CODE-B i 08/07/2022 Bewus Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 MM : 720 Test -10 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Mock Test for NEET (Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII) Instructions : (i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (i) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (ill) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fl the circle. (v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet, PHYSICS Choose the correct answer : . EPEREERESESECTION -A 2. Aseconds pendulum is arranged in a lift. If the lift 1, The moment of inertia of a uniform rod of length 9) 21 and mass m about an axis through centre and fe -maving down wth an acceleration [then inclined at an angle 30° to the rod as shown in \ Paingulsls its new time period will be (1) v2s Q) 2s (3) 22s () 1s A : 3. A segment of wire vibrates with fundamental (1) mi frequency 400 Hz under a tension of 8 kg weight. 6 The tension at which the fundamental frequency me of same wire becomes 800 Hz is 53 (1) 16 kg-weight @) =“ (2) 32 kg-weight a (3) 12 kg-weight ars (4) 24 kg-weight (4)ct ae Test-10 (Code-8) Final Test Series for NEET.2072 4A transverse wave of amplitude 20 cm, v 2) wavelength 50cm and frequency 4 Hz is OF ee propagating over a taut sting in the negative x Girection. The equation of this wave can be ty Oy described by (where ts in s and xis in m) 9. A uniform rod of length J, hinged at one end is (1) y= 0.2 sin(anx— Bat) m free to rotate in the vertical plane. If the rod is 2) 5 held horizontal in the beginning and released, (2) y= 0.2 sin(dnx + Bat) m then angular velocity of the rod when it makes an ) y= 0.2 sin(2nx— Ant) m angle of 60° with the vertical for first time is (4) y=0.2sin(2ax + dnt) m » & of 5. The pressure at the bottom of a open water tank 1 2 3P, where P, is almospheric pressure. If water is 29 2 then pressure at the bottom of the tank willbe | 10. A plano convex lens fits exactly into @ plano : eS ee concave lens. Their plane surface are parallel to | a) aa (2) 7 each other. If lenses are made of different . Be materials of refractive incices 1 and 3 and 3 SF Be es radius of curvature of the curved surfaces of the BS sling down on a rough tens is 10 em then focal length of the combination fixed inclined plane having coefficient of friction wel De (= 05) as shown in the figure. The acceleration (1) 20cm (2) 60.cm of the block is (Take g = 10 mis?) (3) 400m (4) 30 em 11. A plane mirror is placed at origin parallel to > 1). The loops repulsion between the ions, the number of ‘are coplanar and their centres coincide. The electrons missing from each jon will be (e being mutual inductance of the system is proportional the charge on an electron) to AncFd? [anegFe® fj ce tyes 2) |Aasoret a 2 @ = R lameg™ 2 2) oi & fa (ay AteaFa @ = 3) @ 32. Two insulated metalic spheres of capacity 3 uF on and 6 uF are charged to 300 V and 600 V : respectively. The energy loss, when they are (4) connected by a wire is 5 38. The objective lens of a compound microscope 4 Net Oe produces magnification of 10. In order to get an (3) 9*104J (4) Spd ‘over all magnifying power of 100 when image is 33. The magnetic field in the plane electromagnetic formed at 25 cm from eye, the focal length of the wave is given by B: = 1 * 107 sin {0.5 « 10° - 15 ‘eye lens should be x10" f tesla 10 The expression for the electric field is caren Oe (1) Ex=30 sin (0.5 = 10%x- 1.5 « 10") Vim & (2) Ex=60 sin (0.5 « 10%-1.5 x 10") Vim CS Taucus Oc ie Pa (0.9 Ca eal) ia 39. Escape velocity from the surface of a planets v,. (4) Ey= 30V2 sin (0.5 « 10"'x— 1.5 « 10°) Vim ‘A tunnel is dug across the diameter of the planet 34. If the critical angle for aliquid A is 60° and critical and a ball is dropped into it. When the body angle for liquid B is 45°, then the critical angle for reaches the centre of the planet, its speed is a ray travelling from A to B will be ae ae (1) Less than 45° i N (2) More than 60° @) Vy, (4) Zero tween 45° and 60° apeerees 40. The magnitude of component of vector ace? not exist A= 2) +3] along the direction (/+j) and (i -j) 35. The self inductance of a solenoid of length 1, Beene ee area of crossection xr? and having N tums is panne especie aL ugh ?nr? (ay (& and $) 2 & and 5) (1) —— ges Reise or aes Nee PL 3 5) (4) Send He eee @ (Fa gz) Obey section -8 41. A conducting ring of radius 0.4 m is placed in a z 36. An ideal heat engine operates in Camot cycle fre: carviva) magnate’ fel a ee (DeSe between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal of Fz heat per cycle at higher temperature. The (where B is in tesla and t is in s) in such a way ‘amount of heat that is converted into useful work that tts axis. making an engle 60° wih magnetic per cycle is field. The emf induced in the ring at t= 2 s will be (1) 0.6 kcal (2) 1.2kcal (1) 0.48V (2) 0.96 v (3) 1.8 kcal (4) 2.4 kcal (3) 0.36 Vv (4) 0.72V (5) —— ltTest-10 (Code-8) 42, Two particles each of mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 8 cm. If they do not experience any net force, the value of i“ is (1) f4nep6 (2) |= Are G (3) ee 1 (4) Ane 9G BS We 1 canine 1 metals vce 6 Muri wit. Ign wavlrgh 1, te ‘stopping potential is V. When the same surface is humo by wovelongn He ston potentials The reso wavelength rhe rele sac wl bo aa (2) 6 (3) 92. a7 44. The output of the given logic gate will be . Final Test Series for NEET-2022 A transverse wave is described by the equation 2nx. y= Yosin (2m 2 2m) The maximum parce velocity is two times wave velocity if 2% ieee, (2) = 8¥0 (1) 424) eee (4) 3 (3) 4-7) 47. The kinetic energy acquired by @ man of mass m in travelling a certain distance d starting from rest under the action of a constant force is directly proportional 10 (1) vm (2) Independent of m 1 @) = (4)m vm 48. If the work function of a metal is @ and frequency of incident light is v, there is no emission of photo electron if (1) vet o 2) vee ver ¢ 3) ve Sek % (4) vot Over 49. The dielectric constant for the metal in electrostatics is a4 (2) 0 (3) 81 (4) Infinite 50. Inthe reaction H+ iH tHe + In Hf the binding energy of 3H, 7H and $He are @, b and c (in MeV), then the energy this reaction isFinal Test Serves for NEET.2022 ‘Tast-10 (Code-8) . ‘SECTION -A 58. Least soluble alkali metal fluoride is St. High purity (> 99.95%) dihydrogen is obtained by (1) UF (2) Nae (1) Bectrotysis of acidified H:0 using Pt () KF (4) ROF = 59. Distance between any two consecutive layers in (2) Electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(OH): loan of cll tkteco Nidcusiss ae packing is (a : edge length of cul (3) Electrolysis of brine solution (4) Electrolysis of CaH{aq) solution oO) 8, @ 4, 52, Statement I: If Qc < Kc, net reaction goes in forward direction @) a «® $ Statement Il: AG is negative, then the reaction is spontaneous and proceeds in the backward | 60. During nitrogen estimation of an organic Girection for a reversible reaction. ‘compound by Kjeldah's method, the = : evolved by 0.6 g of compound neutralized Sea aen a 20 mi of 1M HCI. Percentage of nitrogen present a in the compound is ol Suman res ind statement oe ree ae (2) Statement lis false and statement Ils true ats Gas (3) Both statement | and Il are true ‘ 61. Chiordiazepoxide is an example of (4) Both statement | and I! are false Seo reNcco (1) Antacids: (2) Antihistamines = ee cecr rn) (3) Antibiotics (4) Tranquilizers = a oo Product [8 62. Incorrect about amylopectin is co (1) Itis a polysaccharide (2) It constitutes about 80-85% starch (3) Itis insoluble in water | (4) It has. branching of glycosidic linkage by ¢,-¢. pH of 0.01 M Ba(OH): (aq) solution will be a. @) 123 63. Choose the incorrect match. (4) 103 (1) Calamine -ZncO, d spliting energy for high spin (2) Malachite —Cu,S complex Is (3) Azurite — Cu(OH),. 