22/06/2022 ® CODE-A Aakash +t Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph.011-47623458 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022 MM : 720 Test - 10 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & Xil Instructions: (i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-8. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (ii) Use blueiblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fil the circle, (V)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluld or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. Choose the correct answer: SECTION-A (1) Material 1 1. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on’ rough (2) Material 2 horizontal surface and a pushing force of 60 Nis. (3) Material 3 acting on block as shown in figure. If the coefficient of friction between block and surface is 0.2, what is the acceleration of the block? (4) Material 2 and material 3 3. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas performs a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The aN temperatures in different states are T: = 400 K, ¥ Tz = 800 K, Ts = 2400 K and Ti = 1200 K. What 2 Skg jis work done by the gas during the cycle? (1) 4.28 ms? (2) 7.23 ms T, (3) 962m (4) 1.92 ms? 2. Figure shows relationship between tensile stress mK) and strain for some typical materials. A material nw which is good for making wires by stretching is (1) 16.35 kd (2) 32.45 ks (3) 13340 (4) 10.98 ks 4. It there are § moles of oxygen in a vessel of 1 m® volume at 27°C then what is the pressure created by the gas on the walls of container? (1) 83kPa (2) 124 kPa (3) 9.2kPa (4) 17.7 kPa “aCST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022 5 A material when placed in uniform magnetic fleld affects the magnetic lines as shown below. The material may be (1) Ferromagnetic (2) Diamagnetic (3) Paramagnetic (4) Either ferromagnetic or paramagnetic ( for the circuit at resonance? aa (2)2 3 9 ‘A body moving in a straight line with an initial velocity of 5 m/s and a constant ‘acceleration covers a distance of 30 m in 3" second. How much distance will it cover in next 2 seconds?. (1) 100m (2) 80m (3) 70m (4) 90m A film of water is formed between two straight parallel wires each 10 cm long and»at a separation of 0.5 cm. How much work must be’ done lo Increase separ: by 1mm? (Surface tension of wate (1) 14% 105) (2) 23% 104) (3) 1.6% 1044 (4) 32% 1084 A parallel plate capacitor consists of two metal plates each of area A, separated by distance d. A dielectric slab of same area A and thickness ¢ and dielecttic constant k = 3is introduced with its fe pall ats ora vate of the capacitance of the system now will be twice that of original air capacitor? 10, M1 12, T° me a? ot 3 A battery of 24 cells each of emf 1.5 V and intemal resistance of 2 9 is to be connected in order to send the maximum current through a 12 Q resistor, The correct arrangement of the cells will be (1) 3rows of 8 cells connected in parallel (2) 2rows of 12 cells connected in parallel (3) 4 rows of 6 cells connected in parallel (4) 6 rows of 4 cells connected in parallel Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series with 490 0 resistance and 2 V battery. If 0.2 is the potential gradient, resistance of potentiometer wire is nearly (1) 499 (2) 790 (3) 690 (4) 990 mViom then Three vectors AB and magnitude of 200 unit and inclined to the x-axis at angles 45°, 135° and 315* respectively. They R. The C each having are added to get a resultant vector magnitude of Ris (1) 2002 unit (2) 200 unit (3) 300 unit (4) Zero @Intensive Program for NEET-2022 13, 14, 16 ‘The best possible plot for variation of magnitude of gravitational field (g) with distance (x) ftom centre of uniform thin spherical shell of mass M and radius Ris (1) (2) (3) 4) Given the equation of a travelling wave inia string is y = 0.04 sin(4x ~ 21), where y and x are in metre and t is in seconds. The equation for velocity of oscillation of particle of string at x = xo, is (1) 0.16 cost4xo~ 2) (3) 0.04 cos(4xo— 21) (2) - 0.16 sin(4xo- 24) (4) = 0.08 cos(dxs ~ 20) ‘The approximate increase in velocity of sound for 41°C rise of temperature, ifthe velocity of sound at O°Cis 332 ms. (1) 0.6 mis (2) 0.32 mis (3) 0.95 mis (4) 2.4 mis It in a reaction 2 amu mass is converted into energy then using Einstein mass energy relationship, the amount of energy released is (1) 1863 0 (2) 931.5 Mev (3) 1863 Mev (4) 931.54 17. 18, 19, 20. CST-10 (Code-A) Consider an electron revolving around nucleus in an orbit. KE denotes its kinetic energy, PE denotes potential energy of electron-nucleus system and TE denotes total energy of electron IKE + TE is equal PE nucleus system, then value of to (1) Zero @1 (3) 2 4) 3 A current i= 1 A circulates in a round thin wire loop of radius r = 100 mm. The magnetic induction at a point lying on the axis of the loop at a distance x = 100 mm from its centre is () 141 T (2) 2.22 nT (3) 3:99 ur (4) 4.44 yT The minimum value of moment of inertia for a uniform disc of mass M and radius R about any possible axis is io MR wy) ME A particle is undergoing uniform circular motion in Xz plane about origin. Its angular momentum is constant about (1) Origin (2) Any point on y axis (3) All the points in space (4) Any point in xz plane (3)cST-10 (Code-A) 24 22. 23, The variation of acceleration of a particle executing SHM with displacement x is a (1) \ (2) 1 8 R (4) ‘r ‘The given figure shows two loops A and B placed, in the same plane. If current in loops Ais increased as shown. The current induced in loop Bas observed by us will be O (1) Clockwise (2) Anticlockwise (3) Clockwise for some time, then anticlockwise (4) No current will be induced The objective lens of a compound microscope produces magnification of 10. In order to get an over all magnification af 100 when image is formed at 25 em from the eye, the focal length of the eye lens should be (in cm) aya (2) 10 28 > (4) 9 24, 25, 26. 