NIGERIAN COLLEGE OF AVIATION TECHNOLOGY, ZARIA

FLYING SCHOOL

ATPL Revision/Practice Questions

SUBJECT: Radio Navigation Aids (RNA)

Radio Theory
1. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:
a) the plane of polarization is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter.
b) the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
c) the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial.
d) both the electrical and magnetic components are parallel to the aerial.

2. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is the frequency?

a) 1.5 KHz.
b) 1.5 GHz.
c) 1.5 MHz.
d) 15 MHz.

3. According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally
transmit?
a) HF/VHF.
b) MF/HF.
c) HF.
d) LF/MF.

4. A radio wave is:

a) an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic
field.
b) an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field
c) an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic field.
d) an energy field with an electrical component

5. The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What frequency band is this signal?
a) VLF.
b) UHF.
c) MF.
d) HF.

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6. A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a ___ aerial.
a) magnetic
b) parabolic
c) horizontal
d) vertical

7. Refer to the figure below. The phase difference between the two signals is:

a) 0900
b) 0750
c) 0600
d) 0450

VHF Direction Finder (VDF)

8. VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency band
a) 108 - 118 MHz
b) 108 - 136 MHz
c) 130 300 MHz
d) 118 - 137 MHz

9. The minimum airborne equipment required for the operation of a VHF direction finder is:
a) cathode-ray tube
b) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range
c) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range
d) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range

10. In VDF service the report "QDR 235, Class C" means

a) The true bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235 ±10°
b) The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ±10°
c) The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 ± 15°
d) The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235° ±10°

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11. What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive
information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
a) 180 NM
b) 150 NM
c) 120 NM
d) 220 NM

12. What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on
R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL?
a) FL60
b) FL50
c) FL100
d) FL80

13. Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

a) It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
b) It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
c) It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
d) It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or
on the ground

NDB/ADF
14. What gives the greatest error in ADF:
a) Coastal effect.
b) Night effect.
c) Static interference from thunderstorms.
d) Quadrantal error.

15. When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most
pronounced:
a) at dusk and dawn.
b) during the long winter nights.
c) at or near the coast.
d) when flying at low altitude.

16. An aircraft heading 3150M shows an NDB bearing 1800 on the RMI. Any quadrantal
error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
a) zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI.
b) at a maximum.
c) at a minimum.
d) zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR.

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17. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include ;
a) static interference - station interference - latitude error.
b) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system.
c) height error - station interference - mountain effect.
d) coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect.

18. An NDB transmits a signal pattern which is;

a) a 30 Hz polar diagram
b) omni-directional
c) a bi-polar
d) a beam rotating at 30 Hz

19. A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation
systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the:
a) ADF.
b) DME.
c) VOR.
d) weather radar.

20. When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most pronounced:
a). at dusk and dawn
b). during the long winter nights
c). at or near the coast
d). when flying at low altitude

21. On the QDR of 0750 (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 2950, the relative bearing
on the ADF indicator is:
a). 140.
b). 040.
c). 220.
d). 320

22. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the
correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:

a) NDB: beacon position, VOR: beacon position

b) NDB: beacon position, VOR: aircraft position
c) NDB: aircraft position, VOR: aircraft position
d) NDB: aircraft position, VOR: beacon position

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23. 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions,
is due to:
a) interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
b) the effect of the Aurora Borealis
c) skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
d) static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band.

24. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
a) skywave/groundwave contamination
b) misalignment of the loop aerial
c) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
d) signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring.

25. Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the
NDB is:
a) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
b) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
c) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
d) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.

26. An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic
heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
a) zero drift
b) right drift
c) left drift
d) a wind from the west.

27. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
a) 255 - 455 kHz
b) 200 - 2000 kHz
c) 300 - 3000 kHz
d) 200 - 1750 kHz.

28. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF
bearings?
a) Precipitation interference
b) Local thunderstorm activity
c) Quadrantal error
d) Coastal effect.

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29. A loop aerial, as used in the ADF, will
a) Will provide the most accurate bearing when it is aligned in the direction resulting in highest signal
strength to the ADF receiver.
b) Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is parallel to the
direction of the transmitter.
c) Always rotate at constant speed before locking on to a signal from an NDB.
d) Receive a minimum or null signal from a transmitter when the plane of the loop is at right angles to
the direction of the transmitter.

