LISTENING BUFFET

CONTENTS
Chapter 1. FOUNDATION
 TEST FORMAT
 BAND SCORE
 TIPS TO IMPROVE LISTENING SKILL
 TYPES OF QUESTIONS

Chapter 2. EXERCISES
A. FORM, NOTE, TABLE, FLOW-CHART, SUMMARY COMPLETION
1. FORM
2. NOTE
3. TABLE
4. FLOW-CHART
5. SUMMARY

B. PLAN, MAP, DIAGRAM LABELLING

1. PLAN, MAP LABELLING
2. DIAGRAM LABELLING

C. MATCHING

D. MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. SHORT ANSWER/ SENTENCE COMPLETION
2. PICK FROM A LIST - MULTIPLE CHOICE

E. SENTENCE COMPLETION

F. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION

G. EXTRA EXERCISES FOR SPEECH COMPLETION

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Chapter 1. FOUNDATION

INTRODUCTION TO IELTS LISTENING EXAM

 Test format
The IELTS Listening Test is divided into 4 PARTS. In each part, you will listen to
one or more native English speakers then answer around 10 questions related to
what you just heard. The entire IELTS listening test contains 40 questions in total.
In general, the listening recordings start off easier and get harder as you progress
through the exam. Each recording is heard ONLY ONCE and includes a range of
accents, including British, Australian, New Zealand, American, and Canadian.

 PART 1 – a conversation between 2 people set in an everyday social

context. For example, you might hear a conversation about confirming
details for a reservation, or placing an order over the phone.
 PART 2 - a monologue set in an everyday social context. For example,
you might hear a speech about local facilities, or someone providing directions,
or presenting basic information about an event.
 PART 3 – a conversation between up to four people set in an educational
or training context. For example, you might hear a university tutor and
a student discussing an assignment, or a couple of students discussing
something from class.
 PART 4 - a monologue on an academic subject. For example, you will
hear a university lecture from a professor. This is the toughest recording
on the Listening exam for most students.

The IELTS Listening Test takes around 40 minutes. You will spend 30 minutes
on listening to recordings and answering questions. You will be given a Question
Booklet and an Answer Sheet. The Question Booklet is where you will see
all the questions you need to answer. The Answer Sheet is where you will write
your final answers for grading.

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At the end of the listening section, you are given 10 minutes to transfer answers
from your Question Booklet to your Answer Sheet.
IMPORTANT!
Misspellings and incorrect grammar are marked INCORRECT, so use the 10
minutes to double check your spelling and Grammar.

The answer sheet will look like this:

○ Source: https://www.bestmytest.com/

Band score (Raw Score Conversion)

Raw score Band score Raw Score Band Score

39-40 9 18-22 5.5
37-38 8.5 16-17 5
35-36 8 13-15 4.5
32-34 7.5 11-12 4
30-31 7 8-10 3.5
26-29 6.5 6-7 3
23-25 6 4-5 2.5

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 Tips to improve listening skill

• In general

A. Timetable regular practice.

For example, 15 minutes at lunch, 15 minutes before breakfast – aim
for a manageable amount of time which you can dedicate every day to
listening to something in English.

B. Expand your range.

Everything helps, but you are more likely to be motivated when you are
listening to something that interests you, something you enjoy. If you
like watching films, then that’s fine, but remember in a test you won’t
see the person who is speaking so it’s also good practice to add
non-interactive listening to your practice. Podcasts, radio stations (online),
and international news websites often have short audio news items.
Pick out stories that interest you!

C. Practice in chunks.
Targeted, focused practice can really help to stretch your ability to
understand main contexts, and can help you to learn new works and
become familiar with grammar structures and accents. For example,
listen to a 2 minute chunk of a podcast - then check understanding and
continue listening to the next 2 minutes, and so on. Try this two or
three times and then relax and listen to the rest of the text.

D. Repeated practice.
The more you listen, the more you will hear. Go back to a text you have
listened to before and practice listening for more ideas. If you are using a
book to study then these can be a great source for listening texts. Keep
a record of new words and phrases you pick out – this will help your
reading, listening, speaking and writing.

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• In exam
A. Before listening

1. Read and listen to instructions - this will give you information such as

how many questions you need to answer in this section.

2. Underline key words in the questions – usually nouns and verbs.

3. Understanding each context will help you better understand the an-

swer options. Always read the question and think about the person

talking and if they are giving an opinion or expressing an attitude or a

feeling, for example.

4. Read and listen carefully to the example given at the start of the test,

this will show you how to answer the questions.

5. Can you predict any answers? Name? Noun? Number? Place? Actual

answer?

B. While listening

1. Don’t worry if you don’t understand everything; understanding the

main idea is usually enough.

2. When you move to the next question, forget the previous ones.

C. After listening

1. Don’t leave empty spaces on your answer sheet.

2. Check everything on your answer sheet.

○ Source: https://www.cambridgeenglish.org/

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 Types of question

In general, there are 6 types of questions in the Listening section:

• Form, note, table, flow-chart, summary completion
• Plan, map, diagram labelling
• Matching
• Multiple choices
• Sentence completion
• Short answer question

1. Form, note, table, flow-chart, summary completion

In this type of question, you will be given a Form, note, table, flow-
chart, summary, and asked to complete it by listening to a conversa-
tion between two people (usually about hotel reservation, signing for a
course…). Specifically, we have:

• FORM
Summarize the details in the recording such as name, phone number, and date

Example:
Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer

PERSONAL DETAILS FORM

Name: Mary (6)……………………………………………….

Address: Flat 2

(7)……………….... (8)……………..Road Canterbury

Telephone: (9)……………………………………………………...

Estimated value of lost items: (10) €……………………………….

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 • NOTE
Summarize the specific and detailed information in the recording.

Example:
Question 26 - 31
Complate the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

• TABLE
Summarize information related to some categories (for instance place, cost, time…)

Example:
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

TIM JANE

Day of arrival Sunday (21)…………..

Subject History (22)…………...

Number of books to read (23)…………. (24)…………..

Day of first lecture Tuesday (25)…………..

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 • FLOW-CHART
Summarize a process with particular steps displayed by arrows.

Example:
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Advice on exam preparation

Make sure you know the exam requirements


Find some past papers

Work out your 27…………..……. for revision and write them on a card

Make a 28……………..……… and keep it in view

Divide revision into 29……………….. for each day

Write one 30…………………….…. About each topic

Practise writing some exam answers

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 • SUMMARY PARAGRAPH

Fill in the gaps in the given paragraph. Notice that your answer must meet all the
requirements about spelling, grammar, and word limit.

Example:
Complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
in the space provided.

The Government plans to give (14) $................................. to assist the farmers. This
money was to be spent on improving Sydney’s (15)…………….… but has now been
re-allocated. Australia has experienced its worst drought in over fifty years.
Farmers say that the money will not help them because it is (16)…………………………

An aeroplane which was carrying a group of (17)…………………. was forced to land

just (18)……………………. minutes after take-off. The passengers were rescured by
(19)…………….
The operation was helped because of the good weather. The passengers thanked
the (20)………..… for saving their lives but unfortunately they lost their (21)……………

 Note:

• You will choose the best-fit answer from the available ones or identify the answer
yourself. Make sure that you use the word you have heard to fill in, not the words
coming out of your mind.

• REMEMBER to read the instructions very carefully because the number of words or
numbers are allowed to utilized will vary. The word limit is given, for instance, “NO
MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER”. Candidates will be penalized if they
write more than the stated number of words permitted. Therefore, for each task, you
had better notice to check this word limit. Contracted words such as “I’m or I’ll” will
not be tested so there is no need to worry about them. Hyphenated words like “high-tech”
will be count as a single word.

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2. Plan, map, diagram labelling _ completing a plan (e.g. of a factory), a
map (e.g. of a city area), or a diagram (e.g. a part a device).

• PLAN LABELLING
The content of the listening recordings is usually non-academic. They may give an intro-
duction about an event or about the structure, or the plan of a building (for example a trip
to a museum, gallery, school…)

Example:
Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

• MAP LABELLING

• There will be many places like a hospital, factory, park… and your job is to listen to the
recording, look at the given map and label all the gaps in that map.

• In this type of question, expect to hear positional and directional words such as ‘on’,
‘off’, ‘under’, ‘above’, ‘over’, ‘next’, ‘behind’, ‘inside’,etc.

• Tips: identify and note down “east, west, south, north”, “right, left” on the question
booklet before listening to the audio.

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 Example:
Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-J next to questions 14-17
ROSEWOOD HOUSE AND GARDENS

14 Pear Alley .................................

15 Mulberry Garden .................................
16 Shop .................................
17 Tea Room .................................

• DIAGRAM LABELLING
It will give you a diagram which can demonstrate the parts of a machine, or
phases of a process. The speaker in the recording will describe the diagram very clearly
and logically so that you can understand it easily. As a result, you have to keep track
of what you hear, not what you think of from your own knowledge about the
mentioned machine or process.
Example:

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3. Matching
Candidates are given a list of items from the audio and are requested to match it with
a set of options on the question paper. The set of options might be criteria of some
kind. The questions will be sorted following the listening text order in the record. The
information part will be a list of answers to match, they are in a random position, not
following any specific order.
Example:
What recommendations does Dr.Johnson make about the journal articles?
Choose your answers from the box and write the letter A-G next to questions 23-27.
A must read
B useful
C limited value
D read first section
E read research methods
F read conclusion
G don’t read

Example Answer
Anderson and Hawker …..A….