27. 28, 29, Intensive Program for NEET-2022 A Cassegrain telescope has following added advantage over ordinary reflecting telescope (1) It has secondary mirror to reflect the tight coming from objective mirror (2) It provides less obstruction to incoming light (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Itreduces chromatic aberrations ‘The phenomenon that cannot be explained by Newton's corpuscular theory of ight is, (1) Reflection of ight (2) Refraction of ight (3) Rectlinear propagation of light (4) Photoslectric effect When an electromagnetic wave travels from one medium to another (1) There is change in frequency of, electromagnetic wave (2) There is change in wavelength of, electromagnetic wave (3) There is mo change in frequency of electromagnetic wave (4) Both (2) and (3) The préssute and temperature corresponding to the triple point of water is (1), 4.58 mm of Hg, 273.16 K (2) 3.26 mm of Hg, 300K (3) 4.58 mm of Hg, 273 K (4) 3.26 mm of Hg, 273.16 K The pressure that needs to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 20 cm and area of, cross section 0.5 m® to keep its length constant when temperature is raised by 200°C is (where ¥ is Youngs's modulus of elasticity for steel and « is coefficient of thermal expansion) (Y= 2 * 401 Nm’, = 1.1 x 108K) (1) 32108 Pa (2) 22% 108 Pa (3) 4.4108 Pa (4) 22 * 108 Pa ‘A uniformly charged infinite line charge produces afield of 18 = 10* NIC at a distance of 3 cm from it. Linear charge density of the line charge is (1) 4% 10 NIC (2) 3* 107 NIC (3) 4% 107 NIC (4) 3 10 NIC (4)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 20. 31. 22 33, 34, 36. ‘An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field E such that its dipole moment P is along the direction of field. Work done in rotating this dipole by an angle of 180° will be (1) PE (2) -2PE (3) 2PE (4) Zero A spring is stretched by the application of some external force. If 20 N force is required to stretch the spring by 1 mm, then work done in stretching the spring through 40 mm will be (1) 185 (2) 16s (3) 280 (4) 345 ‘The quantity having negative dimensions in mass (1) Gravitational potential (2) Gravitational constant (3) Acceleration due to gravity (4) Escape velocity ‘The length and breadth of a rectangle are 2.00 em and 3.50 cm. If they are measured with \Vemier callipers having least count 0,01 em, The perimeter of the rectangle with estimated. error wil be (1) (11.00 + 0.04) em (2) (14.00 + 0.02) em {3) (9.00 + 0.04) cm (4) (9.00 + 0.02) om An electrical device which offers a low resistance to the current in one direction but high resistance to the current in opposite direction (1) Resistor (2) Capacitor (3) Inductor (4) Diode Fora transistor x= and y = 1 where « and are current gain in common base and common emitter configuration. Then (1) xey (2) x-y (3) 2x= (a) x+y=0 26. 37. 38, eST-10 (Code-A) SECTION-B ‘A small ball of mass ‘m' is connected with an ideal string of length ‘f whose other end is fixed with a nail such that ball can move in a vertical — circular path. If ball is given a velocity go" along horizontal at lowest point, then the height from bottom at which the ball will leaves the circle will be 3 1 oF as 5 3 Os 4 5 ‘At what angular speed should the earth rotate so that epparent value of gravity at equator becomes zero? (Symbols have usual meaning) g a a) J 2) | O VR ®) Vor 39 (2a @) [22 a) 2 © Var OVER Figure shows two long wires A and 8, each carrying a current i, separated by a distance ! and oriented in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper. The directions of currents are shown in figure. The magnitude of magnetic induction at a point P located at a distance / from both wires as shown in figure is 2) @) 4) (5)esT-10 (Code-A} Intensive Program for NEET-2022 39, 40, 44 42 43, ‘A monkey of mass 20 kg is accelerating up the rope as shown, Both ropes are light in weight. If ‘maximum permissible tension T is 200 N. What is maximum allowed acceleration of the monkey? (g=10ms*) T, Q to tT Ty irae (1) 1ms? (2) 2ms2 (3) 4ms? (4) 5.6ms? ‘A Camot engine with sink temperature at 27°C has 50% efficiency. By how much should its source temperature be changed to increase. its efficiency to 60%? (1) 332°C (2) 382K (8) 150K (4) 300k A sinusoidal voltage of frequency 60. Hz and peak voltage 150 V is applied to a series L-R circuit where R = 20 0 and L = 40 mH. What is amplitude of voltage across inductor? (1) gov (2) 1025 (3) 120 (4) 70.5. In the circuit shown below £1 = Ez = Ey= 2V, Rs = Re = 4 ©. What is current flowing between points A and B through battery E? ER, nh & A ae 8 4 wie Ey R (1) 2AfromAtoB (2) 2A from Bto A (3) 1AfromAtoB (4) Zero Ifa uniform electric field E = E,i + Ej (where Ep is a constant) existing in region of space and at point (0, 0) the electric potential Vis zero, then potential at (xo, 0) will be (1) Zero (3) ~2E x0 (2) ~ Exe (A) - V5 Ex 48, 46. 47. 48 Air is flowing across horizontal wings of an airplane in such a way that its speed below and above the wings are 90 ms and 120 mis respectively. If density of air is 1.3 kgim?, then the pressure difference across lower and upper radius of the wings will be (1), 7338 Nm? (2) 3715 Nov? (3) 3220 N nr? (4) 4095 Nm? An ultraviolet light of wavelength 2. = 2000 A falls fon metal surface, The threshold wavelength for Photostecitic effect for this metal is 4400 A. What iS approximate maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons? (1) 2.45 ev (2) 330 ev (3) 1.62 eV (4) Zero Linear mass density 2. for a rod increases along its length as 4 = 2x, where xis distance from its left end, Moment of inertia for rod of fenath L about an axis perpendicular to rod and passing through its ltt end wll be e “ ns az “ 2 OF OF To the left of y-axis we have medium of refractive index ‘w’ and to the right we have air. I an object, placed at (-4, ~3) is viewed through origin by an observer at (3, 4), then ‘pis equal to (1) singa* (2) tan53° (3) coss3° (4) secs3* In Young's double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider than other, so that the amplitude of fight, from one slit is double as compared to the other slit. If hy be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity when they interfere at a path difference of axis (3) (4) ©Intensive Program for NEET-2022 49, 51 52. 