GROUNDSCHOOL EXAMINATION

- For Air Transport Pilot License (ATPL) Ground Course

FLIGHT NAVIGATION

Issue 01
13 January 2017
 Groundschool examination
For Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) Ground Course

RADIO NAVIGATION
ADF

1. A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be
increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
a. Eight
b. Six
c. Four
d. Two

2. 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions,
is due to:
a. skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
b. interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
c. static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
d. the effect of the Aurora Borealis

3. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
a. misalignment of the loop aerial
b. signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
c. signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
d. skywave/groundwave contamination

4. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?

a. 8 m
b. 8000 m
c. 800 m
d. 80 m

5. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
a. 255 - 455 kHz
b. 200 - 1750 kHz
c. 300 - 3000 kHz
d. 200 - 2000 kHz

6. In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

a. signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
b. sense aerial must be tuned separately
c. mode selector should be switched to 'loop'
d. BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

7. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
a. Coastal effect
b. Local thunderstorm activity
c. Quadrantal error
d. Precipitation interference

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prepared by Slam
 Groundschool examination
For Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) Ground Course
8. The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
a. find the loop 'null' position
b. stop loop rotation
c. hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
d. hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal

9. Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

a. SHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. HF

10. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

a. static interference
b. uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
c. night effect
d. quadrantal error

11. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be
made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
a. 284° with the FROM flag showing
b. 284° with the TO flag showing
c. 104° with the TO flag showing
d. 104° with the FROM flag showing

12. An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The bearing you should select
on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication
is:
a. 100°
b. 090°
c. 270°
d. 280°

13. In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

a. UHF
b. VHF
c. SHF
d. EHF

14. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

a. rhumbline track
b. great circle track
c. line of constant bearing
d. constant magnetic track

15. An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an
approximate maximum range of:
a. 135 NM
b. 123 NM
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 Groundschool examination
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c. 130 NM
d. 142 NM

DME

16. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?
a. An ADF sited on the flight route
b. A DME station sited on the flight route
c. A VOR station sited on the flight route
d. A DME station sited across the flight route

17. The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:
a. 962 to 1213 MHz
b. 108 to 118 MHz
c. 329 to 335 MHz
d. 962 to 1213 kHz

18. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

a. UHF band and is a primary radar system
b. VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
c. UHF band and is a secondary radar system
d. SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques

19. The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
a. aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
b. reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
c. DME transmits twin pulses
d. DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

20. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard
the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
a. VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
b. DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
c. DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
d. DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

21. The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME system
a. Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft
b. Is to prevent self-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter
c. Is to prevent overload of the system
d. Is to permit more channels in the system

Instrument Landing System (ILS)

22. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
a. 400 Hz, blue
b. 3000 Hz, blue
c. 1300 Hz, blue
d. 400 Hz, amber
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 Groundschool examination
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23. ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

a. back-scattering of antennas
b. spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
c. multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
d. ground returns ahead of the antennas

24. A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from
coverage limit down to:
a. 50 feet above ILS reference point
b. 200 feet above the runway threshold
c. runway surface
d. 200 feet above the inner marker

25. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of
120 kt?
a. 550 FT/MIN
b. 600 FT/MIN
c. 800 FT/MIN
d. 950 FT/MIN

26. In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. SHF
d. EHF

27. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display
represent:
a. 2.0 degrees
b. 1.5 degrees
c. 2.5 degrees
d. 0.5 degrees

28. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
a. white - amber - blue
b. amber - white - green
c. blue - amber – white
d. blue - green – white

29. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:

a. increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
b. decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
c. decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
d. increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

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 Groundschool examination
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30. A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
a. the surface of the runway
b. a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway
c. a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
d. a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway

31. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

a. 112.10 MHz
b. 108.25 MHz
c. 110.20 MHz
d. 109.15 MHz

32. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of
90 kt?
a. 450 FT/MIN
b. 400 FT/MIN
c.600 FT/MIN
d. 700 FT/MIN

33. Which of the following frequencies are used by ILS?

a. 109,35 MHz
b. 111,10 MHz
c.108,45 MHz
d. a and b above

BASIC RADAR PRINCIPLES

34. On a standard radar display (PPI)

a. The time base is a sine curve
b. The time base is a cosine curve
c.The time base is a linear, straight scale
d. The time base is made to rotate synchronously with the antenna in order to display bearing as well
as range

Ground Radar

35. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
a. 100 NM
b. 200 NM
c.300 NM
d. 400 NM

36. A long-range surveillance radar will typically use a frequency of

a. 1000 MHz
b. 600 MHz
c.3000 MHz
d. 10 GHz
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 Groundschool examination
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37. A Surveillance Radar installation will often consist of

a. A Primary radar and a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
b. A primary Radar and a VDF
c.A Primary Radar and a Precision Radar
d. An SSR and a Precision Radar