Jackson: 23……………………
Roberts: 24……………………
Morris: 25……………………
Cooper: 26……………………
Forster: 27……………………
4. Multiple choices
• Short Answer Multiple Choice Question. There will be a question and some
answers for you to choose from. Take a look at the example below:
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C
Example
How long has Sally been waiting?
A. Five minutes
B. Twenty minutes
C. Thirty minutes

1. What does Peter want to drink?

A. Tea
B. Coffee
C. A cold drink
2. What caused Peter problems at the bank?
A. The exchange rate was down
B. He was late
C. The computers weren’t working
3. Who did Peter talk to at the bank?
A. An old friend
B. An American man
C. A German man
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• Sentence Completion – Multiple Choice Question. The beginning of the sentence
is followed by a list of three possible answers to complete the sentence. You will then
pick one of them as your answer. This example will give you a hint.
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C
Example
Melanie could not borrow any books from the library because
A. The librarian was out.
B. She didn’t have time to look.
C. The books had already been borrowed. 
21. Malanie says she has not started the assignment because
A. She was doing work for another course.
B. It was a really big assignment.
C she hasn’t spend time in the library.

22. The lecturer says that reasonable excuses for extensions are
A. Planning problems.
B. Problem with assignment deadlines.
C. Personal illness or accident.

In some cases, you will have to choose more than one answer. There might be 5 an-
swers (A, B, C, D, E) and you choose 2 out of 5, or 7 answers (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) and you
choose 4 out of 7. (PICK FROM A LIST)

5. Sentence completion
You have to read a list of sentences that summarise the main idea of the whole listening
text or just a section of it. Then by listening to the recording, you will then fill in the
gaps. The word limit will be brought up as “NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A
NUMBER”.

Complete the sentence below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

RIVER INDUSTRIAL VILLAGE

11. Riverside Village was a good place to start an industry because it had water, raw
material and fuels such as …………………. and…………………………

12. The metal industry was established at Riverside Village by ………… who lived in the
area.

13. There were over ……………….. water-powered mills in the area in the eighteenth
century.

Just as mentioned before, you definitely should check the word limit very carefully.
One of the skills you need for this type of question is the ability to identify the main idea
of the listening text. As to do that, it is essential that you grasp the content through
the relationship among the sentences and sections in the recording, for instance, a
cause-effect relationship.

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6. Short answer question

You will answer the questions by using the information you hear in the recording. The
word limit will be given like “NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER”.
Always remember to read the instructions carefully because you will be penalized for
writing more than the given number of words.

With NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

19. How often do the Top Bus Company tours run?

……………………………………………………………………..

20. Where can you catch a Number One Sightseeing Tour from?

……………………………………………………………………..

As to do this type, you had better practice the skill of listening and absorb the specific
information such as time, cost and place.

Note: In some cases, in the instruction, you will be asked to answer the questions by
giving 2 or 3 main ideas.

○ Source: https://ejoy-english.com

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Chapter 2. EXERCISES
A. FORM, NOTE, TABLE, FLOW-CHART, SUMMARY COMPLETION.
1. FORM

1.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio A.1.1.1] In the IELTS test, you are often asked to complete part
of a form by writing a number or a name which is spelled for you.
Listen to 8 speakers and decide if each name or number is written
correctly ( ) or incorrectly()

1. Romney  5. Fawcett 
2. Cairns  6. 15 cents 
3. Bragg  7. 0726 05791 
4. Jeckyll  8. 30 Lower Road 

[Audio A.1.1.2]Work in pairs. Spell out these names and read these
numbers to each other. Then listen to check your answers.

1. Bracken 5. Vernon
2. Gower 6. 17
3. Jeremy 7. 01950 674236
4. Pollard 8. 31st

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 [Audio A.1.1.3] You are going to hear a man phoning to ask about a
holiday apartment. Listen and complete the form.
Write no more than TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Dubai Palm Apartments
Enquiry taken by: Amanda
Name: 1……………….
Adress: 37 2………………. Vienna
Telephone number: 3……………….
Number of people: four
Starting date: 4………………. January
Length of stay: 5……………….
Price per day: maximum 6………………. Euros

Other requirements:
• Fully equipped 7……………….
• View of 8……………….
• Air conditioning must be 9……………….
• 10……………….for car

 Before you listen, think what information you need for each gap
 Do not write more words than the instructions tell you to

1.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio A.1.2] You are going to hear a student talking to someone on the
telephone about doing an online course. Listen to the first part of the conversation
and answer Question 1-5.

Question 1-5
Complete the form below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Online Writing Course
Request for brochure

Example
First name: Alex

Last name: 1………………..

Address: Flat 4A, 396 2……………Road
Town/ City: Preston
Postcode: 3……………
Phone number: 4……………
Email address: [email protected]
Message box: deliver brochure 5……………

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 1.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 73, part 1)
[Audio A.1.3] Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

Short stay accommodation

Family name: Mackinlay

First name: (1)………………

Country of origin: (2) ………………
Date of arrival: (3) ………………
Number of tenants: (4) ………………
Length of stay: 2 weeks
Purpose of visit: (5) ………………
Type of accommodation: (6) ………………
Number of bedrooms: 1 or 2
Car parking: off street and (7) ………………
General area: near the beach
Other requirements: near (8) ………………
Name of town: (9) ………………
Client’s email: [email protected]
Price range: up to (10) ……………… $ a week

1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 122, part 1)

[Audio A.1.4] Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Registration form
Type of crime report: Robbery
Name: Anna (1) …………………
Date of birth: (2) …………………
Address: 4, (3) ………………… street
Post code: (4) …………………
Nationality: Grenadian
Number of previous burglaries: (5) …………………
Time of apartment tenancy: (6) …………………
Number of occupants: (7)…………………
Entry point of burglar: (8) …………………
Details of lost property:
Serial number of lost computer: (9) …………………
Material of stolen purse: (10) …………………
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 1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 144, part 1)

[Audio A.1.5] Questions 1-10

Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Council Youth Scheme

Application for funding for group project

Name: Ralph Pearson

Contact address: (1) ………………… Drayton, DR68AB
Telephone number: 01453 586098
Name of group: Community Youth Theatre Group
Description of group: amateur theatre group ((2) ………………… members).
Involved in drama (3) ………………… and …………………
Amount of money requested: (4) £ …………………
Description of project: to produce a short (5) ………………… play for young
children
Money needed for: (6) ………………… for scenery Costumes
Cost of (7) …………………
(8) …………………
Sundries

How source of funding will be credited

• Acknowledged in the (9) ………………… given to audience
Other organisations approached for funding (and outcome)
• National Youth Services – money was (10) …………………

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2. NOTE

2.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio A.2.1] You will hear Part 1 of some information about a new
shopping centre.
While you listen, circle the words and numbers that you hear.

7 am Thursday £ 2.50
10 am 356 £ 3.00
6 pm 635 £ 3.50
8 pm 790 £ 15.00
Tuesday 729
Wednesday £ 2.00

Listen again to Part 1 of the information and complete the text with the
missing information.

Northfields’ shopping centre information

Name of architect who designed Northfields’: (1) John................................................
Address and postcode: Forest Drive, (2)........................................................................
Opening hours: 10 am to 6pm.
Late night shopping until 8 pm on (3)...........................................................................
Transport
By car – free car park
By bus – there are (4).......................................................................................... buses.
Underground – From the town centre it only takes (5)................................................

 In this type of Listening exam task, always read the questions carefully first, so
you know what specific information you need to listen for. Information may include
a day of the week, a price, a spelling, a number or a postcode.
 Practice the alphabet often so you have no trouble with spelling questions.

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 2.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio A.2.2] You are going to hear a conversation between a man and a
woman who are looking for someone to travel with them to some distant
mountains. Listen and complete the notes.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Name: Sanjay 1………………

Age: 2………………

Occupation: 3………………

Other expeditions:

• has crossed 4………………

• has climbed Mount 5………………

Special skills

• has done a 6……………… course

• can speak 7………………

Qualifications:

• degree in 8………………

Free-time activities:

• 9………………
• keeping 10………………

 Before you listen, decide what information you need and what type of word or
number you can write in each gap
 Write words you hear and SPELL THEM CORRECTLY

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 2.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1:

[Audio A.2.3] You are going to hear a lecturer giving a talk about
traditional house design in Samoa. Listen to the recording and answer

Questions 1-10.

Questions 1-10
Complete the note below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Traditional Samoan Houses

Overall design
• House: round or 1……………
• No walls
• 2……………: to shelter occupants from wind and rain
• Floor: 3…………… to control temperature

Roof
• Dome-shaped and thatched using 4…………… leaves
• 5…………… sides prevent dampness
• High top permits 6…………… loss

Supporting posts
• Made using wood from the 7…………… around the village
• Used to show 8…………… of chiefs and speakers at meetings
• Attached using rope made by the 9…………… in the village
• Rope pulled tightly to form a 10…………… around beams and posts.

2.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 125, part 4)

[Audio A.2.4] Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

CLIMATE AND ARCHITECTURE

• Cases and examples are from practice conducted in (31) …………. as well as
rural areas.

