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PUNJAB JUDICIAL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION - 2022

MOCK TEST SERIES
Cr.PC, IPC, Polity, Current Affairs (2022)
TEST- IV
Total Questions: 125
Maximum Marks: 125
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 30/10/2022

Negative marking: 0.25 marks per question

1. ‘Pleader’ has been defined under which of the following section of CRPC?
(a) Section 2(l)
(b) Section 2(p)
(c) Section 2(q)
(d) Section 2(t)
2. Warrant case means a case...........?
(a) Imprisonment for a term of 2 year
(b) Imprisonment for a term exceeding 2 years
(c) Imprisonment for a term less than 2 years
(d) Punishable with death only
3. Inquiry means?
(a) Every inquiry including trial, conducted under CRPC by a Magistrate or
Court.
(b) Every inquiry other than a trial, conducted under CRPC by a Magistrate
or Court.
(c) Every inquiry including trial, conducted under CRPC by a Magistrate,
Court or Police officer.
(d) None of the above
4. The hearing on sentence by a magistrate is required on conviction, under
which of the following trial and section?
(a) In a summon trial case under section 251 of CRPC
(b) In a summon trial case under section 255(2) CRPC
(c) In a warrant trial case under section 248(2) of CRPC
(d) Both (a) and (b)

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5. Under section 446 of CRPC all orders passed shall be appealable in the case
of an order made by a magistrate to the...............?
(a) Session court
(b) Magistrate of first class
(c) High Court
(d) Chief judicial magistrate
6. With whom consent a person who is acquitted or convicted of any offence
may be afterwards tried, for any distinct offence for which a separate charge
might have been made against him at the former trial under sub-section 1 of
section 220?
(a) Central Government
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) State Government
7. Under which of the following given conditions, section 183 CRPC applies?
(a) Applies to voyage on the high seas
(b) Does not apply to voyage on high seas
(c) Applies to voyage with in India as well as on voyage on high seas
(d) Has been declared unconstitutional
8. The provision regarding the procedure for prosecution for offences against
marriage has been provided under which section of CRPC?
(a) Section 196
(b) Section 198
(c) Section 194
(d) Section 193
9. When the judgement is delivered by the court under Section 265 G of CRPC
then the judgement shall be final and.......?
(a) No appeal can lie
(b) A writ petition under article 226 and 227 and 136 of the constitution
shall lie
(c) The party has the power to go in appeal
(d) Both (a) or (b)
10. By which of the following Act, the victim compensation scheme has been
inserted under CRPC, by which of the following Act?
(a) Act 5 of 2009
(b) Act 6 of 2007

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 (c) Act 3 of 2009
(d) Act 5 of 2005
11. The court have power to refer case before the High Court, under which of the
following situations?
(a) In the opinion of the court the case should be referred to the high court
for its reference
(b) Where the case involves a general question of law
(c) Where the case involves a question as to the validity of any act
Ordinance or regulation
(d) Where the case involves a substantial question of law
12. The procedure regarding the deposit instead of recognizance has been
provided under which section of CRPC?
(a) Section 445 of the CRPC
(b) Section 444 of the CRPC
(c) Section 443 of CRPC
(d) Section 448 of CRPC
13. Under section 482 of CRPC, the inherent powers can be exercised by the:
(a) Session Court
(b) Only High Court
(c) Both the High Court and the Session Court
(d) Chief Judicial Magistrate
14. The period of limitation under CRPC shall commence, from which date?
(a) On the date of taking cognizance
(b) On the date of offence
(c) On the date of filing of the complaint
(d) None of the above
15. Which of the following case is based on Anticipatory Bail?
(a) Lalu Yadav vs State of Bihar
(b) Dinesh dalmia versus CBI
(c) Sakiri Vasu versus state of UP
(d) All of the above
16. Who has the power to withdraw case from the prosecution, under section 321
of CRPC?
(a) Public Prosecutor in charge of a case even without permission of a
court