53. 54, A diode made of silicon has a barrier potential of 0.7 V and a current of 20 mA passes through diode when a battery of 3 V and resistance R are in series to it, then power loss across resistor is (1) 4ew (2) 46 mw @) 14W (4) 14 mw 50. CST-10 (Code-A) Hf the unit of mass is 1 kg, unit of length is ‘T metre and unit of time fs 1 minute, t system unit of pressure is, en in that 1 -2 (1) gg Nm ) Nw 1 7 Vm? (3) S55 NO () op Ne ‘SECTION-A Consider following steps ASB bat Then select the corect mentioned enthalpies. (1) aH, = AH, + AH, + aH, relation of above (2) oH, =aH, +aH, aH, (9) aH, = aH, ~aH, ~aH, (4) aH, =H, aH, + aH, Correct IUPAC name of complex cation [INi(NvH,), (H,0), | is (1) Tetraamminediaquanickelate(tIjion (2) Tetraamminediaquanickel(liion (3) Diaquatetraamminenickel(iiion (4) Tetraaminediaquanickel(IV)ion Which among the following is pseudo first order reaction? (1) Inversion of cane sugar (2) Radioactive decay (3) Hydrogenation of ethene (4) Decomposition of gaseous ammonia on a hot platinum surface at high pressure ‘The process of converting a precipitate into colloidal sol by shaking it with dispersion medium in presence of 2 small amount of electrolyte is known as (1) Dialysis (2) Coagulation (3) Peptization (4) Electrical disintegration 56. 56. 87. 50, 60. 61 Shape of 8Ch molecule is (1) Pyramidal (2) Trigonal planar (3) Tetrahedral (4) Linear Catalyst used for the conversion of SO: to SOs is (1) V20s (2) Fe (3) AICls (4) COs Volume of CO2 evolved at STP on heating 20 g CaCO will be (1) 448 (2) 2241, (3) 4:48 mt (4) 2.24 mb Which of the following will have maximum freezing point? (1) 01 Meack, (2) 0.4 MNact (3) 0.1 Murea (4) 0.1 MAIC. Correct option regarding ideal solution is (AY) Ama 0 (2) AVmu= 0 (3) 4Gnx=0 (4) ASoie= 0 Least reactive compound towards nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following is (1) CHscI (2) CHa= CH-CH.CI (3) CHsCHCICHs (4) Colts Select the correct option according following statements. Statement (1): ‘-chloro propane has higher boiling point than 2-chloropropane, Statement (2): For isomeric alkyl halide order of boiling point is 3° > 2" > 1° to the (1) Statement (1) is true and statement (2) is false (2) Statement (1) is false and statement (2) is true (3) Both statement (1) and statement (2) are false (4) Both ststement (1) and statement (2) are true m7CST-10 (Code-A) 62, Which of the following gases will take minimum lime to diffuse under identical conditions? (1) Ne (2) &» (3) He (4) He 63. Which of the following is not a typical transition element? (1) Cu @2n (3) Ni (4) Pa 64, Shape of XeOF is (1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal pyramidal (3) Square planar (4) Square pyramidal 65. The gas released on reaction of Cu with dilute HNOs is (1) NO (2) No (3) NOx (4) 02 66, Which compound on reaction with methyl magnesium bromide followed by acidic hydrolysis gives primary alcohol? ° aA (2) “oHo 0, (3) wld 67. Which of the following ethers cannot be prepared by Williarsson’s synthesis? cH, (1) CH, -6-0-cHoH, oy, cH, @)0,-6-0-€0) oH, ~CH,-0 oy ” (0)-0H-0-c, 68. Semi-synthetic polymer among the following is, (1) Starch (2) Buna-s (3) Cellulose nitrate (4) Nylon 6, 6 69, 70. n 72. 73 74. 75, 76. Intensive Program for NEET-2022 Bacteriostatic antibiotic among the following is (1) Peniciin (2) Tetracyetine (3) Aminoglycosides (4) Ofloxacin Consider the folowing reaction sequence HCH, CI_SEMHENCN AMM 58 major product Bis (1) CHs—CHe— CH= NH (2) CHsCH2c. (3) CHsCHeNHe (4) CHsCHsCHaNHe The least soluble sulphate among the following is (1) BasOu (2) Caso. (3) 51808 (4) MgSO. The ratio of radi of 2% orbit for He” ion to the 2° orbit of Be* ion is (1) 422 (3) 224 ant ay 44 ‘The number of representative elements among Rb, Ga, Nb, Cu, Fe, Se and P are (4 (25 @)6 7 Select. the incorrect statement among the following (1) Graphite is used as dry lubricant in machines (2) The purest allotrope of carbon is fullerene (3) Diamond is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon (4) In diamond, each carbon is sp hybridised The tolerable limit of copper in drinking water is (1) 0.2 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm (3) 3.0 ppm (4) 5.0 ppm Select the incorrect statement regarding Isotopes of Hydrogen among the following. a They differ from each other with respect to the number of neutrons (2) They have same rate of reactions with different substrates (3) Only witium is radioactive and emit tow energy f-partcies (4) Deuterium is also known as heavy hydrogen (8)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 7. 78. 