Acid rain
• The chemicals have devastating effects on the architecture.
• The government try to reduce the negative effects.
• Funds have been received from a (32) ………….
• (33) …………. experience lower levels of acid in damaging pollutants.
• In recent years, Alter Project focuses on the buildings made of (34) ………….

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 Pollution
• One of the main sources of pollution is from the construction industry.
• (35) ............... is used to reduce pollution in Sky Tower.
• Construction is affected by the increased (36) …………. in winter.
• Humidity affects the (37) …………. buildings whose grain can be condensed by
moisture from the air.

Building & Technology

• Ground conditions can be a problem when the density of the (38) ………….
is wrong.
• Architects can now monitor the (39) …………. of buildings.
• The government should make (40) …………. for the architects.

2.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 139, part 4)

[Audio A.2.5] Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Conflict at work
Conflict mostly consists of behavior in the general category of (31) ………………
Often a result of people wanting to prove their (32) …………………
Also cause by differences in (33) ………………… between people
(34) ………………… conflicts: people more concerned about own team than about
company
Conflict related stress can cause (35) ………………… that may last for months

Chief Executives (CEOs)

Many have both (36) ………………… and anxiety
May not like to have their decisions questioned
There may be conflict between people who have different (37) ……………

Other managers
A structure that is more (38) ………………… may create a feeling of uncertainty
about who staff should report to

Minimizing conflict
Bosses need to try hard to gain (39) …………………
Someone from outside the company may be given the role of (40) …………………
in order to resolve conflicts

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3. TABLE

3.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio A.3.1] You are going to hear an information officer at a zoo talking
to a group of visitors. Listen and complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Animal World – today’s events

Name of event Location Type of event Time

The World of Ants the 1…………. 2…………. 11 am

The 3…………. 4…………. film 12 noon

Encouraging
Exhibition Room demonstration 2.30 pm
5………….
Birds of Prey the lawn 6…………. 7…………. pm

 You hear the answers in the same order as the questions in the table

3.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio A.3.2] Listen and answer Questions 6-10

Complete the table below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

3D FILM CHOICE
Name of film Time What you will see
The first (6)………….
The secrets of the Nile 10 am
along the river Nile
Life at the bottom
(7)………. Ocean 11.45 am
of the sea
A re-creation of a
Dinosaurs Alive (8).……….…..
(9) …..……… of dinosaur
A trip across the
Arabia 2.30 pm (10) …………. and a
dive in the Red Sea

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 3.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 168, part 1)

• [Audio A.3.3]
Questions 1-5
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Main Second Length of Main

Price now
Advantage Advantage guarantee disadvantage

Excellent
Anologue (3)…….. with Service will finish
£29.99 Cheap (4)………
radio expensive at some time
systems
(1) Lots of Little or no
Digital radio 2 years (5)………. is short
£…….. (2)……… interference

Questions 6-10
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Old Value Card New Super Value Card

Points Standard number Double points
Free credit period One month (6)…………. Months
Interest rate 18.5% (7)…………. %
Cardholder shopping
(8)…………. per month Two per month
evenings
Free delivery within Free delivery within 50
Benefits
(9)………….. miles miles
Fee Nil (10) £……….

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 3.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 178, part 3)
• [Audio A.3.4, Start at 13:10]
Questions 21-26
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Project
Materials needed Procedure
number
Scissors, markers, stiff paper and Cut out holes for eyes and nose.
Project 1
pieces of (21)…………………. Then (22)………….... in the mask.
Students can make a
Shoebox, Styrofoam an other
Project 2 (23)……………….… Scene or
materials
somewhere they have been before.
Egg cartons and pipe cleaners,
Stick pipe cleaners into egg cartons
Project 3 which are flexible lengths of
to make animals.
(24)……………… that are furry.
White or brown bags, markers and Students can decorate the
Project 4
pieces of felt. (25)………...… of the paper bag.
Paper mache, made by tearing up
Can cover any (26)……………... with
Project 5 newspapers into strips and
the strips, like a blown-up balloon.
dipping them into starch.

3.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 169, part 2)

• [Audio A.3.5, Start at 6:55 ]

Questions 11-13
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Charity art sale

The paintings will be displayed in the Star Gallery and in a nearby (11) …………………..

The sale of pictures will begin at (12) …………...…….. on Thursday, and there will be

refreshments beforehand. The money raised will all be used to help (13) ……………....

children in New Zealand and other countries.

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 Questions 14-20
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Artist Personal information Type of painting

- Daughter is recovering from a
problem with her back - Pictures of the
Don Studley (14)………................... of New
- Self-taught artist Zealand

- Originally from Taiwan

- (16)…………… paintings

James Chang - Had a number of

- Strong colors
(15)…………………..... there

- Has shown pictures in many

countries - Soft colors, various media

Natalie Stevens
- Is an artist and a website - Mainly does (18)…………………
(17)…………………

- Paintings are based on

- Lived in New Zealand for
(20)………………….
(19)…………………
Christine Shin
- Watercolors of New Zealand
- Korean
landscapes

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4. FLOW-CHART

4.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio A.4.1] Listen and answer Questions 6-10

Complete the flow chart below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The desalination process

Introductory point: a 6…………. can desalinate sea water

using its throat.

Collection: sea water passes through a canal into the 7........


Treatment: rubbish is removed


Salt removal: sea water passes through a membrane under high pressure; a very
8.......... process


Produces fresh water and salty brine - can harm 9.............


Use: human consumption and irrigating 10..........

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 4.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 177, part 3)

[Audio A.4.2, Start at 12:45]

Questions 21-25
Complete the flow chart below. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

Foundation for Essay Writing

Decide on 21…………………. you like.


Focus on 22………… a rea of interest.

Write 23……………………. statement.

Create 24……………………......……..

Ensure this 25…………………. clearly.

Questions 26-30
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

There are several (26)………….. involved in producing a good essay. The writer must

think independently, and give (27) ………….. examples as support, each one with a

reference (which is academically (28) …………. ). The formatting must follow the

(29) ……….. issued by the university, as well as the word count decided by the lecturer,

although it can vary by (30) …………..

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 4.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 176, part 2)
[Audio A.4.3, Start at 4:30] Questions 11-16
Complete the flow chart below using the given options.

Dig a pit

 Making a steam pit

Arrange a row of 11 ..... over the pit.

Place 12 ..... on top.

Light the wood and let it burn out. Cover the pit of 14 .....

 

Remove 13 ..... Place wrapped food on top, and cover it with 15....

 

Insert a stick. Remove the stick and put 16 .... into the hole.

A. Air B. Ash
C. Earth D. Grass
E. Sticks F. Stones
G. Water

Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO characteristics apply to the bamboo oven?

A. It is suitable for windy weather.
B. The fire is lit below the bottom end of the bamboo.
C. The bamboo is cut into equal lengths.
D. The oven hangs from a stick.
E. It cooks food by steaming it.

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 Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about eating wild fungi?

A. Cooking does not make poisonous fungi edible

B. Edible wild fungi can be eaten without cooking
C. Wild fungi are highly nutritious
D. Some edible fungi look very similar to poisonous varieties
E. Fungi which cannot be identified should only be eaten in small quantities

4.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 170, part 3)

[Audio A.4.4, start at 13:10] Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. Nicole received the best information from

A. Staff
B. Students
C. Cleaners

22. The product used most wastefully was

A. Copying paper
B. Plastic
C. Paper plates and cups

23. The proportion of interviewed people who expressed concern over

waste was
A. 30%
B. 45%
C. 55%

24. The proportion who claim they take action over this problem was
A. 10%
B. One third
C. One half

25. Nicole thinks many people do nothing because they are

A. Lazy
B. Uncaring
C. Uninformed

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 Questions 26-30
Complete the flow chart below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Procedure to Reduce Copying Waste

26……………….. staff to do double-sided copying.

27……………….. unwanted copies into a special recycling tray.

28……………….. these clearly, for easy re-use,

Stack them in a special copying tray each morning.

29……………….. codes which allow each user to access this tray.

Give highest users a 30……………….. (e.g. cinema tickets).

4.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 162, part 3)

[Audio A.4.5, start at 10:40 ] Questions 21-25
Label the flow chart. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Lecture and note taking

Complete all (21)……………………..before lecture

Think about likely (22) ……………………..of lecture

Take notes during lecture

(23) …………………….. immediately after lecture

Revise before (24) …………………… Revise every (25) ………………..

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 Questions 26-29
Answer the following questions.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

26. Where should you sit when you attend a lecture? .............................
27. What should you do if you miss an important point? .............................
28. Why must your notes be easy to read? .............................
29. What do we call expressions which indicate what is coming next? .................

Question 30
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

30. Where does Carlos write summing up points on his notes?

 A
 B
 C
 D

XALO BUFFET/ Listening Buffet 32

5. SUMMARY

5.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 66, part 4)

[Audio A.5.1, start at 24:45] Questions 31-36
Complete the table below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Charles William Peale
Slide Painting Date Notes
Pitt as a Roman Elaborate, symbolical portrait of British
1 (31)…....
Senator parliamentarian
(32)……… of many Washington
2 George Washington 1772
portraits
Family portrait – shows exuberance &
3 The Peale Family 1773
(33)………………
‘trompe l’oeil’ style – double portraits
4 The (34)…………….. 1795
of sons - Raphaelle & Titian
5 Rachel Weeping 1722 Wife and dead (35)…………………..
Brother James – in darkness but face
6 James (36)……
illuminated

(31) ……………….
(32) ……………….
(33) ……………….
(34) ……………….
(35) ……………….
(36) ……………….