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 (b) District Magistrate
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) Public Prosecutor in charge of a case with the permission of court
17. As per section 468 of the CrPC the period of limitation for an offence
punishable with a term of 2 years, is:
(a) 1 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years
18. The provision regarding the evidence of officers of the Mint has been
provided, under which section of CRPC?
(a) Section 291 A
(b) Section 291 B
(c) Section 291
(d) Section 293
19. In a warrant trial after the charge is framed the magistrate can:
(a) Only acquit or Convict the accused
(b) Stop the proceedings under section 258 of CRPC
(c) Drop the proceedings
(d) Stay the proceedings in proper cases
20. Under which of the following provisions the list of cognizable and non
cognizable offences has been provided under CRPC?
(a) Schedule 2
(b) Schedule 1
(c) Section 2(d)
(d) Section 2(k)
21. Georgia Meloni has been sworn in as the first female prime minister of which
country?
(a) Italy
(b) Australia
(c) New Zealand
(d) Greece
22. Which country has been removed from the gray list of FATF (Financial Action
Task Force)?
(a) Iran

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 (b) Iraq
(c) Pakistan
(d) Serbia
23. Burn diyas, not crackers, where has the campaign started?
(a) Punjab
(b) Delhi
(c) Haryana
(d) Madhya Pradesh
24. Who has been given the Sir Syed Excellence Award 2022?
(a) Chandan Sinha
(b) Tahir Mehmood
(c) Barbara Metcalf
(d) All of the above
25. Who has become the first Indian and Asian to be appointed as the special
envoy of UNHRC?
(a) Dr K.P. Ashwini
(b) PV Sindhu
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) S. Somnath
26. Which has become the first state in India to start medical studies in Hindi?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka
27. Which country will host the 90th General Assembly of Interpol?
(a) Britain
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) China
28. In which state will the Khelo India Youth Games 2022 be held?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Haryana
29. Who has been appointed as the new Defence Secretary of India?

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 (a) Ajay Kumar
(b) Sanjay Sharma
(c) Giridhar Armane
(d) Sanjay Singh
30. Who has inaugurated the waste to energy plant in Tughlakabad, New Delhi?
(a) Rajnath Singh
(b) Amit Shah
(c) Arvind Kejriwal
(d) Narendra Modi
31. Who has won the Women’s Cricket Asia Cup 2022 title?
(a) Britain
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) New Zealand
32. Director of prosecution shall function under the administrative control of which
of the following?
(a) High Court
(b) Head of the home department in a state
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Home Minister
33. Every Warrant shall remain in force?
(a) Until executed or cancelled
(b) For 12 years
(c) For 3 years
(d) For 1 years
34. Which provision of the CrPC resembles the writ of habeas Corpus?
(a) Section 151
(b) Section 482
(c) Section 97
(d) Section 96
35. For the purpose of maintenance, under section 125 of CRPC, the definition of
"wife" includes?
(a) Wife living separately with the consent of husband
(b) Divorced wife who is not remarried
(c) Wife living in adultery

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 (d) Divorce wife who is remarried
36. Which of the following is not a judicial proceeding?
(a) Hearing by a judge
(b) Hearing by a magistrate
(c) Hearing before an arbitrator
(d) Hearing a person who is authorized to take evidence
37. Under which of the following situation, the court may alter the charge?
(a) Before the judgement is pronounced
(b) Before the accused entered upon his defence
(c) Before the evidence of the prosecution is taken
(d) When the evidence of prosecution and defence both is taken
38. The provision regarding summon cases has been provided under which of the
following chapters of the Criminal Procedure Code?
(a) Chapter 19
(b) Chapter 21A
(c) Chapter 21
(d) Chapter 20
39. Under section 313 of the CrPC the statement of the accused has to be
recorded?
(a) On oath in warrant case
(b) Without oath
(c) On oath in cognizable case
(d) On oath
40. When the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the
warrant case the magistrate may discharge the accused if..........?
(a) The proceedings have been instituted upon complaint
(b) The charge has not been framed
(c) Offence is non cognizable or compoundable
(d) All of the above
41. Under section 159 of CRPC, the magistrate can direct the police officer?
(a) To hold investigation
(b) To stop investigation
(c) To file charge sheet
(d) To drop the proceedings
42. What is the purpose of Section 145 of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

