl alcohol
Ans. A

I
ED
Q.42 Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for
(A) Effective renal blood flow

IV
(B) Renal drug excretion rate
(C) Active renal secretion
TR

I
&
(D) Glomerular filtration rate

ED
Ans. D
D

IV
Q.43 Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures
IK

with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

TR
(A) cyclodextrins
IT

(B) dextrans
N.
NA

(C) dendrimers
(D) liposomes
Ans.
A
.

AM
DR

Q.44 Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the
UP

formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Mannitol
.

(C) Starch
DR

(D) HPMC
Ans. B

Q.45 The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

(A) First order kinetics

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(B) Zero order kinetics

(C) Mixed order kinetics
(D)Dissolution rate
Ans. D

I
Q.46 Which filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine

ED
containing basic drugs to avoid discoloration of the tablets?
(A) Dicalcium phosphate

IV
(B) Microcrystalline cellulose
(C) Starch
TR

I
&
(D) Lactose

ED
Ans. D
D

IV
Q.47 The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to
IK

(A) 0.4 micron

TR
(B) 25 micron
IT

(C) 50 micron
N.
NA

(D) 10 micron

Q.48 What quantities of 95 % v/v and 45 % v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65
A
.

% v/v alcohol?
AM
DR

(A) 480 mL of 95 % and 320 mL of 45 % alcohol

UP

(B) 320 mL of 95 % and 480 mL of 45 % alcohol

(C) 440 mL of 95 % and 360 mL of 45 % alcohol
(D) 360 mL of 95 % and 440 mL of 45 % alcohol
.

Ans. B
DR

Q.49 The role of borax in cold creams is

(A) anti-microbial agent
(B) to provide fine particles to polish skin
(C) in-situ emulsifier

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) antioxidant
Ans. A

Q.50 Choose the right combination:

(A) Quinine', antimalarial, isoquinoline alkaloid

I
(B) Reserpine, -antihypertensive, indole alkaloid

ED
(C) Quantitative microscopy, stomatal number, myrrh
(D) Palmitic acid, salicylic acid , fatty acids

IV
Ans. B
TR

I
&
Q.51 Triterpenoids are active constituents of

ED
(A) Jaborandi
D

(B) Rhubarb

IV
(C) Stramonium
IK

(D) Brahmi

TR
Ans.D
IT

N.
NA

Q.52 Alkaloids are NOT precipitated by

(A) Mayer's reagent
(B) Dragendroff Reagent
A
.

(C) Picric acid

AM
DR

(D) Millon's reagent

UP

Ans. D

Q.53 Anisocytic stomata are present in

.

(A) Senna
DR

(B) Digitalis
(C) Belladonna
(D) Coca
Ans. C

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

Q.54 Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

(A) Scrophulariacea
(B) Leguminosae
(C) Polygalaceae
(D) Rubiaceae

I
Ans. A

ED
Q.55 Tropane alkaloids are NOT present in

IV
(A) Datura stramonium
(B) Erythroxylum coca
TR

I
&
(C) Duboisia myoporoides

ED
(D) Lobelia inflate
D

Ans. D

IV
IK

Q.56 Guggul lipids are obtained from

TR
(A) Commiphora molmol
IT

(B) Boswellia serrata

N.
NA

(C) Commiphora wightii

(D) Commiphora abyssinica
Ans. C
A
.

AM
DR

Q.57 An example of N-glycoside is

UP

(A) Adenosine
(B) Sinigrin
(C) Rhein-8-glucoside
.

(D) Aloin
DR

Ans. A

Q.58 One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of

(A) 94,000 spores
(B) 92,000 spores

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(C) 90,000 spores

(D) 91,000 spores
Ans. A

Q.59 Select the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering

I
from Hepatitis C:

ED
(A) Interferon with Ribavirin
(B) Interferon with Zidovudine

IV
(C) Interferon with Stavudine
(D) Interferon with Lamivudine
TR

I
&
Ans. B

ED
D

Q.60 Aliskiren acts by

IV
(A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
IK

(B) inhibiting the release of rennin

TR
(C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
IT

(D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone

N.
NA

Ans. B

Q.61 Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

A
.