Questions 37-40
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

Primarily, Peale was a painter but he was also a politician, scientist and (37) ………..….
with many successful patents. He worked with Thomas Jefferson on the polygraph
which was a desk that could be used for copying a (38) ………………. He wrote academic
papers on different subjects and tried to make movies, spectacles and a velocipede
(a kind of (39)………………. ) Peale was also a naturalist and taxidermist and he helped
unearth the skeleton of mastodon which was the best (40) ……………… in his museum.

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 5.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 73, part 4)
[Audio A.5.2, start at 21:30 ]Questions 31-37
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Every day the human body is fighting off (31)……………… by destructive pathogens. A
person in good health has natural protection in the form of an immune system which
works best against familiar microorganisms which may have been encountered during
a previous (32) ……………… or passed on by the mother before or after birth.

Vaccination is a way to cause (33)……………… immunization by introducing a small

amount of pathogen into the body – just enough for the body’s (34) …………… to react
by making antibodies. Passive immunization can be used as a way of treating
someone who is already sick. Proteins from animal (35) ……………… are introduced into
the patient to give him the necessary antibodies to fight the disease.

Dr. Edward Jenner observed that people who had suffered and recovered from a
serious disease called smallpox did not get it again. He also noted that victims of
milder disease, cowpox which they caught from (36) ……………… were immune to
smallpox. He carried out a successful (37) ……………… by deliberately giving a child
cowpox in order to make him immune to smallpox.

Questions 38-40
Complete the diagram below. Choose your answers from the box below and
write the letters A-F next to questions 38-40.

(38) ………………
(39) ………………
(40) ………………

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 5.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 80, part 4)
[Audio A.5.3, start at 14:00] Questions 31-40
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Although we cannot do anything about the plants and animals that are already
(31) ………………….. we can do something about the many species in the world today
that are in danger of becoming extinct in the future.

The main reason for the growing number of (32) ………..............………….. species is the
destruction of their (33) …………………..The rapidly (34) ……………….. human population
needs more land and resources for (35) ………………….. This is changing and destroying
the habitats that plant and animal species need for (36) …………………..

One way we can save endangered species and permanently (37) ………………….. these
habitats is to create and support national parks and reserves. National parks
encourage people to enjoy the (38) ………………….. of species without harming them.

People who visit these parks must be sure to obey few rules. These include following
fire regulations, leaving (39) ………………….. placing all rubbish in a bin, not picking the
flowers and not taking birds’ eggs.

Public (40) ………………….. will help ensure the survival of our plant and animal species.

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 5.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 92, part 3)

[Audio A.5.4, start at 13:40] Questions 21-24

Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The most important part of a presentation is the (21)…………………… thus it is important

to use a hook, such as a surprising fact, (22)…………………… or a puzzling problem. The

best presenters treat their audiences as (23)…………..….. and (24)………………… them in

the subject matter, which they make interesting.

Questions 25-30
Complete the presentation plan. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

Part Subject Details

One (25)……….. context Cultural (26)…........………. and management styles

Two Current perspectives Complexity of (27)……………..............….. workplace

Three Main dilemma Review Productive (28)………………….......................

Four Recommendations Theory of Human (29)………………...................……..

Five Question time Prepare answers related to industrial (30)………….

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5.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 130, part 4)

[Audio A.5.5, start at 20:30] Questions 31-34

Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER only.

Cereal MMT
(31)…………………….. 600
(32)……………………… 560
Coarse grain (33)……………….
Cereal grown for (34)……………. 300

Questions 35-39
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Rice gives more (35)…………………… per hectare than other cereal crops and production
has increased over 100% in recent years because of better yields. Land area has only
increased by 30% due to the need for wet land so availability of land is quite limited
by (36) …………………… type and (37) …………………… supply. The dry-land variety gives
poorer yields and poorer (38) …………………… No weed killers have been developed yet
that do not harm the main crop. Heavy machines are unable to work in paddy fields so
most rice is still grown (39) ……………………

Question 40
Complete the diagram below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

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B. PLAN, MAP, DIAGRAM LABELLING

1. PLAN, MAP LABELLING

1.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio B.1.1] Before you listen, match the phrases with the diagrams.

Now listen to some information about a new shopping centre. Look at the
map and the list of shops. Match the shops with the correct letter, A-F.

1. Cinema……………………
2. Supermarket……………………
3. Green’s department store……………………
4. Pharmacy……………………
5. Book store……………………
6. Mobile phone shop……………………

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 1.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio B.1.2] You are going to hear the information officer saying where
things are in the zoo. Listen and write the correct letter (A-G) next to
these questions (1-3)
1. Gift shop……………………
2. Restaurant……………………
3. Picnic area……………………

Before you listen, check where

each of the options is in relation
to where:
● You are on the map/ plan.
● The labelled things are.

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 1.3. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio B.1.3] Question 11 - 15

Label the plan below.

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letters A-I next to
questions 11-15.

A Art collection

B Childen's books

C Computers

D Local history
collection

E Meeting room

F Multimedia

G Periodicals

H Reference books

I Tourist
information

Entrance

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 1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 102, part 2)

[Audio B.1.4, Start at 7:00] Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

Mount Rushmore
11. The government finally paid ………………. to complete the heads of four
United States Presidents.
12. The purpose of the construction of the president’s heads is to
develop ……………….
13. The carvings face ………………. to experience maximum exposure to sunlight.
14. In 1885, the mountain was renamed after a ……………….
15. It took ………………. years to finish the project.

Questions 16-20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-E next to questions 16-20.

16. information centre ………………..

17. refreshment centre ………………..
18. gift shop ………………..
19. workshop ………………..
20. visitor centre ………………..

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 1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 136, part 2)

[Audio B.1.5, Start at 7:00] Questions 11-16

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Anglia Sculpture Park

11. The land where the Sculpture Park is located was previously
A. Completely covered by forest.
B. The site of a private house.
C. Occupied by a factory.

12. What is unusual about the Anglia Sculpture Park?

A. Artists have made sculptures especially for it.
B. Some of its sculptures were donated by the artists.
C. It only shows contemporary sculptures.

13. What is the theme of Joe Tremain’s ‘burnt’ sculptures?

A. The contrast between nature and urban life
B. The effect of man on the environment
C. The violence of nature

14. The path by the Lower Lake

A. Is rather wet in some places.
B. Has recently been repaired.
C. Is difficult to walk on.

15. What does the speaker say about the Visitor Centre?
A. It is being enlarged at present.
B. It has received an international award.
C. It was designed by a Canadian architect.

16. Today, visitors can buy snacks and sandwiches

A. At the kiosk.
B. In the Terrace Room.
C. At the Lower Lake Cafe.

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 Questions 17-20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-F next to questions 17-20.

17. Joe Tremain sculptures ………………..

18. Giorgio catalucci bird sculptures ………………..
19. Garden gallery ………………..
20. Long house ………………..

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 2. DIAGRAM LABELLING

2.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio B.2.1.1] You are going to listen to a chef giving a cooking

demonstration. Listen to the introduction. Which recipe is he going to
cook? Choose the best answer, A, B or C.

[Audio B.2.1.2] Listen to the second part of the chef’s demonstration.

Complete the descriptions of the diagram using the words in the box.

Boil chop (x2) cut fold mix (x2) roll

Try to PREDICT the information before you listen.

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 2.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio B.2.2]You are going to hear an information announcement for

passengers on a ship. Listen and label the diagram.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

● Look at the diagram and decide what type(s) of word you need.
● Look at the words on the diagram and listen for similar words
and phrases to tell you the answer is coming.

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 2.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 88, part 4)

[Audio B.2.3, Start at 17:00] Questions 31-35

Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The architects who designed the London Eye originally drew it for a (31)
………………..in 1993. Subsequently, they formed a partnership with (32) ……………….. to
develop the project. As the biggest observation wheel ever built its construction
involved 1700 people in five countries. Most of its components had to be (33)
……………….. and delivering them had to be coordinated with the (34) ……………….. in the
River Thames. On average 350 hours a week are spent on maintenance of the Eye and
only (35) ……………….. is used to clean the glass.

Questions 36-40
Label the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

(36) ……………….. (37) ………………..

(38) ………………..   (39) ………………..
(40) ………………..
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 2.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 61, part 4)

[Audio B.2.4, Start at 22:00] Questions 31-34

Label the diagrams below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS
for each answer.

(31) ……………….. (32) ………………..

(33) ………………..    (34) ………………..

Questions 35-40
Complete the summary below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Cochlear implants – Advantages, disadvantages and factors

Hearing aids (35) …………. normal sounds, so they are good for mild hearing loss but
not for severe loss. Cochlear implants help some people a lot, but do not work so well
for everyone. The brain gets different (36) …………. from an implant, so users must
relearn how to hear. Cochlear implants are not a cure. Users need ongoing training in
(37) …………., lip-reading and sign language. The surgery can damage nerves. It may
also destroy any (38) ………….; in such cases, those users cannot go back to using a
hearing aid. The most important factor for selecting users is the (39) …………. of their
deafness and also age and previous speaking ability. Finally, the condition of the nerve
cells in the cochlea is a factor because (40) …………. can damage these cells.

