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Project Management BE|SEM-8
TOPPER’S SOLUTIONS
In Search of Another Topper
There are many existing paper solution avaliable in market, but Topper's Solution Is the one which
students will always prefer if they refer...) Topper’s Solutions is not just paper solutions, it includes many
other important questions which are important from examination point of view. Topper's Solutions are
the solution written by the Toppers for the students to be the upcoming Topper of the Semester.
thas been said that “Aetion Speaks Louder than Words” So Topper's Solutions Team works on same
principle. Diagrammatic representation of answer is considered to be easy & quicker to understand. So
‘our major focus is on diagrams & representation how answers should be answered in examinations,
Why Topper's Solutions:
@ Point wise answers which are easy to understand & remember.
Diagrammatic representation for better understanding
4 Additional important questions from university exams point of view.
Covers almost every important question.
@ In search of another topper.
“Education is Free... But its Technology used & Efforts utilized which
we charge”
It takes lot of efforts for searching out each & every question and transforming it into Short & Simple
Language. Entire Community is working out for betterment of students, do help us
‘Thanks for Purchasing & Best Luck for Exams
In Association with BackkBenchers Community ----
BACKK BENCHERS Project Management BE|SEM-8
If you don’t have BIG DREAMS and GOALS,
you'll end up working for someone who
does.
‘Anonymous. Project Management BE|SEM-8
‘Syllabus:
= Module Details Contents
T. | Project Management | Definition of a project, Project Vs Operations, Necessity of project
Foundation management, Triple constraints, Project life cycles (typical & atypical)
Project phases and stage gate process. Role of project manager,
Negotiations and resolving conflicts, Project management in various
‘organization structures, PM knowledge areas as per Project
Management Institute (PMI)
2 Initiating Projects | How to get 4 project started, Selecting project strategically, Project
selection models (Numeric /Scoring Models and Non-numeric models),
Project portfolio process, Project sponsor and creating charter; Project
proposal. Effective project team, Stages of team development & growth
(forming, storming, norming &performing), team dynamics.
Project Planning and
‘Scheduling
Work Breakdown structure (WBS) and linear responsibility chart,
Interface Co-ordination and concurrent engineering, Project cost
estimation and budgeting, Top down and bottoms up budgeting,
Networking and Scheduling techniques. PERT, CPM, GANTT chart,
Introduction to Project Management Information System (PMIS)..
Planning Projects
Crashing project time, Resource loading and levelling, Goldratt’s critica
chain, Project Stakeholders and Communication plan Risk Management
in projects: Risk management planning, Risk identification and risk
register, Qualitative and quantitative risk assessment, Probability and
impact matrix. Risk response strategies for positive and negative risks.
Executing,
Monitoring and
Controlling Projects &
Project Contracting
7. Executing Projects: Planning monitoring and controlling cycle,
Information needs and reporting, engaging with all stakeholders of
the projects, Team management, communication and project
meetings
2. Monitoring and Controlling Projects: Earned Value Management
techniques for measuring value of work completed; Using milestones
for measurement; change requests and scope creep, Project audit
3. Project Contracting: Project procurement management, contracting
and outsourcing
Project Leadership,
Ethies and Clesure
T, Project Leadership and Ethics: Introduction to project leadership,
ethics in projects, Multicultural and virtual projects.
2 Closing the Project: Customer acceptance; Reasons of project
termination, Various types of project terminations (Extinction,
Addition, Integration, Starvation), Process of project termination,
completing a final report; doing a lessons learned analysis;
acknowledging successes ‘and fallures; Project management
‘templates and other resources; Managing without authority; Areas of
further study.
Note: We have tried to cover almost every important question(s) listed in syllabus. If you feel any
other question is
important and i
net cover in this solution then do mail the question on
[email protected] or Whatsapp us on +91-9930038388 / +91-7507531198 Project Management www.BackkBenchers.com
Copyright © 2016 - 2020 by Topper’s Solutions
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, distributed, or transmitted in
any form or by any means, including photocopying, recording, or other electronic or mechanical
methods, without the prior written permission of the publisher, except in the case of brief
quotations embodied in critical reviews and certain other noncommercial uses permitted by
copyright law. For permission requests, write to the publisher, addressed “Attention: Permissions
Coordinator,” at the address below.
Contact No: 7507531198
Email ID: [email protected]
Website: www.ToppersSolutions.com Project Management www.BackkBenchers.com
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
1. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of 2
project management?
Initiation
b. Planning
. Execution
4. Closure
2. Aprocess that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become available
is termed as
project analysis
b. project enhancing
. progressive deliberation
d. progressive elaboration
3. Which from the following statements) is/are NOT true?
Projects have defined objectives
Il. Programs have a larger scope than projects
lll The projects and pragrams in a portfolio must be directly related
(A) only,
(8) llonly
{C)lLonly
(0) and tl only
4. Projects management is divided in ___ process groups.
as
b7
<9
an
5. Ifanyone factor of a project changes, __other factor(s) is/are likely to be affected,
all
b. one
c. atleast one
4, at most one
Business Value =
Tangible Elements
b. Intangible Elements
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10.
1.
2
c. Tangible Elements - Intangible Elements
4. Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements
Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?