30. The basic information given by the ADF is

a) The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB
b) The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft
c) The magnetic direction of the loop aerial with reference to the sense aerial
d) The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.

VOR/DVOR
31. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
indicator where 1 dot = 20 deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument
will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
a) 6.0
b) 3.0
c) 4.5
d) 1.5

32. An aircraft is on radial 120° with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
a) left with FROM showing.
b) right with TO showing.
c) right with FROM showing.
d) left with TO showing.

33. The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:

a) phase comparison between a 108 MHz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable
signal
b) phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an
amplitude modulated variable signal
c) phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a
frequency modulated variable signal
d) phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 MHz variable
signal.

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34. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a) phase comparison
b) envelope matching
c) beat frequency discrimination
d) difference in depth of modulation

35. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic
variation:
a) at the VOR
b) at the aircraft location
c) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
d) at both the VOR and aircraft

36. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable
VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
a) 1.5° or more
b) 2.5 or more
c) 10° or more
d) less than 10°

37. The three main components of VOR airborne equipment are;

a) Demodulator, Antenna, CDU.
b) Receiver, Phase comparator, Range gate.
c) Display, Pulse generator, phase comparator.
d) Receiver, Antenna, Display.

38. The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:

a). Is always directed towards the aircraft.
b). Is like a figure-of-eight.
c). Is a pencil beam.
d). Rotates at 30 revolutions per second (30 Hz).

39. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
a). left with FROM showing
b). Left with TO showing
c). right with FROM showing
d). Right with TO showing

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40. Refer to the diagram of a VOR deviation indicator below. Assume that the indicator is set to define the
centerline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 nm from the VOR and inbound to the facility. At the time
of observation, the aircraft was located on radial:

a) 063
b) 253
c) 245
d) 243

41. With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents:
a) angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 50 off track)
b) angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 100 off track)
c) distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)
d) distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 10 nm off track)

42. A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

a) 180°
b) 190°
c) 195°
d) 185°

43. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
a) at the VOR
b) at the aircraft location
c) at both the VOR and aircraft
d) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station

44. The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

a) beat frequency discrimination

b) difference in depth of modulation
c) envelope matching
d) phase comparison

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45. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
a) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
b) static interference
c) quadrantal error
d) night effect

46. If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by:

a) noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
b) sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
c) interference from other transmitters
d) sky wave interference from the same transmitter

47. A VOR radial:

a. is defined by its bearing and distance from a station.

b. is the magnetic bearing to a station.
c. provides positive track guidance for localizer courses.
d. is designated a number which indicates its outbound magnetic bearing from a station.

48. If an aircraft is heading 325° M in the diagram below, what figure or figures would represent the CD1
and sense indication at position A and B?

a. figure 3
b. figure 1 then figure 2
c. figure 3 then figure 4
d. figure 2

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Instrument Landing System
49. The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.250 glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kt is
approximately:
a) 850 FT/MIN.
b) 800 FT/MIN.
c) 670 FT/MIN.
d) 700 FT/MIN.

50. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz
modulation notes from both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication
will show:
a) Fly right and fly down.
b) Fly left and fly down.
c) Fly right and fly up.
d) Fly left and fly up.

51. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

a) 112.10 MHz.
b) 108.25 MHz.
c) 110.20 MHz.
d) 109.15 MHz.

52. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 30 glide path at a
groundspeed of 120 kt?
a) 950 FT/MIN
b) 600 FT/MIN
c) 550 FT/MIN
d) 800 FT/MIN

53. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker
beacon?
a) blue - amber - white
b) amber - white - green
c) white - amber - blue
d) blue - green – white

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54. The basic principle of operation of the ILS is the difference in depth of modulation (
DDM) between the 90 Hz and 150 Hz lobes. A DDM of zero indicates:

I. the higher tone lobe is received at a higher strength than the lower tone lobe.
II. the exact runway centerline.
III. the aircraft is on the glidepath.
IV. a balance between modulations.
a) I and III.
b) II, III and IV.
c) II and III.
d) I, II and IV.

55. The principle of operation of an ILS is;

a) the phase comparison.
b) the difference between the frequencies of the two tones.
c) the difference in depth of modulation.
d) modulation of the ILS frequency by the amplitude of two modulating signal.

56. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
a) the surface of the runway
b) less than 50 ft
c) less than 100 ft
d) less than 200 ft

57. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 150 Hz than 90 Hz modulation notes from
both the localizer and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
a). Fly right and fly down
b). Fly left and fly down
c). Fly right and fly up
d). Fly left and fly up

58. Which code signal should you observe on the marker beacon lights as you pass over the OM on an ILS
approach?
a) Alternate dots and dashes.
b) Code for OM (---, --).
c) A series of dots.
d) A series of dashes.

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59. The MIDDLE MARKER BEACON of an ILS facility transmits on a frequency of:
a). 300 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
b). 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
c). 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
d). 75 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second

Microwave Landing System

60. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?
a). Can be used in inhospitable terrain
b). Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
c). Has a selective access ability
d). Is not affected by heavy precipitation

61. The coverage of MLS is ___ either side of the centre line to a distance of ___
a). 40°; 40 nm
b). 40°; 20 nm
c). 20°; 20 nm
d). 20°; 40 nm

62. Which answer correctly completes the following statement? The characteristics of an MLS installation
are that it uses:

a). an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the
upwind end of the runway and two frequencies.
b). one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies.
c). one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency.
d). an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the
upwind end of the runway and a single frequency.

63. Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

a). It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter.
b). It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use
an ILS.
c). The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to
determine range.
d). There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because
there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available.

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64. In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate? "SHF"

a). EHF.
b). SHF.
c). UHF.
d). VHF.

65. Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate
distance from the runway threshold?

a). Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from
the MLS station to the aircraft.

b). Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses
from the aircraft to MLS station.

c). Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation
transmissions.

d). A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters

Radar Theory
66. In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
a) The radar frequency used.
b) The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute.
c) The number of pulses transmitted per second.
d) The time between each transmission of pulses.

67. Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by
a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps =
pulses per second)
a) 375 pps.
b) 782 pps.
c) 308 pps.
d) 405 pps.

68. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

a) The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar.
b) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources.
c) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static
returns.
d) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources.
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69. The main factor which affects the maximum range of pulse radar is:
a). the size of the radar screen
b). the pulse repetition frequency
c). the aerial system size
d) the frequency of the radar transmission
70. A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum range of approximately: (Given that speed of light is 162,000 nautical miles/second).
a). 270 NM
b). 135 NM
c). 69 NM
d). 27 NM
71. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
a). pulse recurrence rate
b). power output
c). size of parabolic receiver aerial
d). height of the transmitter above the ground
72. What most determines a primary radars ability to accurately determine target range:
a). Aerial rpm
b). Beam width
c). Transmitter power
d). Pulse length
73. In a Cathode Ray Tube, the grid is used to:
a). control the focus.
b). control the brilliance.
c). drain electrons from the tube.
d). deflect the electron stream to form a time-base.
74. To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar system:
a). reduce the PRF and increase the power
b). increase the PRF and reduce the power
c). reduce the PRF and increase the PRF
d). maintain the PRF and increase the power
75. A Moving Target Indicator:
a). Rejects all moving targets
b). Is only effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
c). Rejects all stationary targets
d). Is not effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit

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Distance Measuring Equipment
76. The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other
aircraft interrogations because:
a) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
b) pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
c) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
d) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed
from each other.

77. A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:

a) 100 MHz
b) 100 GHz
c) 1000 MHz
d) 10 MHz

78. In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
a) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
b) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
c) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
d) When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit

79. Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?

a) It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
b) It can provide a magnetic bearing
c) It can provide DME distance
d) It is of no use to civil aviation
80. A VOR and DME are frequency paired. The DME identification ends with Z. This denotes that:
a). The two beacons are co-located
b). The beacons are supporting the same site but are not co-located
c). The beacons are greater than 2000 m apart
d). The beacons are at the same location but are more than 1000 m apart

81. The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmission and reject replies to other
aircraft interrogations because:
a). transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
b). pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
c). aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed
from each other
d). pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft

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82. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same
identification?
a). 2000 m
b). 60 m
c). 600 m
d). 6m

83. The accuracy of a DME:

a) is approximately ±0.5nm.
b) decreases with increase of range.
c) increases with increase of altitude.
d) is approximately ±2 nm.