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 (a) To prevent breach of peace
(b) To finally settle the dispute relating to property
(c) To settle the question of title
(d) None of the above
43. When warrant also cannot be executed then the court may proceed under
which of the following section of CRPC?
(a) Section 83 and 84 of CRPC
(b) Section 80 and 81 of CRPC
(c) Section 81 and 82 of CRPC
(d) Section 82 and 83 of CRPC
44. Under Criminal Procedure Code 1973 which one of the following Court can try
a case punishable with life imprisonment?
(a) Magistrate of 1st class
(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Session Judge
(d) All of the above
45. The stipulation that all offences under the Indian penal code or any other law
would be tried according to the provisions of the code of criminal procedure,
1973 is contained in which section?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 3
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 4
46. Which of the following section of CRPC does not provide for joinder of
charges?
(a) Section 221
(b) Section 225
(c) Section 222
(d) Section 219
47. What is the meaning of latin phrase " salus populs suprema lex" ?
(a) Safety of the witness supreme law
(b) Safety of accused is Supreme law
(c) Safety of the people is the supreme law
(d) Safety of the state is Supreme law
48. What is the requirement of Section 195 of CRPC?

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 (a) A complaint in writing
(b) An oral complaint
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
49. Which of the following section of CRPC deals with the case diary?
(a) Section 172
(b) Section 171
(c) Section 156
(d) Section 157
50. The object of investigation is to:
(a) Punish the accused
(b) Convict the accused
(c) Collect the evidence
(d) Acquit the accused
51. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for-
(a) 3 days
(b) 24 hours
(c) 2 days
(d) 1 week
52. Who can award the sentence of imprisonment in default of fine –
(a) Court of Session
(b) Court of Magistrate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
53. What experience has to be required for appointment as Special Public
Prosecutor?
(a) 7 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 5 years
54. An offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding two years is triable as?
(a) Summon case
(b) Warrant case
(c) Both
(d) Either (a) or (b)

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55. First Information Report under section 154 of Cr.P.C. relates to?
(a) Non-cognizable offence
(b) Both cognizable and non-cognizable offence
(c) Only a cognizable offence
(d) None of the above
56. The statement made under section 161 of CRPC can be used to?
(a) Corroborate the statement in court
(b) Contradict the statement in court
(c) Corporate and contradict statement in court
(d) Cannot be utilised for any purpose
57. What is the maximum period for which an accused can be remanded in police
custody?
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 1 month
(d) 14 days
58. An inquest report must contain.....?
(a) The names of the accused
(b) The details of incident
(c) The Apparent cause of death
(d) The details of weapon
59. Under which of the following section the “demeanor” of a witness can be
recorded by a court?
(a) Section 199
(b) Section 291
(c) Section 279
(d) Section 280
60. Any Court may alter or add to any charge any time before?
(a) The judgement is pronounced
(b) On the first date of hearing
(c) The judgement is written
(d) The closing of argument
61. Which country has the largest constitution?
(a) USA
(b) U.K.

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 (c) India
(d) China
62. At the time of Emergency, the Indian State becomes..........from.......?
(a) Unitary, Quasi-federal
(b) Federal, Unitary
(c) Unitary, Federal
(d) Unitary, Unitary
63. The provisions of 74th Amendment are contained in?
(a) 9th Schedule
(b) 10th Schedule
(c) 11th Schedule
(d) 12th Schedule
64. Which of the following is contained in the concurrent list?
(a) Education
(b) Forest
(c) Agriculture
(d) Police
65. The greatest hallmark of personal liberty is?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari
66. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in?
(a) USA
(b) Britain
(c) India
(d) Australia
67. Who presides over the joint session of Parliament?
(a) The President
(b) Speaker
(c) Chairman
(d) Vice President
68. Who allocates portfolios among ministers?
(a) The president on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(b) Speaker

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 (c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
69. Directive Principles of State policies are?
(a) Non- justiciable
(b) Justiciable
(c) Not all justicable, but some are
(d) None of the above
70. Autre fois acquit principle is related to?
(a) double jeopardy
(b) ex-post facto law
(c) self-incrimination
(d) All of the above
71. When Constitution was framed, what were the no. of Schedules?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 8
72. When Indian Constitution came into force?
(a) 15th Aug 1947
(b) 26th Nov 1949
(c) 26th Jan 1950
(d) 24th Jan 1950
73. An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated in the?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Legislative council
74. Members of U.P.S.C. are appointed by?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Governor
75. The Governor can be removed by?
(a) At the pleasure of the President
(b) At the request of Chief Minister