79, 20, 81 82, 83, Copper matte contains (1) Cus and Fes. (3) CusS and Cuz0 (2) CuS and FesSs (4) CusS and Fes Which among the following species can act as both oxidising agent as well as reducing agent? (1) HNO (2) COz @)b (4) Os AB crystallizes in a foc lattice like NaCl with edge length ‘a’ equal to 400 pm. The shortest distance between two oppositively charge ions in the lattice is (1) 300 pm (3) 200 pm (2) 150 pm (4) 250 pm Consider the change in oxidation state of M corresponding to different emf values as shown in diagram below Mo-—122_1y ‘Then the species undergoing disproportionation, (1) Mo; (2) Mo; (@) Mo" (4) M ‘The number of carbon atoms present. in tetrahedral voids per unit cell of diamond is mes (24 (3) 12 (a6 Number of ~OH groups present in one molecule of maltose is aya (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 8 Consider the given reaction sequence coc) " ‘mn Products A and B respectively are (1) Benzaldehyde and benzoic acid (2) Benzyl alcohol and benzaldehyde (3) Benzaldehyde and toluene (4) Benzyl aleohol and benzoic acid 84 85 86. 87, €ST-10 (Code-A) Incorrect match among the following is Structure IUPAG name (1) cl Or sintrobenzene O,N ‘No, (2) | OMe 2-Chioro-4- Co ‘methylanisole CH, (3) Br 2,3-Dibromo-1- ‘omer phenylpentane Br (4) | NH 4-Ethyl-2- Cry methylaniline oH, Consider the following reaction sequence alc. KOH CH,CH,cH,cHCH, XO", i cl Bacyer's A (Major) eee > B (Major) Mejor product 8 is OH OH HOH (1) CH.CH,CH,CH-CH, (2) CH.CH,CHCH-CH, IL g (3) CH.CH,CCH.CH, (4) CH,CH,CH.CCH, SECTION-B High spin complex of o® — metal cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy (40: Crystal field spliting energy in octahedral field, P= electron pairing eneray) “P P a 2 Ao A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 5 atm from an initial volume of 25 L to final volume of 7.5 L. The change in internal energy (AU) of the gas will be (1) 1136.25 4 (3) 8054 (2) -253254 (4) -254 (9)GST-10 (Code-A) 88, if equilibrium constant for the reaction 1 3 4, ()+ 3H, (9) SNH. Is x th gNola)+ ZH.(0)= i,(9) then constant forthe equilibrium reaction 2NH, (g) —=N,(9)+3H, (9) is (1) x @t (3) xe 89. Maximum energy molecular orbital among the following is of (1) 2p. (2) 2p: (3) 2p. (4) x°2p. 90. In which of the following, both the dispersion medium and dispersed phase are solid? (1) Pumice stone (3) Dust (2) Gem stones (4) Foam rubber 91. For the reaction xA+yB—>C, on doubling the concentration of A rate of reaction becomes double while on doubling the concentration’ of both A and B, rate of reaction becomes 8 times. The overall order of reaction is. (Mo (21 (3) 2 (43 92, Match the following column A with column B. Column A Column B Critical temperature | (i) Rb Critical pressure (i) (iy 3b Critical volume 8a ZRb Boyle's temperature (iv) io (1) ali, bv), efi, ti) (2) alii, blv), i), i) (3) ati, bi), etiv), i) (4) agi), i, et), ai) 93, 94, 96. 97. Intensive Program for NEET-2022 Which of the following amines on reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent gives an alkali soluble product? (1) CHsCHaNHe (2) CH, CH, -N-CH.CH, CH.CH, (3) CHsCH» ~ NH ~ CHs w on,-08,-4-£0) H Match the elements in List! to their uses in List List List-ll a.|cs |() | Coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactor b.] ti | Gi) | For making windows of X-ray tube ©. | Be. | @iy,| In devising photoelectric cells d.|.Na_ | dv) | To make ‘white metat’ Choose the correct answer. (), a(), BG), efi, atv) (2) afi), bt), cti, dt) (3) aviv), bai, et), dt) (4) adi, Bai, o(9, div) the ‘uncertainty in position of a moving electron is infinite, then the uncertainty in its velocity is, (1) Unity (2) Zero h (3) Infinite Ms In which of the following oxides, the central element is present in only one whole number oxidation state? (1) Fes. (2) PbsOs (3) CreOs (4) MnsO« Incorrect statement regarding Hz — O2 fuel call is (1) The cell was used for providing electrical power in the Apollo space programme (2) Energy of combustion is directly converted into electrical eneray (3) Concentrated aqueous NaOH solution is used as an electrolyte ') : (4) The effici f cell by|——| 1 Te emery otc aventy (2) (10)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 98, 99, 101 102. 103. Correct order of pKs of the given compounds is CST-10 (Code-A) 100. Consider the following statements (a) Benzaldehyde does not tautomerism, show keto-enol (b) But-2-ene shaws geometrical isomerism (c) Neopenty! carbocation and tertbutyl carbocation show hypercanjugation effect, ‘The correct statements are (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) COOH COOH COOH COOH Yo, by Seu, wy Ge we o= 6 26.0020 (3) Go (iy (> EH) (4) GD > (>> CH Most acitic compound arnong the following is oZd all o@ ah J SECTION-A Consider the given statements stating them true (7) or false (F) and select the correct option, (A) When only PS-1 is functional, the electron is the photosystem and phosphorylation occurs due to cyclic flow of electrons, circulated within (8) Cyclic _photophosphoryiation occurs when only light of wavelength beyond 680 nm is available for excitation. (©) The process cyclic photo- phosphorylation two photosysters work in a series, first PS-II and then the PS-I (1) AT, BT, CF (2) AT, BF, C-T 3) AF. BF, CT (4) AT, B-T, CT Calculate the numbers of phosphodiester and alycosidic bond respectively present in a double stranded linear DNA having 180 base pairs: (1) 300 and 298 (2) 300 and 300 (3) 298 and 300 (4) 298 and 298 In prokaryotes, DNA is found in cytoplasm in super coiled stage. The coils are maintained by is called (1) Histone protein (2) Non-histone basic protein (3) Polyamines (4) Both (2) and (3) 104, Opening of DNA helix during transcription is catalysed by (1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase (3) Topoisomerase (4) RNA polymerase. 105:The World Summit on sustainable development was held in 2002 in (1) Rio dé Janeiro (3) Qatar (2) Johannesburg (4) India Which of the following is not true w.rt. measures taken by government to reduce pollution? 