2Ccuco, oe (4) Galena Pos. Mase 64. Aver |. Average kinetic energy of 32 9 oxygen gas at 9 the following cannot act as a IC is (2) COz (4) SO (1) 450 (3) 300Final Test Series for NEET-2072 La Badits x dent X omy @ > “or ® ot 67. Given that 2Hg(aq) + 2e- —+ Hg,7"(aq); E* = 0.920 V Hg,?-(aq) + 2e- ——+ 2Hg{\); E° = 0.797 V What is the AG® for the following process at 25°C? 1g,"(q) —> Ho*(aq) + Ha(!) (1) 237 1049 (2) 1.19 108 (B) 166 1085 (4) 3.32 * 10° 68. The ratio of coordination number of cation to anion in CsCl structure is (2) 4:4 (4) 2:3 in its aqueous solution is 72. Pair of orbitals which form w-bond is (if x-axis is internuclear axis) O) p+, Q) 9, +0, (3) P, +P, (4) ,* dey 73. For which of the following given reactions 4H > AE? (1) PCk{g) -» PCb(g) + Cht9) (2) Nils) + 4CO(g) -» N(CO}(g) (3) Neg) + O2(g) + 2NO(Q) (4) 2NOxXg) > NzO4(a) 74. Salt which undergoes anionic hydrolysis is (1) NaCl (2) NH,CI (3) (NH,),SO, (4) CH,COONa 75. Identify the non-redox reaction. 1. 2KCIO, (s) +> 2KCi(s) + 30,() Il NaOH + HCl—+ NaCl + H,0 lll, 2H,0, —> 2H,0 + 0, (1) Only (2) Only 8 tt (3) Only! & 11 (4) Only 1 & ur 76. Which of the following is inorganic graphite? (1) (BN), (2) BANSHe (3) (NO), (4) (BNH), 77. Species having bent shape is (1) XeF, Qk Qh (4) 1eG 78, Correct order against indicated property is (1) HCt> HBr > HI (Reducing power) (2) HCIO > HCIO, > HCIO, (Acidic strenath) (8) ly < Bry < Cl < Fe (Onidising power) (4) NH, < PH, < AsH, (Basic strength)Final Test Series for NEET-2022 80. Which of the following is anti-aromatic? | (1) oO (2) L “OO oA 81. Identify the alkene having least magnitude of heat of catalytic hydrogenation. CH, "CH, < f ) t ‘CH, ; H. H a) ced eee } H H | CH, ie | cA H H \ pee CH’ CH, . 82. The gas which is responsible for acid rain is (1) N (2) O,9) . (3) Os) (4) So, 83. van't Hoff factor of a triprotic acid H,A having degree of dissociation 40% is. (4) 12 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 4.0 ‘On electrolysis of aq. NaCl, products obtained at (@) 0, and cl, (4) Cl, and H, 87, 88. 89. 90. 1. 92. Test-10 (Code-8) Positive sol in the following is (1) As,S5 (2) Au (3) Clay (4) Tio, Which of the following reaction is not feasible? (1) Ca,P, + 6H,0 —> 2PH, + 3Ca(OH), (2) XeF,, + 3H,O —> Xe0, + BHF (3) 2NaCl + Br, —> 2NaBr + Cl, (4) K,Cr,0,+ KI + H,SO, —> Cr,{SO,)s* Ip + K,SO,+H,0 Hybridization of Cu in complex ion [CuCl,}* is (1) sp? (2) spec? (3) dsp? (A) spd Optical isomerism is shown by (1) [Fe(H,0),]Cl, (2) [Co(NH,),C1,]CI (3) [Co(en),]cl, (4) [PICA (CH,CH,NH, stu, a. OY Teg (CH,Br H,—-CH,—B8r Om oor The major product formed by the dinitration of ‘3-methylphenol is (1) Cr> Mn > Fe (3) Mn > i (2) Cr>Fe>Mn.‘Test-10 (Code-8) 4 96. 96. 97. 101 lodoform test is not given by (1) CH,CocH, (2) C,H,OH i t ()Pr—C—cH, 4) ph _pn HCH), SAMO. + CHACOCH, Final Test Series for NEET-2022 98. Choose the incorrect statement about the given polymer CH, - CH(C,H.)4: (1) Itis a homopolymer (2) tis a condensation polymer (3) Monomer of the polymer is styrene (4) Itis a thermoplastic Product B is ne @ c<0 Zi (a) —_#__yg OH 99. CH, GHBr “2 (A) (8) a © @ Hy The product (B) is (1) CH, -GH- GH OH OH Correct order of basic strength of the given i compounds is (2) CH, ponte NH, NH, CH, O oO Oo (3) CH, - CH -CH,CH,OH J Wf 1H, @ ) 0) . (1) (i)> Gi) > (i) iC Cae (2) (i) > > ii) cD (3) (ii) > () > Gi) 100. Standard enthalpy of formation is non-zero for (4) (iil) > Gi) > (1) CO(g) The maximum number of isomeric ether with the 2) Ha) molecular formula C,H,,0 is. (3) 0,6) (2 (23 = aye (4) 5 (4) H*(aq) ‘SECTION -A 102, Select the incorrect match wrt, tomato, Read the following statements and select the correct ones a. Botanical gardens have collections of living plants for reference. Museums have collections of preserved animal specimens only. Monograph has information of one taxon only. 4. Keys are generally analytical in nature. (1) and b only (2) cand donly (3) b. (1) Family Solanaceae (2) Order Sapindales (3) Class Dicotyledonae (4) Division Angiospermae 