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 2.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 92, part 4)

[Audio B.2.5, Start at 20:45] Questions 31-35

Complete the diagram labels. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The Sun's 31....................
Fusion Process

(31) ……………….. (32) ………………..

(33) ………………..   (34) ………………..
(35) ………………..

Questions 36-40
Complete the diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

(36) ……………….. (37) ………………..

(38) ………………..   (39) ………………..
(40) ………………..
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C. MATCHING
1.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1
[Audio C.1.1] You are going to hear a student talking to a tutor about a talk
he is preparing on “desalination” – the process of making fresh water from sea
water. Listen to the first part of the conversation and answer Question 1-5

Question 1-5

What comment does the tutor make about each part of the presentation?

Write the correct letter, A-C, next to Questions 1-5

NB You may use any letter more than once

Parts of Presentation

1. The introduction
2. The background
3. The description of the process
4. The advantages/ disadvantages
5. The conclusion

Comments

A. It needs to be shorter.
B. The ideas are difficult to follow.
C. Some information should be added.

1.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2

[Audio C.1.2]You are going to hear a conversation about successful people.
Listen and answer Questions 1-4

Questions 1-4

What helped each person to become successful?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F,
next to questions 1-4v

People

6. The film maker……… 8. The scientist ……

7. The ballet dancer……. 9. The chef……

Reasons for success

A. A personal style D. An invention

B. A lot of money E. A wise decision
C. A relative’s influence F. A change of job

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 1.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 3:

[Audio C.1.3] Questions 21 – 25

What does Jack: tell his tutor about each of the following course options?
A. He'll definitely do it.
B. He may or may not do it.
C. He won't do it.

Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 21- 25.

You may choose any letter more than once.

21. Media Studies

22. Women and Power
23. Culture and Society
24. Identity and Popular Culture
25. Introduction to Cultural Theory

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 1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 137, part 3)

[Audio C.1.4, start at 14:30] Questions 21-27

What helped Stewart with each of the following stages in making his training
film for museum employees?
Choose SEVEN answers from options below.

What helped Stewart

A. Advice from friends
B. Information on a website
C. Being allowed extra time
D. Meeting a professional film maker
E. Good weather conditions
F. Getting a better computer
G. Support of a manager
H. Help from a family member
I. Work on a previous assignment

Stages in making the training film for museum employees

21. Finding a location ………………….
22. Deciding on equipment ………………….
23. Writing the script ………………….
24. Casting ………………….
25. Filming ………………….
26. Editing ………………….
27. Designing the DVD cover ………………….

Questions 28-30
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Stewart’s work placement: benefits to the Central Museum Association

• His understanding of the Association’s (28) ………………….
• The reduction in expense
• Increased co-operation between (29) ………………….
• Continuous (30) …………………. which led to a better product
• Ideas for distribution of the film

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 1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 135, part 2)

[Audio C.1.5, start at 7:30] Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The police officer suggests neighbours give each other their (11) ………………
Neighbours should discuss what to do if there’s any kind of (12) …………………
It’s a good idea to leave on the (13) ………………….
Think carefully about where you put any (14) ………………….
It’s a good idea to buy good-quality (15) ………………….

Questions 16-20
Which crime prevention measure is proposed for each area affected by crime?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write correct letter A-G next to
questions 16-20.

Proposed crime prevention measures

A. Install more lighting
B. Have more police officers on patrol
C. Remove surrounding vegetation
D. Contact local police
E. Fix damage quickly
F. Change road design
G. Use security cameras

Areas affected by crime

16. Skate park ………………….
17. Local primary schools ………………….
18. Abbostford street ………………….
19. Shops on Victoria street ………………….
20. Supermarket car park ………………….

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D. MULTIPLE CHOICES

1. SHORT ANSWER /SENTENCE COMPLETION

1.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio D.1.1] Listen to two friends, Deon and Mark, talking about an
adventure holiday. Choose the correct answer, A,B or C.

0. When will Deon and Mark go on the adventure holiday?

A. June
B. July
C. August

Answer: C

1. How did Deon first find out about World Trek holidays?
A. He has been on one of their holidays.
B. He found their website online.
C. He heard about it from someone he knows.

2. Deon would like to go on an adventure holiday

A. In a forest
B. In the mountains
C. Near the sea

3. How much does the holiday they want to go on cost if they book it now?
A. £500
B. £650
C. £800

4. The price of the holiday does NOT include

A. Food
B. The guide
C. Transport

5. What time will the boys meet this evening?

A. 7 pm
B. 7:30 pm ➢ In Listening exams, you will hear information about all three
C. 8 pm answer options but ONLY ONE will be the correct answer.
➢ In some Listening exam exercises, the words in the answer
options will be DIFFERENT from the words you hear.

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 1.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:
[Audio D.1.2.1] You are going to listen to a radio interview with a student
called Anna, who has recently taken part in a summer cultural exchange pro-
gramme. First, look at the example question and the answer options, and read
the Bullet box. Then, listen to Part 1 of the interview.
➢ In some Listening exam tasks, you may be asked
0. Why did Anna decide to go on a to listen to an interview. In these tasks, you should:
language exchange programme in Spain? • Identify the key words in the question or statement.
A. She is good at sports. • Identify key words in the three multiple-choice
B. She studies Spanish and not French. options. You may hear all the key words but only one
C. She wanted to go somewhere new. answers the question or completes the statement.
Answer: C • Remember that you may also not hear the exact
words that you see in the question or options.

Now, read Part 1 of the interview and the highlighted parts.

In pairs, discuss why C is the correct answer in the above exercise.

Well, students can travel to France or Spain on a language exchange, or to the USA on a
sports or music exchange. I didn’t go to the USA because I’m not very good at sports.
However, I study French and Spanish at school, so I had two options. I’ve been to France
before, so I decided to go to Spain instead.

[Audio D.1.2.2] Listen to Part 2 of the radio interview and answer the
questions. For each question, choose the correct answer, A,B or C.

1. Where did Anna’s host family live?

A. In an apartment
B. In a house
C. On a farm

2. How long did Anna stay with her host family?

A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 4 weeks

3. How old do students have to be to take part in the language exchange

programme?
A. 13
B. over 14
C. 16

4. Students can go on the language exchange programme if

A. They are 16 or over and their parents allow them.
B. They study a language like French or Spanish at school.
C. They play in a school sports team or in the school orchestra.

5. Anna thinks that her Spanish

A. Hasn’t improved
B. Has improved a little
C. Has improved a lot

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 1.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 86, part 4)
[Audio D.1.3, start at 20:30] Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer.

Bilingualism can be defined as having an equal level of communicative

(31) …………………… in two or more languages.

Early research suggested that bilingualism caused problems with

(32) …………………… and mental development.

Early research into bilingualism is now rejected because it did not consider
the (33) …………………… backgrounds of the children.

It is now thought that there is a (34) …………………… bilingualism and cognitive

skills in children.

Research done by Ellen Bialystok in Canada now suggests that the effects of
bilingualism also apply to (35) ……………………

Questions 36-40
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

36. In Dr Bialystok’s experiment, the subjects had to react according to

A. The colour of the square on the screen.
B. The location of the square on the screen.
C. The location of the shift key on the keyboard.

37. The experiment demonstrated the ‘Simon effect’ because it involved a

conflict between
A. Seeing something and reacting to it.
B. Producing fast and slow reactions.
C. Demonstrating awareness of shape and colour.

38. The experiment shows that, compared with the monolingual subjects,
the bilingual subjects
A. Were more intelligent.
B. Had faster reaction times overall.
C. Had more problems with the ‘Simon effect’

39. The results of the experiment indicate that bilingual people may be
better at
A. Doing different types of tasks at the same time.
B. Thinking about several things at once.
C. Focusing only on what is needed to do a task.

40. Dr Bialystok’s first and second experiments both suggest that

bilingualism may
A. Slow down the effects of old age on the brain.
B. Lead to mental confusion among old people.
C. Help old people to stay in better physical condition.

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 1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 123, part 2)
[Audio D.1.4, start at 6:30] Questions 11 and 12
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer

11. The program is made for travelers to make………………….

12. The program operates in cooperation with………………….

Questions 13-16
What is the internship stipulation of each country below?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next
to questions 13-16.

Internship Stipulation
A. Home stay
B. No summer program
C. Minimum time requirement
D. Formal report required
E. Specific time period
F. Agriculture
Country
13. USA ………………….
14. Australia ………………….
15. South Africa ………………….
16. India ………………….

Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

17. What should you do to get the Global Traveling Certificate?

A. Record activity every day.
B. Formal report.
C. Talk the experience with the assessor.

18. You can apply for the certificate

A. Only after you come back.
B. While on the trip.
C. Before you leave.

19. When should you pay the final installment?

A. The day before you leave.
B. One month before you return.
C. Before you can get your plane ticket.

20. Before your application, you need

A. To take a health check.
B. To attend the workshop.
C. To meet people with whom you will work.
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 1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 133, part 3)

[Audio D.1.5, start at 15:30] Questions 21-25

Choose the correct letter; A, B or C

Food Waste

21. What point does Robert make about the 2013 study in Britain?
A. It focused more on packaging than wasted food.
B. It proved that households produced more waste than restaurants.
C. It included liquid waste as well as solid waste.