4108, (1) Use of unleaded petrol in automobiles (2) Use of high-sulphur, petrol and ciesel (8) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles (4) Application of stringent pollution level norms for vehicles 107. What is the composition of plant growth regulator which cause bolting in rosette plant? (1) Indole compound (2) Carotenoids (3) Terpenes (4) Adenine derivatives 108, Select the incorrect match w.r. plants and their vegetative propagules. (1) Waterhyacinth - Offset (2) Ginger ~ Tuber (3) Bryophylum == Leaf buds (4) Agave = Bubils ay€ST-10 (Code-A} Intensive Program for NEET-2022 109. Select the incorrect statement for pollen grains. (1) They are rich in nutrients (2) Outer layer of pollen grain can withstand high temperature and strong acids (3) tn most of the angiosperm pollen grains are shed at 2-celled stage (4) Pollen grains of members of Leguminosae family loose its viability within 30 minutes of their release 110. Which biocontrol agent is utilised to get rid of aphids? (1) Dragonfly (2) Ladybird (3) Bacillus thuringiensis (4) Trichoderma Read the following statements and choose the option which is true for them, Statement-A: Buds are present in the axil of leaflets of a compound leat. Statement-B: In pinnately compound leaf, 2 number of leaflets are present on a common (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement 8 is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect 142. Root hairs develop from which of the given’ regions of root? (1) Region of maturation (2) Root cap (8) Region of elongation (4) Region of meristematic activity Match the following columns and choose the correct option 113, Column-1 Column. a. Vessels (i) Obliterated central b. Xylem fibres (i) Elongated cells with tapering ends Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in gymnosperms 4. Tracheids liv). Thin walled living cells (1) afi (3) afi liv). c(i), di) (2) ali), BG), efi, dfiv) xi), cliv), i) (4) afi), b(), efi), ai) 114, 118. 116. ur. 118. 119. A particular type of vascular bundle is shown in the below given diagram. QQ grin In which of the following plant parts, such type of vascular bundles are found? (1) Monocot stem (2) Monocot leat (4) Dicot root Bacteria are classified into Gram positive and Gram negative on the basis of differences in the (3) Dicot stem (1) Coll envelope and response to a particular stain 2 (3) Sequence of 16S ribosomal RNA genes (4) Length of.the plasmid DNA The plastid présent in the outer covering of endosperm in maize seed is, (1) Amyloplast (2) Elaioptast (3) Chromoplast (4) Aleuroplast In interphase stage, along with DNA chromatin contains (a) RNA (b) Basic proteins (ce) Non-histone proteins Elements present in the cell membrane The correct one(s) is/are (1) (b) and (c) only (2) (b) only (3) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b) only Mango belongs to the plant family called (1) Solanaceae (2) Anacardiaceae (3) Poaceae (4) Fabaceae All of the following taxonomical aids are used only for identification of plants, except (1) Flora (3) Museum Select the incorrect statement about Krebs cycle. (1) Moceurs in the mitochondrial matrix (2) Botanical gardens (4) Herbarium (2) Itis an important step in aerobic respiration (3) First product is citric acid (4) Four molecules of FADHs are synthesized from two molecules of acetyl CoA. (12)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 121. An interaction between cuckoo and crow is (2) Brood parasitism (4) Ammensalism (1) Competition (3) Predation ‘Tropical cane of South India (1) Had higher sugar content (2) Were known as Saccharum offcinarum (3) Had thin stems. (4) Both (1) and (2) In the given sequence of various stages, 122, 123. Lichens > Bryophytes > Herbs > Shrubs > Forests Bryophytes and Herbs represent (1) Pioneer and seral community respectively (2) Seral communities (3) Climax respectively and transitional community (4) Transitional respectively and pioneer community 124, Mark these statements true (T) or false (F) and, select the correct option, A 8. Mycoplasma are mostly parasitic. Smallest walless monerans are obligate anaerobes, C. Eubacteria are always heterotrophs. A BC at (2 F @T (yt ‘Tobacco mosaic viruses ' F F aaa F (1) Lack protein coat (2) Have ssRNA (3) Have envelope outside the capsid (4) Have polyhedral head Identify the feature which is not true for common ‘mushroom, (1) Lack of sex organs (2) Long dikaryophase 126. (3) Endogenously produced meiospores (4) Asexual spores absent CST-10 (Code-A) 127. One can easily distinguish between male and female Drosophila on the basis of all the below given features, except (1) Size of fies (2) Sex chromosomes structure 3) Presence of evipositor (4) Total chromosomes number 128. In a typical dihybrid cross of pea plant by Mendel (1) Parental phenotypes in Fa generation are (2) The F2 generation has 6 recombinants out of the 16 progenies produced (3) Parental phenotypes are lesser than the recombinant types (4) The Fz genotypic ratio is 9:3:3:4 ‘A haemophilic male (1) Can pass the disorder to daughter only (2) Produces all the sperms with gene of haemophilia (3) Can be a carrier for the disorder (4) Inherit the haemophilia gene from his father only, 130. Which among the following element is not remobilised and is part of structural components in plants? (1) Sulphur (2) Calcium (3) Nitrogen (4) Potassium 131, Amides in plants (1) Contain less nitrogen than the amino acids (2) Are transported to other parts via phloem (3) Can be found in form of asparagine and glutamine (4) Both (1) and (3) 132. Which among the following has free-living gametophyte? (1) Wolttia (2) Eucalyptus (3) Spirogyra (4) Ginkgo 133, Agar is obtained from (1) Laminaria (2) Sargassum (3) Spirulina (4) Gelioium (3)GST-10 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022 134, Which among the following is not a significant contribution of mitoti¢ division? (1) Cell repair 140. Match the following column and select the correct option wart. microbes and the products obtained by them. (2) Cell