103. Select the pair of fungi which are called imperfect fungi (1) Aspergillus and bracket fungi (2) Colletotrichum and Alternaria (3) Atternaria and morels (4) Moreis and Aspergillus (10) Wp Sto hen naeFinal Test Series for NEET-2022 104. The sexual spores produced by Neurospora are (a) Exogenous (b) Haploid (c) Bifagetiated (8) Produced on basidium The correct one(s) isiare (1) Only (a)and(b) (2) Only (by (3) Only (b) and (c) (4) Only (b), (c) and (d) 105, Select the incorrect option wrt. viroids, (1) Smaller than viruses (2) Having protein coat (3) Infectious RNA particle with iow molecular weight (4) Discovered by T.O. Diener in 1971 106. Bacteriophages (1) Are always enveloped by lipids and carbohydrates (2) Usually have ssRNA (3) Are bacteria which infect viruses (4) Have capsid 107. Select the incorrect statement about dinoflagellates. (1) There cell wall have protein rich layer called pellicle (2) Most of them have two flagella (3) They are photosynthetic (4) They are single celled eukaryotes 108. The number of births during given period in the population is referred to (1) Natality (2) Mortality (8) Immigration (4) Emigration 109. Choose the features which is true regarding the ‘common asexual spores of sac fungi. (1) These are diploid (2) They are thick walled (8) They are endogenously produced (4) They are non-motile @. Floating debris is removed by sedimentation. ‘Aeration tanks show vigorous growth of "Geet anaerobic heterotrophic microbes into 111 112, 113. 114, 115, Test-10 (Code-8) c. Sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced d. Major part of activated sludge is pumped ack into aeration tank. @. In anaerobic sludge digesters, methane, H,S ‘and CO, are produced by methanogenic bacteria (1) b, and e are correct (2) cand d are correct (3) a, b and d are incorrect (4) Only e is incorrect Montreal protocol was signed at___in__ (1) Montreal (Canada), 1987 (2) Montreal (Canada), 1989 (3) Montreal (Japan), 1987 (4) Montreal (Japan), 1989 Fucus shows all the given features, except (1) Diplontic tite cycle (2) Rich source of iodine () Presence of fucoxanthin (4) Non-motile male gametes For the production of one molecule of sucrose in Wheat, there is requirement of (1) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH (2) 36 ATP and 24 NADPH (3) 60 ATP and 24 NADPH (4) S ATP and 2 NADPH Which of the following contributes to the formation of primary plant body but does not Participate in secondary growth in dicots? (1) Intrafascicular cambium (2) Interfascicular cambium (8) Phetlogen (4) Intercalary meristem In flowering plants, the site of perception of light/dark duration is, (1) Shoot apices. (2) Embryo of seed (3) Leaves (4) Flowers (1)CTS ros ST ee ee Tes (10 (Code-8) 116. Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column | Column It a Hilum () Shield shaped cotyledon b. Aleurone layer (i) Sheath encloses plumule © Scutellum (il) Scar on seed coat 4. Coleoptile (iv) Proteinaceous (1) alii), BG, ef), dv) 2) ali), b(i), ev), 6) 3) alii), bev), efi), dCi) (4) ativ), b(), efi), a¢i) 117. Choose the example of population interaction which shows competition (1) Clownfish living among sea anemone (2) Epiphytes growing on mango trees (3) Balanus living with Chathamalus (4) Bamacies growing on the back of whale 118. In monocot stem (1) Pericycle is parenchymatous (2) Vascular bundles are arranged in ring like manner (3) Water containing cavities are present in vascular bundles surrounded by collenchymatous bundle sheath (4) Vascular bundles are scattered 449. In hydrarch succession, all belong to seral communities except (1) Amphibious plants (2) Phytoplanktons (3) Submerged plants (4) Shrubs 420. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement-A: In heterocyst of Nosfoc, PS | remains active which generates ATP required to fix nitrogen. Statement-B: Dinoflageliates are mostly marine. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect ere Final Test Series for NEET-2022 121. Tendrils of watermelon are modified (1) Axillary buds (2) Adventitious roots (3) Scaly leaves (4) Leaves 422. Phylloctade of Opuntia is a modified (1) Leaf base (2) Non-green stem (3) Photosynthetic stem (4) Photosynthetic root 123. Choose the odd one out. (1) Pinus - Monoecious (2) Selaginella — Heterosporous (3) Marchantia — Dominant sporophyte (4) Eucalyptus - Double fertilisation 424. Gymnosperms differ from angiosperms as the former have (1) Archegonium (2) Tracheids (3) Seeds (4) True leaves, stem and roots 125. What will be the amount of DNA in meiocyte at its G stage if the meiotic product has 10 pg DNA? (1) 20 pg (2) 10 pg (3) 40 pg (4) 80 pg 126. Water holding substance algin and carrageen is ‘commercially obtained respectively from (1) Red algae and green algae (2) Brown algae and red algae (3) Red algae and brown algae (4) Green algae and brown algae 127. Consider the following statements and select the correct option. ‘A. Root pressure is a positive pressure and can be responsible for pushing up water to small heights in the stem. B. Transpiration is the evaporative loss of water by plants. (1) Only A is correct (2) Only Bis correct (3) Both A and B are correct (4) Both A and B are incorrectFinal Test Series for NEET-2022 428. Mark the odd one wrt. the salient features of genetic code. (1) Nearly universal (2) Read in contiguous fashion (3) One codon can code more than one different amino acids (4) Itis said to be degenerate 129. Choose odd one w.r.t in-situ conservation. (1) National parks (2) Wildlife sanctuaries (3) Zoological parks (4) Biosphere reserves 130. The possible types of gametes produced by female Drosophila which is heterozygous for both eye colour and wing size are a4 @2 (3) 6 (4) 8 431. Final hydrogen acceptor in ETS of mitochondria, is (1) Oxygen (2) Cytochrome as (3) Water (4) NAD" 132. The above pedigree shows (1) Autosomal dominant trait | (2) Autosomal recessive trait (8) Sex linked dominant trait (4) Sex linked recessive trait 133. Splitting of water during photosynthesis is the best defined function of (1) Manganese (2) Magnesium (3) Molybdenum (4) Boron 134. Choose the correct representation for the movement of water in the given cells. Test-10 (Code-B) nv A ic “™ ® gy B==C = : c e B. SI Y : u oay O pec 195. Ce plants are “ (1) Tomato and bell pepper (2) Wheat and maize Gs (3) Sorghum and sugarcane : (4) Opuntia and wheat : SECTION -8 x 136, The sporophytic body in bryophytes is (1) Dependent on gametophyte (2) Formed by germination of meiospores (3) Specialized to produce gametes (4) Haploid phase of the plant 137. Phytochrome that is composed of indole | compound can promote all except (1) Apical dominance (2) Parthenocarpy in tomatoes (3) Rooting in stem cuttings (4) Botting in beet and cabbage 138. Choose the odd one wrt. endoplasmic reticulum. roles of rough (1) Provides precursor of enzyme for formation of lysosome in Golgi complex (2) Involvement in protein synthesis (3) Giving rise to smooth endoplasmic reticulum (4) Lipid synthesis the 139. A macronutrient of plants that activates enzyme catalase is (1) Ni (2) Fe (3) Mg (4) Ca 140. The molecule formed by the link reaction and enters the Krebs cycle is a (1) 2C molecule (2) 3 molecule (4) 4C molecule 141. In Mendelian dihybrid cross. genotype RrYy in F2 progeny was (1) 18.75%. (2) 6.25% @) 25% (4) 12.5% (3) 5C molecule Percentage of (13)Test10 (Code-8) 142. Transcription in prokaryotes differs from that of eukaryotes as the former (1) Takes place in nucleoplasm (2) Includes post transcription modifications (3) Involves only one type of RNA polymerase (4) Involves only monocistronic structural genes 147, 148, 149, 150 for NEET-2022 Final Tost Seri processing, tailing is In post-transcriptional modification of (1) 5’end of eukaryotic mRNA (2) 3! end of eukaryotic hnRNA (3) 5° end of prokaryotic hnRNA (4) 3’ end of prokaryotic mRNA Incomplete