22. The speakers agree that food waste reports should emphasise the
connection between carbon dioxide emissions and
A. Food production.
B. Transport of food to landfill sites.
C. Distribution of food products.

23. Television programmes now tend to focus on

A. The nutritional value of food products.
B. The origin of food products.
C. The chemicals found in food products.

24. For Anna, the most significant point about food waste is
A. The moral aspect.
B. The environmental impact.
C. The economic effect.

25. Anna and Robert decide to begin their presentation by

A. Handing out a questionnaire.
B. Providing statistical evidence.
C. Showing images of wasted food.

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 Questions 26-30

What advantage do the speakers identify for each of the following

projects?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter,

A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

Advantages

A. It should save time

B. It will create new jobs

C. It will benefit local communities

D. It will make money

E. It will encourage personal responsibility

F. It will be easy to advertise

G. It will involve very little cost

Projects

26. Edible patch ………………….

27. Ripeness centre ………………….

28. Waste tracking technology ………………….

29. Smartphone application ………………….

30. Food waste composting ………………….

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2. PICK FROM A LIST

2.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio D.2.1] Listen to Question 7-10.

Choose TWO letters A-E for each question.

1. Which TWO reasons does Irina give for visiting the exhibition?
A. To meet a friend
B. To improve her knowledge
C. To buy something
D. To check prices
E. To entertain her child

2. Which TWO devices has Irina bought recently?

A. A calculator
B. A computer
C. A camera
D. A phone
E. A digital recorder

3. What TWO things does Irina like about the building?

A. The electric lights
B. The space
C. The activity
D. The ceiling
E. The entrance

4. Which TWO problems did Irina have coming to the exhibition?

A. Driving in heavy traffic
B. Finding the car park
C. Parking the car
D. Waiting to enter the exhibition
E. Standing outside in the rain

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 2.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio D.2.2] Listen and answer Questions 5-10.

Questions 5-6

Which TWO criteria will the students use to choose a successful person?

A. Age

B. Gender

C. Individual talent

D. Fame

E. Global importance

Questions 7-8

Which TWO things do the students agree to do before they meet again?

A. Write a biography

B. Conduct more research

C. Find photographs

D. Write a talk

E. Plan a seminar

Questions 9-10

Which TWO things do the students agree are linked to success?

A. Wealth

B. Experience

C. Talent

D. Effort

E. Location

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 2.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 56, part 2)

[Audio D.2.3, start at 6:00] Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER.

THE DINOSAUR MUSEUM

11. The museum closes at ………. p.m. on Mondays.
12. The museum is not open on ………..
13. School groups are met by tour guides in the …………
14. The whole visit takes 90 minutes, including……….. minutes for the
guided tour.
15. There are ……………behind the museum where students can have lunch.

Questions 16-18
Choose THREE letter A-G.

Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?
A. Food
B. Water
C. Cameras
D. Books
E. Bags
F. Oens
G. Worksheets

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?

A. Build model dinosaurs
B. Watch films
C. Draw dinosaurs
D. Find dinosaur eggs
E. Play computer games

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 2.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 115, part 2)

[Audio D.2.4, start at 6:00] Questions 11-16

Choose the correct answer A, B or C.

Adbourne Film Festival

11. Why was the Film Festival started?
A. To encourage local people to make films.
B. To bring more tourists to the town.
C. To use money released from another project.

12. What is the price range for tickets?

A. £1.00-£2.50
B. 50p – £2.00
C. £1.50-£2.50

13. As well as online, tickets for the films can be obtained

A. From the local library.
B. From several different shops.
C. From the two festival cinemas.

14. Last year’s winning film was about

A. Farms of the future.
B. Schools and the environment.
C. Green transport options.

15. This year the competition prize is

A. A stay in a hotel.
B. Film-making equipment.
C. A sum of money.

16. The deadline for entering a film in the competition is the end of
A. May.
B. June.
C. July.

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 Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What TWO main criteria are used to judge the film competition?
A. Ability to persuade.
B. Quality of the story.
C. Memorable characters.
D. Quality of photography.
E. Originality.

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
What TWO changes will be made to the competition next year?
A. A new way of judging
B. A different length of time
C. An additional age category
D. Different performance times
E. New locations for performances

2.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 140, part 2)

[Audio D.2.5, start at 7:50]

Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO age groups are taking increasing numbers of holidays with
BC Travel?
A. 16-30 years
B. 31-42 years
C. 43-54 years
D. 55-64 years
E. Over 65 years

Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters A-E.
Which TWO are the main reasons given for the popularity of activity holidays?
A. Clients make new friends
B. Clients learn a useful skill
C. Clients learn about a different culture
D. Clients are excited by the risk involved
E. Clients find them good value for money

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 Questions 15-17
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

15. How does BC Travel plan to expand the painting holidays?

A. By adding to the number of locations
B. By increasing the range of levels
C. By employing more teachers

16. Why are BC Travel’s cooking holidays unusual?

A. They only use organic foods
B. They have an international focus
C. They mainly involve vegetarian dishes

17. What does the speaker say about the photography holidays?
A. Clients receive individual tuition
B. The tutors are also trained guides
C. Advice is given on selling photographs

Questions 18-20
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Fitness Holidays

Location Main focus Other comments

- Personally designed programme

Ireland & Italy General fitness - Also reduces (18)……………….

Greece (19) …………… control - Includes exercise on the beach

- Write variety of levels

Morocco Moutain biking - One holiday that is specially
designed for (20)………………

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E. SENTENCE COMPLETION

1.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio E.1.1] You are going to listen to a woman, Irina, talking to a man at
the ticket desk at an exhibition.
Listen and complete Question 1-6. Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Question 1-6

Electronics exhibition

5. The first section deals with electronics designed to ………………the environment.

6. One new device is for checking………………temperatures at different levels.

7. The theme of the second section is children and their ………………

8. There are a number of inventions to avoid an………………in the home.

9. They demonstrate a device for checking if older children are at ………………

10. The third section contains devices for dealing with ………………

1.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2:

[Audio E.1.2] You are going to hear a tour guide welcoming visitors to
a science museum. Listen and answer Questions 1-5.

Questions 1-5
Complete the form below
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1. Keep your …………….. in a safe place throughout your visit.

2. Pass through the ……………..to enter and leave the museum.
3. You need to buy a ……………..if you want to use a camera in the museum.
4. Look after your ……………..and mobile phone.
5. Arrive at the cinema about ……………..before the start of the show.

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 1.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1:

[Audio E.1.3] Questions 27 – 30

Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Studying with the Open University demanded a great deal of (27) …………………
Studying and working at the same time improved Rachel's (28) …………… skills.
It was helpful that the course was structured in (29) ……………………
She enjoyed meeting other students at (30)……………………

1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 68, part 4)

[Audio E.1.4, start at 20:40] Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Saving the juniper plant

Background
31. Juniper was one of the first plants to colonise Britain after the last …………….
32. Its smoke is virtually ……………. so juniper wood was used as fuel in illegal
activities.
33. Oils from the plant were used to prevent ……………. spreading.
34. Nowadays, its berries are widely used to ……………. food and drink

Ecology
35. Juniper plants also support several species of insects and …………….

Problems
36. In current juniper populations, ratios of the ……………. are poor.
37. Many of the bushes in each group are of the same age so ……………. of
whole populations is rapid.

Solutions
38. Plantlife is trialling novel techniques across ……………. areas of England.
39. One measure is to introduce ……………. for seedlings.
40. A further step is to plant……………. from healthy bushes.

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 1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 124, part 4)

[Audio E.1.5, start at 21:40] Questions 31 and 32

Choose TWO letters, A-E

Which TWO aspects did the new rules at the end of the 19th century focus on?

A. Cooperation

В. Competition

С. Moral values

D. Player’s physical protection

E. Business model

Questions 33-40

Complete the sentences below. Write ONLY ONE WORD for each answer.

Football in the UK

• At present the main reason why UK schools push football education is the

pressure from (33) …………….

• Prior to the 19th, football players used different (34) ……………. of rules.

• People attempted to standardise the rules from the whole (35) …………….,

known as the ‘Cambridge Rules’ in 1848.

• Attendences were increasing due to the improvement of infrastructure and

the (36) ……………. system.

• Football became popular and it is regarded as a (37) ……………. event.

• The football clubs were responsible for most of the (38) ……………. and

development for the football association.

• (39) ……………. against other teams were also organised by the football clubs.
• In 1910s, (40) ……………. football players were approved of in the game.

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F. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION

1.1. MODEL PRACTICE 1:

[Audio F.1.1] Question 11 - 16

Answer the questions below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

What TWO factors can make social contact in a foreign country difficult?
11 ....................
12 ....................

Which types of community group does the speaker give examples of theater?
13 ....................
14 ....................

In which TWO places can information about community activities be found?

15 ....................
16 ....................

1.2. MODEL PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 84, part 1)

[Audio F.1.2] Questions 1-4

Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/
OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1. On which day and date does the woman want to fly to Toronto? ……………….
2. What class does the woman want to fly in? ……………….
3. What is the lowest price for a ticket on the days the customer has
chosen? ……………….
4. What do the ticket prices include? ……………….