growth Column | Column tt (3) Gonetic variability in population a. Clostridium =i) Civic acid (4) Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio b. Asperpius —(i)-Acetlc acid 195. Mark the correct sequence of stages during prophase I. Saccharomyces (i) Butyric acid (1) Leptotene + Zygotene + Pachytene 4. Acetobacter (iv). Ethanol (2) Diplotone > Zygotene —> Pachytene (1) ati, bai, fiw). dQ) (2) ali), DA, efiv), Ai) (3) Pachytene — Zygotene > Leptotene (3) afiv), BG, cli), ati) 4) ali, BG, ctiv), Ay (4) Leptotene — Diplotene + Pachytene 141. Select the correct labelling (A-D) for mature — embryo sac. 198, Untranslated regions (UTRs) (1) Do not have any role in efficient translation process (2) Are present only at 5’ end of mRNA, (3) Are present at 5' end of mRNA after'start codon (4) Are present at 5! end of mRNA before. start codon. z =o - 137. How many of the given biodiversity conservation ‘Synergids [Central |Egg colt | Chalazal strategies are ex-situ? (2) JSymeraes eral E90 con Zoological park, Aquaria, Cryopreservation, (2) |Syneraids [Eaa [Central |Antipodals Sanctuaries, National parks eet th Two @) Three 2) Jfatom [Eencn [Sanat [amon (3) Four (4) One (4) [Fittorm — [Central [Polar |Chatazal 138. Bharat stage IV was implemented on four- apparatus [cell nuclei end wheelers in mega cities of country since (1) June 2017 142. Flowers can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane in (2) Aemeaig (1) Datura (2) Bean (3) June 2015 (3) Canna (4) Mustaré demon, 2018 143, Read the following features 139, Methionine is a precursor of which of the given plant growth regulators? (1) Gibberellic acid (2) Ethylene (3) Auxin (4) Abscisic acid ‘= It provides mechanical support to the growing plant parts. + Very often, its cells assimilate food. The above given features are true for (1) Sclerenchyma (2) Parenchyma (3) Chlorenchyma (4) Collenchyma (14)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-10 (Code-A) 144. In eukaryotes, the structure from which cilium | 147. Mark the autotrophic protist among these. and flagellum emerge is structurally similar to (1) Trypanosoma (2) Slime mould (1) Ribosome (2) Centromere (3) Gonyaulax (4) Paramecium (3) Centriole (4) Kinetochore 148. Select the set of parents with bload groups that 148, Given age pyramid represents can produce child with O blood group. (1) AB and O (2) AB and B (3) AandB (4) ABand A Post reproductive 149. Chemotaxonomy Reproductive (1) Is based on cytological information (2) Uses the chemical constituents of the plants (3) Involves usage of numerical methods for the Pre-eproductive evaluation of similarities and differences between species with the help of camputers 1) Expanding population (1) Expanging popu (8) Assign numbers and codes to all the (2) Growing population characters: (3) Stable population 150. Select the incorrect statement, (4) Dectining population (1) Mycorthiza is @ symbiotic association of a Meanie ceatan fungus and young roots of a plant 4 (2) Seeds of Pinus cannot germinate properly 1 ee without developing a mycorrhizal association (2) Does not involve decomposers; (3) Movement of water is relatively faster in (3) Does not connect to GFC at any'step symplastic pathway (4) Is major conduit of energy flow if aquatic (4) Most of the water flow in the roots occur via . the apoplast ecosystem SECTION-A’ Columns Column-tt 151. Select the incorrect statement from the following. 7 . 6 a. Transport ef urine (i) Filtration slits (1) Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after rao Gi) Ureter forceful expiration, because of expiratory ©. Ultrafitration (ii) Permeable to reserve volume. water (2) The pO: in the atmospheric air is higher than 4. Descending timb (iv) Glomerulus that in the alveot of Henle’s loop @) Silicosis is an example of occupational (1) afi, BG), efi, iv) respiratory disorder (2) aliv), bi), ef), af) (4) In man and other mammals, air passes from (3) a(), Btv), efi), eC) culside into the lungs through nasal cavity, (4) ati, Bt, ctv), aay pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles | 453, Which of the following represents high energy and alveol. state of myosin? 152. Match column-1 with column-ll and select the (1) Myosin + ABP + Pi (2) Myosin + actin correct option. (3) Myosin + Troponin (4) Myosin + ATP (15)ST-10 (Code-A} 184, The head and short arm of myosin projects outwards at regular distance and angle from each other from the surface of a polymerised myosin filament and is known as (1) Cross bridge (2) LMM. (3) Motor unit (4) Cross arm 155. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option, Jersey : Cattle :: Leghorn (1) Chicken (2) Goat (3) Sheep (4) Butfalo 156. Which of the following is not related to decrease in cardiac output? (1) Acetylcholine (2) Decrease in speed of conduction of action potential (3) Adrenatine (4) Decrease in heart rate Loucocytes which constitute 2-39 of total WBC count are mainly responsible for (1) Phagocytic activity (2) Production of histamine during inflammatory actions (3) Combating parasitic infections and allergic reactions (4) Clotting of blood 186, Calculate the heart rate of a person ifthe cardiac output is 6 L, blood volume in the ventricle at the end of diastole is 150 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 75 mL. Choose the correct cption from the following (1) 80 beats per minute (2) 100 beats per minute (3) 75 beats per minute (4) 72 beats per minute 4159, The physiologic value of proteins is (1) More than gross calorific value of fats (2) More than gross calorific value of carbohydrates (3) More than physiologic value of carbohydrates (4) Less than gross calorific value of proteins 160. 161 162, 463. 