(A) Potassium
AM
DR

(B) Quinidine
UP

(C) Diuretics
(D) Antacids
.

Ans. B & C
DR

Q.62 The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings :
(A) LDL-receptor concentration
(B) VLDL secretion
(C) Mevalonic acid formation

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) Co-enzyme A formation

Ans. C

Q.63 Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de
pointes?

I
(A) Chlorpromazine

ED
(B) Astemizole
(C) Haloperidol

IV
(D) Domperidone
Ans. B
TR

I
&

ED
Q.64 Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by
D

(A) Cytomegalovirus

IV
(B) Candida albicans
IK

(C) Herpes zoster virus

TR
(D) Hepatitis B virus
IT

Ans. A & C
N.
NA

Q.65 Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit :
(A) Norfloxacin – Metronidazole
A
.

(B) Alprazolam – Paracetamol

AM
DR

(C) Cisapride – Omeprazole

UP

(D)Amoxycillin - Clavulanic acid

Ans. D
.

Q.66 Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the
DR

following category of drugs :

(A) Sulphonamides
(B) Macrolides
(C) Penicillins
(D) Tetracyclines

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

Ans. A

Q.67 Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material :

(A) Phthalic anhydride
(B) Terephthalic acid

I
(C) Phthalamic acid

ED
(D) Phthalimide
Ans. B

IV
Q.68 The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs
TR

I
&
barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is

ED
(A) ureide
D

(B) imidazolidinone

IV
(C) dihydropyrimidine
IK

(D) tetrahydropyrimidine

TR
Ans. A
IT

N.
NA

Q.69 Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

(A) Atropine
(B) Carvedilol
A
.

(C) Neostigmine
AM
DR

D) d-Tubocurarine
UP

Ans. D

Q.70 Chemical nomenclature of procaine is

.

(A) 2-Diethylaminoethyl 4-aminobenzoate

DR

(B) N,N-Diethyl 4-aminobenzoate

(C) 4-Aminobenzamidoethyl amine
(D) 4-Amino-2-diethylaminoethyl benzoate
Ans. A & D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

Q.71 Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic
activity:
(A) 1,3-Disubstitution
(B) 5,5-Disubstitution
(C) 1,5-Disubstitution

I
(D) 3,3-Disubstitution

ED
Ans. B

IV
Q.72 Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is
(A) Imipramine
TR

I
&
(B) Iproniazide

ED
(C) Fluoxetin
D

(D)Naphazoline

IV
Ans. C
IK

TR
Q.73 Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring
IT

system:
N.
NA

(A) Pyrimidine (
B) Benzimidazole
(C) Benzothiazole
A
.

(D) Oxindole
AM
DR

Ans. B
UP

Q.74 A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG
CoA reductase enzyme is
(A) Fluvastatin
.

(B) Cerivastatin
DR

(C) Lovastatin
(D) Somatostatin
Ans. C

Q.75 Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(A) alkylating agent before metabolism

(B) alkylating agent after metabolism
(C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism
(D) DNA intercalating agent
Ans. B

I
ED
Q.76 Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure :
(A) an endoperoxide

IV
(B) an exoperoxide
(C) an epoxide
TR

I
&
(D) an acid hydrazide

ED
Ans. A
D

IV
Q.77 Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature :
IK

(A) PDA detector

TR
(B) Refractive Index detector
IT

(C) Electrochemical detector

N.
NA

(D) Fluorescence detector

Ans. B
A
.

Q.78 One of the following statements is NOT true :

AM
DR

(A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement

UP

(B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement

(C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also
(D) High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also
.