Fixtures
u
lemarks
b.
c. Monetary assets
4. Stockholder equity
Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
PlanningsInitiating+Executing+Closing
Plenning+Executing-Initiating+Closing
Initiating» PlanningsExeeuting»Clesing
Initiating» Executing+Planning»Closing
The strategy used to correct resource over-allacations by balancing demand for resources
available supply is known as
@. resource assignment
resource leveling
resource splitting
resource scheduling
Which from the following is NOT an intangible element?
a. Utility
b. Public benefit,
. Brand recognition
6. Good will
Ahorizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar Is called
milestone
goal
Cant chart
PERT chart
The statistical tool that depicts 2 project's tasks and the relationshios between those tasks
Isknown as,
milestone
b. goal
© Gantt chart
o. PERT chart
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1B. The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
a. Initiating
b. Planning
Executing
Closing
14, How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are answered
in which phase of the project management?
a. Initiating
b. Planning
. Executing
4. Closing
15, _ The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during __ phase
a. initiation
b. planning
. execution
. closure
16. The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the ___ phase.
as Taank
b. planning
execution
closure
17. According to Olivier Mesiy, the 4 P's critical for the success of a project are:
a. plan, processes, people, policy
b. plan, processes, people, power
¢. plan, processes, potential, policy
©. pian, processes, potential, power
18. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?
Scope
b. Resources
© Team
d. Budget
18. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
a cost associated at the beginning of the proj highest.
b. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
cc. The highest uncertainty Is at this stage of the project.
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6. High-level decisions are made regarding why a project is needed
20. The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of communications are
there between these stakeholders?
9
8
48
36
ance
21. Which ef the following is not an example of formal communication?
a Contract
b. email
Project status report
4. Status meeting
22. AProject with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of
$95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
a. Cost Variance
Management Overhead
b.
Management Contingency Reserve
6. Schedule Variance
23, Ifthe Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:
Project is on budget and on schedule
Schedule Variance Index is1
There is no schedule variance
d. There is no cost variance
24. Which of the following is the most important element of Project
Management Plan that is useful in HR Planning process:
a. Risk Management activities
b. Quality Assurance activities
. Activity Resource requirements
6. Budget Control activities
This of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project costs
Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
b. Organizational Breakdown Structure
¢. Resource Breakdown Structure
9. Responsibility Assignment Matrix
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26. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):
Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS.
‘Component
Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
‘Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
. Defines all people associated with each activity
2
27. Process Analysis is a function of
a. Performance Analysis
b. Quality Metrics
¢. Process Improvement Plan
6. Quality Improvement Plan
28. Root Cause Analysis relates to:
a. Process Analysis
b. Quality Audits
Quality Control Measurements
Performance Measurements
29. Aplanning phase for an engineering component generated 80 Engineering drawings. The QA team
randomly selected 8 drawings for Inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of
2. Inspection
b. statisti i
Flowcharting
4. Control Charting
30, Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the Project documents available to
Andrew lists down all the risks in a Hierarchical fashion. What is this document called?
a. Risk Management Plan.
b.List of risks.
«Monte Carlo diagram.
4. Risk Breakdown Structure
31. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on Probability and impact?
a. Identify Risks
b. Plan Risk responses
¢. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
32. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following
a. Project Manager who created the WBS
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33,
34,
36.
37,
38.
b. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
Project Officer
6. Project Stakeholder
Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project Documents:
a. Define Activities
b. Sequence Activities
c. Estimate Acthity Resources
6. Estimate Activity Durations
Which of the following may generate a milestone list:
a Define Activities
b. Sequence Activities
Estimate Activity Resources
Estimate Activity Durations
Aschedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:
a. Finish-to-Start
b. Start-to-Finish
Start-to-Start
Finish-to-Finish
Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get
clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in
progress,
3. Conduct Procurements
b. Plan Procurements
Control Procurements
Close Procurements
‘The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group
a Planning
b. Closing
Monitoring and control
6. Executing
A__ isa set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the goals
of a project.
a. Project
b. Process
Project management
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. Project cycle
39. Approfessional organization for project management specialists Is the
a. PML
b. AMA
MIS
. IPM
fe. PMBOK
40. The advent of project management has been most profound in
a. Automobile manufacturing
b. Construction
¢. Information technology
d. The US. Department of Defense
fe. Film making
41 Aprofessional organization for project management specialists is the
a. PML
bh. AMA,
c MIS
6. IPM
@. PMBOK
42. Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project?
a. Anestablished objective
b. Aclear beginning and end
c. Complex tasks
4. Only for internal use
fe. Never been done before
43. Which of the following activities is not considered a project?
@ Developing a new software program
b. Designing a space station
Preparing the site for the Olympic Games
d. Production of automobile tires
Developing a new advertising program
44, Fromamong the following activities, which is the best example of a project?
@ Processing insurance claims
b. Producing automobiles
Writing aterm paper
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4. Completing 2 college degree
fe. Allofthese are good examples of projects
45. Which of the following constraints is not typically found in managing projects?
Time
People
Cost
Performance
46. Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?
2. Conceptualizing
Defining
Planning
Executing
Delivering
47. |p which of the following stages are project objectives established, teams formed, and major
responsibilities assigned?
& Conceptualizing
b. Defining
Planning
4. Executing
Delivering
48. In which of the following stages is a major portion of the physical and mental project work
performed?
a. Conceptualizing
Defining
Planning
Executing
Delivering
ep ane
49. In which of the following stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the
creation of forecasts?
@ Conceptualizing
b. Defining
© Planning
d. Executing
Delivering
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50. Which of the following characteristics Is not typical of a project manager?