dominance is exemplified by (1) Flower colour in Pisum sativum (2) ABO blood group in humans (3) Flower colour in Antirrhinum majus (4) Seed colour in Pisum sativum Select incorrect statement w.r.t. diatoms. (1) Chief producers in the oceans (2) Cell walls are embedded with silica (3) Microscopic, photosynthetic protists (4) Float actively in water currents Choose incorrect match, (1) Aspergillus niger ~ Butyric acid (2) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid (3) Lactobacillus - Lactic acid (4) Saccharomyces — Ethanol 143. Pusa swamim which is resistant to white rust is variety of (1) Chit (2) Brassica (3) Wheat (4) Cowpea 444.In Mung bean, induced mutations made it resistant against (1) Bacterial biight (2) Yellow mosaic virus (3) Powdery mildew (4) Both (2) and (3) 145. The most species rich animal group in global biodiversity is of (1) Fishes (2) Insects (3) Birds (4) Amphibians 146. Conjoint, collateral, open vascular bundles arranged in a ring is a feature of (1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem (3) Dicot root (4) Monocot root ‘SECTION -A 151. Choose the incorrect statement w.rt Osteichthyes. (1) They are mostly viviparous and development is direct (2) They possess four pairs of gills that are covered by an operculum (3) They are cold-blooded animals (4) Air bladder is present wi buoyancy regulates . Read the given statements and choose the correct option. Statement A: An action potential in an axon doesn't move backward because the segment behind is in a refractory phase. ‘Statement Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on membranes of synapiic vesicles (1) Both the statements A and B are correct (2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (14) 153, 154. 155, (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct Choose the basic amino acid among the following options. (1) Glutamate (2) Lysine (3) Valine (4) Serine Select the incorrect statement w.r.t digestion and absorption of food in humans. (1) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus. (2) Anxiety and eating spicy food together in a ‘normal human may lead to indigestion (3) Jaundice is a disorder of digestive system. (4) Gastric juice of infants contains nuclease, Pepsinogen, renin, acta Pressure of CO2 (in mm Hg) in leoxygenated blood and alveoli is respectively O) Aciage aa) (2) 95 and 104 () 40 and 40 (4) 95 and 40ee eee anal 456. If only anti-A antibodies are pr then the blood group of a Eesha Hatha MDa (2) B (3) AB (4) 0 457. Select the incorrect match 163, Test-10 (Code-B) Select the mismatch w.r.t disorders of circulatory system, fay] ] (1) | Angina ‘A symptom of acute | pectoris chest pain appears | when no enough | oxygen is reaching the | heart muscle (1) | Branchial respiration | Prawn, Octopus | (2) | Cutaneous respiration | Frog, | Earthworm (3) | Pulmonary respiration | Pavo, Penguin | (4) | Uricotelism Pterophyllum, ie Omithorhynchus 158. Given below are certain animals in box. Pavo, Neophron, Apteryx, Aptenodytes, | Struthio, Columba, Corvus | How many of them are flightless birds? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five 159. Retinal which is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigment is a derivative of (1) Ascorbic acid (2) Calciferol (8) Retinol (4) Cyanocobalamin 460. All of the following have epithelium which is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries except (1) Endothelium (2) Air sacs of lungs (3) Wall of Bowman's capsule (4) PCT 161. Select the painkiller that is very useful for patients who have undergone surgery. (1) Cocaine (2) Morphine (3) Datura (4) Cannabinoid Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cockroach. sgmented (1) The body is metamerically se (2) Exoskeleton is composed of N-acetyl wie later "glucosamine polymer 5 cone oon (8) The terga, sterma, and pleura ‘of cockroach ¢ ody are joined by arthrodial membrane oy Fees = (4) Cockroach exhibit mosaic vision with less a eo sensitivity but more resolution 164 165. 