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 (c) Chief Justice of HC
(d) Parliament
76. Under which of the following section provisions regarding, A with the intention
of causing the death of a child of tender years exposes it in a desert place,
has been provided?
(a) Section 307, IPC
(b) Section 306, IPC
(c) Section 304, IPC
(d) Section 309, IPC
77. Which of the following is an ingredient of an offence under Section 117, IPC?
(a) Abetment of the offence by the public generally
(b) Abetment of the offence by persons exceeding ten in number
(c) No hurt/injury was caused in pursuance/consequence of such
abetment
(d) Both (a) and (b)
78. A, a revenue officer, tortures Z in order to compel him to pay certain arrears of
revenue due from Z.
(a) A is guilty of an offence under Section 328, IPC
(b) A is guilty of an offence under Section 330, IPC
(c) A is guilty of an offence under Section 331, IPC
(d) A is guilty of an offence under Section 336, IPC
79. Harbouring an offender, if the offence be punishable with imprisonment for
one year and not for 10 years is dealt under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 171 of IPC
(b) Section 193 of IPC
(c) Section 213 of IPC
(d) Section 212 of IPC
80. False charge of offence made with intent to injure, if offence charged be
punishable with imprisonment for 7 years or upward is provided under which
section of IPC?
(a) Section 211 of IPC
(b) Section 172 of IPC
(c) Section 213 of IPC
(d) Section 171 of IPC
81. Provision regarding Assault has been provided under which section of IPC?

13
 (a) Section 350 of IPC
(b) Section 349 of IPC
(c) Section 351 of IPC
(d) Section 353 of IPC
82. The second clause in the right to private defence of property against theft
continues till:
(a) The offender has affected his retreat with the property
(b) The property has been recovered
(c) The assistance of public authorities is obtained
(d) All of the above
83. Provisions regarding threatening any person to give false evidence is
provided under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 195 A of IPC
(b) Section 194 A of IPC
(c) Section 191 A of IPC
(d) Section 195 of IPC
84. Using as true certificate one known to be false in a material point is dealt
under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 193 of IPC
(b) Section 198 of IPC
(c) Section 199 of IPC
(d) Section 196 of IPC
85. A, knowing that Z is labouring under a disease that a blow is likely to cause
his death, strikes him with the intention of causing bodily injury. Z dies in the
consequence of the blow though the blow as sufficient to cause death. Which
offence is committed by A?
(a) A is not guilty of murder
(b) A has committed murder
(c) A is guilty of causing hurt which led to Z’s death
(d) Both (b) and (c)
86. Giving or fabricating false evidence in a judicial proceeding is dealt under
which section of IPC?
(a) Section 172 of IPC
(b) Section 177 of IPC
(c) Section 191 of IPC

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 (d) Section 193 of IPC
87. A, puts jewels into a box belonging to Z, with the intention that they may be
found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Z to be convicted of
theft.
(a) A has fabricated false evidence
(b) A has given false evidence
(c) A has committed an offence under Section 420, IPC
(d) None of them
88. Provisions regarding, Kidnapping or abducting a child with intent to take
property from the person of such child is provided under which section of
IPC?
(a) Section 369 of IPC
(b) Section 367 of IPC
(c) Section 371 of IPC
(d) Section 370 of IPC
89. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is punishable with?
(a) Imprisonment for 10 years.
(b) Death
(c) Imprisonment for life
(d) Imprisonment for life or imprisonment for ten years
90. Grave & sudden provocation is?
(a) Question of law
(b) Question of fact
(c) A presumption under the law
(d) Mixed question of fact & law
91. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed under?
(a) Self-intoxication
(b) Irresistible impulse
(c) Grave & sudden provocation
(d) All of the above
92. Provisions regarding Personation at elections is an offence has been provided
under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 171D of IPC
(b) Section 171A of IPC
(c) Section 171B of IPC