Questions 5-8
Complete the table below using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER
for each answer.
Airline Outward flight Return flight Stopover
Departure Arrival Departure Arrival
Air Canada 10.00 10.00 16.00 18.00 Vancouver
Quatas (5)..... 10.15 9.00 11.00 (6)..............
Pacific (7)..... 11.15 (8)..... 6.10 Los Angeles

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 Questions 9 and 10
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer.
9. What is the customer’s full name? ……………….
10. Which company does she work for? ……………….

1.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 1: (Practice test 72, part 4)

[Audio F.1.3, start at 23:30] Questions 31-35
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

31. When did Mt. Pinatubo erupt for the first time? ………………….
32. When was the earthquake measuring 7.8 recorded? ………………….
33. When did the experts begin to study Mt. Pinatubo? ………………….
34. What fell on the local villages on 2nd April? ………………….
35. What does a ‘level 5’ alert mean? ………………….

Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/
OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Several large earthquakes were triggered by the eruption of Pinatubo on 15th

June 1991 because of the (36) …………………. of the summit. The caldera thus created
considerably reduced the height of the mountain. At the same time (37) ………………….
was passing by and the rain associated with it mixed with the cinders in the air to form
a substance called tephra which fell on the (38) …………………. of homes causing them
to collapse, crushing hundreds of people.
During the eruption large amounts of Sulphur dioxide gas were emitted, which
combined with (39) …………………. to make sulphuric acid which was responsible for a
great deal of ozone depletion above Antarctica. The overall effect of the cloud from this
great eruption was the lowering of (40) ………………….

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 1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 2: (Practice test 135, part 3)

[Audio F.1.4, start 14:30] Questions 21-26

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Presentation on the problems and potential of biofuels

21. Mike suggests they begin their presentation by

A. Explaining what kind of harm is caused by fossil fuels.
B. Pointing out that biofuels were in use before fossil fuels.
C. Ensuring students know the difference between fossil fuels and biofuels.

22. Karina doesn’t want to discuss the production of ethanol because

A. Other students will already be familiar with the process.
B. There will not be time to cover more important information.
C. They may not provide an accurate description.

23. Which source of biofuel do the students agree is least environmentally

friendly?
A. Sugar cane
B. Corn
C. Canola

24. What is the main problem facing the development of the biofuel industry
in the USA?
A. Inadequate infrastructure for transporting ethanol
B. Not enough farmers growing biofuel crops
C. Little government support of biofuel development

25. Karina doubts that sugar cane production in Brazil will

A. Lead to the loss of wildlife habitats.
B. Create a large number of jobs in the biofuel sector.
C. Continue to provide enough energy for the country’s needs.

26. Karina and Mike conclude that in order to increase the use of biofuels
A. The price of fossil fuels must go up.
B. More machinery must be adapted to use them.
C. Oroduction methods must be more energy-efficient.

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 Questions 27-30
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

What TWO biofuel-related problems do Mike and Karina decide to focus on

in the last section of their presentation?
(27) ……………….
(28) ……………….

Which two sources of biofuel do Mike and Karina say are being tried out?
(29) ……………….
(30) ……………….

1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 3: (Practice test 145, part 4)

[Audio F.1.5, start at 22:30] Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

31. Humans first started tracking time

A. 30,000 years ago
B. 25,000 years ago
C. 5,000 years ago

32. Horizon tracking involved recording

A. Where the sun rose and set
B. The times of sunrise and sunset
C. The length of the shortest day

33. Time measurement improved when

A. Trees were planted on hill tops
B. Special constructions were erected
C. People began living in larger groups

Questions 34-36
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD only for each answer.

34. The first clocks worked by making a small hole in a ………………. and allowing
water to drip out.

35. Sundials measured time by noting where the sun’s shadow fell on the
………………. marked on the dial.

36. Workers in China and Japan changed activities when the ………………. of the
incense changed.

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 Questions 37-40
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

37. What object made the wheels of a mechanical clock go round? …………

38. What invention created a problem with communities having different times?
……………….

39. In which year was a time system for England nationally agreed? ……………….

40. Which building in Greenwich was chosen as the point from which to measure
time? ……………….

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G. EXTRA EXERCISES FOR SPEECH COMPLETION

1.1. EXTRA PRACTICE 1 (Practice test 70, part 4)

[Audio G.1.1, start at 19:30] Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Ethnography in Business
Ethnography: research which explores human cultures
It can be used in business:
• To investigate customer needs and (31) ………………..
• To help companies develop new designs

Examples of ethnographic research in business

Kitchen equipment
• Researchers found that cooks could not easily see the (32) ……………….. in
measuring cups

Cell phone
• In Uganda, customers paid to use the cell phones of entrepreneurs.
• These customers wanted to check the (33) ……………….. used.

Computer companies
• There was a need to develop (34) ……………….. to improve communication be
tween system administrators and colleagues.

Hospitals
• Nurses needed to access information about (35) ……………….. in different parts
of the hospital

Airlines
• Respondents recorded information about their (36) ……………….. while
travelling.

Principles of ethnographic research in business

• The researched does not start off with a hypothesis
• Participants may be selected by criteria such as age, (37) ……………….. or
product used
• The participants must feel (38) ……………….. about taking part in the research.
• There is usually direct (39) ……………….. of the participants
• The interview is guided by the participant
• A lot of time is needed for the (40) ……………….. of the data.
• Researchers look for a meaningful pattern in the data.

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 1.2. EXTRA PRACTICE 2 (Practice test 96, part 4)
[Audio G.1.2, start at 20:50] Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Engineering for sustainable development

Problem
• Short growing season because of high altitude and low (31) ……………….
• Fresh vegetables imported by lorry or by (32) ………………., so are expensive
• Need to use sunlight to prevent local plants from (33) ……………….
• Previous programmes to provide greenhouses were (34) ……………….

New greenhouse

Meets criteria for sustainability

• Simple and (35) ………………. to build.
• Made mainly from local materials (mud or stone for the walls, wood and
(36) ………………. for the roof).
• Building and maintenance done by local craftsmen.
• Runs solely on (37) ………………. energy.
• Only families who have a suitable (38) ………………. can own one.

Design
• Long side faces South.
• Strong polythene cover.
• Inner (39) ………………. are painted black or white.

Social benefits
• Owners’ status is improved.
• Rural (40) ………………. have greater opportunities.
• More children are educated.

1.3. EXTRA PRACTICE 3 (Practice test 97, part 4)

[Audio G.1.3, start at 21:00] Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The Tawny Owl

Most (31) ………………. owl species in UK.
Strongly nocturnal.

Habitat:
Mainly lives in (32) ………………. but can also be seen in urban areas, e.g. parks.

Adaptations:
• Short wings and (33) ………………., for navigation.
• Brown and (34) ………………. feathers, for camouflage.
• Large eyes (more effective than those of (35) ……………….), for good night
vision.
• Very good spatial (36) ………………. for predicting where prey might be found
• Excellent (37) ………………. for locating prey from a perch.

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 Diet
Main food is small mammals.
Owls in urban areas eat more (38) ……………….

Survival
Two thirds of young owls die within a (39) ……………….
Owls don’t disperse over long distances.
Owls seem to dislike flying over large areas of (40) ……………….

1.4. EXTRA PRACTICE 4 (Practice test 121, part 4)

[Audio G.1.4, start at 18:15] Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The advertising effect

The important factor to consider

• The (31) ………………. customers must travel affects the probability that they will
buy the product.

Methods of communication
• Advertising slogans are easier to remember if there is a (32) ………………. played
with them.
• Mandy’s Candy Store appeals to people’s sense of (33) ………………. to draw in
customers.
• To an ad campaign for digital products, it is (34) ………………. that is extremely
important.

Effect on your product sales

• The customer’s (35) ………………. after he or she experiences the ad is most
important.

Marketing strategies
• On international flights, it is wise for the advertisement to be displayed in the
common (36) ………………. of most passengers.
• Very few young people buy (37) ……………….
• The UNESCO website would be a good place to advertise for companies aiming
to improve the (38) ……………….
• One good location to place ads for sunscreen is the (39) ……………….
• A good scene for a water purification commercial would be (40) ……………….

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 1.5. EXTRA PRACTICE 5 (Practice test 102, part 4)

[Audio G.1.5, start at 21:20] Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Company outsourcing

Case study – TCP Technologies:

• Manager: Manjeet Khanna
• Main target: to create a (31) ………………. environment

Grading for staff:

• Every month grades are published on an (32) ……………….
• The cultural openness increased the quantity of incoming contracted
opportunities.
• The cultural openness improved the level of (33) ………………. of the company.
• The increased rate of staff satisfaction has led to growth of 32% in the
(34) ……………….

Recent interview:
• A company is not one entity comprised of components, but a living organism
composed of cells.
• Manjeet’s motto is (35) ……………….

Benefits of management style:

• The rate of staff turnover has been reduced.
• A (36) ………………. can be from any other company.
• Grades are not used for (37) ……………….

Features of managing style:

• Personally, the manager wrote emails to respond to the complaints.
• The complaint form known as a (38) ………………. has access to all employees
online.
• The manager can receive any complaints concerning air conditioning, food
quality and (39) ………………. entitlement.
• A (40) ………………. on the anonymous complaint was introduced in the new
system.