164, Intensive Program for NEET-2022 ‘The sugar which gives negative test result with Fehling's reagent is digested in human body by the enzyme (1) Maltese (2) Sucrase (3) Lactase (4) Lipase Match column-| with column-lI wart. Periplaneta land select the correct option. Column-| Columndtt a. Crop (i) Removal of excretory products b. Hepatic caeca Storage of food ©. Gizzard (ii) Secrete digestive juice 4, Malpighian tubules (iv) Grinding of food particles, (1) ali), BG, cv), dQ) (2) alii), BG, efiv), Afi) (3) afi, BED, 0), dtiv) (4) afi), b(D, efi), ait Complete the analogy by choosing the correct option. Squamous epithelium Giliated epithelium (1), PCT of nephrons in kidney (2) Stomach (3) Bronchioles (2), Walts of blood vessels In ‘test tube baby’ programme Air sacs of lungs (1) Ferilization is in vitro but embryo development is mainly in vivo (2) Fertilization is in vivo but embryo development is in vitro (3) Both fertilization and foetus development are in vitro (4) Both fertilization and embryo development are in vivo Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used as contraceptives by females as implants under the skin, When used in this manner, they are beneficial as they (1) Do not affect the release of the ovun (2) Induce a foreign body reaction leading to rejection of the implanted blastocyst (3) Can cause ectopic pregnancy (4) Have a much longer effective period (16)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 165. 166. 167, 168, 169, 470. Some of the characteristics expressing cryiAc gene are (1) Long fibre and resistance to aphids (2) of Bt cotton Medium yields, long fibres and resistance to beetle pests (3) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kil dipteran pests (4) {In the human eye, the visual acuity is highest at (1) Macula densa (2) Blind spot (3) Foveacentralis (4) Optic chiasma In a child of 15 years of age, plasma calcium level is diagnosed below optimum level. Which ‘organ is malfunctioning in a child? (1) Thyroid gland (2) Liver (3) Parathyroid gland (4) Posterior lobe of pituitary Which of the following is considered as the most anterior part of Balanogiossus? (1) Proboscis (2) Collar (3) Trunk (4) Stomochord Choose the mismatch w.r.t animalé.and their features. High yield and resistance to bollworms (1) Prawn = Ventral heart (2) Leech = Double ventral nerve cord! (3) Alligator - Post-anal tail is present (4) Turlle - Scales on body Match column-| with column-II and choose the correct option, Columns Column-tl a. Three-chambered heart (i) Myxine with one incompletely divided ventricle b. Jawless vertebrate with (ii) Chaetopleura carllaginous vertebral column c. Soft, unsegmented body (ii) Calotes and has a structure which helps in both respiration and excretion . Ventral mouth, gills without (iv) Scoliodon operculum and skin with placoid scales 171, 172 178. 174, CST-10 (Code-A) (1) aQi, bf, efi, div) (2) aliv), bai, efi), 4) (3) ati), ti), of), iy (4) ati), b¢H), ct, div) Assertion (A): In higher animals such as reptiles, birds and mammals, syngamy occurs in the body of the organism. Reason (R): In all these organisms, egg is formed inside the female body, where it fuses with the male gamete. In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A)is tue but (R) is false (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A)|s falbe but (R) is true Ovulation}is followed by the luteal phase during which the remaining parts of the transform into the corpus luteum Choose the option which correctly fills the blank (1) Tertiary follicle (2) Secondary oocyte (3). Zona pellucida (4) Graafian follicle Read the following statements A and 8 and Choose the correct answer from the options given below. Statement-A: High concentration of estrogens will eventually cause release of ovum from the Graafian follicle. Statement-B: In human beings, most of the major organ systems are formed by the end of first vimester. ) (2) (3) (4) In human females, which hormone is called milk ejection or birth hormone? Both statements A and B are correct Both statements A and B are incorrect, Only statement Ais correct Only statement B is correct (1) Relaxin (3) hea. (2) Estrogen (4) Oxytocin (a7€ST-10 (Code-A} 175. Select the correct option to complete the analogy wert cancer detection Use of X-rays : Radiography ionising radiations (1) MRI (2) Radiography (3) Computed tomography (4) Biopsy Use of non- 176, Consider the figure given below and read the statements given wr. i (a) The active chemicals are present in flower tops, leaves and the resins of the same plant, (b) Ganja, coke and marijuana can be produced fromit, (e) The chemicals extracted from the plant when consumed, affect the brain activity and cause changes in mood, behaviour, etc. (1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct while: statement (c) is incorrect. (2) Statements (a) and (c) are correct while statement (b) is incorrect, (3) Statements (a) and (e) are incorrect while statement (c) is correct (4) Statements (b) and (c) are incorrect while statement (a) is correct 177. Select the element that is found in higher amount in human body than earth's crust. (1) Sodium (2) Calcium (3) Magnesium (4) Carbon 178. Read the statements given below wr.t proteins and select the correct one, (1) In proteins, only left handed helices are observed. (2) Adult human haernoglobin is an example of tertiary structure. (3) Primary structure of proteins give Positional information of amino acids. (4) The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is, called C-terminal amino acid. the 179, 180, 181 182, 183, Intensive Program for NEET-2022 Match column-l with column-il and select the correct option, Column-1 Columnatt a. Retentate (i) Diterpenes b. Aromatic amino acid (i) Valine ¢. Neutral amino acid (fi) Nucleic acids 4. Terpenoids (iv) Tryptophan (1) ali), bf), ctii), di) (2) ai, btiv), eA, ai) (3) af), blv), ef), di) (4) ali), b(A, efi), ai) ‘A mixture of fragmented ONA was electrophoresed in an agarose gel_with electrodes at correct positions. After staining the gel with sufficient concentration of ethidium bromide, no DNA bands were observed. The most likely reason for this observation is (1) The DNA fragments get separated (2) Ethidium bromide got stacked between base pairs of DNA. (3), Ethidium bromide stained DONA fragments Were not observed under UV light (4)Under visible light, EtBr stained ONA fragments emit intense orange fluorescence Inthe enzyme Hindlll ‘a’ refers to (1)_ Genus of the source organism (2) Species of the prokaryotic cell from which the enzyme is isolated (3) Strain of Haemophilus influenzae (4) Order of discovery Which of following is the first step of PCR technique? (1) Polymerization (2) Denaturation (3) Annealing (4) Hybridisation Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement-A : Darwin either ignored Mendel's work on inheritable factors or kept silence. ‘Statement-B : One of the drawbacks of Darwin's, theory of natural selection was that it could not explain origin of variations. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Both statements A and B are correct (18)Intensive Program for NEET-2022 184, 185. 186. 187, Select the correct. match w.rt origin and evolution of man (1) Australopithecines ~ Probably lived in East African grasslands 2 bya (2) Man-like primates - Walked in eastern Africa about 3-4 mya (3) Homo e ~ Fossils discovered in 1981 in Java (4) A. africanus + Taller than 4 feet but id not walk upright Which of the following is an example of molecular homology? (1) Flippers of penguins and dolphins (2) Certain genes of chimpanzees and man (3) Eyes of octopus and mammals (A) Sting of honeybees and scorpions SECTION-B. Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration in a healthy adult individual can be represented as (a) 1+ FRC (b) ERV+RV+TV+IRV (©) ERV+TV+IRV (@) RV+IRV+EC Select the correct option (1) Only (a) (2) (a), (b) and (d) (3) (2). (©), (c) and (d) (4) Only (b) and (d) Select the structure which is not a part of renal pyramid. (1) Convoluted tubules (2) Collecting ducts (3) Vasa recta (4) Loop of Henle 188, 189, 190. 191 192, 193, CST-10 (Code-A) Match column-l with colurn-ll and select the correct option Columns Column-tl a Atherosclerosis ())_Liveris affected b. Angina (i) Feeling of nausea ©. Jaundice (ii) Acute chest pain 4. Vomiting (@¥) Deposition of calcium, cholesterol, etc. in arteries (1) ai), Biv), c(i, dl) (2) ali, Df, fi), ati) (3) aliv}, BO, efi, dtl) (4) ali), bt, ef, a¢iy Emergency contraceptive methods must be employed within (1) 72 hours of ovulation (2) 72 hours of onset of menstrual flow (3) 72.houts of unprotected coitus (4) 72 hours of cessation of menstrual flow Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of (1) Escherichia (2) Mycobacterium (3) Rhizobium (4) Saccharomyces The center that regulates the diameter of blood vessels is located in the (1), Medulla oblongata (2) Pons (8) Cerebrum (4) Cerebellum Catecholamines in a normal person induces (1) Intense salivation (2) Alertness (3) ) Choose the incorrect statement with reference to members placed in phylum Arthropoda. (1) This is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia and over two-thirds of all named species on Earth are arthropods, (2) The body of arthropods calcareous exoskeleton. Decrease in heart rate Excessive urination is formed of (3) Tracheal system acts as respiratory organ in most of the arthropods. (4) They are mostly dioecious, oviparous and have internal fertilisation (19)CST-10 (Code-A) 194. 195. 196. Poriters are mostly (1) Asymmetrical and acostomate (2) Racially symmetrical and acoelomate (3) Radially symmetrical and diploblastic (4) Asymmetrical and tissue grade animals Read the following statements carefully and choose the option which has only correct statements. (a) The trophoblast layer of blastocyst gets attached with = myometrium =— during implantation. (b) Inner cell mass gets differentiated as the embryo. (©) After attachment, the uterine cells divide rapidly and covers the blastocyst. (a) The blastocyst continues to divide and transforms into morula. (e) Chorionic villi which are surrounded by the uterine tissue, are formed — before implantation. (1) @.(0)(0) (2) (0), (c), (@) (3) (b). (€) (4) (b), (@) How many of the changes given below are indicative of metastatic tumor? (a) Loss of contact inhibition (b) Destruction of telomerase inhibitors (6) Less production of telomerase (4) Inactivation of proto-oncogenes (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One a 197 198. 199, 200. Intensive Program for NEET-2022 The living slate is characterised as (1) Steady and equilibrium state (2) Steady and non-equilibrium state (@) Non-steady and non-equilibrium state (4) Nonsteady and equilibrium state A plasmid DNA and a linear DNA, both of the ‘same size (10 kb), have one site for a restriction endonuclease. The restriction site in linear DNA is at 5 kb distance from one end. When cut and separated on agarose gel electrophoresis, how many bands will be obtained in case of plasmid and near DNA respectively, assuming complete digestion? (ty a2 41 (3) 23 (42,2 Gene cloning can be done (1) tn vivo using PCR (2) Invitoin prokaryotic organisms (3) In vito in eukaryotic colls (4) Invitro using PCR Assertion (A): In terms of determinism, evolution is aidirected process, Reason (R): Nature selects those variants wich are able to reproduce beiter and leave more progeny the changed environmental conditions Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)is true but (R) is false (2) (A)is false but (R) is true (3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (20)