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 (d) Section 171C of IPC.
93. Under which situation section 159 of IPC will fall?
(a) 2 parties one of which is passive
(b) 2 parties both of which are passive
(c) 2 opposite parties actively involved
(d) All of the above
94. The right of private defence?
(a) Is a right of defence but not a right of retribution
(b) Is neither a right of defence nor a right of retribution
(c) Is a right of defence as well as a right of retribution
(d) Is not a right of defence but of retribution
95. Section 149 of IPC is?
(a) A rule of evidence
(b) Declaratory provision
(c) Creates a distinct offence
(d) All the above
96. Which of the following are grievous hurt?
(a) Privation of any member or joint
(b) Emasculation
(c) Permanent disfiguration of face
(d) All of the above
97. Which of the following is not an ingredient of abetment?
(a) Engaging in conspiracy
(b) Intentional aiding
(c) Enticement
(d) Instigating
98. A, by instigation, voluntarily causes Z, a person under 18 years of age to
commit suicide?
(a) A has abetted murder
(b) A is guilty of culpable homicide
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of them
99. In which of the following this was upheld that, Prosecution need not prove the
fact that the person who sells or keeps for sale any obscene object knew that

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 it was obscene before he can be adjudged guilty of an offence under Section
292, IPC?
(a) Parvesh v. State of U.P.
(b) Bhagat Ram v. State of H.P.
(c) Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra
(d) State of Kerala v. Daniel Nadar
100. Which of the following is an ingredient of an offence under Section 120 – A,
IPC?
(a) That the agreement should be for doing an illegal act
(b) That there must be an agreement between the persons who are
alleged to conspire
(c) That the agreement should be for doing by illegal means an act which
may not itself be illegal
(d) All of the above
101. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means?
(a) Ignorance of law is an excuse
(b) Ignorance of law is no excuse
(c) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
(d) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
102. Under which of the following section of IPC, Accident as an exception has
been dealt with in?
(a) Section 80
(b) Section 76
(c) Section 78
(d) Section 81
103. Under which name the Indian Penal Code came into application in Jammu
and Kashmir?
(a) Indian Penal Act
(b) Indian Legislative Act
(c) Ranbir Penal Code
(d) Mahomedan Act
104. What is the meaning of maxim Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea?
(a) The intent and act must both concur to constitute the crime
(b) Putting to death
(c) Uncommended manner

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 (d) A deed, a material result of human conduct
105. Provision regarding Habitually dealing in stolen property has been provided
under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 412 of IPC
(b) Section 413 of IPC
(c) Section 414 of IPC
(d) Section 411 of IPC
106. In which of the following cases ‘mens rea’ is not an essential ingredient for
offences under-
(a) Public nuisance
(b) Criminal case which are in summary mode
(c) Revenues Acts
(d) All of the above
107. Mischief committed after preparation made for causing death, or hurt, etc. is
dealt under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 440 of IPC
(b) Section 438 of IPC
(c) Section 439 of IPC
(d) Section 443 of IPC
108. Which of the following is the facet of audi alteram partem?
(a) Notice of the case to be met
(b) Opportunity to explain
(c) Good faith
(d) Both (a) and (b)
109. Robbery is dealt under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 392 of IPC
(b) Section 393 of IPC
(c) Section 394 of IPC
(d) Section 391 of IPC
110. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot
live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.
(a) A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his duties
(b) A is guilty as he should have withheld the communication
(c) A is not guilty as he did not give any false hopes
(d) Both (a) and (c)

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111. On refusal to disclose the name and address of the printer is dealt under
which section of IPC?
(a) Section 489 C of IPC
(b) Section 490 E of IPC
(c) Section 489 E of IPC
(d) Section 494 A of IPC
112. Running vessel ashore with intent to commit theft, etc. dealt under which
section of IPC?
(a) Section 437 of IPC
(b) Section 440 of IPC
(c) Section 439 of IPC
(d) Section 442 of IPC
113. False statement rumour, etc., made in place of worship etc, with intent to
create enmity hatred or ill-will is dealt under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 505 of IPC
(b) Section 203 of IPC
(c) Section 506 of IPC
(d) Section 301 of IPC
114. Valuable security is defined under which section of IPC?
(a) 29A
(b) 28
(c) 30
(d) 29
115. Forgery is dealt under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 465 of IPC
(b) Section 463 of IPC
(c) Section 462 of IPC
(d) Section 469 of IPC
116. A man is said to commit “rape” if he penetrates his penis, to any extent, into
the ________ of a woman:
(a) Mouth
(b) Urethra or Anus
(c) Vagina
(d) All of the above
117. Section 34 of IPC?