166 167. 168. (2) | Myocardial Complete stoppage of | farction _| the heart beat ja ef | (@) | Atherosclerosis | The vessels that supply blood to the heart | | muscles are affected | One of the main symptom is congestion | | of the lungs | (4) | Heart failure To which class, the enzymes belong that catalyse covalent bonding of two substrates to form a large molecule? (ya (2) iv @) vi @v Select the hormone(s) that is/are responsible for maturation and function of seminal vesicles. (1) Progesterone (2) Inhibin (3) Estrogens (4) Androgens Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) Certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in oral lining and tongue surface (2) Amino acids and glucose are also absorbed by facilitated transport (3) Parietal cells indirectly help in production of red blood cells, ‘ (4) Secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted from duodenum, Xerophthalmia is caused due to deficiency of (1) Calciferot (2) Retinol (3) Cyanocobalamin (4) Ascorbic acid Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following. 5)ee eee Test-10 (Code-8) 775. Maich column | with column jl and select the | 188. Consider the given statements and select the option that correctly states them as true (T) or correct option 1 Column i | false (F) T Column! (a) The type of muscles that are present in our ea 1 ; thigh are strated and voluntary. (a) | Ectopic “ elec removal (©) The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is pregnancy, eee = | due to the central gap between myosin { (| Hysterectomy | (i) | Implantation of flaments inthe A-band | © | embryo at ste (©) Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor | ome rinenieerus | neuron occurs directly at the myofibri T | | Vasectomy iii) | Surgical method (@) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints Cee ee ereoriaception Causes inflammation of joints. | in males fees ag OVE | (@) | Zona (iv) | Receptors for (1) Z: < Roce. pellucida | sperm binding paola es fees, | rer er | Tal {Tole l|o|@ f@ {oT T is Tay @! @ | @ | a | 470. Choose the correct statement w-rt white muscle ao | @ | ww | fibres i mus ores in comparison to red muscle fibres. alm | a | @ | 0 (1) Have more number of mitochondria 15 T (2) Have more sarcoplasmic reticulum 4] @ | co} wy) | 0 (3) Mostly carry out aerobic oxidation 476. Which one of the following is a matching set of a (4) Have more blood capillaries ol atl ae cae 471. Meissner’s corpuscle are stimulated by [ (1) | Ponitera ‘Spongilla, Hydra, Sycon (1) Temperature (2) Sound waves (2) | Cnidaria | Pennatula, Ctenoplana, (3) Smell (4) Touch | Pleurobrachia Tidaselect | thejgeday one jest the functions of (3) | Ascheiminthes | Enterobius, Ascaris. glucocorticoids. Ancylostoma (1) Involved in maintaining the cardiovascular ~ system as well as the kidney functions CO eeoeced Bien chane, | (2) Produce anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune response. 177. Complete the analogy and select the correct (3) Stimulate the formation of RBCs option. (4) Stimulate the process named glycogenesis Pigments : Carotenoids :: Alkaloids : 173. Approximate life span of crow in years is (1) Curcumin (2) Morphine (1) 30 (2) 140 (3) Ricin (4) Concanavalin-A 3) 15 (45 178, Select the plant forms whose ancestor is seed 174, Select the incorrect pair. fems. «wn a Resins (1) Sphenopsids (2) Ginkgo is human sperm (3) Cycads (4) Conifers 179. All of the following 2 Capea aaa eer me td cd heath cave programmes except : (1) Care of pregnant mothers ee wact (2) Postnatal child care 1G) importance of bresst feeding (4) Promotion of unprotected sexual co- habitationFinal Test Series for NEET-2022 180. Select the incorrect statement (1) Lysozyme that is present in saliva and tears destroys certain types of bacteria (2) Interferons are synthesized in response to mycoplasma (3) Ringworm in humans is caused