Ans. C
DR

Q.79 In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity :

(A) Chloro group at position 6
(B) Methyl group at position 2
(C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(D) Hydrophobic group at position 3

Ans. C

Q.80 Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because
(A) it gets degraded in the GIT

I
(B) it causes severe diarrhea

ED
(C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth
(D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

IV
Ans. D
TR

I
&
Q.81 In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of

ED
wavelengths lower than
D

(A) 350 nm

IV
(B) 200 nm
IK

(C) 300 nm

TR
(D) 250 nm
IT

Ans. A
N.
NA

Q.82 Glass transition temperature is detected through

(A) X-Ray diffractometery
A
.

(B) Solution calorimeter

AM
DR

(C) Differential scanning calorimetery

UP

(D) Thermogravimetric analysis

Ans. C
.

Q.83 In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to

DR

increase their
(A) volatility
(B) solubility
(C) thermal conductivity
(D) polarizability

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

Ans. D

Q.84 Oxidative phosphorylation involves

(A) Electron transport system
(B) Substrate level phosphorylation

I
(C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle

ED
(D) None of the above
Ans. A

IV
Q.85 Coulter counter is used in determination of
TR

I
&
(A) particle surface area

ED
(B) particle size
D

(C) particle volume

IV
(D)all of A, B, C
IK

Ans. D

TR
IT

Q.86 Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate

N.
NA

(A) bi-exponentially
(B) tri-exponentially
(C) non-exponentially
A
.

(D) mono-exponentially
AM
DR

Ans. D
UP

Q.87 The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is
given as :
.

(A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C

DR

(B) temperature below 20C

(C) temperature at 0°C
(D) temperature between 2cC and S:C
Ans. D

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

Q.88 Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

(A) increase their biological activity
(B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body
(C) increase their aqueous solubility
(D) all of the above

I
Ans. D

ED
Q.89 The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure :

IV
(A) cc-Chymotrypsin
(B) Hemoglobin
TR

I
&
(C) Insulin

ED
(D) Myoglobin
D

Ans.B

IV
IK

Q.90 Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

TR
(A) first order kinetics
IT

(B)second order kinetics

N.
NA

(C) zero order kinetics

(D) non-linear kinetics
Ans. C
A
.

AM
DR

Q.91 In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former :

UP

(A) Nitrocellulose
(B) Polylactic acid
(C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose
.

(D) Cellulose acetate phthalate

DR

Ans. A

Q.92 Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

(A) Sheep blood
(B) Mice lymph

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(C) Horse plasma

(D) Fertile eggs
Ans. D

Q.93 A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg

I
dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability

ED
of the drug through oral administration is :
(A) 125%

IV
(B) 250 %
(C) 12.5%
TR

I
&
(D) 1.25%

ED
Ans.C
D

IV
Q.94 Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials
IK

(A) Phase I

TR
(B) Phase II
IT

(C) Phase III

N.
NA

(D) Phase IV
Ans. B
A
.

Q.95 Class 100 area is referred to

AM
DR

(A) Manufacturing area

UP

(B) Aseptic area

(C) Clean room
(D) Ware house
.

Ans. B
DR

Q.96 How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000
w/v solution?
(A) 750 mL
(B) 1000 mL

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(c) 1250 mL
(D) 1500 mL
Ans. C

Q.97 The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30

I
microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be

ED
(A)10 L
(B) 100 L

IV
(C) 1.0 L
(D) 0.10 L
TR

I
&
Ans. A

ED
D

Q.98 It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours

IV
of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained
IK

release product will be

TR
(A) 600 mg
IT

(B) 300 mg
N.
NA

(C) 30 mg
(D) 60 mg
Ans. B
A
.

AM
DR

Q.99 Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of
UP

India?
(A) The Director General of Health Services
(B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory
.

(C) The Drugs Controller General of India

DR

(D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory

Ans. D

Q.100 In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point?
(A) Lyophilization

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (GPAT 2010)

(B) Spray drying

(C) Spray congealing
(D) Centrifugation
Ans. A

I
ED
IV
TR

I
&

ED
D

IV
IK

TR
IT

N.
NA

A
.

AM
DR

UP
.
DR

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