Airborne Weather Radar

38. In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:

a. fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
b. fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
c.pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
d. pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM

39. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the
'weather beam'?
a. stratus
b. cirrocumulus
c.cumulus
d. altostratus

40. A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system
because:
a. the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small
b. greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
c.static interference is minimised
d. less power output is required in the mapping mode

41. In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
a. permitted anywhere
b. only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect
equipment
c.totally prohibited
d. unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas

42. In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the
height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5°)
a. 5° up
b. 0°
c.2.5° down
d. 2.5° up

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 Groundschool examination
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43. When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line appears on the screen.
This means that the:
a. scanner is not rotating
b. transmitter is faulty
c.scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
d. receiver is faulty

44. Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?
a. dry hail; clear air turbulence
b. snow; clear air turbulence
c.clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
d. snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation

45. Airborne weather radar uses a particularly high frequency radar signal, at 9 – 12 GHz, in order to
a. Get the most accurate range and bearing information
b. Get good returns from droplets of water and other sorts of precipitation
c.Making it possible to present a colour display of the weather situation
d. All 3 answers are correct

46. On the airborne weather radar display, different colours are used
a. To display different intensity of precipitation
b. High ground
c.Echoes from other aircraft
d. Clouds, indicating different levels of visibility

47. You want to use your airborne weather radar to detect areas with turbulence. Consider the following
statements:
a. If you are flying at low altitude, the detection of turbulence at levels below the aircraft may
difficult because of ground returns
b. You should select the cosec beam and carefully adjust the aerial tilt
c. Using the cosec beam, the height of top of clouds, with possible turbulence, may be calculated
using the 1 : 60 rule.
d. All 3 answers are correct

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

48. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

a. The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
b. The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
c.A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
d. The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources

49. In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:
a. 7000
b. 7700
c.7600
d. 7500

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 Groundschool examination
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50. In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
a. 7600
b. 7500
c.7700
d. 7000

51. A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used in:
a. mode C only
b. mode A only
c.all modes
d. mode S

52. The frequencies used by SSRs are

a. Interrogations are transmitted on 1030 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1090
MHz
b. Interrogations are transmitted on 1030 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1030
MHz
c.Interrogations are transmitted on 1090 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1090
MHz
d. Interrogations are transmitted on 1090 MHz and transponder responses are transmitted on 1030
MHz

53. What SSR modes are currently in use by ATC?

a. Mode C and Mode D
b. Mode A and Mode B
c.Mode A and Mode C
d. Mode A, Mode B and Mode C

54. When the ATC transponder "IDENT" button is pressed by the pilot
a. The airplane's identification will be sent to all SSRs within range
b. The airplane's echo on the controller's display will flash or "fill in"
c.Mode A will automatically be selected
d. The controller will be urged to identify this airplane

Doppler

55. The major source of cross-track error in a doppler navigation system is:
a. compass error
b. altitude error
c.latitude error
d. mnoeuvring error

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 Groundschool examination
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Satellite Assisted Navigation

56. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
a. 4
b. 3
c.5
d. 6

57. In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

a. timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
b. the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known
position
c.timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and
return from a satellite in a known position
d. the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum
number of satellites

58. Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking
signals from 4 different satellites?
a. Latitude, longitude and altitude
b. Latitude and longitude
c.Latitude, longitude and time
d. Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

59. Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position
fixes in air navigation?
a. GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
b. NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
c.NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
d. NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

60. How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
a. 30
b. 18
c.12
d. 24

61. The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:

a. determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of
light
b. calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
c.calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the
receiver
d. determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light

62. What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an
aircraft?
a. Sequential
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b. Multichannel
c.Multiplex
d. Any hand held type

63. How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
a. 12 days
b. Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
c.Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day) (*)
d. 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit

64. What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using
the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
a. If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric
altitude
b. Barometric altitude
c.Radar altitude
d. GPS altitude

65. Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR
conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
a. GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude
b. The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
c.GPS altitude
d. Barometric altitude

66. Current minimum operational standards for the GPS system calls for
a. 3 satellites "visible" at least 7,5° above the horizon
b. 4 satellites "visible" above the horizon
c.4 satellites "visible" at least 10° above the horizon
d. 5 satellites "visible" at least 7,5° above the horizon

GENERAL NAVIGATION

67. What type navigation is inertial navigation system (INS) ? a navigation computer which provides
position

a. From radar-type sensors that measures ground speed and drift angels
b. From information by compass, airspeed, and an input of wind and variation data
c. By signal from self-contained gyros and accelometers

68. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distane and displayed
distance to the VORTAC ?