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 (a) Is a rule of evidence
(b) Creates a substantive offence
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
118. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes which of the following?
(a) Life of either human being or animal
(b) Life of human being and of an animal both
(c) Life of a human being
(d) Life of an animal
119. How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian
Penal Code, 1860?
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
120. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment
of fine will be?
(a) Can be rigorous or simple
(b) Has to be rigorous
(c) Has to be simple
(d) Can be partly rigorous and partly simple
121. If an offender has been sentenced to imprisonment not exceeding six months,
the solitary confinement will be?
(a) Shall not exceed one month
(b) Shall not exceed two months
(c) Shall not exceed 15 days
(d) Shall not exceed forty-five days
122. General exceptions are contained in which section of IPC?
(a) Chapter VI of IPC
(b) Chapter V of IPC
(c) Chapter IV of IPC
(d) Chapter III of IPC
123. Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Irwin

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 (c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Macaulay
124. Cheating is dealt under which section of IPC?
(a) Section 416 of IPC
(b) Section 417 of IPC
(c) Section 420 of IPC
(d) Section 421 of IPC
125. Under which of the following a corporation is indictable?
(a) Personal liability for breach of statutory duty
(b) Personal liability on the basis of attributing to the corporation the
conduct and state of mind of an individual
(c) Vicarious liability
(d) All of the above

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 PUNJAB JUDICIAL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION - 2022
MOCK TEST SERIES
Cr.PC, IPC, Polity, Current Affairs (2022)
TEST- IV
Total Questions: 125
Maximum Marks: 125
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 30/10/2022

S. No. Ans. Explanations

1. C Refer section 2(q) of CRPC
2. B Refer section 2(x) of CRPC
3. B Refer section 2(g) of CRPC
4. C
5. A as provided under section 474 of CRPC.
6. D Refer section 300(2) of CRPC.
7. B
8. B
9. D Refer section 265 G of CRPC.
10. A Refer section 357 A of CRPC.
11. C Refer section 395 of CRPC.
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. D
17. B
18. A
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. C
23. B

22
24. C
25. A
26. A
27. C
28. A
29. C
30. B
31. C
32. B Refer section 25A (3) of CRPC.
33. A Refer section 70(2) of CRPC.
34. C
35. B Refer section 125(1) Proviso ExplanationB of CRPC
36. Refer section 2(i) and section 3, definition of court as provided in
C
interpretation clause of IEA.
37. A Refer section 216 of CRPC.
38. D
39. B
40. D
41. B
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. D
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. A
50. C
51. B
52. B
53. B
54. B

23
55. C
56. B
57. B
58. C
59. D
60. A
61. C India has longest constitution in the world.
62. A
63. D
64. B
65. A
66. A
67. B
68. A
69. A
70. A Refer Article 20 of Constitution of India.
71. D
72. C
73. C
74. A
75. A
76. A Refer IllustrationB of section 307 of IPC
77. D
78. B
79. D
80. A
81. C
82. D
83. B
84. B
85. B
86. D

24
87. A
88. A
89. D
90. B
91. C
92. A
93. C
94. A
95. C
96. D
97. C
98. A
99. C
100. D
101. B
102. A
103. C
104. A
105. B
106. D Considered as Strict liability offence
107. A
108. D
109. A
110. D
111. B
112. C
113. A
114. C
115. A
116. D As per section 375 of IPC.
117. A It is just a Rule of Evidence, No particular offence is created.
118. C

25
119. D As per section 53 of IPC.
120. C As per section 67 of IPC.
121. A
122. C
123. D
124. B
125. D

26