Secondary Surveillance Radar

84. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information
transmitted is:
a) altitude based on regional QNH
b) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
c) height based on QFE
d) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

85. Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate
transponder malfunction?
a) 4096
b) 9999
c) 0000
d) 7600
86. The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
b) an emergency
c) radio communication failure
d) transponder malfunction
87. Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on the
Transponder?
a) IDENT (Identification)
b) NORMAL
c) OFF
d) STBY (Standby)

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88. The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver
respectively operating in the following frequencies (transmitter; receiver):
a). 1090 MHz; 1090 MHz
b). 1090 MHz; 1030 MHz
c). 1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
d). 1030 MHz; 1030 MHz

89. The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
a). the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation
between aircraft using TCAS II.
b). collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
c). continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
collision avoidance using TCAS II.
d). air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
surveillance capability.

90. Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

a). The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar
b). The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
c). A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
d). The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources

91. Why do clouds not appear on secondary radar screens:

a). Too high a frequency
b). Too low a frequency
c). They do not provide an echo by returning signals
d). The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies

Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

92. For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to CB and because:

a) It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power
b) It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.
c) It allows greater scanning rates.
d) Its penetration power is higher.

93. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar
when using the weather beam?
a) Stratus.
b) Cirrocumulus.
c) Cumulus.
d) Altostratus.
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94. In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar
systems operate?
a) SHF
b) UHF
c) EHF
d) VHF

95. Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of ;

a) secondary radar in the VHF band.
b) primary radar in the UHF band.
c) secondary radar in the SHF band.
d) primary radar in the SHF band.

96. On a colour Air Weather Radar display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
a) amber
b) red
c) yellow
d) blue

97. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of
greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:
a) colour zones being closest together
b) blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
c) large areas of flashing red colour
d) iso-echo areas which are coloured black

98. A frequency of airborne weather radar is ;

a) 9375 MHz.
b) 93.75 MHz.
c) 9375 kHz.
d) 9375 GHz.

99. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
a). the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector
b). the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
c). the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
d). the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

100. Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
a). Roll, pitch and yaw
b). Roll and pitch
c). Pitch and yaw
d). Roll and yaw
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101. In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables:
a). better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea.
b). scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent
of distance.
c). a greater radar range to be achieved.
d). higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture.

102. Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
a). detect the larger water droplets
b). transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
c). obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
d). detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large

103. AWR in the contour mode is used for:

a). identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud.
b). identifying rain bearing clouds.
c). long range mapping.
d). short range mapping.

104. An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5o beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If
the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is:
a). 20 cm
b). 87.5 cm
c). 87.5 ins
d). 56.0 cm

Area Navigation (RNAV)

105. Which of the following lists information required to input a way point or Phantom Station
into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
a) Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the way point or Phantom Station
b) Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the way point or Phantom
Station
c) Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the way point or Phantom Station
d) Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the way point or Phantom Station

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106. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft
operation on any desired flight path:
a) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits
of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.
b) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is
equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.

c) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is

equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid.

d) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is

equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids.

107. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate
position?
a) GPS/rho.
b) Rho/theta.
c) Rho/rho.
d) GPS/theta.

108. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:

a) VOR/DME
b) twin VOR
c) twin DME
d) any of the above

109. In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:
a) must be in range.
b) has to be positively identified by one of the pilots.
c) does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used.
d) does not have to be in range when entered or used.

110. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

a) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time.
b) +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time.
c) +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight.
d) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time.

111. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area
Navigation System?
a) Wind velocity.
b) True airspeed; drift angle.
c) Cross-track distance; along-track distance; angular course deviation.
d) Aircraft position in latitude and longitude.

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112. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between
2 en-route waypoints from RNAV equipment?
a) ETO.
b) ETD.
c) ATA.
d) Elapsed time on route.

113. One of the benefits of RNAV is;

a) RNAV allows pilots to manage horizontal and vertical separation with other aircrafts without
obtaining any ATC clearance.
b) RNAV allows to obtain ATC clearance by HF radio without the requirement to
establish any radio contact.
c) RNAV allows aircraft to take a more direct flight path without requiring to
fly over ground-based facilities.
d) RNAV allows to fly at RNAV flight level with a 500 ft separation.