a. Low altitude to the VORTAC

b. High altitude to the VORTAC
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c. Low altitude far from VORTAC

69. When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound ?

a. At the end of 1-minute standard rate turn after station passage

b. Abeam the holding fix or when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound
heading, which ever occurs first
c. When abeam the holding fix

70. Which component associated with the ils is identified by the first two letters of the localizer
identification group ?

a. Outer compass locator

b. Inner marker
c. Middle compass locator

71. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of localizer group ?

a. Inner marker
b. Outer compass locator
c. Middle compass locator

72. When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories ?

a. On tower frequency
b. On control frequency
c. One pilot to frequency and the other on approach control frequency

73. When cleared to execute a published side step maneuver, at what point pilot expected to commence
this maneuver ?

a. As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

b. At published DH
c. At the MDA published or circling approach

74. What does operational flexibility of the microwave landing system (MLS) include ?

a. An azimuth of 40 degrees in width providing obstacle clearance within 22 nm of the airport

b. Selectables glidepath angles and boundaries providing obstruction clearance in the terminal area
c. Curved and segmented approaches collocated with fixed glide path

75. What is the difference, if any, between the front and back azimuth of the MLS ?

a. Transmission are at a lower rate

b. None, except indicator reversal
c. Back azimuth has DME/P

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 Groundschool examination
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76. Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be

a. RNAV equipped
b. Astrotracker equipped
c. FMS/EFIS equipped

77. An aircraft's position is estimated as 60°N 11°W. A VOR station at 64°N 3°W gives a bearing indication
of 052°(M) TO the station. The variation at the VOR station is 8°W. Determine the bearing to plot
from the meridian passing through the VOR station on a Mercator chart

a. 3.5°
b. 4.2°
c. 5.5°
d. 2.5°

78. Observerd from postion on the surface of the earth the heavenly bodies seems to :

a. Move from west to the east on the southern

b. Move from the east to the west
c.Move from east to west on the northern
d. Not change their relative position on the sky

79. The planets move around the sun :

a. Constant angular speed

b. Constant velocity
c. In elliptical orbits
d. In circural orbits

80. When the earth is nearest tp the sun ?

a. End of march
b. Beginning of July
c. End of December
d. Beginning of January

81. The total length of the 30 degree latitude is ?

a. 18.706 km
b. 17.706 km
c. 18.000 km
d. 17.000 km

82. The convergency of meridians :

a. Is Independent of latitude and longitude

b. Is the angular difference between the meredians
c.Is Greater using rhumb line track than using great circle
d. All answers wrong
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83. Parallels of latitude, except the equator are :

a. Great circles
b. Rhumb line and Great Circle
c. Rhumb Line
d. Meredians

84. What is the highest latitude the sun can be vertically overhead the earth ?

a. 66 degree
b. 45 degree
c. 23 degree
d. 90 degree

85. The diameter of the earth ?

a. 12.700 km
b. 13.000 km
c. 6080 km
d. 40.000 km

86. A parallel of latitude is ?

a. Meredian of tangency
b. Rhumb line
c. Small circle
d. Great circle

87. The Diameter of the Earth is approximately :

A. 6.350 Km
B. 12.700 Km
C. 18.500 Km
D. 40.000 Km

88. What is the meaning of the term “standard time”

A. It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country
B. It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA
C. It is an expression for local mean time
D. It is another term for UTC

89. Isogonic lines connect positions that have :

A. The same angle of magnetic dip

B. 00 variation
C. The same elevation

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D. The same variation

90. A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that

A. Compass north is west of magnetic north

B. True north is west of magnetic north
C. Compass north is east of magnetic north
D. True north is east of magnetic north

91. Compass deviation is defined as the angle between

A. True north and compass north

B. True north and magnetic north
C. Magnetic north and compass north
D. The horizontal and the total intesity of the earth’s magnetic field

92. A rhumb line is

A. The shortest distance between two points on a polyconic projection

B. A line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
C. Any straight line on a lambert projection
D. A line convex to the nearest pole on a mercator projection

93. Given :

True track is 3480

Drift 170 left

Variation 320 W

Deviation 40 E

What is the compass heading ?

A. 0330
B. 0070
C. 3590
D. 3370

94. The main Reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the :

A. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic

B. Earth’s rotation
C. Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
D. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth

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 Groundschool examination
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95. The scale of a chart is given as 1:550.000. Determine the length in centimetres on this chart of a straight
line joining two points which are 80 nm apart ?

A. 10,61 Cm
B. 26,96 Cm
C. 24,67 Cm
D. 15,78 Cm

96. An aircraft departs point A, intending to fly the direct track to point B. After travelling 65 nm, the pilot pin-
points his position as being 10 nm to the left of track. Determine the alteration of heading required in order
to track parallel to the original flight plan track.