@ Managing a temporary activity
b. Possesses in-depth technical knowledge
Managing a non-repetitive activity
Manages independently of the formal organization
@. Provides a direct link to the customer
51. Which of the following choices is not one of the driving forces behind the increasing demand for
project management?
a. Compression of the product life cycle
b. Knowledge explosion
. Development of third world and closed economies
d. More emphasis on the product and less on the customer
e. Corporate downsizing
52, Project management is ideally suited for a business environment requiring all of the following
except
a Accountability
b. Flexibility
Innovation
3. Speed
¢. Repeatability
53, The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the responsibility of the:
Functional manager
b. Project manager
Director of project management
. Customer
54, In which of the following project phases is the project schedule developed?
a Conceptual
b. Planning
Implementation
&. Design’
55, Te crash a schedule you should:
Increase the time allowed on those tasks that have float.
b. Try te increase expenditures of time only those tasks that are behind schedule.
Replace those worker that are not performing up to par with the busy.
d. Increase work efforts on those tasks that are on the critical path,
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56. The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:
a. The project scope statement furnishes the basis for:
b. Provides links to the clients functional management groups
Allowing the project to move to the next phase
Away to provide updated information to the accounting department
57. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project scheduling?
Cutting costs and reducing time
b. Decreasing the time required for decision making
Eliminating idle time
4. Developing better trouble shooting procedures.
58. The time necessary to complete a project is referred to as:
a Implementation time
b. Life cycle
Operations cycle
Production cycle
59. The successful project managers spend most of their time:
a Planning with their personnel
b. Planning with the top management
¢: Communication with the project team
4. Studying project results.
60. Resource leveling attempts to:
a. Reduce resource requirements by smoothing out period-to period resource assignments.
b. Ensure that the budget abnormalities are overcome.
cc. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other endeavors.
4. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars can be
appropriates.
61. Aprerequisite of effective time management is:
a. Knowing the dictated project completion date
Having the most advanced software package for project planning, scheduling and control
c. Having a good project WBS which identifies the major project deliverables and tasks, and the
person responsible for each of them
6. Having a well-staffed scheduling department
62. Which type of project cost estimate is the most accurate?
a Preliminary
b. Definitive
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c. Order of magnitude
4. Conceptual
63. To assist in budget control, itis suggested that the estimate accur at the____level of the.
wes
a. Highest
b. Lowest
c. Major work effort
6. Third
64. Cost Varlance (CV) Is which of the following equations?
a. CV=BCWP-BCWS
b. BCWP -AcWP.
sv/Bcws
sy
65. Cost budgeting can be best described by which of the following?
@ The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of probabilities,
uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
b. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over Its life cycle
¢. The process of establishing budgets, standards, and a monitoring system by which the
investment cost of the project can be measured and managed
G. The process of gathering, accumulating, analyzing, reporting, and managing the costs on an on:
going basis
66, Project initiation is the _ phase of the project management life cycle
First
b. Second
© Third
4. Four
67. Project sponsor is a___ or __ that is in charge of driving the project towards directions that will
bring the project to successful realization of expected benefits
a. Person,organization.
b. Peopleproduct
Product,company
4. Company,doctor
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68. What does a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) “break down?”
2. Project deliverables are broken down into tasks and activities,
b. Project costs are broken down into the departments where they are charged.
¢. The structural elements of the project facility and equipment are broken down for inventory and
tracking purposes
4. Projects broke into windows.
69. Why would a project manager choose to change @ Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) from the
standard template provided within the project management methodology?
2. The project manager should not alter the WBS structure.
. The project manager would change the WBS to facilitate the use of new project management
software,
©
1. The project manager should not delete the WBS structure.
70. Whats the principle to be used when deciding how many levels deep a Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS) should be “broken down’ to?
2. Use the WBS breakdown provided with the WBS template in the project management
methodology. That is the correct level for each task,
b ishow {i i : i
managing and reporting on during project meetings.
. Break down all tasks and activities within the WBS to tasks of no more than 8 hours of duration
0 that a task or activity will havea status update every day.
4. Breakdown all windows and schedule in WBS to the template.
Tl. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the
a. Uniform distribution curve
b, Normal distribution curve.
¢. U-shaped distribution curve
4. None of the above
72. Inthe intial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is__
2 Zero
b. High
. Henry Gantt
Jane Gantt
6
Joseph henry
The full form of PERT is
@. Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
b. Program Evaluation and Robot Technique
¢. Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
©. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
The full form of CPM is
2. Critical Path Method
b. Control Path Method
. Critical Plan Management
4. Control Path Management
in bar charts, which color is used to show the actual progress?
Red
Black
Blue
Green
are used to represent activity in a network diagram,
Cire
Squares,
Rectangles
Arrow
‘The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal
a. Pessimistic time estimate
b. Optimistic time estimate
c. Expected time estimate
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6. The most likely time estimate
99. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be
Needed to complete an activity is called as
2. The most likely time estimate
b. Optimistic time estimate
c. Pessimistic time estimate
6. Expected time estimate
100. The aifference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an
activity is known as
@ Free float
b. Independent float
c. Total float
6. Half float
101. Gantt charts are used for
a. Forecasting sales
b, Production schedule
Scheduling and routing
4. Linear programming
102. What isa PMIS?
3. Primary Management Incentive System
b. Property Management Information System
¢. Project Management Information System
. Project Management Incentive System
103. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a. Keeping overall costs within budget
b._ Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
©. Aveiding customer complaints
104. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a. Specification delays
b. Product competition
¢. Testing
6. Staffturnover
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105,
106.