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 ANSWER KEY:

A.1.1.1. 5. (on) holiday

2. x 6. apartment
3.  7. secure
4. x 8. motorway
5.  9. palm beach
6. x 10. 1500
7. 
8. x A.1.4.
1. Grieg
A.1.1.3. 2. March 15
1. Leo Blucher 3. Ellendale
2. Blumengasse 4. W5 2AT
3. 4312 11057 5. 0
4. 1 st 6. 8 months
5. nine/ 9 days 7. 1
6. two hundred/ 200 8. back door
7. kitchen 9. G4168770
8. (the) sea 10. silver-colored cloth
9. quiet
10. parking space/ parking/ space A.1.5.
1. 230 south road
A.1.2. 2. 18
1. Sachdeva 3. activities (and) workshops
2. New Valley 4. £250
3. PN6 3BZ 5. interactive
4. 0787 345077 6. materials
5. next week 7. insurance
8. publicity
A.1.3. 9. programme
1. Sylvia 10. not available/ unvailable
2. England
3. 26 July
4. 2

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 A.2.1. A.2.4.
1. Gadzen 31. cities
2. WT3 5BX 32. bank
33. skyscrapers
3. Thursday
34. stone
4. 2/ two
35. recycled glass
5. 15/ fifteen minutes
36. rainfall
37. wooden
A.2.2. 38. soil
1. Dubashi 39. movement
2. 27/ twenty-seven 40. guidelines
3. office worker
4. Central Africa A.2.5.
31. bullying
5. Elbrus
32. superiority
6. first (-) aid
33. personality
7. five languages
34. structural
8. media studies 35. absence
9. fishing 36. confidence
10. fit 37. visions
38. democratic
A.2.3. 39. respect
1. oval/ oval (-) shaped 40. mediator

2. blinds
A.3.1.
3. (river) stones
1. Insect House
4. sugar cane/ sugar (-) cane
2. (a) lecture
5. steep 3. Great Migration
6. heat 4. Theatre C
7. forest (s) 5. Garden Wildlife
8. status 6. (a) (bird) display
9. old people 7. 3.45
10. (complex) pattern
A.3.2.
6. journey
7. Wild
8. 1.45 p.m.
9. new species
10. desert

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 A.3.3. A.4.1.
1. £95 6. seabird/ sea(-)bird
7. plant
2. stations
8. expensive
3. (sound) quality
9. fish/ marine life
4. 1 year 10. farmland/ farm (-) land
5. battery life
6. 3 A.4.2.
7. 22.5 21. topic
22. current
8. 1
23. thesis
9. 20
24. outline
10. 12 25. progresses
26. aspects
A.3.4. 27. real-life
21. string 28. necessary
29. style-guide
22. color
30. 10%
23. historical
24. metal wire A.4.3.
25. bottom 11. sticks
26. object 12. stones
13. ash
27. D
14. grass
28. G
15. earth
29. C 16. water
30. B 17. B
18. E
A.3.5. 19. A
20. D
11. cafe
12. 7.30 pm
A.4.4.
13. disabled 21. C
14. birds 22. A
15. exhibitions 23. B
16. abstract 24. C
25. C
17. designer
26. ensure
18. portraits
27. deposit
19. 2 years 28. display
20. photos 29. distribute
30. reward

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 A.4.5. 37. protect
21. (background) reading 38. beauty and diversity
22. content 39. pets at home
23. edit (notes) 40. support (and awareness)
24. next lecture
25. week A.5.4.
26. at the front 21. first minute
27. leave a space
22. interesting story
28. it saves time
23. equals
29. signpost words
24. involve
30. B
25. historical
A.5.1. 26. differences
31. 1768 27. multicultural
32. first (ever) 28. diversity
33. warmth 29. universals
34. staircase group 30. democracy
35. daughter
36. 1822 A.5.5
37. inventor 31. wheat
38. manuscript 32. rice
39. bicycle 33. 900
40. exhibit 34. oil
35. food energy
A.5.2.
36. soil
31. attacks
37. water
32. illness/ disease
38. quality
33. active
34. defence 39. by hand
35. blood 40. India
36. infected cows
37. experiment B.1.1.
38. F 1. F
39. A 2. C
40. C 3. A
4. E
A.5.3. 5. B
31. extinct 6. D
32. endangered
33. habitats B.1.2.
34. increasing
1. F
35. housing and food
2. E
36. survival
3. A

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 B.1.3. B.2.2.
11. H 1. snack
12. G 2. entrance
13. D 3. key
14. B 4. viewing
15. F 5. shopping

B.2.3.
B.1.4.
31. competition
11. 1 million
32. british airways
12. tourism
33. invented
13. southeast
34. tides
14. lawyer 35. distilled water
15. 7 36. tension
16. A 37. base cap
17. C 38. A-frame
18. E 39. rings
19. D 40. boarding platform
20. B
B.2.4.
B.1.5. 31. ear drum
11. B 32. auditory nerve
12. A 33. speech processor
13. C 34. receiver
35. amplify
14. B
36. sound signals
15. A
37. speech therapy
16. A
38. natural hearing
17. E
39. duration
18. C
40. disease
19. F
20. A B.2.5.
31. hydrogen
B.2.1. 32. approach
1. mix 33. similar
2. chop 34. heat
3. mix 35. energy
4. chop 36. Tokamak
5. cut 37. magnetic field
6. roll 38. cooled
7. fold 39. unstable
8. boil 40. one second

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 C.1.1. 19. G
1. C 20. E
2. B
3. A D.1.1.
4. B 1. C
5. C 2. B
3. A
C.1.2.
4. A
1. C
5. C
2.A
3. E
D.1.2.
4. D
1. B
C.1.3. 2. A
21. C 3. B
22. A 4. B
23. B 5. B
24. B
25. C D.1.3.
31. proficiency
C.1.4. 32. learning
21. E 33. social and economic
22. I 34. positive relation between
23. C 35. adults
24. G 36. A
25. B
37. A
26. D
38. B
27. A
39. C
28. aims/ goals
40. A
29. staff
30. feedback
D.1.4.
C.1.5. 11. money
11. contact details 12. school
12. emergency 13. E
13. radio 14. C
14. (extra) keys 15. F
15. (window) locks 16. A
16. C 17. A
17. D 18. A
18. F 19. B
20. A

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 D.1.5. 17. D
21. C 18. E
22. A 19. C
23. B 20. E
24. C
25. A
D.2.5.
26. G
27. A 11. D
28. D 12. E
29. C 13. A
30. E 14. C
15. C
D.2.1. 16. B
7. B, E
17. A
8. B, C
18. stress
9. B, D
19. weight
10. C, D
D.2.2. 20. families
5-6. B, E
7-8. B, C E.1.1.
9-10. C, D 1. protect
2. ocean
D.2.3. 3. safety
11. 1.30
4. accident
12. 25 December
5. school
13. car parking
14. 45 6. money
15. tables
16. C E.1.2.
17. F 1. ticket
18. G 2. grey gates
19. B 3. permit
20. E
4. wallet
5. five/ 5 minutes
D.2.4.
11. C
12. A E.1.3.
13. A 27. motivation
14. C 28. time(-)management
15. B 29. modules
16. C 30. summer school(s)

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 E.1.4. F.1.3.
31. ice age 31. 5500 years ago
32. invisible
32. July 1990
33. infections
34. flavor 33. mid-march 1991
35. fungi 34. ash
36. sexes 35. eruption in progress
37. extinction
36. collapse
38. lowland
39. shelter 37. tropical storm
40. cuttings 38. roofs
39. water and oxygen
E.1.5.
40. global temperatures
31. C
32. D
33. parents F.1.4.
34. versions 21. B
35. country
22. C
36. transport
37. social 23. B
38. funding 24. A
39. competitions 25. C
40. professional
26. C

F.1.1. 27. (global) hunger

11 & 12: (in either order) language, 28. pollution
customs 29. wood
13 & 14: (in either order) music, local
30. grass
history
15 & 16: (in either order) library/
libraries, town hall F.1.5.
31. C
F.1.2.
32. A
1. Thursday 16
2. business 33. B
3. 3200 34. bucket
4. taxes and surcharges 35. lines
5. 1.45
36. smell
6. vancouver
7. 6.15 37. weight
8. 10.25 38. railways
9. mary-anne reece 39. 1847
10. ABC stocks
40. Observatory

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 G.1.1. 39. swimming pool
31. attitude 40. national park
32. numbers
33. time/ minutes
34. software G.1.5.
35. patients 31. democratic
36. emotions/ feelings 32. internal website
37. income
33. transparency
38. comfortable
39. observation 34. income
40. analysis 35. employee first
36. solution
G.1.2.
37. promotion
31. rainfall
32. air 38. ticket
33. freezing 39. vacation
34. unsuccessful 40. ban
35. cheap/ inexpensive
36. grass
37. solar
38. location
39. walls
40. women

G.1.3.
31. common
32. woods
33. tail
34. grey
35. humans
36. memory
37. hearing
38. birds
39. year
40. water

G.1.4.
31. distance
32. sound
33. smell
34. flexibility
35. reaction
36. languages
37. newspaper
38. environment

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