A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120

97. State the definition of the direction North

a. The Direction any point on the earth surface the True North pole
b. The Direction any point on the earth surface the Magnetic North pole
c. Imaginary circle on the surface the True North pole

98. Earth Convergency is

a. Meridians Converging at the poles

b. Equator Converging at the poles
c. Great Circle converging to the poles

99. External of Magnetic Flux are said to have direction, from which pole do they eminate?

a. Kirchhoff
b. Current
c. Tesla

100. Meridians of longitude are space at … intervals at … direction named as ..

.
a. 15 deg, Easterly , alpha to zulu
b. 30deg, northenly, Charlie to X-Ray
c. 45 deg, Easterly, Alpha to Zulu

101. lines running E/W on earth upto … deg

a. parallels of longitude 90N/S

b. parallels of latitude 90 N/S
c. Parallels of Meridian 90 N/S

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102. The Product of the first Integration of the output from the N-S Accelometer is

a. N-S Velocity Speed

b. N/S Velocity Speed
c N-S Radius Velocity

103. The Process by which the platform is aligned with the true north, using earth gravity called

a. Gyrocompassing
b. Earth Rate
c. Navigation Mode

104. What is the normal period of validity of the navigation database

a.30-Days
b 29-Days
c 28-Days

105. The type of projection most widely used in coastal navigation is the _____________ projection.

a. Mercator
b. Lambert
c. Transverse Mercator

106. The planets move around the Sun:

a. In elliptical orbits.
b. At constant velocity.
c. At constant angular speed.
d. In circular orbits.

107. Latitude may be defined as:

a. The displacement of a place from equator.

b. The angular distance measured along a meridian from the equator to a parallel of the latitude,
measured in degrees, minutes, and seconds and named North or South.
c. The distance from equator to a place on the surface of the earth.
d. The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane of the parallel of latitude.

108. The direction of the Earths rotation on its axis is such that:

a. Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.

b. Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise.
c. An observer on the surface of the earth always will face West when observing sunrise.
d. Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.

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 Groundschool examination
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109. Parallels of latitude, except the equator are:

a. Rhumb lines.
b. Both Rhumb lines and Great circles.
c. Are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles.
d. Great circles.

110. A Parallel of Latitude is a:

a. Great circle.
b. Small circle.
c. Rhumb line.
d. Meridian of tangency.

111. The term Ellipsoid may be used to describe:

a. The shape of the earth.

b. A great circle on the celestial sphere.
c. The movement of the earth around the sun.
d. The shape of the ecliptic.

112. A small circle is:

a. Has a plane that do not pass through the centre of the earth.
b. Has a plane parallel to the earths axis of rotation.
c. Will always cross equator.
d. Will also be a rhumb line.

113. A Rhumb Line is:

a. A line that crosses the equator at a constant angle.

b. A line that crosses lines of latitude at a constant angle.
c. A line that crosses lines of latitude at a constant angle.
d. Always a great circle.

114. The shortest distance between 2 point of the surface of the earth is:

a. A great circle
b. The arc of a great circle
c. Rhumb line.
d. Half the rhumb line distance.

115. The earth may be referred to as:

a. Elliptical
b. A globe.
c. An oblate spheroid.
d. Round.

Flight Navigation JATC 13 January 2017 Page 18 of 20

prepared by Slam
 Groundschool examination
For Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) Ground Course
116. The diameter of the earth is slightly greater accross the...

a. Poles
b. Equator
c. Southern Hemisphere
d. Northen Hemisphere

117. The earth rotating from...

a. East to West
b. North to South
c. West to East
d. South to North

118. An imaginary circle on the surface of the earth whose radius is the same as the earth and whose plane
passes through the centre of the earth is called...

a. Great Circle
b. Small Circle
c. Rhumb line
d. Equator

119. Latitude 14 degrees north could be expressed as...

a. L14
b. 14N
c. LA14
d. LAT14

120. GPS stands for...

a. Global Private Surveillance

b. Global Positioning Security
c. Global Private Secondary
d. Global Positioning System

121. True direction is expressed as an angle measured clockwise from...

a. True South
b. True West
c. True North
d. True East

122. Lines joining points of equal variation is known as...

a. Isogonal
b. Diagonal
c. Hektogonal
d. Mesogonal
Flight Navigation JATC 13 January 2017 Page 19 of 20

prepared by Slam
 Groundschool examination
For Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL) Ground Course

123. The error angle between magnetic north and compass north is called...

a. Variation
b. Deviation
c. Simulation
d. Collision

124. At the equator, earth convergency is...

a. -1
b. +1
c. +2
d. 0

125. Time in Jakarta is UTC ...

a. +7
b. +8
c. +9
d. +10

Flight Navigation JATC 13 January 2017 Page 20 of 20

prepared by Slam