107,
108.
109,
no.
m,
‘The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
Project Management
Manager life cycle
¢. Project Management Life Cycle
6. Process Life cycle
A.66.6% risk Is considered as
very low
b. low
moderate
4. high
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a team
b. project
customers
project manager
Which ofthe following is incorrect activity for the configuration management ofa software system?
a. Internship management
b. Change management
©. Version management
4. System management
Interface coordination is the task of.
a Managing
b. Planning
€. Coordinating
4. Analyzing
work across multiple groups.
The objective of the interface management process is to guarantee the proper functioning of a
system composed of many interfacing
Small system
b. Big system
System
d. sub-systems
Project scheduling is @ mechanism to what tasks need to get done and which
organizational resources will be to complete those tasks in what timeframe.
a. Communicate, allocated
b. Managingallocating
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c. Analyzing Allocataed
4. Monitoringallocated
112. Alinear responsibility chart establishes a clear structure that
what.
2. Allocatedelete
b. Analyzeupaate
c. Assigns, keeps
6. Assign.clear
and ____track of who is doing
113. Which stakeholder as given here is external to an organisation?
a Procurement
b. Data owner
¢. Supplier
6. Service desk
114, Which stakeholder as given here has the minimum interest in the project?
& Antagonist
b. Neutral
Champion
d. Stoic
TIS._ Ian organisation has to send an escalation message about 2 project, which document will you refer?
a. Stakeholder management plan
b. Communications management plan
©. Stakeholder register
6. Risk register
116.4. Which of the following is not an input to manage stakeholder engagement process?
a. Issue log
b. Stakeholder management plan
Organizational process assets
Communications management plan
117, Astakeholder with high power and high urgency is
Dependent
b. Dominant
Demanding
O. Dangerous
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Ta. While auditing stakeholder analysis, auditors look for:
a. Migration channels
b. Job-enrichment channels
. Communication channels
d. Reporting channels
119, There are four quadrants in the power-interest grid. The minimum engagement effort should be
applied to which stakeholders?
a. Stakeholders in the bottom-left quadrant
b. Stakeholders in the top-left quadrant
Stakeholders in the bottom-right quadrant
Stakeholders in the top-right quadrant
120. Astakeholder with a high urgency:
2. Can impose his will on project decisions
b. Is authorized to release the budget
Will naturally be considered as an authorized party by the project team.
4. Will expect an immediate response to his change request
121. Of the following stakeholders, which group's concerns will a company address first on priority?
Demanding stakeholders
b. Dormant stakeholders
c. Dependent stakeholders
©. Discretionary stakeholders
122. Which communication method is best for discussing a project issue with a core stakeholder?
a, Face to face meeting
b. Email
Website news
Meme on business letter head
123. What do you look for while auditing stakeholder analysis?
In channels
Types of communicati
Representation of stakeholders in engagement channels,
¢. Existing stakeholder challenges
6. Collection of stakeholder information
124, What are the five levels of a stakeholder in the stakeholder engagement matrix?
2, Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, leading
b. Ignorant, antagonistic, stoic, supportive, aggressive
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125,
126.
127.
128,
oe)
130,
Dormant, dangerous, neutral, dependent, dominant
4. Oblivious, resilient, impartial, loyal, leading
Which of the following is the key input in the control stakeholder engagement process?
2. Work performance data
b. Work breakciown structure
Risk management plan
d. Change log
Asenior manager who owns and secures the finance of the project is known as:
2. Project sponsor
b. Project auditor
. Project manager
4. Government body
Which of the following components is not part of the project scope baseline?
2, Scope management plan
b. Scope statement
wes,
WBSdictionary
You want to fing out howa project deliverable will fulfill a particular requirement. Which field should
you look up in the RTM?
a. WES
b ID
AssociatelD
Project objectives
parameter refer to the actual project work campleted till date
a. Planned Value
b. Earned Value
Actual Cost
. Schedule Variance
‘The Requirement Treceability Matrix (RTM) is used to, each requirement over the project life
cycle from the project initiation to testing,
a trace
b. define
manage
6. detect
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3. process must be enforced for controlling the scope changes.
a Scope validation
b. Scope measurement
Scope verification
6. Scope mitigation
182, The act of spontaneously increasing the quality level of a project deliverable more than the initially
agreed level is called
2. gold-plating
b. quality scope change
silver-plating
initial quality revision
133, What do you need to measure the completion of project scope?
@ Project management plan
b. Scope management pian
¢. WBS and WBS dictionary
4d. Business case
134, Which of the following is not an input to control the scope process?
3. Project charter
b. Project management plan
Requirements documentation
6. Requirements traceability matrix
135. 23, Work performance information is an output of which of the following processes?
@. Define scope process
b. Create scope process
©. Validate scope process
6. Control scope process
136. To control project scope, what should the project manager use?
Inspection
b. Expert judgment
Variance analysis
4. Delphi analysis
BT. After the second release of project deliverables, some clients and stakeholders complain that certain
features of the deliverables do net provide any business value, How will you confirm te your
customers that the features of the deliverables are directly related to their specifically expressed
requirements?