by fungi (4) Fast distribution of medicine can be achieved by injecting it into the veins Choose the odd one wir, natural methods of contraception. (1) Lactational amenorthoea (2) Coitus interruptus (3) Rhythm method (4) Barrier method Select the incorrect match (1) VO=IC + ERV (2) FRC=TV + ERV (3) TLC = IC + FRC (4) IC=IRV+TV 181 182, 183. Select the mismatch wrt. enzyme used for isolation of DNA. (1) Bacteria — Lysozyme (2) Plantcells - Cellulase (3) Animal cell - ONase (4) Fungus - Chitinase 484. In oxygen transportation, the binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily elated to (1) Partial pressure of oxygen (2) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (3) Temperature (4) H* concentration Transient micropores are created for plasmid delivery using short electric impulses in (1) Electroporation (2) Disarmed pathogen vectors (3) Biolistic (4) Microinjection SECTION -B 185, 186, Match the following w.rt. leucocytes and their percentage of total WBCs. Choose the correct option. Column | Column it | Basophils | (i) _| 60-65 percent . | Eosinophils | (ii._| 0.5-1 percent c. | Monocytes | (ii) | 2-3 percent | Neutrophils | (iv) | 68 percent ¢ 7) Tost-10 (Code) (1) ali), bt), eliv), dil) (2) ail), BU), hiv), ii) (3) ali), (i, civ), 4) (4) alli), HO), ef), dv) Select the incorrect statement (1) Human protein (u-1-antitrypsin) is used to treat emphysema (2) 24 grams per litre human protein-enriched milk was produced by Rosie (3) Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine (4) ANDI was the first genetically modified monkey Which of the following is not a function of angiotensin II? (1) Release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex (2) Increase glomerular blood pressure (3) Activates juxtaglomerular cells to release renin (4) Increase in GFR 189.When one or a few individuals are dispersed and become the founders of a new Isolated population at some distance from their place of origin, itis known as, (1) Bottle neck effect (2) Founder's effect (3) Natural selection (4) Biogenetic law Given below is a diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action. 187 188, 190. Which of the following hormone works b; given mechanism? (1) Thyroxine (2) Adrenaline (3) Insulin (4) Somatotropin 3 Seranaar rade herae — 8B Lity, an Amencan company, prepared two DISA sequences corresponding to A and B chains Of human insulin and introduced them in cloning vector of (3) Bacitus thuringiensis (2) Agrobacterium @) Entamoeba con (4) Escherichia col 182. During muscular activity, a cross bridge breaks due to (1) Hydrotysis of ATP (2) Binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin (3) Binding of ATP on globular head of myosin (4) Generation of action potential on sarcolemma due to release of neurotransmitter 193. The zygote or early embryos (upto 8 blastomeres) can be transterred into the fallopian tube, This technique is known as. (1) Intra uterine transfer (2) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (4) Intra uterine insemination 194, Pre-historic man who buried their deads with Final Tost Series for NEET-2022 195, Complete the analogy and choose the correct option Anteater : Numibat ©: Lemur: (1) Tasmanian tiger cat (2) Flying phatanger (3) Spotted cuscus: (4) Tasmanian wolf Charas is obtained from the extract of which plant? (1) Enithroxylum coca (2) Cannabis sativa (3) Atropa belladonna (4) Papaver somniferum 197, All of the following are part of aquaculture except (1) Fishes (2) Shrimps (3) Lobster (4) Scorpion 198. Select a freshwater fish. (1) Hilsa (2) Sardine (3) Magur (4) Mackerel! 199. Which ion increases the efficiency of rDNA entry in the bacterium? (1) Nat (2) Ca** (3) Mg? (4) cr 200. Term which refers to the use of bioresources by multinational companies without -_proper authorization from countries or people concemed and without compensatory payment is (1) Blopatent (2) Biopiracy (3) Bioethics (4) Biotechnology