114. The inputs of information used to achieve the RNAV required accuracy may be;
I. NDB
II. IRS
III. VOR/DME
IV. GNSS
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is;
a) II, III and IV.
b) I, II and III.
c) II and IV.
d) I, II, III and IV.
115. By which of the following flight deck equipment are the waypoints inserted into an FMS
RNAV-system by the pilot?
a) Symbol generator.
b) Control Display Unit.
c) Navigation display.
d) Course deviation indicator.
116. 3D RNAV fixing gives you:
a) 2D RNAV plus speed control.
b) 2D RNAV plus time guidance.
c) horizontal and vertical profile guidance.
d) horizontal, vertical profile and time guidance

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117. RNAV routes are:
a). usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR, DME or NDB
facilities
b). specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based
on the WGS 84 system
c). selected according to TCAS inputs
d). none of the above are correct

118. With regard to RNAV, what are hybrid navigation systems?

a). RNAV systems which use and merge information from a selection of self- contained and
externally referenced navigation system
b). VOR/DME system
c). Loran C system
d). GNSS.

119. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:

a) "± 1.0 nm for 95% of the flight time"
b) "± 5.0 nm for 95% of the flight time"
c) "± 10.0 nm for 99% of the flight time"
d) "± 0.5 nm for 99% of the flight time"

Flight Management System (FMS)

120. The colour of a VORTAC which is not in use by the FMC is:
a) Magenta.
b) Amber.
c) Cyan.
d) Green.

121. In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
a) The pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME
Area navigation control panel.
b) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the
system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position
lines.
c) The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the
aircraft's normal VHF NAV selector.
d) The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it
always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position.

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122. The FMS database can be:
a) altered by the pilots between the 28-day updates.
b) read and altered by the pilots.
c) only read by the pilots.
d) altered by the pilots every 28 days.

123. The FMS is composed of:

a). The command display unit and the flight management computer
b). The automatic flight control system and the power management controls system
c). The flight management computer only
d). The EFIS and EICAM displays

124. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to
aircraft flight envelope computations are stored in the:
a). Auto flight computers
b). Air data computer
c). Navigation database
d). Performance Database

125. Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when it is possible to change the route in the active
flight plan on an FMS-equipped aircraft?
a). Only once the aircraft is airborne
b). Only before take-off
c). Only before the flight plan is activated
d). At any time before take-off and throughout the flight

126. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
a) performance database.
b) air data computer.
c) navigation database.
d) auto flight computer.

127. The FMS is composed of:

a) the command display unit and the flight management computer
b) the automatic flight control system and the power management controls system
c) the flight management computer only
d) the EFIS and EICAM displays

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Global Navigation Satellite System (GPS)
128. Concerning the GPS satellite navigation system, the term inclination denotes the angle between the:
a) orbital plane and the equatorial plane.
b) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite.
c) orbital plane and the earth's axis.
d) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite.
129. An all-in-view satellite navigation receiver is one which:
a) monitors all 24 satellites.
b) tracks selected satellites.
c) selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four.
d) tracks the closest satellites.
130. In GPS the PRN codes are used to:
a) reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors.
b) determine satellite range.
c) eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors.
d) remove receiver clock error.
131. In the NAV message, the "ephemeris" refers to the exact:
a) Position and orbit of all the satellites in the constellation.
b) Position and orbit of all the satellites in the same orbit.
c) Position and orbit of the observed satellite.
d) The observed satellite clock corrections.

132. What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate
independent 3-D position fix?
a) 5.
b) 2.
c) 4.
d) 6.

133. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:

a) in the fin.
b) on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver.
c) on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity.
d) under the fuselage.

134. In relation to the GPS satellite navigation system, the term inclination denotes the angle between the:
a) orbital plane and the equatorial plane
b) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
c) orbital plane and the earth's axis
d) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

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135. What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellites' orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS
constellation?
a) 55°
b) 40°
c) 35°
d) 60°

136. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a) differentiate between satellites
b) pass satellite ephemeris information
c) pass satellite time and ephemeris information
d) pass satellite time, ephemeris, and other information

137. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

a) To control the use of the satellites by unauthorized users.
b) To monitor the satellites in orbit.
c) To maintain the satellites in orbit.
d) Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorized users.

138. What is the minimum number of GPS satellites required to “Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
(RAIM)”?
a) 6.
b) 5.
c) 4.
d) 3.
139. Which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide
position information that is available to civil aircraft?
a) UHF
b) SHF
c) EHF
d) VHF
140. The Doppler effect is:
a) the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver
b) the change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver
c) the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter
d) the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and receiver
141. The Doppler Navigation System is based on;
a) radar principles using frequency shift.
b) radio waves refraction in the ionosphere.
c) phase comparison from ground station transmissions.
d) Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System.

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