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@ Requirements documentation
b. Requirements traceability matrix
c. Project scope statement
4d. Scope management plan
188. Which of the following is not an outout of the control scope process?
‘&. Work performance information
b. Project decuments update
¢. Accepted deliverables
6. Change requests
139. f the CPI is greater than J, then the project is stated to be:
@ Behind schedule
b. Ahead of schedule
c. Over-pudget
6. Under-budget
140. Which parameters do you use to calculate SPI?
a. Earned value and actual cost
b. Earned value and planned value
. Schedule variance and actual cost
6. Actual cost only
141. Whien technique is used to evaluate the difference between an estimated amount and the actual
amount?
a. Variance analysis
b. Activity-based costing
c. Master budgeting
4. Cost performance index
142. Which of the following may cause a variance in project performance?
@ Maintained project scope
b. Market factors
cc. Adequate resources
6. Accurate estimates
143. The first part of project communication is
a, to plan communication management
b. toverify the depth of necessity of communication management
. principles and rules of communication management
4. people required to develop the communication plan,
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144, Which of the below statements Is true about project communication?
Develops and maintains inconsistency between reality and perception,
Cannot include jargons, if every stakeholder understands them.
Itis an alternative to status meetings.
4. itis an amalgam of individual languages related to multi-disciplines
145. You are handling a complex project that involves multiple stakeholders. You want that anyone
reading your PCM plan is able to understand clearly what needs to be done in what situation. Which
element below will help you in that?
2, Communication flowchart
b. Communication channel
‘Communication technology
4. Project directory
146. The items that are not in the meeting agenda, but those that merit further discussion later are
placed in
a parking area
b. parking lot
cc. TBD items
6. TBD lot
147. If you are handling a team of 23 people, then how many communication channels should you
provide for the project?
awe
b. 265
© 20
4. 253
148. A requirement about the project has changed its scope. You want to knaw inputs from your team
members on now you can mest the bigger scope in the same deadline. You are particularly
interested in knowing the viewpoints of fresh members of your team, Which communication tool
should you use?
a Email
b. Discussion board
Chat tool
6. Project board
149. Which ef the following is an input to the communication control process?
Project management update plans
b._ Change requests
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¢. Project communication
d. Work performance information
150. What can be a challenge in project communication?
Your client wants the project to be delivered in time, and your vendor is interested in
completing his part earlier so that he can work on another project
b. Your project sponser and you have the same idea about the project communication goals.
¢. Some specialists that are engaged in troubleshooting are based in the East Coast time zone,
USA, whereas the rest of the time is working in Delhi,
6. You area soft-spoken, but a precise and empathetic communicator.
151. You have taken over a new project. You want to understand the meeting reporting format and
timelines, and who should be invited in which meeting. From which document will you get this,
information?
a Stakeholder register
b. Meeting management plan
Stakeholder management plan
4. Communication management plan
152, 40. Which among the following contains information regarding means & frequency of
communication to the parties both inside and outside the project?
2. Communication management approach
b. Stakeholder register
Meeting management olan
None of these
153. You are having a problem with a team member to get the work done on time. How should you
address this problem initially?
a, Informal chat in person
b. Formal warning in person
Informal chat message written
4. Formal email sent
154, To improve PCM, you must do all the following except:
3. Use outside experts to provide inputs on communication management
. Increase communication tools as the size of the time increases
Use templates to prepare formal communication documents
4. stakeholders
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155. Your can be a challenge In communicating effectively to your project team. Chose
the correct answer out of the following options:
a. Role
b. Style
c. Stakeholder
4. Project
156. Which of the following is an output of communication control?
2. Information management system
b. Change request
Project communication
Work performance data
157. You have taken over a new project and want to find about the regular progress of the project done
s0 far. Which among the following communication tolls should you use?
a. Weekly status reports
b. Emails
Discussion board
4. Document depository
158, Technical design meetings should ideally be conducted:
2. In weekly conference call
b. Face-to-face once ina month
©. Video calls daily
4. Face:tonface as required
159, 47. Their role is to accept the final deliverable of the project. Therefore, they must be regularly
consulted during prototype review, design approval, implementation, and acceptance of final
deliverable stages. Whose role has been discussed here?
3 Customer
b. Project manager
Project sponsor
6. Steering committee
160. Which is the last step of the project communication process?
a. Planning communication management
b. Tracking communication
Managing communication
._Directing communication
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161. In controlling project costs, managers compare the actual costs of work performed against which
‘among the following options?
a. Project management plan
b. Scope baseline
¢. Cost baseline
4. Stakeholder management plan
162. Which of the following processes belongs to the monitoring and controlling process
group?
2. Control costs
b. Plan cost management
Estimate costs
4. Develop budget
163. What is (%6 completed work) « (Budget at completion}?
2. Planned value
b. Earned value
Actual cost
a
Cost variance
164, All the following are outputs of the cost control process except:
2. Work performance data
b. Work performance information
Cost forecasts
Change requests
165. Which of the following metric represents the cost forecasts?
a BAC
b. SPI
aw
4. EAC
166. The main parameters of the EVM technique are all of the following except:
a. Quality value
b. Earned value
Planned value
4. Actual cost
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167. Areason for performing the control costs process in your project isto:
Find funding sources
b. Increase consumption
Allow budget overrun
4. Prevent fraud
168. What input is used in the control costs process? Choose the correct option.
2. Schedule baseline
b. Scope baseline
¢. Work performance data
4. Schedule management olen
169. Which of the following methods is not used for controlling project costs?
a. Reserve analysis
'b. Iteration burn down chart
Performance reviews
Project Management Software
170. All of the following cost management processes belang to the planning process group except:
2, Control cost
b. Determine budget
Estimate costs
Plan cost management
17. Which among the following Is an output from the plan cost management process and used
as an input of the control costs process?
a. Cost basel
e
b. Project funding requirements
Work performance data
4. Cost management plan
172. Ifthe CPI of a project is 0, then the project is:
a. Tothe budget
b. Under the budget
Over the budget
4. Itcannot be 0
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173. What EVM parameter from the option will complete the following equation? ETC = EAC
a PV
b. Ac
eV
Tel
174, The budget of a |-year project is $10,000. After 6 months, $4,000 is spent on the project, but 50% of
the work is completed, What is the value earned on the work completed so far?
a $10,000
b. $4000
¢. $2000
6. $1800
175, Ifthe CV of the project is more than 0, then the project is _. Choose the correct option
@ tothe budget
b. under the budget
. over the budget
4. Itcannot be 0
176, Which among the following is the future performance of the project that a manger must
meet to complete the project within the approved budget?
a CPL
b PV
© TPCl
0
177. The TCP indicates which of the following?
a. The future performance of the project
b. The past performance of the project
‘The current performance of the project
No relation with the project performance
178. |f the TCPI of a project is 125, then what does it mean?
You must consider recalculating the TCPl
b. You can continue with the same cost performance,
c. You are in a comfortable position with respect to the project cost performance.
d. You must improve the cost performance,
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179. Which among the following document Is not updated as a result of the control costs process?
a. Assumption log
b. Cost management plan
Cost baseline
Change request
180, Budget at Completion - Estimate at Completion = ? Tick the correct option.
a. Estimate to Complete
b. Variance at Completion
¢. TCPI based on BAC
4. TCPI based on EAC
181. Which among the following is the smallest unit of work to which a project activity is decomposed?
@ Cost management plan
b. Cost baseline
c. Work packages
4d. Change request:
182. You are preparing for a major exam. To plan for the risk of falling ill during exam preparation,
you take vaccination for the most contagious diseases and avold eating from outside. However,
you can still be exposed to other less common diseases. What is this risk called?
a. Primary risk
b. Unknown risk
¢. Residual risk
6. Secondary risk
183. A vaccine that you have taken causes a side effect of fatigue. You have to consult your doctor to
remove that, What is this risk called?
a. Known tisk
b. Secondary risk
Residual risk
4, Primary tisk
184, All of the following are inputs of the risk monitoring process, except:
a Risk management pian
b. Risk register
c. Issue log
©. Enterprise environmental factors
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185. Which method is used for risk monitoring?
a. Risk review meetings
b. SWOTanalysis
Delphi technique
Checklist analysis
186, All of the following inputs are needed to perform risk control. However, which input is mandatory as
without it the process cannot happen at all?
a. Project management plan
b. Work performance data
c. Work performance data
4. Risk register
187. If managers are unable to handle a threat on their own, then they:
a Avoidit
b. Accept it
. Escalate it
6. Enhance it
188, If an opportunity is too important to miss, managers:
a. Exploit it
b. Escalate it
c. Shareit
6. Accept it
189. There is a chance that one of your team members may go on leave during the peak time of your
project. To manage this risk, you plan to bring in another identified personnel in your project. What
type of risk is this?
a. Known tisk
b. Unknown risk
. Residual risk
6. Secondary risk
190. Managers are allowed to spend a maximum of $10,000 to manage risks in project. Anything more
than that is not acceptable. This budget is called:
a Estimated cost
b. Cost overruns
Contingency reserve
6. Planned value
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191. Movement of clouds can be a for rainfall
Risk threshold
Risk trigger
Residual risk
eo ge
Risk tolerance
192. You are constructing @ bullding. For security purpose, you have installed an electrical wire at
the top of the boundary wall. However, if someone accidentally touches the electrical wire, then
‘that person will get an electric shock. This is an example of
Known risk
b. Unidentified risk
¢. Secondary risk
6. Residual risk
193. You have planned for a critical meeting during the monsoon season in Mumbai. However, due
to heavy rainfall, you end up meeting remotely. This is an example of
@ Residual risk
b. Secondary risk
New risk
‘Actual risk
194, Which of the following is an output of monitoring risk process?
2. Stakeholder management plan
b. Work performance data
©. Work performance information
4. Work performance reports
195. Which project document must you always update after implementing a risk response to control the
risk?
a. Assumptions log
b. Risk register
Issues log
4. Work performance report
196. All the following methods are used for monitoring risks except:
a. Reserve analysis
b. Technical performance analysis
cc. Risk audits
d. Riskreassessment
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197. Yousee an opportunity in your project that is too good te miss. You leave no stone unturned to make
sure that it does happen. Here, you are:
a Accepting the opportunity
b. Mitigating the opportunity
¢. Exploiting the opportunity
. Enhancing the opportunity
198, Astrategic alliance with another company to capture a new mark
a. Enhance
b. Exploit
Escalate
Is which type of risk response?
Accept
199. If managers want to reduce the severity of a negative risk if it occurs, then which response should
they choose?
a. Accept
b. Avoid
Mitigate
4. Share
200. Which method ensures the quality of the risk management process?
a. Risk audit
b. Risk ressessment
c. Trend analysis
4. Variance analysis
201. Which among the following requires a set of activities networked in an order and almed towards
accomplishing the goals of a project?
a. Project
b. Process
Project management
d. Project cycle
202. The process of initiating a technology comes under which one?
@ Process
b. Project,
©. Scope
6. Execution
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203. The major issue faced by project management is
a. to manage the constraints of time
b, to achieve all the project objectives
cto produce a unique product
, to bring about a beneficial change
204, The minutes of the meeting help
action plan for the project. Choose the correct option
a Plan
b. Manage
©. Summarise
d. Implement
on the accountability and identify the follow-up
205. Which of the following methods consists of the application of knowledge, skills, tools and
techniques to project activities to achieve project requirements?
a Planning
b. Time management
¢. Project management
4d. Marketing management
208. How should @ project manager ensure clear boundaries for project completion?
a Scope verification
b. Risk management plan
. Scope definition
d. Completing the scope statement
207. How can the project manager ensure that the total work in the project is included?
Create a risk management plan
Create a contingency pian
Create a Work Breakdown Structure
Create a scope statement
208. The main goal of project delivery management is to complete the project, Choose
the correct option.
2. with the data provided
b. ontime
with risk management plan
4. for the project delivery
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209. The success of the project is mainly dependent on the Who are working to execute
it. Which among the following is correct?
2. managers
b, stakeholders
&. clients
4. people
210. The validity of assessing the benefits is using the method of which would comply
with the benefits with parameters. Which among the following is correct?
a. Cost benefit analysis
b, SMART test
c. Brainstorming
6. Mapping
211. In which of the following are the benefits an important aspect of the initiation phase of the project.
life cycle?
a. Identifying
b. Implementing
Utilising
4d. Mapping
212. Who is responsible for the process of implementing the changes and realisation of benefits?
Choose the correct option,
@ Sponsor
b. Stakeholder
cc. Client
4. Project manager
213. Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except:
Risk Monitoring and Control
Risk Identification
Risk Avoidance
Risk Response Planning
Risk Management Planning
214. Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about
contingency reserves is false?
Accontingeney reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which
may be planned for only In part.
b. Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns
© Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns
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6. Contingeney reserves are normally included in the project's cast and schedule baselines
21S. Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification Process?
a. Expected monetary value
b. Contingency planning
Decision Trees
Statistical sums
Allof the above are tools and techniques of Risk Quantification
216. Which of the following is true about pure risk?
‘a. The risk can be deflected or transferred to another party through a contract or insurance policy
b. Pure risks Involve the chance of both a profit and a loss.
c. No opportunities are associated with pure risk, only losses
4. aande
e aandb
217. Acontingency plan is
‘Aworkaround
A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part
aande
aandb
218. The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called:
@. favorable risk
b. opportunity risk
pure risk
d. business risk
219. Arisk response which involves eliminating 2 threat is called:
a. Mitigation
b. Deflection
¢. Avoidance
@. Transfer
e bandd
220. Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response
categories?
a. Mitigation
b. Acceptance
Avoidance
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6. Analysis
22). When should risk identification be performed? (select best answer)
During Concept Phase
b. During Development Phase
During Implementation Phase
4. Risk identification should be performed on a regular basis throughout the project
222. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end
b. The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start
c. Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the
risk event value
4. Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk
223. Acontingency plan is executed when:
a. Ariskis identified
b. Anidentified risk occurs:
‘When a workaround is needed
All of the above
e bande
224. Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
3. Known unknowns
b. Unknown unknowns
business risks
pure risks
225. Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project.
durations more accurately?
a CPM
b. PERT
¢. Schedule simulation
. Path convergence method
226. When should a risk be avoided?
‘When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact
b. When the risk event is unacceptable -- generally one with a very high probability of
eccurrence and high impact
c. When it can be transterred by purchasing insurance
6. Arisk event can never be avoided
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227. Risk management Is responsibility of the:
Customer
b. Investor
© Developer
d. Project team
Production team
228. The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one Is not related to the eccurrence of
the other is called:
event phenomenon
b. Independent probability
¢. statistical independence
4. statistical probability
229, The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the:
Risk Management Plan
wes
Scope Statement
Project Charter
Contingeney Plan
poo ge
230. Risks are accepted when:
a You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur
b. You accept the consequences of the risk
You transfer the risk to another party
9. You reduce the probability of the risk event occurring
@ aandb
231. An example of risk mitigation is:
Using proven technology in the development of 2 product to lessen the probability that the
product will not work
Purchasing insurance
Eliminating the cause of ¢ risk
d. Accepting a lower profit if costs overrun
e aandb
b.
232. Aprocess that is not part of Project Risk Management is
a. Identification
b. Solicitation
¢. Qualitative and Quentitative Analysis
d._ Response Development
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@. Monitoring and Control
233. A.response to negative risk event Is known as a:
a Work item
b. Work package
Workaround
6. Work breakdown structure
234, Who Is responsible for risk identification, risk quantification, risk response development, risk
response control?
a. Project Communications Management
b. Project Human Resource Management
¢. Project Procurement Management
. Project Risk Management
. None of the above
235. RE represents what?
Risk Expense
b. Related Expense
¢. Risk Exposure
4. Risk Evaluation
236. When summing the probability distributions if the distributions are skewed to the __ the
project mean will always be significantly higher than the sum of the most likely estimates.
a Right
b. Left
c. Middle
6. Not skewed
237. By using Project Risk Management techniques project managers can develap strategies that do all
but which of the following:
a. Significantly reduce project risks
b. Eliminate project risks
Provide a rational basis for better decision making
6. Identifying risks, their impact{s), and any appropriate responses
238, Which phase of the project life cycle typically has the highest uncertainty and risk assoctated with
it?
3. Concept
b. Development
©. Execution
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4. Conclusion
239. Risks classified as unknown (Le, those which cannot be identified or evaluated):
2 Should be deflected to the contracting officer
b. Should be handled via contingency allowances
Should be ignored since they cannot be identified
6. Should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Project Risk Assessment
240. Risks can be divided into two basic types: business risk and pure (or insurable risk), Of the following,
which one(s) fall(s) under business risk?
a. Liability Loss
b. Direct property loss
¢. Profit loss
4. Personnel-related loss
241. Deflection involves the transfer of risk by such means as:
@. Contracting out to another party
b. Developing schedule alternatives
Developing discrete organizational functions under the project manager to handle risk events
Disaster planning and responses
242. Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following:
2. Developing system standards (policies, procedures, responsibility standards)
b. Obtaining insurance against loss
2 ificati ject ri
. Performing contingent pianning
@. Developing planning alternatives
243. Risk event probability is determined as:
a. The total number of possible events divided inte the expectation or frequency of the risk
event
b. The number of times the risk event may occur
‘The fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event
‘The total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event
244, In performing an impact analysis the most effective tool to ensure all risks are identified on large
projects is the:
a. Work breakdown structure
b. Milestone review and schedule technique
Cost / schedule Control system
Planning programming budget system
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245. During which phase of the project life cycle is the amount at stake lowest?
a. Concept
b. Development
Execution
Conelusion
246. The single point standard deviations are 3, 5, 10, and 3 for the critical path. What is the standara
Geviation for the entire path?
aa
b. 2
1s
55
€. impossible to determine without optimistic and pessimistic estimates
247. Mitigating risk could! involve
a, identifying risks, obtaining insurance and developing alternatives.
b. contracting and quality assurance
developing standards, buying insurance, and planning for contingencies and alternatives
re-scoping the project and reassessing requirements
248. Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks except possibly
those due to
a. producibilty
reliability
affordability
acceptability
operability
eaos
249. Risk management is defined as the art and science of _____risk factors throughout the life cycle
of a project.
researching, reviewing, and acting on
identifying, analyzing, and responding to
reviewing, monitoring, and managing
identifying, reviewing, and avoiding
analyzing, changing, and suppressing
poeopge
250. Project risk Is defined as the cumulative effect of the chances of that will adversely affect
project objectives.
a. likely events
b. complex activities
complex schedules
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d. uncertain occurrences
@ new work
251, The three factors that characterize project risk are.
a. severity of impact, duration of impact, and cost of impact
b. Identification, type of risk category, and probability of impact
¢. risk event, risk probability, and the amount at stake
6. occurrence, frequency, and cost
. cost, schedule, and quality
252. Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the of the project.
a manager
b. detriment
schedule
budget
fe length
253. In the risk management context, mitigation and deflection are moth means of the risk to
the objectives.
@ Improving; client's
b. increasing: project's
cc. decreasing; sponsor's
4d. decreasing: project's
. decreasing; corporation's
254, Contingency planning is a means to risks to the project through a formal process and
provide the resources to meet the risk events,
a. address
classify
assign
resolve
eliminate
255. Asa tester which of the following will come under product risk if you are testing an e-commerce
website?
a. Shortage of testers
b. Many changes in SRS that caused changes in test cases
¢. Delayin fixing defects by development team
4. Failure to transfer a user to secure gateway while paying
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256, What is associated with product risk?
Control of test item
b. Negative consequences
Non-availability of test environment
d. Test object
257. After deployment of a system, a software is incorrectly performing one of its major functionality.
Who Is going to determine how badly it will hamper the organization?
(QA personnel
b. Developer
. Technical people
d. Business analyst
258. What is risk?
a. Negative consequence that could occur
b. Negative consequence that will occur
c. Negative consequence that must occur
6. Negative consequence that shall occur
259, What is the process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning called?
a Resource allocation
b. Resource smoothing
Resource levelling
4. Updating
260. In resources levelling
Total duration of project is reduced
b. Total duration of project is increased
¢. Uniform demand of resources is achieved
4. Cost of project is controlled
261. The critical path method has a few inherent drawbacks:
Unlimited Resources
Float Misuse
Activity Completion Gain/Loss
. Student syndrome
262. Critical chain management has three buffers, These buffers are:
a. Project Buffer, Feeding Buffer, Resource Buffer
b. Project Buffer, Function Buffer, Resource Buffer
. Problem Buffer, Feeding Buffer, Random Buffer
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6. Project Buffer, Feeding Buffer, Random Buffer
263. Which of the option is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?
@ Deadlines exist.
b. Independent activities.
Too many workers may be required
Costly delay
264, The particular task performance in CPM is known
a. Dummy
b. Event
c. Activity
6. Contract
265, The earliest start time rule
‘a. Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor.
b. Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor.
c. Directs when a project can start.
4. Regulates when a project must begin,
266. The critical path
Isa path that operates from the starting node to the end node
Isa mixture of all paths.
b.
¢. Isthe longest path
4. Isthe shortest path
267. Which of the following are items to consider during stakeholder management
2. Over deliver on expectations
b. Communicate the same to every stakeholder
¢. Identify the needs of all stakeholders
4. Avoid challenging stakeholders
268. An important input to planning stakeholder management is:
2. The risk management plan
b. The stakeholder register